Download 8th Grade Science Pre

8th Grade Science Pre-test
Please choose the best answer to the best of your ability.
1. The theory of evolution describes how organisms change over time. Scientists now use information in the DNA of
living organisms to understand how they are related. The theory of evolution was developed before scientists
discovered DNA; however, the theory supports these new data. What does this sequence of events tell us about the
theory of evolution?
A.
It is a bad theory because it makes scientists biased.
B.
It is a good theory because it has changed greatly over time.
C.
It is a good theory because it is able to explain new evidence.
D.
It is a bad theory because it was formed before the discovery of DNA.
2. The table shows data on how the population of butterflies in a backyard changes over five days.
Day
1
2
3
4
5
Number of butterflies
3
6
9
12
15
Which mathematical model accurately predicts how many butterflies there will be on Day 6?
A.
C.
Number of butterflies = 3 + 3
Number of butterflies = 3 x 3
B.
D.
Number of butterflies = 15 + 3
Number of butterflies = 15 x 3
3.
A science class was investigating how far a ball could be thrown. The table below shows their results.
Trial Distance traveled by ball (m)
1
10.2
2
10.3
3
10.5
4
5.0
Based on the class’s data, how can they improve the accuracy of the investigation?
A.
Do more trials.
B.
Use a different ball.
C.
Omit trial 4 from the data.
D.
Average the data to account for the short distance in trial 4.
4. Why do many experiments include several trials as opposed to a single trial?
A.
Repetition of trials makes data easier to analyze.
B.
Repetition of trials increases the sample size of the data.
C.
Repetition of trials lets the experimenter spend less time making observations.
D.
Repetition of trials lets the experimenter change procedures to make the experiment simpler.
5. A geologist investigates why certain areas of a large city are severely damaged by a recent earthquake although other
areas are not. What is the best method for the geologist to find a scientific explanation for the varying levels of damage?
A. Review local newspaper reports.
B. Conduct a survey of residents in each area.
C. Analyze seismographic readings of the earthquake. D. Take core samples from each area and analyze composition.
6. The kinetic theory of matter uses the motions of particles to explain why gases expand and contract at different
temperatures. The figure below illustrates what happens to the same amount of gas when the temperature of the gas
changes.
Based on the figure above, what would be an accurate explanation be based on the kinetic theory?
A.
The number of gas particles increases at higher temperatures.
B.
The number of a gas particles decreases at higher temperatures.
C.
Gas particles move faster and farther apart at higher temperatures.
D.
Gas particles move more slowly and get closer together at higher temperatures.
7. Which source should a scientific researcher reject because of unreliability?
A.
textbook
B.
government brochure
C.
webpage of a university professor
D.
advertisement promoting a product
8. Marcus is a geologist for a mining company. The company asks him to determine the types of rocks and minerals in a
nearby area. The composition of the region is shown in the figure below.
Which method is best for determining the composition of this area?
A.
Dig extensively throughout the area.
B. Dig a long, winding tunnel through the area.
C.
Take deep core samples throughout the area.
D. Survey people in the area about their observations.
9. Scientific investigations involve many steps and processes. Which characteristics define a laboratory experiment?
A.
hypothesis, models, and calculations
B.
test variables, data, and uncontrolled conditions
C.
data, conclusions, and unregulated environment
D.
independent (test) and dependent (outcome) variables, data, and controlled conditions
10. Renee rolls a steel ball down a ramp. She conducts multiple trials by releasing the ball from varying heights on the
ramp. For each trial, she measures and records the release height of the ball and the distance the ball travels away from
the ramp before falling to the ground. The figure to the right shows the experiment.
In this experiment, which variable is the independent (test) variable?
A. distance traveled by the ball
B. path of ball once it leaves the ramp
C. height from which the ball is released D. time is takes the ball to hit the ground
11. Sometimes fires burn down large areas of forests that are part of the biosphere. Other than the biosphere, which of
Earth’s other systems is a forest fire most likely to affect?
A.
geosphere
B.
cryosphere
C.
atmosphere
D.
hydrosphere
12. The picture to the right shows the interaction of different spheres within the Earth system.
Which parts are interacting?
A. hydrosphere and geosphere
B. atmosphere and biosphere
C. cryosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere
D. geosphere, cryosphere, and atmosphere
13. Leah is going for a swim at the beach. She notices that the sand is much warmer than the water in the ocean. Which
statement best explains why this happens?
A. Water is unable to absorb energy.
B. Water is unable to release energy.
C. Water has a lower specific heat capacity than sand.
D. Water has a higher specific heat capacity than sand.
14. Joseph made a poster for his Earth science project. He included the following diagram to show how Earth’s surface
receives solar energy.
Which process is involved when solar energy warms the surface of Earth?
A.
conduction
B.
convection
C.
radiation
D.
reflection
15. The flow chart below shows how a metamorphic rock can change into a sedimentary rock.
Which of these processes would be the correct label to replace the question mark?
A.
cooling
B.
deposition
C.
melting
D.
weathering
16. Declan observed a rock that he found at the beach. The rock felt hard, it was yellow, and it appeared to be made of
layers. Declan concluded that the rock was sedimentary. Which observation best supports this conclusion?
A.
the yellow color
B.
the layers within the rock
C.
the hardness of the rock
D.
the location where the rock was found
2
2
17. Tiny fossils provide evidence that life on Earth began about 3.5 billion years ago. About how old was Earth when life
first appeared on the planet?
A. 4.6 billion years
B. 3.5 billion years
C. 2.3 billion years
D. 1.1 billion years
18. A geologist is studying three layers of sedimentary rock in an area. The layers have not shifted from their original
positions. The geologist records the relative ages of the rocks. The bottom layer is listed as the oldest. The top layer is
listed as the youngest. What did the geologist use to determine the relative ages of the rocks?
A.
mineral content
B.
radioactive decay
C.
the law of superposition
D.
the principle of unconformity
19. This figure shows a cross section of the lithosphere when an earthquake is taking place. Point A is the focus of the
earthquake, its starting point.
What do the circles (D) around the focus represent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the epicenter of the earthquake
rocks pushing in toward the focus
the fault where the earthquake is happening
waves of energy released by the earthquake traveling outward
20. Scientists think the continents once formed a large, single landmass that broke apart, and the continents slowly
drifted to their present locations. What is the name given to this hypothesis?
A. continental rise
B. continental drift
C. continental shelf
D. continental slope
21. Our solar system consists of eight planets. Each planet is classified as either a terrestrial planet or a gas
giant planet. Which is a difference between these two types of planets?
A. Terrestrial planets are larger than gas giant planets.
B. Gas giant planets are denser than terrestrial planets.
C. Terrestrial planets have denser cores than gas giant planets.
D. Gas giant planets have rockier crusts than terrestrial planets.
22. An astronomer uses a telescope to observe a star. She observes that the color of this star is similar to the
color of the Sun. Therefore, she infers that the star and the Sun have similar sizes and surface temperatures.
Using this information, what can the astronomer conclude about the star?
A. The star is brighter than most other stars in our galaxy. B. The star is medium sized.
C. The star is hotter than most other stars in our galaxy. D. The star is a white dwarf.
2
23. The table below compiles information about the distance of various stars from Earth, their apparent
magnitude, and their absolute magnitude.
Apparent Magnitude and Absolute Magnitude of Various Stars
Star
Sirius
Vega
Arcturus
Aldebaran
Rigel
Betelgeuse
Distance from
Earth (ly)
8.6
25
34
60
1,400
1,400
Apparent
Magnitude
–1.46
0.03
–0.04
0.85
0.12
0.50
Absolute
Magnitude
1.4
0.6
–0.3
–0.3
–8.1
–7.2
Which star has the greatest luminosity?
A. Sirius
B. Rigel
C. Arcturus
D. Betelgeuse
24. During a class project, Sofia made a scale drawing—similar to the illustration below—showing the sizes of
various stars.
Then Sofia made a chart for four of the stars, using the names of the stars for column headings. She listed the
stars in order from smallest to largest. Which of the following shows how the stars’ names appeared on Sofia’s
chart?
A. Hamal, Polaris, Shedir, Arneb
B. Arneb, Hamal, Polaris, Shedir
C. Hamal, Delta Bootis, Alshain, Sun
D. Xi Ursae Majoris, Polaris, Hamal, Delta Bootis
25. A planet’s surface gravity affects the amount of atmosphere that surrounds the planet. The table below shows the
surface gravities of the terrestrial planets, compared to the gravity of Earth.
Planet
Earth
Mars
Mercury
Venus
Surface gravity (% of Earth’s gravity)
100
37
38
89
Based on their surface gravities, which terrestrial planets would have the least amount of atmosphere?
A. Mars and Venus
B . Earth and Venus
C. Mars and Mercury D. Earth and Mercury
26. The diameter of Mars is about half the size of Earth’s. Yet, Mars has a land area equal to that of Earth. This figure
compares the sizes of Mars and Earth.
A. Water covers most of Earth’s surface, and the seas on Mars are drying up
B. Water covers most of Earth’s surface, and Mars has no seas.
C. Water covers most of Earth’s surface, and Mars alternates between floods and drought.
D. Water covers most of Earth’s surface, and Mars is covered in ice.
27. In the picture of Earth below, the United States is in the center. As Earth rotates, the position of the United States in
this picture moves.
How often would the United States be in the same position in this picture again?
A. about every 12 hours
B. about every 24 hours
C. about every 6 months
D. about every 12 months
28. The figures below show a location in the Bay of Fundy at three different times of day.
What is happening in figure 1?
A. low tide
B. high tide
C. tidal wave
29. Which picture shows an object whose acceleration is zero?
A.
B.
C.
D. tidal bulge
D.
30. A rock is sitting on top of a hill. The rock suddenly begins moving down the side of the hill. Why did the
rock begin to move?
A. An unbalanced force acted on the rock and caused it to move.
B. A sudden change in gravitational force caused the rock to begin to move.
C. A balanced force caused the rock to move, and then gravity kept it moving.
D. An upward force balanced the gravitational force, so the rock began to move.
31. Melanie drew the following diagram to show how a baseball moves when a pitcher throws it.
What force causes the ball to accelerate in the downward direction when it is thrown?
A. drag
B. gravity
C. lift
D. throw
32.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Your weight on the moon is about one-sixth of your weight on Earth. Why do you weigh less on the moon?
The moon has more gravity because it is smaller than Earth.
The moon has less gravity because it has less mass than Earth.
The moon has more gravity because it is closer to Earth than the sun.
The moon has less gravity because you are closer to its center than on Earth.
33. The energy generated by the sun travels to Earth as electromagnetic waves of varying lengths. Which statement
describes an electromagnetic wave with a long wavelength?
A. It has a high frequency and low energy.
B. It has a high frequency and high energy.
C. It has a low frequency and can travel through a vacuum.
D. It has a low frequency and needs a medium to travel through.
34. The visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum consists of the colors we see in a rainbow. Each color we see
corresponds to a different wavelength of light. Which color of visible light has the longest wavelength?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
35. Heather puts a straw into a glass of water. She notices that the straw appears to be broken when she looks through
the glass and the water from the side. Which term best explains why the straw looks like it is broken?
A. absorption
B. refraction
C. scattering
D. transmission
36. Calvin shines a thin beam of light onto a material, and the light refracts. Which diagram best shows what happens to
the light?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37. Kito puts his spoon into a helping of fresh, hot, mashed potatoes as shown in the figure below.
Which process takes place when the two objects come together?
A. The heat of the spoon increases, but its thermal energy does not change.
B. Thermal energy is transferred in the form of heat from the warmer mashed potatoes to
the cooler spoon.
C. The thermal energy of both the mashed potatoes and the spoon increases as energy in
the form of heat is transferred between them.
D. Thermal energy is transferred, but heat is not responsible because the average
temperature does not change.
38. Which example illustrates the transfer of energy through radiation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
feeling warmth when you sit in a sunny place
feeling warm air while standing in front of the blower from a heating system
feeling the warmth of the bricks around a fireplace by touching them with your hand
feeling warmth on the soles of your feet when you walk along a beach on a sunny day
39. Sarah heated two cubes of aluminum to 50 °C. Cube A is a 4-cm cube. Cube B is a 2-cm cube. If the cubes do not
touch each other, which of these statements is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cube A has a higher temperature than cube B.
Cube B has a higher temperature than cube A.
Cube A has more thermal energy than cube B.
Cube B has more thermal energy than cube A.
40. Ms. Lewis is a chemist mixing two solutions together. A chemical reaction takes place, and the solution becomes
warm. Which statement best describes what has happened?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Energy has been created in the form of thermal energy.
Energy has been transferred from one form to another.
More energy has been created than has been destroyed.
The chemical energy of the solution has been destroyed.
41. The table below shows the density of four liquids as compared to water. Each liquid is insoluble in water.
Liquid
A
B
C
D
Density (g/mL)
0.89
1.64
0.83
0.77
If the four liquids were poured into a beaker of water, which liquid would form a layer below the water?
A. liquid A
B. liquid B
C. liquid C
D. liquid D
42. To observe a chemical property, you must attempt to change its identity. Which of these statements describes a
chemical property?
A. Sugar dissolves in water.
C. Salt is a solid at room temperature.
B. Oil and vinegar do not mix well.
D. Hydrogen and oxygen react to form water.
43. The pH scale shows whether a compound is acidic, basic, or neutral. Sodium chloride, which is table salt, is neutral.
Neutral compounds are neither acidic nor basic.
From the scale, what is the pH of sodium chloride?
A. 0
B. 7
C. 10
D. 14
44. Sucrose is another name for table sugar. Sucrose is a compound made from the elements carbon, hydrogen, and
oxygen. Which statement best describes the properties of sucrose?
A. They are similar to the properties of carbon.
B. They are similar to the properties of oxygen.
C. They are similar to the properties of hydrogen.
D. They are different from the properties of all the elements sucrose contains.
45. It is important to understand the differences between chemical and physical changes. Chemical changes result in
new substances, but physical changes do not. Which process is an example of a physical change?
A. Water turns to steam when boiled over a Bunsen burner. B. Carbon combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide gas
C. Water breaks down into hydrogen and oxygen gases. D. Limestone breaks down into lime and carbon dioxide when heated
46. Eugene drew the following diagram to describe the levels of structural organization of an animal’s body. He will list
the most specialized level at the top. The level that is least specialized will be at the bottom.
Which of the following should Eugene list first on his diagram?
A. organ
B. tissue
C. organism
D. organ system
47. The following picture shows a microscopic view of blood. Blood is made of different kinds of cells that work
together.
Which of the following best describes blood?
A.
organ
B.
tissue
C.
organism
D.
organ system
48. Some organisms have one cell. Other organisms have multiple cells. Which of the following is a characteristic of cells
in a multicellular organism?
A.
All cells have the same function.
B.
Every cell has a different function.
C.
Different kinds of cells have the same function.
D.
Different kinds of cells have different functions.
49. Part of the cell theory states that cells come from other cells. Which statement below explains that this part of cell
theory applies to all organisms?
A. The cells of all organisms take in nutrients from their environment. B. The cells of all organisms have cytoplasm.
C. The cells of all organisms divide to make more cells.
D. The cells of all organisms excrete waste.
50. Which of the following choices includes two structures that are found in plant cells, but not in animal cells?
A.
cell wall, nucleus
B.
chloroplasts, ribosomes
C.
lysosomes, mitochondria
D.
cell wall, large central vacuole
51. Latoya does an experiment on the cells that she is studying. She adds sugar molecules to the cells. The cells
transport the sugar to the organelles that will use it to make ATP. Latoya traces the movement of the sugar inside the
cells. Toward which organelle is Latoya likely to find the sugar molecules moving?
A. chloroplast
B. lysosome
C. mitochondrion
D. nucleus
52. Which of these phrases best describes a pathogen?
A.
all microorganisms
B.
noninfectious organisms
C.
anything that causes sickness
D.
microorganisms that live in water
53. The following organs are part of the human digestive system.
A: anus
B: small intestine
C: stomach
D: rectum
Which of the following choices arranges the organs in the order in which materials would move through them during
digestion?
A.
C, B, D, A
B.
B, C, A, D
C.
B, D, C, A
D.
D, B, C, A
54.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following correctly lists the levels of classification in order?
domain, kingdom, genus, species, phylum, class, order, family
genus, species, domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
genus, species, phylum, class, order, family, domain, kingdom
55. Felicia’s teacher gives her the following list of organisms:
1. Multicellular organism that has cells with cell walls and makes its own food
2. Single-celled organism that gets food from its environment
3. Simple multicellular organism that lacks true tissues and organs and makes its own food
4. Multicellular organism that gets food by eating other organisms
56. Which of these scenarios is an example of natural selection?
A. Farmers crossbreed two types of cows to produce a breed of cow that has high-quality beef and can tolerate a hot
climate.
B. Giraffes that have longer necks survive a dry season by eating leaves from the tops of trees. Those giraffes breed
more successfully that year.
C. Dogs of the same breed that have a desirable coat color are bred with one another to produce more puppies with that
same coat color.
D. Rattlesnakes that rattle when approached by humans are killed, but rattlesnakes that remain silent are not killed. The
quiet snakes survive and breed.
57. The diagram below shows the changes over time in a population of mice in the wild.
Which statement best describes why the mouse population changed over time?
A.
The light mice are preyed upon more than the dark mice because they are more visible to the hawks.
B.
The light mice are more attractive to the other mice and therefore reproduce more successfully than dark mice.
C.
The dark mice are selected less than the light mice because they are less tasty to the hawks.
D.
The dark mice are easily spotted by hawks, so dark mice reproduce more rapidly to maintain the population size.
58. Having attached or unattached earlobes is an inherited trait. The figure below shows an attached earlobe and the
two alleles responsible for this trait.
Which statement correctly describes the genotype and phenotype?
A.
The genotype is the attached earlobe, and the phenotype is e.
B.
The genotype is e, and the phenotype is the attached earlobe.
C.
The genotype is the attached earlobe, and the phenotype is ee.
D.
The genotype is ee, and the phenotype is the attached earlobe.
59. Look at the diagram shown below.
Which of these choices gives the correct ratio for the offspring predicted by the diagram?
A. 2 BB : 1 Bb
B. 1 BB : 1 BB
C. 1 BB : 1 Bb
D. 1 BB : 2 Bb
60. Remoras are small fish that attach to sharks but do not harm them. When sharks tear prey apart, remoras eat the
leftovers. What relationship do remoras have with sharks?
A.
mutualism
B.
parasitism
C.
commensalism
D.
predator-prey
61. The graph below shows the populations of two different animals over a period of time.
What might the relationship be between the two animals whose populations are represented in the graph?
A.
There is no relationship between them.
B.
The animals compete over the same resources.
C.
One animal depends on the other, but the other animal is unaffected.
D.
There is a relationship of dependency between the animals, and both are affected.
62.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sunlight and chlorophyll play major roles in photosynthesis. What happens when sunlight strikes a plant’s leaves?
Chlorophyll captures oxygen.
Chlorophyll captures light energy.
Chlorophyll releases light energy.
Chlorophyll releases carbon dioxide.
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What does the law of conservation of energy state?
It is important to use as little energy as possible.
Organisms save the energy that they create.
Organisms change energy into mass.
Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
64. A physical change does not involve a change in the substance’s chemical identity. Which of these statements
describes a physical change?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A banana starts to smell as it ripens.
Onions taste sweeter after being cooked.
Aluminum cans get crushed before recycling.
Copper turns green when exposed to air.
Answers and standard.
1. SC.7.N.3.1 C
2. SC.6.N.2.2 B
3. SC.7.N.1.2 A
4. SC.7.N..1.2 B
5. SC.7.N.1.5 D
6. SC.7.N.3.1 C
7. SC.6.N.2.2 D
8. SC.7.N.1.5 C
9 . SC.8.N.1.1 D
10. SC.8.N.1.1 C
11. SC.6.E.7.4 C
12. SC.6.E.7.4 B
13. SC.6.E.7.5 D
14. SC.6.E.7.5 C
15. SC.7.E.6.2 B
16. SC.7.E.6.2 B
17. SC.7 E.6.4 D
18. SC.7.E.6.4 C
19. SC.7.E.6.5 D
20. SC.7.E.6.5 B
21. SC.8.E.5.3 C
22. SC.8.E.5.3 B
23. SC.8.E.5.5 B
24. SC.8.E.5.5 A
25. SC.8.E.5.7 C
26.SC.8.E.5.7 B
27. SC.8.E.5.9 B
28. SC.8.E.5.9 A
29. SC.6.P.13.3 B
30 SC.6.P.13.3 A
31.SC.6.P.13.1 B
32. SC.6.P.13.1 B
40. SC.7.P.11.2 B
41. SC.8.P.8.4 B
42. SC.8.P.8.4 D
43. SC.8.P.8.5 B
44. SC.8.P8.5 D
45. SC.8.P.9.2 A
46. SC.6.L.14.1 C
47. SC.6.L.14.1 B
33. SC.7.P.10.1 C
34.SC.7.P.10.1 C
35. SC.7.P.10.3 B
36. SC.7.P.10.3 C
37. SC.7.P.11.4 B
38. SC.7.P.11.4 A
39. SC.7.P.11.2 C
40. SC.7.P.11.2 B
41. SC.8.P.8.4 B
42. SC.8.P.8.4 D
43. SC.8.P.8.5 B
44. SC.8.P8.5 D
45. SC.8.P.9.2 A
46. SC.6.L.14.1 C
47. SC.6.L.14.1 B
48. SC.6.L.14.2 D
49. SC.6.L.14.2 C
50. SC.6.L.14.4 D
51. SC.6.L.14.4 C
52. SC.6L.14.5 C
53. SC.6.L.14.5 A
54. SC.6.L.15.1 C
55. SC.6.L.15.1 A
56. SC.7.L.15.2 B
57. SC.7.L.15.2 A
58. SC.7.L.16.1 D
59. SC.7.L.16.1 C
60. SC.7.L.17.2 C
61. SC.7.L.17.2 D
62. SC.8.L.18.4 B
63. SC.8.L.18.4 D
64. SC.8.P.9.2 C