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Transcript
Measurement of
Economic Performance
Sample Questions
Mr. Bordelon
AP Macroeconomics
If the circular flow model is in
equilibrium (the sum of money
flows into each box is equal to
the sum of the money flows out
of that box), which of the
following is likely to happen if
there is an increase in consumer
spending?
a. A reduction in investment
spending equal to the
increase in consumer
spending
b. A decrease in the nominal
GDP
c. An increase in the
unemployment rate
d. A decrease in the inflation
rate
e. An increase in the nominal
GDP
If the circular flow model is in
equilibrium (the sum of money
flows into each box is equal to
the sum of the money flows out
of that box), which of the
following is likely to happen if
there is an increase in consumer
spending?
a. A reduction in investment
spending equal to the
increase in consumer
spending
b. A decrease in the nominal
GDP
c. An increase in the
unemployment rate
d. A decrease in the inflation
rate
e. An increase in the nominal
GDP
What are net exports in
this economy?
a. $0
b. $30
c. $60
d. $100
e. $200
What are net exports in
this economy?
a. $0
b. $30
c. $60
d. $100
e. $200
What is disposable income
in this economy?
a. $0
b. $100
c. $400
d. $500
e. $300
What is disposable income
in this economy?
a. $0
b. $100
c. $400
d. $500
e. $300
In this economy, how does
the government finance
its purchases of good and
services?
a. By printing money
b. By collecting taxes
c. By borrowing
d. By collecting taxes and
borrowing
e. By collecting taxes and
selling assets
In this economy, how does
the government finance
its purchases of good and
services?
a. By printing money
b. By collecting taxes
c. By borrowing
d. By collecting taxes and
borrowing
e. By collecting taxes and
selling assets
Disposable income equals:
a. Income plus taxes plus government transfers
b. Income plus government spending minus taxes.
c. Income minus taxes plus government spending.
d. Income minus taxes minus government transfers.
e. Income plus government transfers minus taxes.
Disposable income equals:
a. Income plus taxes plus government transfers
b. Income plus government spending minus taxes.
c. Income minus taxes plus government spending.
d. Income minus taxes minus government transfers.
e. Income plus government transfers minus taxes.
Rent
$2400
Consumption
Spending
7,900
Social Security
Benefit
6,100
Investment
Spending
2,100
Wages and
Salaries
6,500
Exports
800
Interest
1,900
Government
Purchases of
goods and
services
2,600
Profits
1,400
Imports
1,200
Purchase of
stocks
6,300
Unemployment
3,950
Payroll taxes
2,965
Sales Taxes
1,300
Using the information in the
table provided, which of the
following is the correct
calculation for GDP in 2008?
a. $47,475
b.$12,200
c. $21,485
d.$34,085
e.$12,600
Rent
$2400
Consumption
Spending
7,900
Social Security
Benefit
6,100
Investment
Spending
2,100
Wages and
Salaries
6,500
Exports
800
Interest
1,900
Government
Purchases of
goods and
services
2,600
Profits
1,400
Imports
1,200
Purchase of
stocks
6,300
Unemployment
3,950
Payroll taxes
2,965
Sales Taxes
1,300
Using the information in the
table provided, which of the
following is the correct
calculation for GDP in 2008?
a. $47,475
b.$12,200
c. $21,485
d.$34,085
e.$12,600
Which one of the following transactions will be included in the official
measurement of GDP?
a. Stan sold his house at a huge gain.
b. Monica illegally downloaded movies to her laptop.
c. Ben bought shares of Apple stock.
d. Sean bought a new Iphone.
e. Max bought an antique dresser.
Which one of the following transactions will be included in the official
measurement of GDP?
a. Stan sold his house at a huge gain.
b. Monica illegally downloaded movies to her laptop.
c. Ben bought shares of Apple stock.
d. Sean bought a new Iphone.
e. Max bought an antique dresser.
Which of the following best represents the equation for GDP?
a. GDP = C + I + G – X + IM
b. GDP = C + I + G + X – IM
c. GDP = C + I + G + Taxes – Value Added
d. GDP = C + I + G + Taxes + X + IM
e. GDP = C + I + G + Taxes – Transfers + X - IM
Which of the following best represents the equation for GDP?
a. GDP = C + I + G – X + IM
b. GDP = C + I + G + X – IM
c. GDP = C + I + G + Taxes – Value Added
d. GDP = C + I + G + Taxes + X + IM
e. GDP = C + I + G + Taxes – Transfers + X - IM
Intermediate goods are not counted in the calculation of GDP,
because:
a. That involves double-counting.
b. These goods are not produced for the market.
c. These are produced in the underground economy.
d. These goods involve financial transactions.
e. These goods were not produced in the current year.
Intermediate goods are not counted in the calculation of GDP,
because:
a. That involves double-counting.
b. These goods are not produced for the market.
c. These are produced in the underground economy.
d. These goods involve financial transactions.
e. These goods were not produced in the current year.
Which of the following would be an example of an intermediate good?
a. Stocks and bonds purchased by a business executive.
b. A cellular telephone purchased by a college student
c. A wedding ring purchased by an engineer for his fiancee
d. Tires purchased from Goodyear by General Motors for newly
produced electric cars.
e. A subscription for satellite television services from DirectTV.
Which of the following would be an example of an intermediate good?
a. Stocks and bonds purchased by a business executive.
b. A cellular telephone purchased by a college student
c. A wedding ring purchased by an engineer for his fiancee
d. Tires purchased from Goodyear by General Motors for newly
produced electric cars.
e. A subscription for satellite television services from DirectTV.
Suppose a consumer buys a frozen pizza at the grocery store at a price
of $10. The frozen pizza company sold the pizza to the store for $5.
The frozen pizza company purchased the pizza dough and tomato
sauce from a food processing company at a price of $2 and bought the
cheese from a dairy at a price of $1. How much has GDP increased?
a. $2
b. $5
c. $10
d. $18
e. $15
Suppose a consumer buys a frozen pizza at the grocery store at a price
of $10. The frozen pizza company sold the pizza to the store for $5.
The frozen pizza company purchased the pizza dough and tomato
sauce from a food processing company at a price of $2 and bought the
cheese from a dairy at a price of $1. How much has GDP increased?
a. $2
b. $5
c. $10
d. $18
e. $15
Consider an economy that produces only two goods: DVDs and DVD
players. If 10 DVDs are sold at $20 each and 5 DVD players are sold at
$100 each, then nominal GDP is:
a. $100.
b. $700.
c. $1,100.
d. $900.
e. $7,000
Consider an economy that produces only two goods: DVDs and DVD
players. If 10 DVDs are sold at $20 each and 5 DVD players are sold at
$100 each, then nominal GDP is:
a. $100.
b. $700.
c. $1,100.
d. $900.
e. $7,000
Year
Output
Price per Unit
1
2
$2
2
3
4
3 (base period)
4
5
4
6
6
5
7
9
The value of Year 4’s output in nominal dollars is:
a. $6
b. $24
c. $30
d. $36
e. $12
Year
Output
Price per Unit
1
2
$2
2
3
4
3 (base period)
4
5
4
6
6
5
7
9
The value of Year 4’s output in nominal dollars is:
a. $6
b. $24
c. $30
d. $36
e. $12
Year
Output
Price per Unit
1
2
$2
2
3
4
3 (base period)
4
5
4
6
6
5
7
9
The value of Year 2’s output in real dollars is:
a. $4.
b. $12.
c. $6.
d. $16.
e. $15.
Year
Output
Price per Unit
1
2
$2
2
3
4
3 (base period)
4
5
4
6
6
5
7
9
The value of Year 2’s output in real dollars is:
a. $4.
b. $12.
c. $6.
d. $16.
e. $15.
Year
Output
Price per Unit
1
2
$2
2
3
4
3 (base period)
4
5
4
6
6
5
7
9
The value of Year 3’s output in real dollars is:
a. $5.
b. $20.
c. $27.
d. $36.
e. $9.
Year
Output
Price per Unit
1
2
$2
2
3
4
3 (base period)
4
5
4
6
6
5
7
9
The value of Year 3’s output in real dollars is:
a. $5.
b. $20.
c. $27.
d. $36.
e. $9.
Nominal GDP:
a. Has not been adjusted for changes in prices over time.
b. Has been adjusted for changes in prices over time.
c. Is a small or nominal amount of output.
d. Excludes the international sector.
e. Excludes government spending.
Nominal GDP:
a. Has not been adjusted for changes in prices over time.
b. Has been adjusted for changes in prices over time.
c. Is a small or nominal amount of output.
d. Excludes the international sector.
e. Excludes government spending.
Real GDP is:
a. The value of the production of all final goods and services
measured in current prices.
b. The value of the production of all final goods and services
adjusted for price changes.
c. The projected future value of GDP.
d. Calculated by adding up only the real number of all items sold in
the U.S. regardless of their prices.
e. The value of the production of all final goods and services
measured in future prices.
Real GDP is:
a. The value of the production of all final goods and services
measured in current prices.
b. The value of the production of all final goods and services
adjusted for price changes.
c. The projected future value of GDP.
d. Calculated by adding up only the real number of all items sold in
the U.S. regardless of their prices.
e. The value of the production of all final goods and services
measured in future prices.
To be counted as unemployed, one must:
a. Have had a job previously.
b. Be out of work and be actively looking for a job.
c. Have had a job before and be actively looking for work.
d. Actively looking for a job and have at least a high school degree or
its equivalent.
e. Be out of work and not a full-time student.
To be counted as unemployed, one must:
a. Have had a job previously.
b. Be out of work and be actively looking for a job.
c. Have had a job before and be actively looking for work.
d. Actively looking for a job and have at least a high school degree or
its equivalent.
e. Be out of work and not a full-time student.
If a country has a working-age population of 200 million, 135 million
people with jobs, and 15 million people unemployed and seeking
employment, then its unemployment rate is:
a. 4%.
b. 7.5%.
c. 10%.
d. 67.5%.
e. 30%.
If a country has a working-age population of 200 million, 135 million
people with jobs, and 15 million people unemployed and seeking
employment, then its unemployment rate is:
a. 4%.
b. 7.5%.
c. 10%.
d. 67.5%.
e. 30%.
Which of the following would describe a person who is counted as
unemployed by the government?
I.
Stan does not have a job but is actively seeking employment.
II. Beverly has a part-time job but would prefer a full-time job.
III. Moesha does not have a job because she recently retired.
a. I only.
b. II only.
c. III only.
d. I and II only.
e. I, II, and III.
Which of the following would describe a person who is counted as
unemployed by the government?
I.
Stan does not have a job but is actively seeking employment.
II. Beverly has a part-time job but would prefer a full-time job.
III. Moesha does not have a job because she recently retired.
a. I only.
b. II only.
c. III only.
d. I and II only.
e. I, II, and III.
If the labor force totals 100 million persons and 90 million are actively
working, then the unemployment rate is _____.
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 90%
e. 11%
If the labor force totals 100 million persons and 90 million are actively
working, then the unemployment rate is _____.
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 90%
e. 11%
Demographics
Number of Residents
Employed
5000
Unemployed and looking for work
1000
Not working due to disability
200
Not working due to retirement
700
Unemployed and not looking for work
500
due to discouragement over job prospects
Under the age of 16
How many people are in the labor force?
a. 6900
b. 9400
c. 7400
d. 6500
e. 6000
2000
Demographics
Number of Residents
Employed
5000
Unemployed and looking for work
1000
Not working due to disability
200
Not working due to retirement
700
Unemployed and not looking for work
500
due to discouragement over job prospects
Under the age of 16
How many people are in the labor force?
a. 6900
b. 9400
c. 7400
d. 6500
e. 6000
2000
Demographics
Number of Residents
Employed
5000
Unemployed and looking for work
1000
Not working due to disability
200
Not working due to retirement
700
Unemployed and not looking for work
500
due to discouragement over job prospects
Under the age of 16
2000
What is the unemployment rate in this economy?
a. 64%
b. 48%
c. 17%
d. 6%
e. 1%
Demographics
Number of Residents
Employed
5000
Unemployed and looking for work
1000
Not working due to disability
200
Not working due to retirement
700
Unemployed and not looking for work
500
due to discouragement over job prospects
Under the age of 16
2000
What is the unemployment rate in this economy?
a. 64%
b. 48%
c. 17%
d. 6%
e. 1%
The presence of discouraged workers in the economy tends to:
a. Raise the official unemployment rate.
b. Lower the official unemployment rate.
c. Lower the number of people who are frictionally unemployed.
d. Increase the number of people who are structurally unemployed.
e. Have no impact on the official unemployment rate.
The presence of discouraged workers in the economy tends to:
a. Raise the official unemployment rate.
b. Lower the official unemployment rate.
c. Lower the number of people who are frictionally unemployed.
d. Increase the number of people who are structurally unemployed.
e. Have no impact on the official unemployment rate.
Suppose the labor market is in equilibrium at E when the government
introduces a minimum wage of Wf. One problem that may arise is that the
quantity of labor supplied would _____, resulting in structural unemployment.
a. Decrease to Qd
b. Stay at Qe
c. Increase to Qs
d. Stay at We
e. Decrease to zero.
Suppose the labor market is in equilibrium at E when the government
introduces a minimum wage of Wf. One problem that may arise is that the
quantity of labor supplied would _____, resulting in structural unemployment.
a. Decrease to Qd
b. Stay at Qe
c. Increase to Qs
d. Stay at We
e. Decrease to zero.
Suppose the labor market is in equilibrium at E when the government
introduces a minimum wage of Wf. Structural unemployment will equal:
a. Qs – Qd
b. Qe – Qd
c. Qs – Qe
d. Zero
e. Wf - We
Suppose the labor market is in equilibrium at E when the government
introduces a minimum wage of Wf. Structural unemployment will equal:
a. Qs – Qd
b. Qe – Qd
c. Qs – Qe
d. Zero
e. Wf - We
Suppose that after some time with a minimum wage of Wf, the
government abolishes the minimum wage. Employment would:
a. Decrease to Qe.
b. Increase to Qs.
c. Stay at Qe.
d. Decrease to zero.
e. Increase to Qe.
Suppose that after some time with a minimum wage of Wf, the
government abolishes the minimum wage. Employment would:
a. Decrease to Qe.
b. Increase to Qs.
c. Stay at Qe.
d. Decrease to zero.
e. Increase to Qe.
A minimum wage of $7.25 per hour might cause structural
unemployment if the equilibrium wage in that labor market is:
a. $7.25.
b. $8.00.
c. $10.00.
d. $7.30.
e. $6.85.
A minimum wage of $7.25 per hour might cause structural
unemployment if the equilibrium wage in that labor market is:
a. $7.25.
b. $8.00.
c. $10.00.
d. $7.30.
e. $6.85.
Which of the following equations describes the calculation of the
natural unemployment rate?
a. Natural unemployment = frictional unemployment + structural
unemployment
b. Natural unemployment = cyclical unemployment + structural
unemployment
c. Natural unemployment = frictional unemployment + cyclical
unemployment
d. Natural unemployment = frictional unemployment + structural
unemployment + cyclical unemployment
e. Natural unemployment = actual unemployment – structural
unemployment
Which of the following equations describes the calculation of the
natural unemployment rate?
a. Natural unemployment = frictional unemployment + structural
unemployment
b. Natural unemployment = cyclical unemployment + structural
unemployment
c. Natural unemployment = frictional unemployment + cyclical
unemployment
d. Natural unemployment = frictional unemployment + structural
unemployment + cyclical unemployment
e. Natural unemployment = actual unemployment – structural
unemployment
The natural level of unemployment occurs if there is no:
a. unemployment.
b. Frictional unemployment.
c. Structural unemployment.
d. Cyclical unemployment.
e. Seasonal unemployment.
The natural level of unemployment occurs if there is no:
a. unemployment.
b. Frictional unemployment.
c. Structural unemployment.
d. Cyclical unemployment.
e. Seasonal unemployment.
When the economy is in full employment,
a. Unemployment is zero.
b. Only cyclical unemployment is zero.
c. Only frictional unemployment is zero.
d. The natural rate of unemployment is zero.
e. Actual unemployment rates exceed the natural rate of
unemployment.
When the economy is in full employment,
a. Unemployment is zero.
b. Only cyclical unemployment is zero.
c. Only frictional unemployment is zero.
d. The natural rate of unemployment is zero.
e. Actual unemployment rates exceed the natural rate of
unemployment.
In 2011, the Bureau of Labor Statistics calculated the unemployment
rate to be 7.5%. If the frictional unemployment was 3% and the
structural employment was 2%, then the cyclical unemployment rate
would be:
a. 2.5%
b. 4.5%
c. 12.5%
d. 5.5%
e. 5%
In 2011, the Bureau of Labor Statistics calculated the unemployment
rate to be 7.5%. If the frictional unemployment was 3% and the
structural employment was 2%, then the cyclical unemployment rate
would be:
a. 2.5%
b. 4.5%
c. 12.5%
d. 5.5%
e. 5%
When hyperinflation forces Emily to visit her bank very frequently to
keep her cash holdings to a minimum, economists say that Emily is
experiencing a:
a. Search cost.
b. Menu cost.
c. Unit-of-account cost.
d. Fisher effect.
e. Shoe-leather cost.
When hyperinflation forces Emily to visit her bank very frequently to
keep her cash holdings to a minimum, economists say that Emily is
experiencing a:
a. Search cost.
b. Menu cost.
c. Unit-of-account cost.
d. Fisher effect.
e. Shoe-leather cost.
Menu costs of inflation are the:
a. Costs associated with money being a less reliable unit of
measurement.
b. Costs of transactions associated with avoiding the inflation tax.
c. Costs associated with businesses changing prices.
d. Revenue the government gets from printing money.
e. Costs associated with negotiating lower prices.
Menu costs of inflation are the:
a. Costs associated with money being a less reliable unit of
measurement.
b. Costs of transactions associated with avoiding the inflation tax.
c. Costs associated with businesses changing prices.
d. Revenue the government gets from printing money.
e. Costs associated with negotiating lower prices.
Which of the following is true?
a. Unexpected inflation benefits lenders and hurts borrowers.
b. Unexpected inflation benefits lenders but does not affect
borrowers.
c. Unexpected inflation benefits borrowers but does not affect
lenders.
d. Unexpected deflation benefits lenders but does not affect
borrowers.
e. Unexpected inflation benefits borrowers and hurts lenders.
Which of the following is true?
a. Unexpected inflation benefits lenders and hurts borrowers.
b. Unexpected inflation benefits lenders but does not affect
borrowers.
c. Unexpected inflation benefits borrowers but does not affect
lenders.
d. Unexpected deflation benefits lenders but does not affect
borrowers.
e. Unexpected inflation benefits borrowers and hurts lenders.
Unanticipated inflation:
a. Increases the value of money.
b. Decreases uncertainty about the future.
c. Reduces the value of the debt owed by borrowers.
d. Helps lenders.
e. Benefits potential home buyers.
Unanticipated inflation:
a. Increases the value of money.
b. Decreases uncertainty about the future.
c. Reduces the value of the debt owed by borrowers.
d. Helps lenders.
e. Benefits potential home buyers.
Unanticipated inflation:
a. Helps those on fixed incomes.
b. Hurts borrowers and helps lenders.
c. Helps borrowers and hurts lenders.
d. Causes nominal interest rates to decrease.
e. Causes people to hold more cash.
Unanticipated inflation:
a. Helps those on fixed incomes.
b. Hurts borrowers and helps lenders.
c. Helps borrowers and hurts lenders.
d. Causes nominal interest rates to decrease.
e. Causes people to hold more cash.
Suppose that the nominal interest rate is 7% and the expected rate of
inflation is 3% then the real interest rate is equal to:
a. 3%
b. 4%
c. 10%
d. 7%
e. 21%
Suppose that the nominal interest rate is 7% and the expected rate of
inflation is 3% then the real interest rate is equal to:
a. 3%
b. 4%
c. 10%
d. 7%
e. 21%
Currently banks are issuing personal loans at an interest rate of 9%. If
expected inflation is supposed to be 3%, then:
a. The nominal interest rate is 6% and the real interest rate is 9%.
b. The real interest rate is 6% and the nominal interest rate is 9%.
c. The real interest rate is 3% and the nominal interest rate is 9%.
d. The nominal interest rate is 6% and the real interest rate is 12%.
e. The nominal interest rate is 12% and the real interest rate is 9%.
Currently banks are issuing personal loans at an interest rate of 9%. If
expected inflation is supposed to be 3%, then:
a. The nominal interest rate is 6% and the real interest rate is 9%.
b. The real interest rate is 6% and the nominal interest rate is 9%.
c. The real interest rate is 3% and the nominal interest rate is 9%.
d. The nominal interest rate is 6% and the real interest rate is 12%.
e. The nominal interest rate is 12% and the real interest rate is 9%.
In periods of unexpected inflation:
a. Borrowers benefit since they repay their loans in dollars with
lower real value.
b. Lenders benefit since they are repaid in dollars with a higher real
value.
c. Neither borrowers nor lenders are affected by the inflation rate
since their nominal interest rate stays the same.
d. Lenders benefit since the nominal interest rate does not change.
e. Borrowers are hurt since they repay their loans in dollars with
higher real value.
In periods of unexpected inflation:
a. Borrowers benefit since they repay their loans in dollars with
lower real value.
b. Lenders benefit since they are repaid in dollars with a higher real
value.
c. Neither borrowers nor lenders are affected by the inflation rate
since their nominal interest rate stays the same.
d. Lenders benefit since the nominal interest rate does not change.
e. Borrowers are hurt since they repay their loans in dollars with
higher real value.
If the CPI is 120 in Year 1 and 150 in Year 2, then the rate of inflation
from Year 1 to Year 2 is _____.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 50%
e. 100%
If the CPI is 120 in Year 1 and 150 in Year 2, then the rate of inflation
from Year 1 to Year 2 is _____.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 50%
e. 100%
Year
CPI
1
80
2 (base year)
100
3
105
4
125
5
150
The approximate rate of inflation in year 2 from year 1 is _____.
a. 10%
b. 19%
c. 20%
d. 25%
e. 100%
Year
CPI
1
80
2 (base year)
100
3
105
4
125
5
150
The approximate rate of inflation in year 2 from year 1 is _____.
a. 10%
b. 19%
c. 20%
d. 25%
e. 100%
You read in the newspaper that the CPI in 2008 was 120, you will
conclude that a typical market basket in 2008 would have cost
a. 20 percent more than the same market basket purchased in 2007.
b. 120 percent more than the same market basket purchased in
2007.
c. 20 percent more than the same market basket purchased in the
base year.
d. 120 percent more than the same market basket purchased in the
base year.
e. 20 percent less than the same market basket purchased in the
base year.
You read in the newspaper that the CPI in 2008 was 120, you will
conclude that a typical market basket in 2008 would have cost
a. 20 percent more than the same market basket purchased in 2007.
b. 120 percent more than the same market basket purchased in
2007.
c. 20 percent more than the same market basket purchased in the
base year.
d. 120 percent more than the same market basket purchased in the
base year.
e. 20 percent less than the same market basket purchased in the
base year.
Year
Price Index
2005
100
2006
104
2007
103
2008
110
Which year is most likely to be the base year?
a. 2006
b. 2008
c. 2007
d. 2005
e. A year not presented in the table.
Year
Price Index
2005
100
2006
104
2007
103
2008
110
Which year is most likely to be the base year?
a. 2006
b. 2008
c. 2007
d. 2005
e. A year not presented in the table.