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Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________
Basic Biology A Fall 2015 Final Exam
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. The work of scientists usually begins with
a. testing a hypothesis.
c. creating experiments.
b. careful observations.
d. drawing conclusions.
2. Information gathered from observing a plant grow 3 cm over a two-week period results in
a. inferences.
c. hypotheses.
b. variables.
d. data.
3. You suggest that the presence of water could accelerate the growth of bread mold. This is a(an)
a. conclusion.
c. experiment.
b. hypothesis.
d. analysis.
4. Hypotheses may arise from
a. prior knowledge.
c. informed, creative imagination.
b. logical inferences.
d. all of the above
5. Which of the following is a valid hypothesis for why a plant appears to be dying?
a. The plant is not being watered enough.
b. The plant is being watered too much.
c. The plant is receiving too much sunlight.
d. all of the above
6. In science, a hypothesis is useful only if
a. it is proven correct.
c. it can be tested.
b. it can be proven incorrect.
d. the explanation is already known.
7. A controlled experiment allows the scientist to isolate and test
a. a conclusion.
c. several variables.
b. a mass of information.
d. a single variable.
8. Scientists publish the details of important experiments so that
a. their work can be repeated.
b. their experimental procedures can be reviewed.
c. others can try to reproduce the results.
d. all of the above
9. The ability to reproduce results is an important part of any
a. hypothesis.
c. law.
b. theory.
d. experiment.
10. When enough experimental data support a hypothesis, the hypothesis becomes a(an)
a. fact.
c. inference.
b. theory.
d. conclusion.
11. Biology is the study of
a. the land, water, and air on Earth.
c. animals and plants only.
b. the living world.
d. the environment.
12. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things?
a. growth and development
c. response to the environment
b. ability to move
d. ability to reproduce
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ID: A
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 13. An instrument that allows light to pass through the specimen and uses two lenses to form an image is a(an)
a. compound light microscope.
c. TEM.
b. electron microscope.
d. SEM.
____ 14. What is the term given to a group of cells that develops from a single original cell?
a. community
c. nutrient solution
b. cell culture
d. cell fractionation
____ 15. Safety procedures are important when working
a. in a laboratory.
c. with animals.
b. in the field.
d. all of the above
____ 16. Which of the following is NOT considered a safety procedure?
a. Read all the steps in your activity before doing it.
b. If in doubt about any part of an activity, trust your instincts.
c. Follow your teacher’s instructions.
d. Follow the textbook directions exactly.
____ 17. What types of living organisms should you NOT come into contact with in your biology laboratory?
a. plants
b. organisms that cause disease
c. organisms that can be seen only with a microscope
d. animals
____ 18. Because you may come in contact with organisms you cannot see, what safety procedure MUST be followed?
a. Read over your activity.
b. Open the windows of the laboratory.
c. Wash your hands thoroughly after completing the activity.
d. Do not wear long sleeves.
____ 19. Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in
definite proportions?
a. compound
c. nucleus
b. isotope
d. enzyme
____ 20. The most abundant compound in most living things is
a. carbon dioxide.
c. sodium chloride.
b. water.
d. sugar.
____ 21. A solution is a(an)
a. combination of isotopes.
b. chemical reaction.
c. evenly distributed mixture of two or more substances.
d. combination of two or more liquids.
____ 22. If you stir salt into boiling water, you produce a
a. mixture called a suspension.
c. solution and suspension.
b. mixture called a solution.
d. mixture only.
____ 23. When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a. reactant.
c. solute.
b. solution.
d. solvent.
____ 24. A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a. an acid.
c. both an acid and a base.
b. a base.
d. neither an acid nor a base.
____ 25. Solutions that contain concentrations of H + ions lower than pure water
a. have pH values below 7.
c. are bases.
b. are acids.
d. are enzymes.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 26. A monosaccharide is a
a. carbohydrate.
c. nucleic acid.
b. lipid.
d. protein.
____ 27. Which of the following is NOT a monomer?
a. a glucose molecule
c. a nucleotide
b. an amino acid
d. a protein
____ 28. Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a. store and transmit genetic information
b. help to fight disease
c. control the rate of reactions and regulate cell processes
d. build tissues such as bone and muscle
____ 29. When hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, water is
a. a product.
c. both a product and a reactant.
b. a reactant.
d. neither a product nor a reactant.
____ 30. Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O  H2CO3.
c. H2CO3
a. CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
b. CO2 and H2O
d. CO2
____ 31. Which of the following is a form of energy that may be released during a chemical reaction?
a. heat
c. light
b. sound
d. all of the above
____ 32. Who was one of the first people to identify and see cork cells?
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
c. Matthias Schleiden
b. Robert Hooke
d. Rudolf Virchow
____ 33. Which of the following is NOT a principle of the cell theory?
a. Cells are the basic units of life.
b. All living things are made of cells.
c. Very few cells reproduce.
d. All cells are produced by existing cells.
____ 34. Which of the following contain a nucleus?
a. prokaryotes
c. eukaryotes
b. bacteria
d. organelles
____ 35. Eukaryotes usually contain
a. a nucleus.
c. genetic material.
b. specialized organelles.
d. all of the above
____ 36. Which of the following organisms are prokaryotes?
a. plants
c. bacteria
b. animals
d. all of the above
____ 37. Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?
a. stores DNA
b. controls most of the cell’s processes
c. contains the information needed to make proteins
d. all of the above
____ 38. Which of the following is NOT found in the nucleus?
a. cytoplasm
c. chromatin
b. nucleolus
d. DNA
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 39. Which organelle breaks down food into molecules the cell can use?
a. Golgi apparatus
c. endoplasmic reticulum
b. lysosome
d. mitochondrion
____ 40. Which structure makes proteins using coded instructions that come from the nucleus?
a. Golgi apparatus
c. vacuole
b. mitochondrion
d. ribosome
____ 41. Which organelle converts the chemical energy stored in food into compounds that are more convenient for the
cell to use?
a. chloroplast
c. endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi apparatus
d. mitochondrion
____ 42. Which organelles help provide cells with energy?
a. mitochondria and chloroplasts
c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. Golgi apparatus and ribosomes
____ 43. Which organelle would you expect to find in plant cells but not animal cells?
a. mitochondrion
c. chloroplast
b. ribosome
d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
____ 44. Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton?
a. helps a cell keep its shape
c. surrounds the cell
b. contains DNA
d. helps make proteins
____ 45. Which structures carry out cell movement?
a. cytoplasm and ribosomes
c. microtubules and microfilaments
b. nucleolus and nucleus
d. chromosomes
____ 46. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cytoskeleton?
a. helps the cell maintain its shape
b. helps the cell move
c. prevents chromosomes from separating
d. helps organelles within the cell move
____ 47. You will NOT find a cell wall in which of these kinds of organisms?
a. plants
c. fungi
b. animals
d. all of the above
____ 48. Which of the following structures serves as the cell’s boundary from its environment?
a. mitochondrion
c. chloroplast
b. cell membrane
d. channel proteins
____ 49. Diffusion is the movement of molecules from
a. an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
b. an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
c. an area of equilibrium to an area of high concentration.
d. all of the above
____ 50. Diffusion occurs because
a. molecules constantly move and collide with each other.
b. the concentration of a solution is never the same throughout a solution.
c. the concentration of a solution is always the same throughout a solution.
d. molecules never move or collide with each other.
____ 51. When the concentration of molecules on both sides of a membrane is the same, the molecules will
a. move across the membrane to the outside of the cell.
b. stop moving across the membrane.
c. move across the membrane in both directions.
d. move across the membrane to the inside of the cell.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 52. Which means of particle transport requires input of energy from the cell?
a. diffusion
c. facilitated diffusion
b. osmosis
d. active transport
____ 53. The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called
a. osmotic pressure.
c. facilitated diffusion.
b. osmosis.
d. active transport.
____ 54. Which term refers to cells having different jobs in an organism?
a. multicellular
c. levels of organization
b. cell specialization
d. unicellular
____ 55. The cells of multicellular organisms are
a. smaller than those of unicellular organisms.
b. simpler than those of unicellular organisms.
c. specialized to perform different tasks.
d. not dependent on one another.
____ 56. Which of the following is an example of an organ?
a. heart
c. digestive system
b. epithelial tissue
d. nerve cell
____ 57. All of the following are types of tissues EXCEPT
a. muscle.
c. digestive.
b. connective.
d. nerve.
____ 58. An organ system is a group of organs that
a. are made up of similar cells.
b. are made up of similar tissues.
c. work together to perform a specific function.
d. work together to perform all the functions in a multicellular organism.
____ 59. Which list represents the levels of organization in a multicellular organism from the simplest level to the most
complex level?
a. cell, tissue, organ system
c. tissue, organ, organ system
b. organ system, organ, tissue, cell
d. cell, tissue, organ, organ system
____ 60. Organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called
a. autotrophs.
c. thylakoids.
b. heterotrophs.
d. pigments.
____ 61. Organisms that cannot make their own food and must obtain energy from the foods they eat are called
a. autotrophs.
c. thylakoids.
b. heterotrophs.
d. plants.
____ 62. Which of the following is an autotroph?
a. mushroom
c. leopard
b. impala
d. tree
____ 63. Which of the following is NOT an example of a heterotroph?
a. mushroom
c. grass
b. leopard
d. human
____ 64. What are the three parts of an ATP molecule?
a. adenine, thylakoids, stroma
c. adenine, ribose, phosphate groups
b. stroma, grana, chlorophyll
d. NADH, NADPH, and FADH2
____ 65. Which of the following is NOT a part of an ATP molecule?
a. adenine
c. chlorophyll
b. ribose
d. phosphate
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Name: ________________________
____ 66. Energy is released from ATP when
a. a phosphate group is added.
b. adenine bonds to ribose.
ID: A
c.
d.
ATP is exposed to sunlight.
a phosphate group is removed.
Figure 8–1
____ 67. Look at Figure 8–1. All of the following are parts of an ADP molecule EXCEPT
a. structure A.
c. structure C.
b. structure B.
d. structure D.
____ 68. Which structures shown in Figure 8–1 make up an ATP molecule?
a. A and B
c. A, B, C, and D
b. A, B, and C
d. C and D
____ 69. In Figure 8–1, between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a. A and B
c. C and D
b. B and C
d. all of the above
____ 70. Which scientists showed that plants need light to grow?
a. van Helmont and Calvin
c. van Helmont and Priestley
b. Priestley and Ingenhousz
d. Priestley and Calvin
____ 71. Ingenhousz showed that plants produce oxygen bubbles when exposed to
a. ATP.
c. light.
b. carbon dioxide.
d. a burning candle.
____ 72. A student is collecting the gas given off from a plant in bright sunlight at a temperature of 27°C. The gas
being collected is probably
a. oxygen.
c. ATP.
b. carbon dioxide.
d. vaporized water.
____ 73. Which of the following is(are) used in the overall reactions for photosynthesis?
a. carbon dioxide
c. light
b. water
d. all of the above
____ 74. Plants gather the sun’s energy with light-absorbing molecules called
a. pigments.
c. chloroplasts.
b. thylakoids.
d. glucose.
____ 75. Plants take in the sun’s energy by absorbing
a. high-energy sugars.
c. chlorophyll b.
b. chlorophyll a.
d. sunlight.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 76. Where do the light-dependent reactions take place?
a. in the stroma
c. within the thylakoid membranes
b. in the mitochondria
d. only in chlorophyll molecules
____ 77. The Calvin cycle is another name for
a. light-independent reactions.
c. photosynthesis.
b. light-dependent reactions.
d. all of the above
____ 78. The Calvin cycle takes place in the
a. stroma.
c. thylakoid membranes.
b. photosystems.
d. chlorophyll molecules.
____ 79. What is a product of the Calvin cycle?
a. oxygen gas
c. high-energy sugars
b. ATP
d. carbon dioxide gas
____ 80. If carbon dioxide is completely removed from a plant’s environment, what would you expect to happen to the
plant’s production of high-energy sugars?
a. More sugars will be produced.
b. No sugars will be produced.
c. The same number of sugars will be produced but without carbon dioxide.
d. Carbon dioxide does not affect the production of high-energy sugars in plants.
____ 81. Which of the following affects the rate of photosynthesis?
a. water
c. light intensity
b. temperature
d. all of the above
____ 82. Which of the following is NOT a stage of cellular respiration?
a. fermentation
c. glycolysis
b. electron transport
d. Krebs cycle
____ 83. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?
a. glycolysis  fermentation  Krebs cycle
b. Krebs cycle  electron transport  glycolysis
c. glycolysis  Krebs cycle  electron transport
d. Krebs cycle  glycolysis  electron transport
____ 84. Which of the following is released during cellular respiration?
a. oxygen
c. energy
b. air
d. lactic acid
____ 85. Cellular respiration uses one molecule of glucose to produce
a. 2 ATP molecules.
c. 36 ATP molecules.
b. 34 ATP molecules.
d. 38 ATP molecules.
____ 86. What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a. 6O2 + C6H12O6  6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b. 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy  6CO2 + 6H2O
c. 6CO2 + 6H2O  6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d. 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy  6O2 + C6H12O6
____ 87. What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?
a. oxygen and lactic acid
c. glucose and oxygen
b. carbon dioxide and water
d. water and glucose
____ 88. Which of these is a product of cellular respiration?
a. oxygen
c. glucose
b. water
d. all of the above
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 89. Glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of
a. 2 ATP molecules.
c. 18 ATP molecules.
b. 4 ATP molecules.
d. 36 ATP molecules.
____ 90. Which of the following is NOT a product of glycolysis?
a. NADH
c. ATP
b. pyruvic acid
d. glucose
____ 91. Which of the following acts as an electron carrier in cellular respiration?
a. NAD+
c. ADP
b. pyruvic acid
d. ATP
____ 92. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in
a. bread dough.
c. muscle cells.
b. any environment containing oxygen.
d. mitochondria.
____ 93. The two main types of fermentation are called
a. alcoholic and aerobic.
c. alcoholic and lactic acid.
b. aerobic and anaerobic.
d. lactic acid and anaerobic.
____ 94. One cause of muscle soreness is
a. alcoholic fermentation.
c. lactic acid fermentation.
b. glycolysis.
d. the Krebs cycle.
____ 95. Milk is converted to yogurt under certain conditions when the microorganisms in the milk produce acid.
Which of these processes would you expect to be key in the production of yogurt?
a. the Krebs cycle
c. alcoholic fermentation
b. photosynthesis
d. lactic acid fermentation
____ 96. Cellular respiration is called an aerobic process because it requires
a. light.
c. oxygen.
b. exercise.
d. glucose.
____ 97. The starting molecule for the Krebs cycle is
a. glucose.
c. pyruvic acid.
b. NADH.
d. coenzyme A.
____ 98. The Krebs cycle produces
a. oxygen.
c. electron carriers.
b. lactic acid.
d. glucose.
____ 99. In eukaryotes, electron transport occurs in the
a. mitochondria.
c. cell membrane.
b. chloroplasts.
d. cytoplasm.
____ 100. Which of the following passes high-energy electrons into the electron transport chain?
a. NADH and FADH2
c. citric acid
b. ATP and ADP
d. acetyl – CoA
____ 101. The energy of the electrons passing along the electron transport chain is used to make
a. lactic acid.
c. alcohol.
b. citric acid.
d. ATP.
____ 102. When the body needs to exercise for longer than 90 seconds, it generates ATP by carrying out
a. lactic acid fermentation.
c. cellular respiration.
b. alcoholic fermentation.
d. glycolysis.
____ 103. All of the following are sources of energy during exercise EXCEPT
a. stored ATP.
c. lactic acid fermentation.
b. alcoholic fermentation.
d. cellular respiration.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 104. How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis almost opposite processes?
a. Photosynthesis releases energy, and cellular respiration stores energy.
b. Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration
puts it back.
c. Photosynthesis removes oxygen from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it
back.
d. all of the above
____ 105. Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to
a. chloroplasts.
c. mitochondria.
b. cytoplasm.
d. nuclei.
____ 106. Unlike photosynthesis, cellular respiration occurs in
a. animal cells only.
c. all but plant cells.
b. plant cells only.
d. all eukaryotic cells.
____ 107. The products of photosynthesis are the
a. products of cellular respiration.
c. products of glycolysis.
b. reactants of cellular respiration.
d. reactants of fermentation.
____ 108. As a cell becomes larger, its
a. volume increases faster than its surface area.
b. surface area increases faster than its volume.
c. volume increases, but its surface area stays the same.
d. surface area stays the same, but its volume increases.
____ 109. As a cell grows, it
a. places more demands on its DNA.
b. uses up food and oxygen more quickly.
c. has more trouble moving enough materials across its cell membrane.
d. all of the above
____ 110. The rate at which wastes are produced by a cell depends on the cell’s
a. ratio of surface area to volume.
c. volume.
b. environment.
d. surface area.
____ 111. All of the following are problems that growth causes for cells EXCEPT
a. DNA overload.
c. obtaining enough food.
b. excess oxygen.
d. expelling wastes.
____ 112. Compared to small cells, large cells have more trouble
a. dividing.
b. producing daughter cells.
c. moving needed materials in and waste products out.
d. making cyclin proteins.
____ 113. The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called
a. cell division.
c. interphase.
b. metaphase.
d. mitosis.
____ 114. Which of the following happens when a cell divides?
a. The cell’s volume increases.
b. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients.
c. The cell has DNA overload.
d. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell’s DNA.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
Figure 10–1
____ 115. Cell division is represented in Figure 10–1 by the letter
a. A.
c. C.
b. B.
d. D.
Figure 10–2
____ 116. The structure labeled A in Figure 10–2 is called the
a. centromere.
c. sister chromatid.
b. centriole.
d. spindle.
____ 117. The structures labeled B in Figure 10–2 are called
a. centromeres.
c. sister chromatids.
b. centrioles.
d. spindles.
____ 118. Which of the following is a phase of mitosis?
a. cytokinesis
c. prophase
b. interphase
d. S phase
____ 119. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?
a. prophase
c. metaphase
b. telophase
d. anaphase
____ 120. Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
a. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
c. interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
d. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 121. What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a. It helps separate the chromosomes.
b. It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
c. It duplicates the DNA.
d. It makes the chromosomes visible.
____ 122. During normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell having four chromosomes will produce two daughter cells,
each containing
a. two chromosomes.
c. eight chromosomes.
b. four chromosomes.
d. sixteen chromosomes.
____ 123. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study
a. flowering.
c. the inheritance of traits.
b. gamete formation.
d. cross-pollination.
____ 124. Offspring that result from crosses between parents with different traits
a. are true-breeding.
c. make up the parental generation.
b. make up the F2 generation.
d. are called hybrids.
____ 125. The chemical factors that determine traits are called
a. alleles.
c. genes.
b. traits.
d. characters.
____ 126. Gregor Mendel concluded that traits are
a. not inherited by offspring.
b. inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.
c. determined by dominant factors only.
d. determined by recessive factors only.
____ 127. When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant with a short plant, the F 1 plants inherited
a. an allele for tallness from each parent.
b. an allele for tallness from the tall parent and an allele for shortness from the short parent.
c. an allele for shortness from each parent.
d. an allele from only the tall parent.
____ 128. A tall plant is crossed with a short plant. If the tall F 1 pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate,
a. the offspring will be of medium height.
b. all of the offspring will be tall.
c. all of the offspring will be short.
d. some of the offspring will be tall, and some will be short.
____ 129. When you flip a coin, what is the probability that it will come up tails?
a. 1/2
c. 1/8
b. 1/4
d. 1
____ 130. A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F 1 plant will be tall is
a. 25%.
c. 75%.
b. 50%.
d. 100%.
____ 131. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
a. hybrid.
c. heterozygous.
b. homozygous.
d. dominant.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
Tt
T
t
T
TT
Tt
T
TT
Tt
TT
T
=
Tall
t
=
Short
Figure 11–1
____ 132. In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11–1, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from
the cross?
a. About half are expected to be short.
c. About half are expected to be tall.
b. All are expected to be short.
d. All are expected to be tall.
____ 133. A Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT
a. all possible results of a genetic cross.
b. the genotypes of the offspring.
c. the alleles in the gametes of each parent.
d. the actual results of a genetic cross.
____ 134. If you made a Punnett square showing Gregor Mendel’s cross between true-breeding tall plants and
true-breeding short plants, the square would show that the offspring had
a. the genotype of one of the parents.
b. a phenotype that was different from that of both parents.
c. a genotype that was different from that of both parents.
d. the genotype of both parents.
____ 135. What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each
other’s inheritance?
a. principle of dominance
c. principle of probabilities
b. principle of independent assortment
d. principle of segregation
____ 136. How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose
genotype was RrYY?
a. 2
c. 8
b. 4
d. 16
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 137. If a pea plant that is heterozygous for round, yellow peas (RrYy) is crossed with a pea plant that is
homozygous for round peas but heterozygous for yellow peas (RRYy), how many different phenotypes are
their offspring expected to show?
a. 2
c. 8
b. 4
d. 16
____ 138. Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are
called
a. multiple alleles.
c. polygenic inheritance.
b. incomplete dominance.
d. multiple genes.
____ 139. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a white chicken (WW) produces all speckled offspring (BBWW). This
type of inheritance is known as
a. incomplete dominance.
c. codominance.
b. polygenic inheritance.
d. multiple alleles.
____ 140. Variation in human skin color is an example of
a. incomplete dominance.
c. polygenic traits.
b. codominance.
d. multiple alleles.
____ 141. Gregor Mendel’s principles of genetics apply to
a. plants only.
c. pea plants only.
b. animals only.
d. all organisms.
____ 142. A male and female bison that are both heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation (Aa) produce an albino
offspring (aa). Which of Mendel’s principles explain(s) why the offspring is albino?
a. dominance only
c. dominance and segregation
b. independent assortment only
d. segregation only
____ 143. The number of chromosomes in a gamete is represented by the symbol
a. Z.
c. N.
b. X.
d. Y.
____ 144. Gametes have
a. homologous chromosomes.
b. twice the number of chromosomes found in body cells.
c. two sets of chromosomes.
d. one allele for each gene.
____ 145. Gametes are produced by the process of
a. mitosis.
c. crossing-over.
b. meiosis.
d. replication.
____ 146. Chromosomes form tetrads during
a. prophase I of meiosis.
c. interphase.
b. metaphase I of meiosis.
d. anaphase II of meiosis.
____ 147. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of
a. diploid cells.
c. 2N daughter cells.
b. haploid cells.
d. body cells.
____ 148. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of
a. two genetically identical cells.
c. four genetically identical cells.
b. four genetically different cells.
d. two genetically different cells.
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