Download Test Bank for the Specialty Animal contest

Test Bank for the Veterinary Science Contest
1) When trying to remove a frightened cat from a kennel, which body posture are you least likely to see?
A) Tail carried upright
C) Ears flattened against head
B) Paws elevated
D) Crouched position
Answer: A
2) Castration of a male dog will help to eliminate which type of aggressive behavior?
A) Territorial aggression
B) Fear-induced aggression
C) Predatory aggression
D) Redirected aggression
Answer: A
3) The most common encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is:
A) Canine dominance-aggression biting
B) Equine dominance-aggression biting
C) Female rabbit territorial-aggression biting
D) Canine fear biting
Answer: D
4) Which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapes its enclosure?
A) Bird
B) Dog
C) Horse
D) Cat
Answer: D
5) Horses display aggression by:
A) Biting
B) Head butting
C) Nickering
D) Snorting
Answer: A
6) Which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday?
A) Pain-induced aggression
B) Predatory aggression
C) Territorial aggression
D) Dominance aggression
Answer: B
7) The process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own
is called:
A) Sensitization
C) Integration
B) Socialization
D) Anthropomorphism
Answer: B
8) An animal that growls, hisses, bares teeth, air-snaps, and/or lunges is exhibiting______ behavior.
A) Dominant
C) Threating
B) Submissive
D) Aggressive
Answer: C
and other species
9) Most cats prefer to be petted:
A) On the head
B) On their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears
C) On the belly
D) On the back
Answer: B
10) Reinforcement or punishment of emotionally induced behavior is referred to as________ conditioning.
A) Positive
C) Operant
B) Negative
D) Counter
Answer: C
11) The study of animal behavior is called:
A) Homotoxicology
C) Mircobiology
B) Ethology
D) Physiology
Answer: B
12) Agonistic behavior deals with;
A) Conflict
C) Fear-induced
B) Territorial
D) Dominance
Answer: A
13) Predatory aggression deals with;
A) Intermale conflict
C) Pain-induced
B) Suckling female
D) Chasing and killing prey
Answer: D
14) Following a seizure which sign is not a common behavior for an animal:
A) Animal appears blind
C) Animal is disoriented
B) Animal cannot control bowels
D) Elevated body temperature
Answer: B
15)
Ears raised, mouth opened in a relaxed grin, lowered front half of body in a “bowing” posture, and tail wagging is
considered to be which type of canine visual communication?
A) Aggressive
B) Play
Answer: B
C) Submission
D) Relaxed
16) The feline’s first line of defense is:
A) Its teeth
C) Its tail
B) Its claws
D) Its hind legs
Answer: B
17) A good rule to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is:
A) Apply the maximum amount of restraint possible to ensure the safety of all involved.
B) Apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe.
C) Always supply the same amount of restraint: that which is usually tolerated by a member of species being handled.
D) Never use ropes when restraining animals
Answer: B
18) The most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the:
A) Dairy Bull
C) Thoroughbred stallion
B) Adult male Rottweiler
D) Adult female python
Answer: A
19) The best way to approach a horse is:
A) Quickly and directly from the front
B) Slowly and directly from the front
Answer D
C) Quickly and from the front left side
D) Slowly and from the front left side
20) The first step to take when attempting to handle a large, aggressive dog is:
A) Put on heavy leather gloves and grab the scruff of the neck
B) Place a muzzle
C) Catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot
D) Throw a towel over the dog’s head
Answer: C
21) If a dog is too large for you to lift onto the examination table by yourself, you should:
A) Lift him like you would a medium-sized dog
B) Get help so two of you can lift him
C) Try to get him to jump up on the table
D) Lift his front quarters onto the table then lift hindquarters to meet his front quarter
Answer B
22) You are restraining a Basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. When the person performing the
injection has placed the
needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, “Okay”. He is
most likely asking you to:
A) Let go of the dog’s foreleg
B) Lift the thumb that is occluding the vein
C) Talk softly to the dog
D) Gently push down on the dog to encourage him to lie down
Answer: B
23) One of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is:
A) Gently grasp both front legs
B) Place one hand over its back and one hand under its belly
C) Grasp the scruff of the neck
D) Talk softly to the cat
Answer: C
24) Which of these is not a warning sign from a cat?
A) Hissing
B) Ears lowered
C) Swiping at you with a paw
D) Looking the other way
Answer: D
25) As a restraint tool, a towel is used to;
A) Wrap up an angry cat
B) Let the cat curl up and go to sleep
Answer: A
C) Let the cat hide under
D) Protect you from bites and scratches
26) The types of animal restraint are:
A) Physical, psychological, and hypnotic
B) Traumatic, chemical, and physical
C) Chemical, hypnotic, and psychological
D) Chemical, psychological, and physical
Answer: D
27)
28)
A thorough nutritional assessment consists of a patient’s history and a physical examination including body weight, BCS
and hydration status. What does BCS stand for:
A) Bovine Condition Sessions
C) Bowel Condition System
B) Body Condition Scoring
D) Brand Clinic Survival
Answer: B
Type of scissors with long handles used for cutting delicate tissue are;
A) Littauer
C) Mayo
B) Metzenbaum
D) Lister
Answer: B
29) Forceps that are 20 cm (9 inches) with longitudinal grooves are:
A) Rochester-Pean
C) Rochester- Carmalt
B) Kelly
D) Crile
Answer: C
30) A needle holder combined with scissor is called
A) Mathieu
C) Mayo-Hegar
B) Rochester-Pean
D) Olsen-Hegar
Answer: D
31) Self-retaining tissue forceps with multiple fine intermeshing teeth at the tips are called:
A) Allis
C) Babcock
B) Adson
D) Brown-Adson
Answer: A
32) When opening a double-wrapped gown pack, non-scrubbed surgical personnel may touch the;
A) Autoclave tape
C) Towel
B) Indicator
D) Gown
Answer: A
33) Which of the following is not a type of surgical scissor?
A) Mayo
C) Iris
B) Metzenbaum
D) Lembert
Answer: D
34) Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold edges of the incision open?
A) Rat tooth
B) Brown-Adson
C) Crile
D) Allis tissue
Answer: C
35) Metzenbaum scissors are only used for;
A) Cutting suture
C) Ophthalmic surgery
B) Cutting paper drapes
D) Cutting tissue
Answer: D
36) A snook hook is typically used during
A) A castration
C) A ovariohysterctomy
B) A diaphragmatic hernia repair D) Declawing
Answer: C
37) Emasculators are used
A) In large animal castrations
B) During enucleations in large dogs
Answer: A
C) During surgical ovariectomies in heifers and mares
D) To perform ovariohysterectomy
38) Which of the following separates blood?
A) Autoclave
C) Carmalt
B) Centrifuge
D) J tube
Answer: B
39) The rumen magnet is used in which of the following?
A) Dog
C) Cow
B) Horse
D) B & C
Answer: C
40) Which of the following tool is used to control a horse?
A) Chain twitch
C) Humane twitch
B) Halter
D) All of the above
Answer: D
41) Which is not used to give shots:
A) Bulb syringe
C) Leur lock syringe
B) Slip tip syringe
D) Automatic syringe
Answer: A
42) Which statement is true regarding the use of a trocar:
A) Trocar is driven through the abdomen into the abomasum of a cow’s stomach
B) Trocar is a large, sharp probe with a metal sleeve around it and is never plastic
C) Once in the Rumen of the animal the probe is removed, leaving the metal sleeve in to drain gas
D) None of the above are true statements
ANSWER: C
43) Which of the following a common method of pill administration for a dog or cat?
A) Pill Push Method
C) Food Method
B) Pill Crushed Method
D) All are recognized methods of pill administration
ANSWER: D
44) To deliver a copper bolus to an animal, which of the following would be used?
A) Stomach pump
B) Dosing syringe
ANSWER: C
C) Balling Gun
D) Bulb syringe
45) When spaying a cat, which instrument would not be used?
A) Scalpel handle
C) Needle holder
B) Standard splint
D) Scalpel blade
ANSWER: B
46) Which instrument is best for determining if a canine has a scratched cornea?
A) Opthalmoscope
C) Otoscope
B) Stethoscope
D) Trocar
Answer: A
47) Which tool simultaneously severs the spermatic cord in order to prevent hemorrhage?
A) Elastrator
B) Adson tissue forceps
B) Babcock tissue forceps
D) Emasculator
ANSWER: D
48) The following tool aids in the illumination and magnification of the ear:
A) Endoscope
C) Opthalmoscope
B) Stethoscope
D) Otoscope
ANSWER: D
49) Which dehorner cauterizes as it removes the horn?
A) Barnes
C) Electric
B) Tube
D) Allis
ANSWER: C
50) Only the top jaw moves on which forcept?
A) Alligator
C) Crile
B) Kelly
D) Brown-Adson
ANSWER: A
51) Which syringe is most efficient for vaccinating large numbers of animals because of its ability to be adjusted and set to the
same dosage?
A) Bulb
C) Drench
B) Automatic
D) Paste gun
ANSWER: B
52) Which is not a type of brush?
A) Dandy
C) Slicker
B) Scotch
D) Pin
ANSWER: B
53) Which is not a form of restraint or control of an animal?
A) Elizabethan collar
C) Cat bag
B) Muzzle
D) Cannula
ANSWER: D
54) Which implement applies a permanent form of identifications?
A) Identification Tag applicator C) Tattooing Instruments
B) Ear tag pliers
D) None of the above
ANSWER: C
55) Which is used to cover the animal except the area that is surgically worked on:
A) Surgical gown
C) Surgical tray
B) Surgical masks
D) Surgical drapes
ANSWER: D
56) Which is not an instrument that is used on a horse:
A) Dental float
C) Fingertip toothbrush
B) Chain Twitch
D) Gag mouth speculum
ANSWER: C
57) Which is not a tool that removes dead hair?
A) Flea comb
C) Shedding blade
B) Curry comb
D) Scotch comb
ANSWER: A
58) The best suited tool to pull Foxtails out of a dogs ear:
A) Rat tooth Forceps
C) Adson Tissue Forceps
B) Allis Tissue Forceps D) Alligator Forceps
ANSWER: D
59) The temperature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is:
A) 110 degree C
C) 170 degree C
B) 121 degree C
D) 240 degree C
ANSWER: B
60) The instrument specifically used for collecting a fecal sample directly from the animal’s
rectum is a:
A) Fecal extractor
C) Fecal Spoon
B) Fecalyzers
D) Fecal loop
ANSWER: D
61) What does a change in color in autoclave tape indicate?
A) The surgical instruments in the pack have been adequate sterilized
B) During the autoclaving process, steam has reached the tape
C) Adequate temperature and pressures have been achieved
D) The pack has been exposed to adequate pressures
ANSWER: B
62) What type of scissors is best for removing suture material?
A) Bandage
C) Mayo dissecting
B) Littauer
D) Lister bandage
ANSWER: B
63) What is the tool that is not used to trim the hooves of an animal?
A) Hoof trimmer
C) Hoof rasp
B) Hoof nippers
D) Hoof knife
ANSWER: C
64) The stethoscope is used to listen to the digestive organs.
A) True
B) False
ANSWER: A
65) Endotracheal tubes are used to open the air way of an animal.
A) True
B) False
ANSWER: A
66) Which tool can be used to control arterial blood flow?
A) Kelly forceps
C) Gavage needle
B) Suture materials
D) Tourniquet
ANSWER: D
67) Radiology P.P.E’s are used when using the Autoclave.
A) True
B) False
ANSWER: B
68) The weight tape is used to figure the carcass weight of an animal.
A) True
B) False
ANSWER: B
69) Obstetrical chain and handle assists in the birthing process.
A) True
B) False
ANSWER: B
70) Which of the following cannot be used to prevent the handler from being bite?
A) Basket Muzzle
C) Commerical muzzle
B) Elizabethan collar
D) Cat bag
ANSWER: D
71) A cat bag completely encloses the body of the cat.
A) True
B) False
ANSWER: A
72) The dental floats are used to file down the teeth of a horse.
A) True
B) False
ANSWER: A
73) Which tool would you used to remove plaque from the teeth.
A) Dental scaler
C) Dental float
B) Dental retractor
D) Dental radiography
ANSWER: A
74) The gag mouth speculum would be used to open the mouth to work on the teeth.
A) True
B) False
ANSWER: A
75) What machine is used to deliver inhalant anesthetics and oxygen.
A) Autoclave
C) Centrifuge
B) Gravity feeder/ J tube
D) Anesthetic machine
ANSWER: D
76) This tool is used to attach drapes to the patient:
A) Backhaus towel clamp
C) Halstead mosquito hemostatic
B) Kelly forceps
D) Tourniquet
ANSWER: A
77) This tool is used to help place an endotracheal tube:
A) Gag mouth speculum
C) Ambubag
B) Laryngoscope
D) Cannula
ANSWER: B
78) This tool provides artificial ventilation:
A) Autoclave
C) Ambubag
B) Cat bag
D) Laryngoscope
ANSWER: C
79) What system is anatomically composed of the brain and spinal cord?
A) Central nervous system
C) Parasympathetic nervous system
B) Peripheral nervous system
D) Sympathetic nervous system
Answer: A
80) The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is
A) Estrogen
C) Progesterone
B) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
Answer: A
81) Where are striated muscles located?
A) Stomach wall and the uterus
B) Urinary bladder and intestine
C) Ciliary body of the eye
D) Heart and skeletal muscle
Answer: D
82) The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber?
A) Left atrium
C) Right atrium
B) Left ventricle
D) Right ventricle
Answer: C
83) Smooth muscles can be found in the:
A) Heart
C) Stomach and reproductive tract
B) Pelvic limb
D) Diaphragm
Answer: C
84) Giving birth is known as:
A) Estrous
B) Parturition
Answer: B
C) Lactation
D) Gestation
85) A capillary refill time of 2 seconds would suggest:
A) Shock
C) A healthy animal
B) Anemia
D) Dehydration
Answer: C
86) In the avian species the ventral wall of the esophagus is greatly expanded to form the:
A) Proventriculus
C) Gizzard
B) Crop
D) Duodenum
Answer: B
87) The portion of the cardiac muscle that separates the right and left ventricles is called the:
A) Sternum
C) Coronary sinus
B) Septum
D) Myometrium
Answer: B
88) Which of these is not a division of the small intestine?
A) Duodenum
C) Ileum
B) Ilium
D) Jejunum
Answer: B
89) The time period from the beginning of one cycle to the beginning of the next is called the
A) Estrous cycle
C) testosterone cycle
B) Estrus cycle
D) Mating cycle
Answer: A
90) The first cervical vertebrae, C1, is referred to as the:
A) Axis
C) Atlas
B) Arch
D) Auricle
Answer: C
91) The cat has how many cervical vertebrae?
A) 13
C) 3
B) 10
D) 7
Answer: D
92) The breastbone is referred to as the:
A) Septum
C) Sternum
B) Hyoid
D) Tubercle
Answer: C
93) The cardiovascular system has four components. Which of the following is not part of the system?
A) Lungs
C) Heart
B) Blood circulation
D) Blood vessels
Answer: A
94) Dogs have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae?
A) 7, 13, 6
C) 6, 13, 7
B) 7, 12, 7
D) 7, 13, 7
Answer: D
95) Which arteries carry deoxygenated blood?
A) Aorta
C) Pulmonary arteries
B) Coronary arteries
D) Vena cava
Answer: C
96) Which chamber of the heart is surrounded by the largest amount of cardiac muscle?
A) Right atrium
C) Right ventricle
B) Left atrium
D) Left ventricle
Answer: D
97) Bile is produced in the:
A) Spleen
C) Pancreas
B) Liver
D) Omasum
Answer: B
98) Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract?
A) Lipase
C) Protease
B) Ileus
D) Amylase
Answer: D
99) Where would you expect to find DNA within the cell?
A) In the cell membrane
C) In the ribosomes
B) In the cytoplasm
D) In the nucleus
Answer: D
100)
What tissue type is responsible for fat storage?
A) Adipose tissue
C) Connective tissue
B) Neural tissue
D) Glandular tissue
Answer: A
101)
Which organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore?
A) Spleen
C) Pancreas
B) Liver
D) Kidney
Answer: B
102)
The huge comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the right side of the abdomen
is the
A) Colon
C) Rectum
B) Ileum
D) Cecum
Answer: D
103)
Which of the following lists the sections of the small intestine in order from anterior to posterior?
A) Jejunum, ileum, duodenum
B) Duodenum, colon, jejunum
C) Ileum, duodenum, cecum
D) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Answer: D
104)
Which animals have a dental pad in place of upper incisors and canines?
A) Horse & cow
C) Dog & sheep
B) Cow & goat
D) Cat & horse
Answer: B
105)
The scientific discipline that studies the functions of living things is
A) Anatomy
C) Physomy
B) Systemic anatomy
D) Physiology
Answer: D
106)
The canine foreleg is composed of the following bones
A) Tibia, radius, ulna
C) Humerus, radius, ulna
B) Humerus, radius, fibula
D) Femur, tibia, fibula
Answer: C
107) The cardiovascular system is composed of:
A) Heart and lungs
C) Heart and blood vessels
B) Lungs and trachea
D) Heart, lungs, and kidneys
Answer: C
108) What type of connective tissue connects muscles to bones?
A) Tendon
C) Cartilage
B) Ligament
D) Blood
Answer: A
109) Bone marrow produces:
A) Blood cells
B) Periosteum
Answer: A
C) Calcium and Phosphorus
D) Spongy Bone
110) What term is used to describe the motion when a body part is moved closer to the median axis of the body?
A) Flexion
C) Abduction
B) Extension
D) Adduction
Answer: D
111) What arteries supply blood to the head?
A) Carotid arteries
C) Mesenteric arteries
B) Renal arteries D) Iliac arteries
Answer: A
112) The term used to describe a heart rate that is faster than normal is:
A) Tachycardia
C) Arrhythmia
B) Bradycardia
D) Atrial fibrillation
Answer: A
113) When oxygen levels in the blood decrease, the mucous membranes of a veterinary patient may appear:
A) Red
C) Purple
B) Pink
D) Blue
Answer: D
114) What compartment of the ruminant stomach is called the true stomach?
A) Rumen
C) Omasum
B) Reticulum
D) Abomasum
Answer: D
115) Ovariohysterectomy is the technical term for which procedure?
A) Removal of testicles
C) Removal of uterus
B) Removal of ovaries and uterus
D) Removal of fetus
Answer: B
116) What is the name of the condition when one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum?
A) Pyometra
C) Urethrostomy
B) Hypothyroidism
D) Cryptorchidism
Answer: D
117) When a vessel constricts, what does the vessel do?
A) Expanded in length
C) Expanded in diameter
B) Decreased in length
D) Decreased in diameter
Answer: D
118) Having feed available to the animal at all time is called:
A) Restricted diet
C) Supplemental diet
B) Free‐choice diet
D) Total mixed diet
Answer: B
119) Which organ is most involved in the ellimination of drugs?
A) Liver
C) Kidney
B) Stomach
D) Brain
Answer: C
120) The long bone in the forelimb of a horse between the scapula and the radius is the:
A) Femur
C) Humerus
B) Ulna
D) Tibia
Answer: C
121) Guinea pigs cannot synthesize which vitamin?
A) A
C) C
B) B12
D) K
Answer: C
122) Cystocentesis is the sterile collection of:
A) Blood
C) Abdominal fluid
B) Urine
D) Cerebrospinal fluid
ANSWER: B
123) The most common cause of viral enteritis in the canine is:
A) Hepatitis virus
C) Parvo virus
B) Rabies virus
D) Herpes virus
Answer: C
124) Hematuria is the clinical term for finding what in the urine?
A) Pus
C) Protein
B) Crystals
D) Blood
ANSWER: D
125) Drugs that have the greatest potential for being abused or addictive are classified by the DEA as:
A) Schedule I
C) Schedule III
B) Schedule II
D) Schedule IV
Answer: A
126) Which medical term is used for inflammation of the sac around the heart?
A) Cephalitis
C) Pericarditis
B) Arthritis
D) Bradycardia
Answer: C
127) Strangles is a common and highly contagious bacterial respiratory disease in horses that is caused by:
A) Aspergillus fungus
C) Streptococcus equi bacterium
B) Equine herpes virus
D) Equine encephalitis virus
Answer: C
128) The correct medical term for neutering a male animal is:
A) Orchiotomy
C) Orchiectomy
B) Ovariohysterectomy
D) Cystotomy
Answer: C
129) What is the function of the red blood cell (RBC)?
A) Transport oxygen throughout the body
B) Help to maintain pH and temperature
Answer: A
C) Hemostasis or clotting
D) Body defense
130) When evaluating the integumentary system of Rowdy, a Palomino, the CVA would evaluate all of the following areas
EXCEPT:
A) Skin and hide
C) Hooves
B) Mucous membranes
D) Hair
Answer: B
131) When an animal is presented with an cranial abnormality, the word cranial means:
A) Toward the head
C) Toward the nose
B) Toward the tail
D) Closest to the midline
Answer: A
132) What does the acronym AVMA stand for?
A) American Veterinary Medical Associates
B) Associates of Veterinary Medical Associations
C) American Veterinary Medical Associations
D) Association of Veterinary Medical Americans
Answer: C
133) The ultimate responsibility for all activities in the veterinary hospital belongs to the:
A) Client
B) Veterinarian
C) Veterinary technicians
D) Patients
Answer: B
134)
Veterinary technicians can perform which of the following:
A) Diagnosing
C) Prescribe medicine
B) Prognosing
D) Surgical assisting
Answer: D
135) In a medical record the abbreviation SOAP means:
A) supply, open, apply, prepare
B) subjective, objective, assessment, plan
C) submit, observe, ask, prepare
D) scrub, open, assess, plan
Answer: B
136)
In taking history of a veterinary patient, it is important to ask open‐ended questions so the client can give you
important information. Which question below is an open‐ended question?
A) Your pet eats a lot, doesn’t he?
B) Is your pet eating more than normal?
C) What are your pet’s normal eating habits?
D) Your pet ate a lot this morning, didn’t he?
Answer: C
137) A kennel cough vaccination is recommended before a dog is admitted into a:
A) Veterinary hospital
C) Boarding kennel
B) Nursing home
D) Human hospital
Answer: C
138)
Zoonotic diseases are:
A) Only contracted from a zoo animal
B) Only found in veterinary clinics that work with zoo animals
C) Shared between animals and plants
D) Shared between animals and humans
Answer: D
139) The identifying information for every veterinary patient presented for evaluation is called:
A) History
C) Chief complaint
B) Signalment
D) Vital signs
Answer: B
140) What blood test evaluates the red blood cell count, the size of the red blood cells, amount of hemoglobin, number of
platelets, total while blood cell count and a breakdown of the types of cells present?
A) Packed cell volume
B) Complete blood cell count
C) Chemistry profile
D) Serology
Answer: B
141) What is the most common clinical sign observed with salmonellosis?
A) Fever
C) Muscle spasms
B) Headache
D) Diarrhea
Answer: D
142) What type of anesthesia requires oxygen?
A) Local anesthesia
B) Regional anesthesia
C) Inhalation anesthesia
D) Topical anesthesia
Answer: C
143) The medical term for inflammation of the urinary bladder is:
A) Cystitis
C) Dystocia
B) Peritonitis
D) Uremia
Answer: A
144) You are instructed to give a medication SQ. This abbreviation means you give the medication via:
A) Intraperitoneal injection
C) Subcutaneous injection
B) Intramuscular injection
D) Intravenous injection
Answer: C
145) A benefit of rehabilitation for veterinary patients is:
A) Loss of all chronic pain
C) Weight gain
B) Increased mobility
D) Loss of all acute pain
Answer: B
146) Which of the following terms is defined as “difficult birth”?
A) Dyspnea
C) Dystocia
B) Dysphagia
D) Dysphagia
Answer: C
147) Sterilization is defined as the:
A) Destruction of all organisms on an object
B) Reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms on an object
C) Reduction of the number of microorganisms on an object to an acceptable public health standard
D) Removal of all visible signs of dirt
Answer: A
148) The decision to prescribe medications to a patient is the responsibility of the:
A) Veterinarian
B) Credentialed veterinary technician
C) Veterinary assistant
D) Owner
Answer: A
149) A flotation test to look for internal parasites is conducted on which of the following?
A) Urine
C) Blood
B) Feces
D) Saliva
Answer: B
150) Which nutrient is the most important for survival?
A) Water
C) Carbohydrates
B) Protein
D) Vitamins
Answer: A
151) Which disease is caused by a virus?
A) Salmonellosis
C) Tetanus
B) Rabies
D) Ringworm
Answer: B
152) Everyone who is in the surgery room should be wearing
A) Sterile gloves
C) Scrubs
B) Sterile gown
D) Protective eyewear
Answer: C
153) Which of the following needles would most commonly be used for canine vaccinations?
A) 16 gauge
C) 21 gauge
B) 20 gauge
D) 25 gauge
ANSWER: C
154) Which of the following acronyms is used when administering medication twice a day?
A) TID
C) BID
B) QID
D) SID
ANSWER: C
155) Which of the following cattle breeds would be considered a dairy breed?
A) Shorthorn
B) Polled Hereford
C) Brown Swiss
D) Gelbvieh
ANSWER: C
156) Which of the following hazards is associated with radiography?
A) Hearing Loss
C) Cancer
B) Burns or scalds
D) None of the above
ANSWER: C
157) Determine the number of pounds in 10.5 kilograms.
A) 25.5
C) 21.9
B) 24.6
D) 23.1
ANSWER: D
158) Which of the following parasites is considered an endoparasite?
a. Fleas
C. Hookworms
b. Ticks
D) Mites
ANSWER: C
159) Dystocia can be defined as:
a. The carrying of an embryo or fetus.
b. The process of giving birth.
c. Abnormal or difficult birth.
d. A birth in which the offspring enters the birth canal hind end first.
ANSWER: C
160) Which is referring to the underside of an animal?
A) Dorsal
B) Ventral
C) Cranial
C) Anterior
ANSWER: B
161) Which of the following breeds of sheep is considered a fine wool breed?
A) Southdown
B) Suffolk
C) Hampshire
D) Rambouillet
ANSWER: D
162) Kyra, a 7-year-old, F/S mixed breed dog (107 lb) is presented to the clinic with signs of increases vocalization and urine
leaking. She does not appear to be PU/PD (increased urination/increased drinking) or having accidents due to lack of training. She
usually leaks urine after she has lain down (her bed is damp). The U/A (urinalysis) is WNL as the PE. Scout radiographs of the
urinary bladder are unremarkable. Based on her history and pattern of urine leaking, the vet determines that she might have
estrogen responsiveness incontinence. She is prescribed DES (diethylstilbestrol) at a dosage of 1 mg po sid for 3 days, followed by
maintenance therapy of 1 mg po per week. DES comes in 1-mg and 5-mg tablets. How many tablets does this dog receive for the
first three days?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
ANSWER: 3
163) Indicate the tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Metronidazole tablets 250 mg Sig: 1 tablet, P.O.,
BID x 10days
a. 10 tablets
b. 20 tablets
c. 30 tablets
d. 40 tablets
ANSWER: B
164) You regularly order six 10-ml vials per month of a drug that has a concentration of 50 mg/ml. Now that same drug is
only available in 20-ml vials of 10 mg/ml. How many vials should you order this month?
a. 25 vials
b. 20 vials
c. 15 vials
d. 10 vials
ANSWER: C
165) The order is for 500 mg of amoxicillin, and tablets on hand are 250 mg. How many tablets will be administered?
a. 1 tablet
b. 2 tablets
c. 5 tablets
d. 6 tablets
ANSWER: B
166) Indicate the minimum amount of tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx:
tab P.O., BID x 14 days then 1 tab BID prn
a. 28 tablets
b. 24 tablets
c. 20 tablets
d. 16 tablets
ANSWER: A
Ascriptin tablets Sig: 1
167) A 13-year old M/N domestic short hair (DSH) named Buttons has a bite wound in the right side of the mandible. The
owner does not know when the cat got the bite wound because Buttons is an outside cat. He has not been eating or
drinking the past few days, is lethargic, and on PE has a T= 103.5>, HR = 180 bpm, and RR = 45 breaths/min. Other than
the mandibular wound, he is healthy. He is current on vaccinations. The decision is made to sedate Buttons so that the
wound can be clipped, cleaned, and debrided. You must calculate the dose of injectable anesthetic for Buttons, who
weighs 12.5 lb. The dosage of Ketamine is 22 mg/kg IM. The concentration listed on the vial of ketamine is 100 mg/ml.
The animal's weight in kg is?
A) 2.4 kg
B) 5.7 kg
C) 7.1 kg
D) 9.9 kg
ANSWER: B
168) The order is 0.5 mg of Centrine, and 0.2 mg tablets are on hand. How many tablets will be administered?
A) 1.0 tablets
B) 1.5 tablets
C) 2.0 tablets
D) 2.5 tablets
ANSWER: D
169) A cat in end-stage renal disease is receiving epoetin (2000 u/ml). The dose is 100 u/kg. Your patient weighs 5.5 lb. How
many units will you deliver?
A) 250
B) 500
C) 750
D) 1000
ANSWER: A
170) Translate the following into percents: 1:100
A) .05%
C) 1%
B) .5%
D) 1.5%
ANSWER: C
171) 1000 mg = _____ g
A) .001
B) .01
C) 1
D) 10
ANSWER: C
172) How many mgs of a drug should be given to a patient weighing 22 lb if the dose is 0.2 mg/kg?
A) 2 mg
B) 2.2 mg
C) 22 mg
D) 22.2 mg
ANSWER: A
173) Indicate the tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Cephalexin capsules
250 mg Sig: 2 caps P.O., STAT; then
1 cap P.O., BID x 14 days
A) 30 capsules
C) 50 capsules
B) 40 capsules
D) 60 capsules
ANSWER: A
174) The veterinarian orders 4.4 mg/kg of carprofen for pain control divided into two equal daily doses for a 50-lb dog. On
hand are 100-mg scored tablets. How many tablets is/are administered each morning and afternoon?
A) 5 tablets in the morning and 2 in the afternoon
B) 1 tablet in the morning and afternoon
C) .5 tablets in the morning and 1 in the afternoon
D) .5 tablets in the morning and afternoon
ANSWER: D
175) The level of fluid in the liter bags reads at the 700 mark. How much fluid has been given?
A) 700 L
B) 700 ml
C) 300 L
D) 300 ml
ANSWER: D
176) Fenbendazole (10% suspension) is an antiparasitic drug used in the treatment of whipworms, roundworms,
hookworms, and some species of tapeworms. For dogs the dosage is 50 mg/kg po for 3 days.
How many mls would you give a dog that weights 50 lbs?
A) 9.5 mls
B) 11.4 mls
C) 12.1 mls
D) 14.3 mls
ANSWER: B
177) Which statement is Not true regarding nutritional differences between dogs and cats:
A) Cats are true carnivores and dogs are omnivores
B) Cats have a higher demand for protein than dogs
C) Dogs require higher levels of taurine and arginine than cats in their diet
D) A cats requirements for niacin and vitamin A are much higher than a dog
ANSWER: C
178) Hip dysplasia is a condition in which:
A) The ball and socket joint of the hip becomes diseased
B) The socket joint is deep not allowing the head of the femur to be held
C) The cartilage lining of the acetabulum becomes calcified and thick
D) Is not painful and does not impact the dogs ability to walk correctly
ANSWER: A
179)
A comminuted fracture of an animal’s bone is where:
A) The bone is broken into two pieces, a clean break
B) Several fragments of bone are the result of the break
C) One bone punctures through the skin as a result of the break
D) None of the above
ANSWER: B
180)
Which is not a sign of heart failure:
A) Excessive intolerance
C) Fluid accumulation in lungs and abdomen
B) Animal develops a cough
D) All are signs of heart failure
ANSWER: D
Kennel cough is found in
A) Dogs
C) Dogs and Cats
B) Cats
D) All species
ANSWER: A
181)
182)
Which of the following is not a bacterial infection in animals:
A) Pneumonia
C) Strangles
B) Canine Parvovirus
D) Anthrax
ANSWER: B
183)
Sargent, a German Shepherd Dog, needs anti-inflammatory medication due to his surgery for 30 days post op. For the
first 20 days he will need 2 pills a day, once in the morning and once at night. For the next 10 days he will take one pill a
day. How many pills total will he be taking over the 30 days period?
A) 30 pills
C) 50 pills
B) 40 pills
D) 60 pills
ANSWER: C
184)
Ruger, a 10 month old black Labrador, weighs 25 kilograms. Approximately how many pounds does he weigh?
A) 40 pounds
C) 60 pounds
B) 55 pounds
D) 70 pounds
ANSWER: B
185)
A 75lb dog must be dewormed. If the daily dose of the dewormer is 1 teaspoon per 25lb body weight for 3 days,
approximately how much should be given each day?
A) 3 tablespoons
C) 1 tablespoon
B) 5 teaspoons
D) 1 teaspoon
ANSWER: C ---- 3 teaspoons = 1 tablespoon
186)
How many tablets would you dispense for a 1-month supply of a drug with a dose
Of one and one-half tablets three times daily?
A) 500
C) 135
B) 45
D) 90
ANSWER: C ---(1.5tablets/dose x 3 doses/day x30 days=135)
187)
Six 12oz puppies need deworming medication. If the dose is 1 ml/lb
How many milliliters do you dispense?
A) 12
C) 6
B) 4.5
D) 3
ANSWER: B – (120z divided by 160/lb x 1ml/lb x 6 puppies = 4.5 ml)
188)
Six blood pressure readings are 115, 120, 123, 121, 121 and 112 mm hg.
What is the average value?
A) 123
C) 121
B) 120
D) 119
ANSWER: D – (115+120+123=121+121+112 divided by 6 = 119 mm hg)
189)
You are taking the heart rate of a cat. If you count 10 beats in 5 seconds,
What is the rate in beats per minute?
A) 50
C) 300
B) 120
D) 220
ANSWER: B – (10 beats/5seconds x 60 sec/min= 120 beats per minute)
190)
A growth in the skin that is 2 inches in diameter is how many centimeters?
A) 2.5
C) 20
B) 30
D) 5
ANSWER: D (2.5 cm/in x 2 in = 5 cm)
191)
A 16oz bottle contains how many milliliters?
A) 480
C) 40
B) 240
D) 1.6
ANSWER: A (16oz x 30 ml/1oz = 480
192)
Four hundred pounds is how many kilograms?
A) 880
C) 600
B) 182
D) 18
ANSWER: B (400lb divided by 2.2lb/kg = 181.8 kg = 182kg)
193)
In feed that has 20lbs of corn, 5lbs of beet pulp, 1lbs bone meal, and 2lbs of whey,
approximately what percent is corn?
A) 98%
C) 40%
B) 28%
D) 71%
ANSWER: D (20+5+1+2=28.20 divided by 28lb = 71%)
194)
Five tonometer readings in mm/Hg are 14, 15, 19, 14, and 18.
What is the average?
A) 14
C) 18
B) 16
D) 14.5
ANSWER: B (15+14+14+19+18 divided by 5= 16mm/HG)
195)
A patient requires 3 units of insulin every 12 hours. If the concentration of
Insulin is 100 units/ml, how many milliliters should be given?
A) 0.3
C) 0.03
B) 30
D) 0.15
ANSWER: C (3 units divided by 100 units/ml = 0.03)
196)
A patient requires 3 units of insulin every 12 hours. If the concentration of insulin
Is 30 units/ml, how many milliliters should be given?
A) 0.1
C) 0.05
B) 10
D) 0.01
ANSWER: A
(3 units divided by 30 units/ml = 0.1)
197)
When you view a specimen under a compound microscope using the 40x objective
and a 10x ocular,
the total magnification of the specimen being viewed is
A) 4x
C) 400x
B) 40x
D) 4000x
ANSWER: C
198) The capillary refill time (CRT) for Buddy is 1 second. In the patient chart, the CVA records that the CRT for Buddy is:
A) Abnormally low
B) Normal
C) Abnormally high
D) Not enough information to record
Answer: B
199) Anemia is:
A) The study of parasites.
B) A single celled animal.
C) A decrease in the number of red blood cells.
D) A disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans.
Answer: C
200) Pericardium is:
A) The muscular layer of the heart wall.
B) The fibrous sac that encloses the heart.
C) A thin layer that lines the surface of the heart.
D) A thin layer that lines the inside of the heart.
Answer: B
201) A compound fracture is one in which:
A) The break is along the axis of a bone.
B) The bone shatters in the many pieces.
C) The break is on one side of the bone.
D) The bone breaks through the skin.
ANSWER: D
202) An orchiectomy :
A) Removal of the ovaries and uterus.
B) Removal of the testes.
C) An incision into the thorax.
D) Removal of a tumor.
ANSWER: B
203) Microfilaria are:
a. The larval stage of the heartworm.
b. The segment of the tapeworm containing the male and female reproductive organs.
c. Microscopic single celled organisms.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: A
204) The abomasum is:
a. The first compartment of the ruminant stomach.
b. The second compartment of the ruminant stomach.
c. The third compartment of the ruminant stomach.
d. The fourth compartment of the ruminant stomach.
ANSWER: D
205) The function of the cecum is to:
a. Produce bile.
b. Aide in the digestion of fibrous materials.
c. Produce insulin.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: B
206) Carbohydrates contain or include:
a. Amino Acids
b. Simple Sugars
c. Lipids
d. None of the above
ANSWER: B
207) Which organization governs the use, storage and disposal of controlled substances?
A) EPA
B) DEA
C) OSHA
D) None of the above
ANSWER: B
208) Which zoonotic disease is fatal in humans?
A) Corona
B) Rabies
C) Parvovirus
D) Scabies
ANSWER: B
209) Which of the following is not a disease that affects dogs?
A) Rabies
B) Distemper
C) Black Leg
D) Hepatitis
ANSWER: C
210) Which of the following material is not considered a bio-hazardous material?
A) Scalpel blade
B) Syringe
C) Microscope Slide
D) Needle
ANSWER: B
211) Which of the following bedding materials is most commonly used in the small animal clinic?
A) Pine Shavings
B) Newspaper
C) Blankets and Towels
D) Straw
ANSWER: B
212) Which of the following needles has the smallest bore?
A) 16 gauge
B) 20 gauge
C) 21 gauge
D) 25 gauge
ANSWER: D
213) Kyra, a 7-year=old, F/S mixed breed dog (107 lb) is presented to the clinic with signs of increases vocalization and urine
leaking. She does not appear to be PU/PD (increased urination/increased drinking) or having accidents due to lack of
training. She usually leaks urine after she has lain down (her bed is damp). The U/A (urinalysis) is WNL as the PE. Scout
radiographs of the urinary bladder are unremarkable. Based on her history and pattern of urine leaking, the vet
determines that she might have estrogen responsiveness incontinence. She is prescribed DES (diethylstilbestrol) at a
dosage of 1 mg po sid for 3 days, followed by maintenance therapy of 1 mg po per week. DES comes in 1-mg and 5mg tablets. How many mg does this dog receive for 3 weeks of treatment?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
ANSWER: B
214) “Max” needs 30 mg. Gentocin IV Gentocin comes in two different concentrations; 50 mg/ml or 100 mg/ml. Using 50
mg/ml, how many ml would you draw up? AND Using 100 mg/ml, how many ml would you draw up?
A) 0.6 ml and 0.3 ml
B) 6 ml and 3 ml
C) 0.3 ml and 0.6 ml
D) 3 ml and 6 ml
ANSWER: A
215)
0.2 L = ________ ml
A) 2
B) 20
C) 200
D) 2000
ANSWER: C
216) To prevent inhaling gas when you are monitoring anesthesia, it is best for you to stand :
A) Close to the patient’s head.
B) Away from the patient’s head.
C) Anywhere in the room.
D) Outside of the room.
ANSWER: B
217)
When treating or assisting a doctor with an animal’s abscess wound, it is important to:
A) Wear disposable gloves.
B) Disinfect the treatment counter thoroughly.
C) Wash and disinfect all instruments used.
D) All of the above.
ANSWER: D
218) If you are bitten, scratched or cut when working around animals, you should:
A) Wash thoroughly with water and a disinfecting soap, then notify
your supervisor.
B) Quickly rinse out the area.
C) Just wipe the blood off and bandage if needed.
D) None of the above.
ANSWER: A
219) Rabies is transmitted through:
a. Blood from the affected animal
b. Urine from the affected animal
c. Feces from the affected animal
d. Saliva from the affected animal
ANSWER: D
220) Lyme disease is caused by a:
A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Parasite
D) Fungus
ANSWER: B
221) One of the fastest means of getting drugs in to the bloodstream is:
A) Orally
B) Intranasally
C) Topically
D) Intravenously
ANSWER: D
222) Nebulized is defined as:
A) Turned into a liquid
B) Turned into a fine mist
C) Turned into molecules
D) Turned into oxygen
ANSWER: B
223) The Snap Canine Heartworm Test tests the blood for:
A) Adult heartworms
B) Antigen produced by female heartworms
C) Microfilaria
D) Female heartworms only
ANSWER: B
224) When in the heart, heartworms congregate in the:
A) Right ventricle
B) Right atrium
C) Left ventricle
D) Left atrium
ANSWER: A
225) The amount of fecal matter needed for a canine or feline fecal analysis is approximately:
A) The size of a baseball
B) The size of a golf ball
C) The size of a grapefruit
D) The size of a grape
ANSWER: D
226) Which internal parasite is the most common in puppies and kittens?
A) Roundworm
B) Hookworm
C) Whipworm
D) Giardia
ANSWER: A
227) The roundworm is often described as looking like:
A) Rice
B) Spaghetti
C) Flakes
D) A leech
ANSWER: B
228) The veterinarian is explaining to Sally’s owner how she will be spayed. Spay is defined as:
A) Substance that induces an immune response
C) Swelling and inflammation
C) The common term for removal of female reproductive organs
D) Allergic response
ANSWER: C
229) If an animal was suffering from anaphylactic shock, it would be
A) An exaggerated allergic response
B) Proteins produced by lymph system
C) Minerals in the blood stream
D) Slippery white film
ANSWER: A
230) An animal is being given a vaccine. Vaccine is defined as
A) A suspension of killed or modified microorganisms that stimulate an immune response when introduced into the
body
B) Swelling and inflammation
C) More susceptible to disease
D) Having no resistance to disease
ANSWER: A
231) An animal is vaccinated for rabies. Rabies is caused by:
A) A rhabidovirus
B) Parvo virus
C) Bacteria
D) Fungus
ANSWER: A
232) Lauren is bandaging Bruce, a four year old horse. Leg bandages on horses are started on the _______ part of the leg
and wrapped toward the back.
A) Vertical
B) Horizontal
C) Lateral
D) Proximal
ANSWER: D
233) The bellyband should _______ slightly as it is wrapped.
A) Overlap
B) Space out
C) Cut off circulation
D) Never touch
ANSWER: A
234) Immunity is defined as:
A) Having resistance to a disease due to the formation of antibodies.
B) Slow and painful abscess
C) Rhabidovirus
D) Not being able to tolerate disease
ANSWER: A
235) A kitten is suffering from FCV. Feline calicivirus is caused by:
A) RNA virus
B) Fungus
C) Bacteria
D) Does not exist
ANSWER: A
236) Lauren is taking a patient history from Ms. Harper about her horse. Which is the most appropriate question for her to
ask?
A) “Is your horse drinking a lot of water and eating okay?”
B) “How much water is it drinking and how much is it eating?”
C) “Is your horse able to exercise daily?”
D) “Is you horse drinking more water now than compared to a few months ago?”
ANSWER: B
237) A vet diagnosed Bill’s lamb with dyspnea. What does this mean?
A) The lamb has normal breathing.
B) The lamb has abnormal heart sounds.
C) The lamb has difficulty breathing.
D) The lamb has bluish discoloring of its skin.
ANSWER: C
238)
Jane is taking a dog’s pulse. What is the name of the artery where she will do this?
A) Femoral artery
B) Brachiocephalic artery
C) Facial artery
D) Carotid Artery
ANSWER: A
239) During an exam, Julie must take vital signs from an animal. Which of the following steps is the most correct procedure for
her to take the rectal temperature?
A) Shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 1 minute, remove and rotate to
read.
B) Shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 3 minutes, remove and rotate to
read.
C) Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for
1 minute, remove and rotate to read.
D) Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for
3 minutes, remove and rotate to read.
ANSWER: B
240) The veterinarian is describing to Spike’s owner how he’ll be neutered. Neuter is defined as:
A) Having resistance to a disease
B) The common term for removal of male reproductive organs
C) Proteins produced by lymph system
D) Swelling and inflammation
ANSWER: B
241) Whipworm eggs look like a/an _________________ under a microscope.
A) Circle
B) Oval
C) Rectangle
D) Cone
ANSWER: B
242) What type of mite can cause a zoonotic disease?
A) Demodectic
B) Otodectes
C) Sarcoptic
D) All of the above
ANSWER: C
243) What is the vector for heartworms?
A) Tick
B) Lice
C) Flea
D) Mosquito
ANSWER: D
244)
Ideally, a horse should be bedded on:
A) Newspaper
B) Straw
C) Walnut shavings
D) Wood shavings
ANSWER: D
245) An eight month old Chihuahua was stung by a wasp and had a fluctuation in its heart rate. What term describes its
fluctuating heart rate?
A) Arrhythmia
B) Auscultation
C) Bradycardia
D) Tachypnea
ANSWER: A
246) Annie is helping to examine a patient. She is instructed to take the temperature, pulse and respiration, which is a
crucial part of a physical exam. Which of the following factors does not affect TPR?
A) Age
B) Size
C) Environmental temperature
D) Breed
ANSWER: D
247) Which of the following answers best completes this statement?
Temperature, pulse and respiration rates tend to _________ as size of the animal ____________.
A) Increase, decreases
B) Decreases, decreases
C) Shallow, decreases
D) Decreases slowly, decreases rapidly
ANSWER: A
248)
What is spermatogenesis?
A) Process by which sperm are produced by the male.
B) Condition in which one or both testicles remain in the body cavity.
C) Process by which ova are produced by the female.
D) Causes destruction of the cotyledons of the uterus.
ANSWER: A
249) The term that means of, or relating to dogs:
A) Feline
B) Bovine
C) Canine
D) Galline
ANSWER: C
250) The term that means of, or relating to cats:
A) Feline
B) Bovine
C) Canine
D) Galline
ANSWER: A
251) The term that means of, or relating to cattle:
A) Feline
B) Bovine
C) Canine
D) Galline
ANSWER: B
252) The term that means of, or relating to horses:
A) Equine
B) Galline
C) Bovine
D) Ovine
ANSWER: A
253) The term that means of, or relating to swine:
A) Equine
B) Canine
C) Galline
D) Porcine
ANSWER: D
254) The term that means of, or relating to sheep:
A) Equine
B) Galline
C) Bovine
D) Ovine
ANSWER: D
255) The term that means of, or relating to poultry:
A) Equine
B) Feline
C) Porcine
D) Galline
ANSWER: D
256)
Your place of employment offers dog boarding services and has the ability to accommodate the specific needs of
each pet and family.
The daily rates for 8 to 24 hour boarding are:
Under 20 lbs – $25.00
20 ‐ 50 lbs – $26.00
Over 50 lbs – $27.00
Dogs can be walked for an additional fee of $5.00 per dog for each walk around the property.
Medications are administered or applied at a rate of $0.50 per dose. Two or more dogs in the same kennel receive a 10%
discount on all boarding services. A client has two dogs that are to be housed together. One is a 5.5‐pound poodle
named Timmy, and the other is a 62‐pound mixed breed named Max. The owner instructs you that Max needs to be
given a medication once a day for 4 days and that each dog is to be walked once a day. The owner boarded the
dogs from Monday morning until Sunday evening. Taxes are included in all prices quoted. You are responsible for billing
the client. What is the total charge for all boarding services?
A) $437.50
C) $427.40
B) $436.00
D) $392.40
Answer:D
257)
A veterinary assistant’s gross income per year is $27,461.00. After a raise, her gross yearly salary increases to
$28,284.83. What is the percentage increase in her raise?
A) 1%
C) 8%
B) 3%
D) 25%
Answer: B
258) To prepare for disinfection of hard non‐porous surfaces against canine parvovirus, mix a solution of Clorox®
Regular‐Bleach in 2.5 gallons of water at the rate of ¾ cup of bleach per 1 gallon of water. What is the volume of bleach
added to the 2.5 gallons of water?
A) 30 fl. Oz
C) 1 ¾ cups
B) 15 fl. Oz
D) 1 ½ cups and 2 tbsp
Answer: B
259) You have taken the body temperature of a market hog that reads 38 degrees Celsius. The owner of the hog does not
understand Celsius and ask you to convert it to Fahrenheit. What is the converted body temperature?
A) 100.4 F
C) 102.5
B) 104 F
D) 98.8
Answer: A
260) You are directed to take a weight on a client’s dog. The English Mastiff named Sophia weighs 85.90 kg. How much does
Sophia weigh in pounds?
A) 8.59 lbs
C) 85.90 lbs
B) 18.9 lbs
D) 188.9 lbs
ANSWERS: D
261) The doctor diagnosed pinkeye in a 450 pound heifer calf and prescribed Nuflor for the treatment. The dosage on the
label is 200mg/kg or 20 milligrams of drug per kilogram of body weight. The concentration of Nuflor is 300 mg/ml. What
dose of Nuflor will be administered?
A) 13.7 ml
C) 10.22 ml
B) 137 ml
D) 4,100 ml
Answer : A
262) The Veterinarian informs you that the patient has a bite wound and will required antibiotics. A common antibiotic
Cefrazolin, is administered to help fight infection. Cefazolin is administered at a dosage of 22 mg/kg. The patient weighs
44 pounds. What is the dose of Cefazolin for this animal?
A) 0.44 mg
C) 440 mg
B) 4.4 ml
D) 968 mg
Answer : C
263) How many milliliters are in 9 ounces of liquid?
A) 2.70 ml
C) 900 ml
B) 270 ml
D) 9000ml
Answer: B
264) Selamectin is recommended for use in dogs 6 weeks of age and older. The directions state: “Apply to the skin once a
month at the recommended dosage of 6 mg/kg or 6 milligrams of selamectin per kilogram of body weight”. The
product comes prepackaged in six tubes. Each dispensing tube contains 240 mg of selamectin. If the client’s dog weighs
88 pounds, how many months of treatment are in one package of selamectin?
A) 2 months
C) 5.5 months
B) 3.25 months
D) 6 months
Answer: D
265) The doctor’s order reads: “Amoxicillin 225 mg, p.o. q12hrs.” The bottle from pharmacy is labeled: “250 mg=5 ml” How
many milliliters would you give per dose?
A) 0.45 ml
C) 45 ml
B) 4.5 ml
D) 450 ml
Answer: B
266)
267)
Indicate the number of tablets prescribed for the following order:
Rx: Metronidazole tablets 50mg
Sig: 2 tablets, P.O. BIDx 10 days
A) 10 tablets
C) 30 tablets
B) 20 tablets
D) 40 tablets
Answer: D
`Feline viral rhinotracheitis symptoms include:
A) Sneezing, discharge from nose and eyes
B) Anorexia
C) Aggression
D) Licking of wound
Answer: A
268) Leptospirosis is caused by:
A) Leptospira bacteria
B) DNA virus
C) Borrelia burgdorferi bacteria
D) None of the above
ANSWER: A
269) Symptoms of distemper include:
A) Lameness
B) Swollen joints
C) Aggression
D) Fever, vomiting, diarrhea, nasal secretions, and seizures
ANSWER: C
270) Rabies is transmitted by:
A) Bite from a tick
B) Ingestion of fecal material from infected dog
C) Contamination of wound by saliva
D) Inhalation bacteria
ANSWER: C
271) Linda is going to perform a laboratory test. Where is it possible that she will be doing this?
A) Veterinary hospitals
B) Research facilities
C) Zoos
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D
272) In preparation for her CVA test, Mary is studying systems of the body. Which of these is NOT included in the circulatory
system?
A) Heart
B) Lymphatics
C) Blood Vessels
D) Blood
ANSWER: B
273) If an animal has problems in the right side of the heart, what other problem will likely occur?
A) Ascites
B) Lung congestion
C) Nerve Degeneration
D) Osteoporosis
ANSWER: A
274) Luke, a border collie, has a problem in the left side of the heart. What other problem will likely occur?
A) Ascites
B) Lung congestion
C) Nerve Degeneration
D) Osteoporosis
ANSWER: B
275) Mary is also studying the physiology of the body systems. Which of these is a function of the circulatory system?
A) Respiration for the body
B) Urination of waste products
C) Transportation of nutrients, blood cells, gases, etc.
D) Protection of the body
ANSWER: C
276) Which of these is the correct flow of blood through the heart?
A) Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Pulmonary Arteries, Lungs, Pulmonary Veins, Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Aorta
B) Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Pulmonary Arteries, Lungs, Pulmonary Veins, Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Aorta
C) Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Pulmonary Veins, Lungs, Pulmonary Arteries, Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Aorta
D) Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Pulmonary Veins, Lungs, Pulmonary Arteries, Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Aorta
ANSWER: A
277) What are the percentages of cells and plasma in blood?
A) 40% to 60%, respectively
B) 50% to 50%, respectively
C) 60% to 40%, respectively
D) 30% t0 70%, respectively
ANSWER: A
278) Which of these is NOT part of the process of filtration of the blood through the urinary system?
A) Nephrons
B) Medulla
C) Vena Cava
D) Kidney
ANSWER: C
279) While Linda was running a laboratory test, she evaluated total plasma protein, and noticed an elevated total plasma
protein. This is a sign of
A) Inflammation
B) Infection
C) Dehydration
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D
280) In most species, what are the kidneys shaped like?
A) Pears
B) Circles
C) Clovers
D) Beans
ANSWER: D
281) Sammy is trying to run a urinalysis. He first has to obtain urine from the dog. How can he obtain urine from an animal?
A) Free Catch
B) Cystocentesis
C) Catheterization
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D
282) Which of these is the scientific name for hookworm?
A) Ancylostoma caninum
B) Dipylidium caninum
C) Toxocara canis
D) None of the above
ANSWER: A
283) James accidentally spilled bleach. In order to know the correct clean up procedure to take, he must check the MSDS. The
acronym MSDS stands for:
A) Material Safety from Disease Sheet
B) Material Safety Data Sheet
C) Mechanical Safety Destruction Sheets
D) Mechanical Safety Data Sheet
ANSWER: B
284) A member of OSHA is doing a walkthrough of a veterinary clinic. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is
housed in
A) The Department of Health
B) The Department of Finance
C) The Department of Security
D) The Department of Labor
ANSWER: D
285) Adam has just assisted in restraining a Lhasa Apso for am IM injection. The RVT that gave the injection must now dispose
of the needle and syringe. Where must all needles and syringes be disposed of?
A) A bottle
B) A dumpster
C) A trashcan
D) A sharps container
ANSWER: D
286) Sugar, a small dog, has come into a veterinary clinic with sarcoptic mange. To prevent the spread of this and other
zoonotic diseases, you need to:
A) Dispose of waste in a proper manner
B) Isolate infected animals
C) Wash hands often
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D
287) Evan is creating a poster of biohazards for his Veterinary Technology class. Which of these is NOT an example of a biohazard
and therefore should not be included in his poster?
A) Needles
B) Materials soaked with bodily fluids
C) Bandage material
D) None of the above
ANSWER: D
288) Fran is doing research on pathogens. A pathogen is:
a. A microorganism that produces disease.
b. Disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans.
c. Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound.
d. Refers to the back.
ANSWER: A
289) Aseptic technique is
a. Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound.
b. Cleaning surfaces with bleach
c. Swabbing for a bacteria culture
d. A chemical agent that kills of prevents to growth of microorganisms
ANSWER: A
290) While cleaning an exam room, Abby uses a disinfectant is:
a. A chemical agent that kills, or inhibits the growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects.
b. a washcloth and hot water
c. something that contaminates surfaces
d. a chemical agent that allows that growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects
ANSWER: A
291) An animal has a superficial wound. Superficial means:
a. Near the surface, also called external.
b. deep laceration
c. a wound that is on the extremities of an animal
d. on an organ.
ANSWWER: A
292) Most surgical instruments are manufactured from
a. Aluminum
b. Copper
c. Stainless Steel
d. Lead
ANSWER: C
293) The operating room should be cleaned
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Bi-weekly
d. Monthly
ANSWER: A
294) When a patient is having an ovariohysterectomy performed, the patient is placed in
a. Lateral
b. Dorsal
c. Ventral
d. Sternal
ANSWER: B
____________ recumbency.
295) Which of the following hormones is the most primary hormone produced by the testes?
a. Estrogen
b. Testosterone
c. Progesterone
d. Oxytocin
ANSWER: B
296) Which of the following is not a primary action of testosterone?
a. Anabolic growth
b. Promotes spermatogenesis
c. Promotes secretions from accessory glands
d. None of these
ANSWER: D
297) What are the anatomical differences between the oviducts of most mammals and the oviducts of poultry?
a. Mammals have one oviduct.
b. Mammals do not have oviducts.
c. Poultry do not have oviducts.
d. Poultry have one oviduct.
ANSWER: D
298) What is the main difference between the testes of mammals and the testes of poultry?
a. Mammals have one testicle.
b. The testes of poultry do not descend out of the abdominal cavity.
c. Poultry have one testicle.
d. The testes of mammals do not descend out of the abdominal cavity.
ANSWER: B
299) What is the purpose of the infundibulum?
a. To transport the egg from the ovary to the oviduct.
b. To expel the fetus.
c. To contract during labor.
d. To give nourishment to the fetus.
ANSWER: A
300) Which of the following are the primary hormones produced by the ovaries?
a. Estrogen and testosterone.
b. Testosterone and oxytocin.
c. Testosterone and progesterone.
d. Estrogen and progesterone.
ANSWER: D