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Transcript
Exam 2 Review
*Note: I am not responsible for any of the material and do not know any of the questions that are
going to be on the test. This review is only a reflection of what I think will be on the upcoming test
and may not include all the material so make sure this isn’t your only study guide*
1) All protists are
A) unicellular.
B) eukaryotic.
C) symbionts.
D) monophyletic.
E) mixotrophic.
2) 2) Biologists have long been aware that the defunct kingdom Protista is polyphyletic.
Which of these statements is most consistent with this conclusion?
A) Many species within this kingdom were once classified as monerans.
B) Animals, plants, and fungi arose from different protist ancestors.
C) The eukaryotic condition has evolved more than once among the protists.
D) Chloroplasts among various protists are similar to those found in prokaryotes.
E) Some protists, all animals, and all fungi share a protist common ancestor, but these
protists, animals, and fungi are currently assigned to three different kingdoms.
3) Which protists are in the same supergroup as land plants?
a) Green algae
b) Dinoflagellates
c) Red algae
d) Brown algae
e) Both a and c
4) In life cycles with an alteration of generations, multicellular haploid form alternate with
a) Unicellular haploid forms
b) Multicellular diploid forms
c) Unicellular diploid forms
d) Multicellular haploid forms
5) Green algae differ from land plants in that many green algae
A) are heterotrophs.
B) are unicellular.
C) have plastids.
D) have alternation of generations.
E) have cell walls containing cellulose.
6) The closest relative of fungi are thought to be the
a) Slime molds
b) Animals
c) Plants
d) Green Algae
7) The most important adaptive associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is
a) The ability to form haustoria and parasitize other organisms
b) The potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habits
c) The increased chance of contact between mating types
d) An extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive
nutrition
8) What do fungi and arthropods have in common?
A) Both groups are commonly coenocytic.
B) The haploid state is dominant in both groups.
C) Both groups are predominantly heterotrophs that ingest their food.
D) The protective coats of both groups are made of chitin.
E) Both groups have cell walls.
9) The vegetative (nutritionally active) bodies of most fungi are
A) composed of hyphae.
B) referred to as a mycelium.
C) usually underground.
D) All of the above
10) Immediately after karyogamy occurs, which term applies?
A) plasmogamy
B) heterokaryotic
C) diploid
D) dikaryotic
11) The multicellular condition of animals and fungi seems to have arisen
A) due to common ancestry.
B) by convergent evolution.
C) by inheritance of acquired traits.
D) by natural means, and is a homology.
E) by serial endosymbioses.
12) When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers
sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and
pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers
who engage in this practice should be that the
A) fungicide might also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes.
B) lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed.
C) fungicide might also kill mycorrhizae.
D) sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue.
13) With respect to angiosperms, which of the following is incorrectly paired with its
chromosome count?
a) Zygote – 2n
b) Megaspore – 2n
c) Egg – n
d) Sperm – n
e) Microspore – n
14) Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and
angiosperms from other plants?
a) alteration of generations
b) integuments
c) pollen
d) dependent gametophytes
15) Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except
a) seeds
b) ovules
c) vascular tissue
d) ovaries
16) Which group is noted for the independence of gametophyte and sporophyte generations
from each other?
A) ferns
B) mosses, hornworts, and liverworts
C) charophytes
D) angiosperms
E) gymnosperms
17) The seed coat's most important function is to provide
A) a nonstressful environment for the megasporangium.
B) the means for dispersal.
C) dormancy.
D) a nutrient supply for the embryo.
E) desiccation resistance.
18) In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics are unique to the seedproducing plants?
A) sporopollenin
B) lignin present in cell walls
C) pollen
D) use of air currents as a dispersal agent
E) megaphylls
19) What are five shared traits between green algae and plant?
20) Which of the following statements is true of the pine life cycle?
A) Cones are homologous to the capsules of moss plants.
B) The pine tree is a gametophyte.
C) Male and female gametophytes are in close proximity during gamete synthesis.
D) Conifer pollen grains contain male gametophytes.
E) Double fertilization is a relatively common phenomenon.
21) Which trait(s) is (are) shared by many modern gymnosperms and angiosperms?
1. pollen transported by wind
2. lignified xylem
3. microscopic gametophytes
4. sterile sporophylls, modified to attract pollinators
5. endosperm
22) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the
pollen tube?
A) male gametophyte
B) female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte
23) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the
fruit?
A) male gametophyte
B) female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte
24) Angiosperm double fertilization is so-called because it features the formation of
A) two embryos from one egg and two sperm cells.
B) one embryo from one egg fertilized by two sperm cells.
C) two embryos from two sperm cells and two eggs.
D) one embryo involving one sperm cell and an endosperm involving a second
sperm cell.
E) one embryo from two eggs fertilized by a single sperm cell.
25) Hypothetically, one of the major benefits of double fertilization in angiosperms is to
A) decrease the potential for mutation by insulating the embryo with other cells.
B) increase the number of fertilization events and offspring produced.
C) promote diversity in flower shape and color.
D) coordinate developmental timing between the embryo and its food stores.
E) emphasize embryonic survival by increasing embryo size.
26) Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed?
A) ovule
B) ovary
C) fruit
D) stamen
27) Which feature of cycads distinguishes them from most other gymnosperms?
1. They have exposed ovules.
2. They have flagellated sperm.
3. They are pollinated by animals.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 2 and 3
28) Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from
fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition by
A) preying on animals.
B) ingesting it.
C) consuming living, rather than dead, prey.
D) using enzymes to digest their food.
29) Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?
A) cells that have mitochondria
B) the structural carbohydrate, chitin
C) nervous conduction and muscular movement
D) heterotrophy
E) Two of these responses are correct.
30) What do animals as diverse as corals and monkeys have in common?
A) body cavity between body wall and digestive system
B) number of embryonic tissue layers
C) type of body symmetry
D) presence of Hox genes
E) degree of cephalization
31) The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a
A) unicellular chytrid.
B) unicellular yeast.
C) multicellular algae.
D) multicellular fungus.
E) flagellated protist.
32) Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of
A) mass extinction.
B) evolutionary stasis.
C) adaptive radiation.
D) All three of the responses are correct.
E) Only two of the responses are correct.
33) An adult animal that possesses bilateral symmetry is most certainly also
A) triploblastic.
B) a deuterostome.
C) eucoelomate.
D) highly cephalized.
34) At which developmental stage should one be able to first distinguish a diploblastic
embryo from a triploblastic embryo?
A) fertilization
B) cleavage
C) gastrulation
D) coelom formation
E) metamorphosis
35) What distinguishes a coelomate animal from a pseudocoelomate animal is that
coelomates
A) have a body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have a solid body.
B) contain tissues derived from mesoderm, whereas pseudocoelomates have no such
tissue.
C) have a body cavity completely lined by mesodermal tissue, whereas
pseudocoelomates do not.
D) have a complete digestive system with mouth and anus, whereas pseudocoelomates
have a digestive tract with only one opening.
E) have a gut that lacks suspension within the body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates
have mesenteries that hold the digestive system in place.
36) Which of the following is descriptive of protostomes?
A) spiral and indeterminate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth
B) spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth
C) spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus
D) radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus
E) radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth
37) Which of the following characteristics generally applies to protostome development?
A) radial cleavage
B) determinate cleavage
C) diploblastic embryo
D) blastopore becomes the anus
E) archenteron absent
38) The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is that between having
A) radial or bilateral symmetry.
B) a well-defined head or no head.
C) diploblastic or triploblastic embryos.
D) true tissues or no tissues.
E) a body cavity or no body cavity.
39) With the current molecular-based phylogeny in mind, rank the following from most
inclusive to least inclusive.
1. ecdysozoan
2. protostome
3. eumetazoan
4. triploblastic
A) 4, 2, 3, 1
B) 4, 3, 1, 2
C) 3, 4, 1, 2
D) 3, 4, 2, 1
E) 4, 3, 2, 1
40) According to the evidence collected so far, the animal kingdom is
A) monophyletic.
B) paraphyletic.
C) polyphyletic.
D) euphyletic.
E) multiphyletic.
41) Some researchers claim that sponge genomes have homeotic genes, but no Hox genes. If
true, this finding would
A) strengthen sponges' evolutionary ties to the Eumetazoa.
B) mean that sponges must no longer be classified as animals.
C) confirm the identity of sponges as "basal animals."
D) mean that extinct sponges must have been the last common ancestor of animals and
fungi.
E) require sponges to be reclassified as choanoflagellates.
MATCHING: Match the following organisms with their phylum and class or
subphylum. Answers may be used more than once or not at all.
Organism
42) 9. jellyfish
43) 10. crayfish
44) 11. snail
45) 12. leech
46) 13. tapeworm
47) 14. cricket
48) 15. scallop
49) 16. tick
50) 17. sea urchin
51) 18. hydra
52) 19. planaria
53) 20. chambered nautilus
Phyla
A. Annelida
B. Arthropoda
C. Cnidaria
D. Echinodermata
E. Ectoprocta
F. Mollusca
G. Nematoda
Phylum
Class or Subphylum
Cnidaria
__________________
Arthropoda
Crustacea
Mollusca
Gastropoda
Annelida
__________________
Platyhelminthes
__________________
Arthropoda
Hexapoda
Mollusca
Bivalva
Arthropoda
__________________
Echinodermata
__________________
Cnidaria
__________________
Platyhelminthes
__________________
Mollusca
__________________
Classes or Subphyla
a. Arachnida
b. Bivalvia
c. Cephalopoda
d. Cestoidea
e. Crustacea
f. Echinoidea
g. Gastropoda
H. Silicea
I. Platyhelminthes
J. Rotifera
h. Hirudinea
i. Hydrozoa
j. Insects (Hexopoda)
k. Oligochaeta
l. Scyphozoa
m. Turbellaria
54) Which of the following is true of members of the phylum Cnidaria?
A) They are not capable of locomotion because they lack true muscle tissue.
B) They are primarily filter feeders.
C) They have either, or both, of two body forms: mobile polyps and sessile medusae.
D) They may use a gastrovascular cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton.
E) They are the simplest organisms with a complete alimentary canal (two openings).
55) Corals are most closely related to which group?
A) jellies
B) freshwater hydras
C) sea anemones
D) sponges
E) barnacles
56) Which characteristic(s) is (are) shared by both cnidarians and flatworms?
A) dorsoventrally flattened bodies
B) true muscle
C) radial symmetry
D) a digestive system with a single opening
E) two of these
57) Planarians lack dedicated respiratory and circulatory systems because
A) none of their cells are far removed from the gastrovascular cavity or from the
external environment.
B) they lack mesoderm as embryos and, therefore, lack the adult tissues derived from
mesoderm.
C) their flame bulbs can carry out respiratory and circulatory functions.
D) their body cavity, a pseudocoelom, carries out these functions.
58) Which mollusca clade includes members that undergo embryonic torsion?
A) chitons
B) bivalves
C) gastropods
D) cephalopods
59) A radula is present in members of which clade(s)?
A) chitons
B) bivalves
C) gastropods
D) cephalopods
E) both chitons and gastropods
60) The heartworms that can accumulate within the hearts of dogs and other mammals have a
pseudocoelom, an alimentary canal, and an outer covering that is occasionally shed. To
which phylum does the heartworm belong?
A) Platyhelminthes
B) Arthropoda
C) Nematoda
D) Acoela
E) Annelida
61) Which of the following are entirely, or partly, composed of calcium carbonate?
A) spicules of siliceous sponges
B) coral animals' exoskeletons
C) molluscs' mantles
D) insects' cuticles
E) nematodes' cuticles
62) Among the invertebrate phyla, phylum Arthropoda is unique in possessing members that
have
A) a cuticle.
B) a ventral nerve cord.
C) open circulation.
D) wings.
E) segmented bodies.
63) A shared derived characteristic for members of the arthropod subgroup that includes
spiders would be the presence of
A) chelicerae.
B) an open circulatory system.
C) an exoskeleton.
D) a cuticle.
E) a cephalothorax.
64) The possession of two pairs of antennae is a characteristic of
A) spiders.
B) insects.
C) centipedes.
D) millipedes.
E) crustaceans.
65) Which of the following animal groups is entirely aquatic?
A) Mollusca
B) Crustacea
C) Echinodermata
D) Nematoda
E) Platyhelminthes