Download KENYA PHARMTECH LEVEL ONE REVISION

KENYA PHARMTECH LEVEL ONE REVISION
Anatomy & Physiology
1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the lungs?
A. Metabolism
B. Serves as a reservoir of blood for the left ventricle.
C. It is a filter to protect the systemic vasculature
D. Facilitates the exchange of O2 and CO2 between air and blood.
E. All of the above are true.
2. Which of the following is in the correct path of CO2 from the tissue to the
atmosphere?
A. Reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-, H+ combines
with imidazole side chain of hemoglobin, carried back to lungs as HHb+ and
HCO3-, reverse reaction forms CO2.
B. O2 is metabolized to CO2, reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, H2CO3 combines
with imidazole side chain of hemoglobin, H2CO3Hb+ is carried back to the lungs,
reverse reaction forms CO2.
C. Reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-, HCO3combines with imidazole side chain of hemoglobin, carried back to the lungs as
HCO3-Hb+ and H+, reverse reaction forms CO2.
D. O2 is metabolized to CO2, reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to
H+ and HCO3-, carried back to lungs in this form, reverse reaction forms CO2.
3. Which of the following is NOT an effector of respiration?
A. Heart
B. diaphragm
C. intercostals
D. Trapezius.
4. Which of the following is the first branching of the bronchial tree that has gas
exchanging capabilities?
A. Terminal bronchioles.
B. Respiratory bronchioles.
C. Alveoli
D. segmental bronchi
E. alveolar ducts.
5. Which of the following could NOT be part of an acinus?
A. alveolar sacs
B. Alveolar ducts
C. Terminal bronchioles
D. Respiratory bronchiole
6. If you increased the left atrial pressure from 5 mmHg to 15 mmHg, what effect
would that have on pulmonary circulation?
A. It would force blood the opposite direction.
B. It would increase the speed at which blood moves through the pulmonary
circulation.
C. No change.
D. Blood flow would almost or completely stop.
7. Which of the following concerning average lung volumes and capacities of a
person at rest is TRUE?
A. TLC>VC>TV>FRC
B. TLC>FRC>VC>TV
C. TLC>VC>FRC>TV
D. TLC>FRC>TV>VC
8. Which of the following is NOT a normal occurrence with increasing age?
A. Vital capacity of the lung decreases.
B. Residual volume increases.
C. Functional residual capacity increases.
D. Inspiratory capacity decreases.
E. Expiratory reserve volume increases.
9. Which of the following spirometry measurements has the greatest sensitivity
for detecting early air flow obstruction?
A. FVC
B. FEV1
C. FFE
D. FEF25-75
10. The internal carotid artery:
a. lies in the floor of the middle ear
b. lies medial to the abducent nerve
c. enters the skull and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries
d. is separated from the external carotid artery by the styloglossus
e. grooves the greater wing of the sphenoid bone
11. The internal jugular vein:
a. is separated from the sympathetic chain by the prevertebral fascia
b. lies anteromedial to the sympathetic chain.
c. is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus
d. receives the anterior jugular vein
e. is separated from the inferior petrosal sinus by the 9th, 10th and 11th cranial nerves
12. The following are true about the trigeminal nerve:
a. it supplies the muscle of mastication
b. its ganglion lies on the apex of the petrous bone
c. emerges from the brain stem between the pons and the medulla
d. emerges from the brain stem as separate sensory and motor roots
e. innervates all the teeth of the upper jaw
13. The following are true about the circulation of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):
a. is produced by the modified ependymal cells of the choroid plexus
b. is absorbed mainly through the arachnoid granulations in the superior sagittal sinus
c. the ventricular system communicates with the subarachnoid space through the roof of the
third ventricle
d. the arachnoid granulation is in contact with the endothelium of the venous sinuses
e. blockage of the arachnoid granulation causes communicating hydrocephalus
14. True statements about the medulla include:
a. contains the spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve which extends throughout the length of
the medulla
b. the vagus nerve emerge between the medulla and the inferior cerebellar peduncle
c. contains gracile nucleus which lies medial to the cuneate nucleus
d. the vagal nucleus lies medial to the hypoglossal nucleus
e. the pyramids decussate in the lower part of the medulla
15. Red blood cells:
a. measured 15 um in diameter
b. do not contain mitochondria
c. have a life span of 120 days in the circulation
d. are released from the bone marrow as mature erythrocytes
e. express HLA class II antigens on the cell surface
16. The following are true about the ABO and rhesus (Rh) system:
a. a person of group O is a universal donor
b. a person who is group AB has anti-A and anti-B antibodies
c. the presence of the D antigen means that the subject is Rh positive
d. rhesus antibodies occur naturally
e. the second rhesus positive baby of a Rh negative mother is at a greater risk
than the first
17. The intracranial pressure is decreased by:
a. intravenous mannitol
b. placing the patient in a head-up position
c. hyperventilation
d. a rise in the arterial pCO2
e. the administration of sodium nitroprusside
18. Dilatation of the peripheral arterial blood vessels can be caused by:
a. thromboxane A2
b. adenosine diphosphate
c. endothelin
d. prostaglandins
e. nitric oxide.
19. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter at:
a. sweat glands
b. the adrenal medulla
c. parasympathetic ganglia
d. the parotid gland
e. the neuromuscular junction
20. Capillary permeability is increased by:
a. bradykinin
b. adrenaline
c. calcium
d. vasopressin
e. histamine
21. Glucagon:
a. is a positive inotrope
b. is produced by the beta cells of the pancreas
c. stimulates production of free fatty acids in the blood
d. its release is increased in starvation
e. stimulates glycogen synthesis
22. Adrenaline:
a. is synthesized by demethylation of noradrenaline
b. increases coronary blood flow
c. increases free fatty acids in the blood
d. mobilizes glycogen stores from the liver
e. is metabolized in the plasma by monoamine oxidase
23.
With reference to the skeletal muscle myofilaments
a. actin is the major constituent of thin filaments
b. myosin and tropomyosin combine to form the thick filaments
c. troponin is a constituents of thin filaments
d. tropomyosin prevents the interaction of actin and myosin in the resting state
e. troponin C has 4 calcium binding sites
24. The sequence of events in muscle contraction
a. action potential depolarise the T-tubules
b. depolarisation of T-tubules release calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. calcium binds to the troponin-tropomycin complex
d. actin combines with myosin ATP leading to crossbridge activation
e. calcium moves back into sarcoplasmic reticulum by passive transport
25. C fibres transmitting pain sensation
a. are present in less numbers than A fibres in sensory nerves
b. conduct at an average velocity of 2 metres/secon
c. convey temperature sensation
d. terminate in laminae 2 and 3 of the dorsal horn
e. are the sole nociceptive afferents from viscera in the chest and abdomen
26. A highly ionised drug:
a. is well absorbed from the intestine
b. is excreted mainly in the kidney
c. crosses the placental barrier easily
d. is reabsorbed from the renal tubule
e. is highly protein bound
27. Excessive secretion of aldosterone gives rise to::
a. hypokalaemia
b. hypertension
c. alkalosis
d. polyuria
e. muscular weakness
28. Miosis of the pupil:
a. reduces visual field
b. increases depth of field
c. increases the visual acuity
d. reduces spherical aberration
e. increases chromatic aberration
29. The following receptors respond to stretch reflex:
a. carotid baroreceptor
b. free nerve ending
c. Ruffini's endings
d. Oligodendrocytes
e. Pacinian corpuscles.
30. With regard to iron in the human body:
a. it is stored chiefly in the bone marrow
b. 70% of iron in the body is found in the haemoglobin
c. it is transported in the body as transferrin
d. it is absorbed mainly in the ferric form
e. the liver excretes excess iron
31. With regard to monosynaptic reflex:
a. the reflex originates and terminates in the same muscle
b. the reflex is very fast measuring about 20 milliseconds
c. knee jerk response is a monosynaptic reflex
d. withdrawal of hand in response to pain is a
monosynaptic reflex
e. corneal reflex is a monosynaptic reflex
32. Interruption of the cervical sympathetic chain causes:
a. hyperhydrosis
b. poor accommodation
c. nasal mucosal engorgement
d. wasting of the small hand muscle
c. complete ptosis
33.o n tilting a patient from supine to vertical position:
a. renin secretion is increased
b. the cerebral vascular resistance is reduced
c. cardiac output is reduced
d. the cerebral blood flow is reduced
e. tachycardia occurs
34. The following are true about tight junction:
a. it forms a barrier to water
b. it is found in the blood-aqueous barrier of the ciliary
body
c. it is found in the blood-retinal barrier at the apex of the
retinal pigment epithelium
d. it is made up of connexons
e. it contains the intracellular protein cingulin
35. The following are true about an action potential in a nerve fibre:
a. it occurs when its membrane potential is hyperpolarized
b. it is associated with a transient increase in membrane
permeability to sodium
c. there is a decreased in membrane permeability to
potassium
d. it has an amplitude which varies directly to the strength
of stimulus
e. it causes propagation of electrical current along the
nerve fibre
IMMUNOLOGY
1.
Naturally acquired active immunity would be most likely acquired through which
of the following processes?
a. vaccination
b. Drinking colostrum
c. Natural birth
d. infection with disease causing organism followed by recovery.
2.
Which of the following convey the longest lasting immunity to an infectious
agent?
a. Naturally acquired passive immunity
b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired active immunity
d. All of these
e. None of these
3.
Which of the following substances will not stimulate an immune response unless
they are bound to a larger molecule?
a. Antigen
b. Virus
c. Hapten
d. Miligen
e. Antibody
4.
B and T cells are produced by stem cells that are formed in:
a. Bone marrow
b. The liver
c. The circulatory system
d. The spleen
e. The lymph nodes
5.
B cells mature in the……….. while T cells mature in the
a. Thymus/bone marrow and gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
b. Spleen/bone marrow and GALT
c. Bone marrow and GALT/Thymus
d. Liver/Kidneys
6.
Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying
intracellular pathogens?
a. T helper cells
b. B cells
c. Antibodies
d. Complement
e. T cytolytic cells
7.
A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered:
a. A toxoid
b. Dormant
c. Virulent
d. Attenuated
e. Denatured
8.
B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called:
a. Memory cells
b. Basophils
c. Plasma cells
d. Killer cells
e. Neutrophils
9.
The specificity of an antibody is due to
a. its valence
b. The heavy chains
c. The Fc portion of the molecule
d. The variable portion of the heavy and light chain
10.
In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a………
in precipitation reactions, the antigen is a……………
a. whole cell/soluble molecule
b. Soluble molecule/whole cell
c. Bacterium/virus
d. Protein/carbohydrates
e. Protein/Antibody
11.
B Cells are activated by
a. Complement
b. Antibody
c. Interferon
d. Memory cells
e. Antigen
12.
Fusion between a plasma cell and a tumor cell creates a
a. Myeloma
b. Natural killer cell
c. Lymphoblast
d. Lymphoma
e. Hybridoma
13.
Monoclonal antibodies recognize a single:
a. Antigen
b. Bacterium
c. Epitope
d. B cell
e. Virus
14.
Cell mediated immunity is carried out by………….. while humoral immunity is
mainly carried out by………………..
a. B cells/T cells
b. Epitopes/Antigens
c. T cells/B cells
d. Antibodies/Antigens
e. Antibodies/Phagocytes
15.
The ability of the immune system to recognize self antigens versus nonself antigen
is an example of:
a. Specific immunity
b. Tolerance
c. Cell mediated immunity
d. Antigenic immunity
e. Humoral immunity
16. Mast cells have receptor for
a) IgE
b) IgA
c) IgG
d) IgM
17.Secondary immune response is generated due to
a) naive B cells
b) Memory cells
c) naive T cells
d) NK cells
18. Which of the following cell possess poly morphonucleus
a) B- cells
b) Neutrophils
c) macrophage
d) erythrocyte
19.Histamine secretion by degranulation from which cell leads to immediate
hypersensitivity
a) B cells
b) T helper cells
c) basophils
d) mast cells
20.Which cell is involved in antigen clearance non-specifically be engulfing them
a) B cells
b) cytotoxic T cells
c) T cells
d) Phagocytic cells
21. In SCID, there is
a) Low IgM
b) Low number fo nueterophils
c) Low number of T cells or b cells
d) Low number of macrophages
22. Which of the following vaccine does not provide life time protection
a) Polio
b) Tetanus
c) DPT
d) small pox
23. Lymphatic systems are primarily associated with
a) Lymph recycling
b) phagocytosis
c) acquired immunity
d) innate immunity
24.Haematopoietic stem cells are found in
a) skin
b) spleen
c) bone marrow
d) payers patches
25.Goucher disease where glucocerebroside are not degraded is related to
a)golgi apparatus
b) ER
c) Lysosomes
d) peroxisomes
26.Which antibody is known to responsible for allergic reactions
a) IgM
b) IgA
c) IgE
d) IgD
27.Which of the following is not coded by MHC genes
a) glycoproteins
b) antigen presenting proteins
c) complements of complement pathway
d) immunoglobulins
28.Which is least likely to occur for removal of cancer cells?
a) Phagocytosis
b) complement fixation
c) T-cell based cytotoxicity
d) autophagy
29.Which function is not related with Th1 cells
a) secretion of IL2
b) induce phagocytosis
c) activated B cells
d) promoting antibody binding to soluble antigens
30. Immunotoxins are
a) anti-toxins
b) antibody for specific antigen tagged with toxin
c) low immunogenic toxin
d) bacterial toxins
31.An antigen is
a) A highly specific protein produced by the body in response to a foreign body
b) A chemical that inhibits the growth of micro organisms
c) An antibody produced by the body that stimulates the production of antibodies
by the body’s immune system
d) A chemical substance that stimulates the production of antibodies by the body’s
immune system
32. CD40 ligand is seen only on
a) Macrophages
b) Cytotoxic T cells
c) Helper T cells
d) Dentritic cells
33. High titres of antinuclear antibodies are indicative of
a) Parasitic infections
b) Fungal diseases
c) Autoimmune diseases
d) Bacterial diseases
34. Which of the following is an auto immune disease?
a) Type 1 Diabetes mellitus
b) Type 2 Diabetes mellitus
c) Haemophilia A
d) Sickle cell anemia
35. DNA vaccines elicit protective immunity against a microbial pathogen by
activating:
a) Humoral immune system
b) Cellular immune system
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
36. Which is the first immunoglobulin class to be produced in a primary response
to an antigen and also the first immunoglobulin to be synthesised by the neonates:
a) IgA b) IgB c) IgD d) IgM
37. In an immune response the type of cell which gets activated earliest is :
a) Killer T cells
b) Plasma cells
c) Helper T cells
d) Cytotoxic T cells
38. What is a characteristic of early stages of local inflammation?
a) Fever
b) Anaphylactic Shock
c) Release of histamine
d) Attack by cytotoxic T cells
39. An epitope associates with which part of an antibody?
a) The antibody binding site
b) The heavy chain constant regions only
c) Variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined
d) The light chain constant regions only
40. Which of the following is not true about helper T cells?
a) They function in cell mediated and humoral responses
b) They are activated by polysaccharide fragments
c) They bear surface CD4 molecules
d) They are subject to infection by HIV
BIOCHEMISTRY
Which of the following is not a disaccharide?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Sucrose
Q.2- What is the molecular formula of Glucose?
a) CH3OH
b) C12H22O11
c) C6H1206
d) C6H12O5
Q.3-Sucrose is composed of which two sugars?
a) Glucose and Glucose
b) Glucose and Fructose
c) Glucose and Galactose
d) Fructose and Galactose
Q.4- In which of the following forms Glucose is stored in plants?
a) Starch
b) Dextrins
c) Glycogen
d) Cellulose
Q.5-Which out of the following is a Carbohydrate with no nutritional value?
a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose
Q.6- Choose a sugar out of the following that is non reactive to Seliwanoff reagent?
a) Sucrose
b) Fructose
c) Inulin
d) Ribose
Q.7- Choose a keto triosea) Glyceraldehyde
b) Dihydroxyacetone
c) Erythrose
d) Arabinose
Q.8- A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle isa) Xylose
b) Xylulose
c) Lyxose
d) Aldose
Q.9- d -Glucose and l- Glucose area)Stereo isomers
b)Anomers
c) Keto- Aldose Isomers
d) Optical isomers
Q.10- All the following tests are positive for Lactose excepta) Benedict
b) Barfoed
c) Molisch
d) Osazone
Q.11- Glucose can have — isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atomsa) 4
b) 2
c) 12
d) 16
Q.12- Fructose and Ribulose area) Epimers
b) Anomers
c) Ketoses
d) Ketose- Aldose isomers
Q.13- The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around one
carbon atom are calleda) Optical isomers
b) Anomers
c) Stereo isomers
d) Epimers
Q.14- What does the following equation represent?
α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5 ο → +19 ο β- D glucose
a) Stereoisomerism
b) Optical isomerism
c) Mutarotation
d) Epimerization
Q.15- The carbohydrate of honey is
a) Fucose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Fructose
Q.16- Mannonic acid is aa) Sugar acid
b) Deoxy sugar
c) Amino sugar
d) Sugar alcohol
Q.17- Which of the following is not a monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms?
a) Arabinose
b) Trehalose
c) Xylulose
d) Ribulose
Q.18- Which of the following gives a brown color on reaction with iodine?
a) Starch
b) Glycogen
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose
Q.19-Invert sugar isa) Starch
b) Fructose
c) Glucose
d) Hydrolytic product of Sucrose
Q.20- Which out of the following is a structural homopolysaccharide?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Chitin
c) Inulin
d) Starch
Q.21- Which of the following is a non reducing disaccharide?
a) Galactose
b) Maltose
c) Trehalose
d) Sucrose
Q.22- Which of the following is a true statement about glucose?
a) It cannot be utilized by red blood cells
b) It has 4 asymmetric carbon atoms
c) It is stored as starch in animals
d) It is oxidized to form glycerol
Q.23-Sucrose is composed of which of the following two sugars?
a) Glucose and Glucose
b) Glucose and Fructose
c) Glucose and Galactose
d) Fructose and Galactose
Q.24- Which of the following is not a homopolysaccharide?
a) Starch
b) Heparin
c) Glycogen
d) Cellulose
Q.25-Which out of the following is a fructosan?
a) Glycogen
b) Agar
c) Inulin
d) Cellulose
Q.26- Choose a sugar abundantly present in honeya) Maltose
b) Fructose
c) Ribulose
d) Lactose
Q.27- Choose an Aldo pentosea) Glyceraldehyde
b) Dihydroxyacetone
c) Erythrose
d) Arabinose
Q.28- Which of the following is a keto tetrose?
a) Xylose
b) Erythrulose
c) Fructose
d) Sedoheptulose
Q29-α–D-Glucose andβ-D-Glucose area) Stereo isomers
b) Anomers
c) Keto- Aldose Isomers
d) Optical isomers
Q.30- All tests are positive for Lactose excepta) Benedict
b) Barfoed
c) Molisch
d) Osazone
Q.31- Which out of the following is a carbohydrate with 6 carbon atoms and a keto group as the
functional group?
a) Glyceraldehyde
b) Dihydroxy acetone
c) Fructose
d) Galactose
Q.32- Mucic acid and Gluconic acids are
a) Glycosides
b) Sugar acids
c) Amino sugar acids
d) Sugar alcohols
Q.33- Sorbitol and Mannitol area) Optical isomers
b) Anomers
c) Stereo isomers
d) Epimers
Q.34- Which of the following tests is not based on the reaction of carbohydrates with strong
acids?
a)Molisch
b) Benedict’s
c) Bial’s
d) Seliwanoff’s
Q.35- Which out of the following does not form osazone crystals?
a)Galactose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Sucrose
Q.36- N- Acetyl Neuraminic acid is aa) Sugar acid
b) Amino sugar acid
c) Amino sugar
d) Sugar alcohol
Q.37- Which of the following gives a negative reaction with Barfoed’s test
a) Glucose
b) Maltose
c) Erythrose
d) Fructose
Q.38- A polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages between glucose residues is
a) Inulin
b) Amylose
c) Agar
d) Cellulose
Q.39- Which of the following sugars is laevorotatory predominantly?
a) Starch
b) Fructose
c) Sucrose
d) Glucose
Q.40- Which of the following Mucopolysaccharides is non sulfated and most abundant in
tissues?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Keratan sulphate
c) Heparin
d) Dermatan sulphate
41.Amino acids has
a) both amino group and carboxyl group
b) both amino group and keto group
c) amino group only
d) carboxyl group only
42. The simplest amino acid is
a) Proline
b) methionine
c) glycine
d) serine
43. Which of the following amino acid is a ‘α-helix terminator’
a) tryptophan
b) phenyl alnine
c) tyrosine
d) proline
44. The first amino acid in a polypeptide chain is
a) Serine
b) Valine
c) Alanine
d) Methionine
45. Which of the following amino acid has buffering capacity
a) Tryptophan
b) cysteine
c) histidine
d) arginine
46. Which of the following is anαimino acid
a) serene
b) threonine
c) valine
d) proline
47. The naturally occurring form of amino acid in proteins
a) L-amino acids only
b) D-amino acids only
c) both L and D amino acids
d) none of these
48. Sulphur containing amino acids are
a) Cysteine and methionine
b) Methionine and threonine
c) Cysteine and threonine
d) Cysteine and serine
49. Aromatic amino acids include
a) Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan
b) Phenylalanine, serine and tryptophan
c) Threonine, tyrosine and tryptophan
d) Asparagine, tyrosine and tryptophan
50. Positively charged basic amino acids are
a) Lysine and arginine
b) Lysine and asparagine
c) Glutamine and arginine
d) Lysine and glutamine
51. Acidic amino acids include
a) Arginine and glutamate
b) Aspartate and asparagine
c) Aspartate and lysine
d) Aspartate and glutamate
52. Amino acids with hydroxyl groups are
a) serine and alanine
b) Alanine and valine
c) serine and threonine
d) Valine and isoleucine
53.The 21stamino acid is
a) hydroxy lysine
b) hydroxyl proline
c) selenocysteine
d) citrulline
54. Absorbance at 280nm exhibited by protein is due to
a) aliphatic amino acids
b) all amino acids
c) Non-polar amino acids
d) aromatic amino acids
55.Which of the following mineral element facilitates insulin binding to cell receptor site?
a) Zinc
b) Selenium
c) Copper
d) Chromium
56. Which of the following is a folate analog?
a) Carnosine
b) Aniserine
c) Azaserine
d) Methotrexate
56.ATP concentration is maintained relatively constant during muscle contraction by
a) Increasing the metabolic activity
b) The action of creatine phosphokinase
c) The action of adenylate kinase
d) all of the above4. The cone of retina
a) Are responsible for colour vision
b) Are much more numerous than rods
c) Have red, blue and green light- sensitive pigment that differ because of small difference in the
retinal prosthetic group
d) Do not use transducin in signal transduction
57.The C 21 steroid hormonesinclude
a) Vitamin D3
b) Estradiol
c) Testosterone
d) Aldosterone
58.Which of the following oxidoreductases form hydrogen peroxide as one of its products?
a) Oxidases
b) Peroxidases
c) Dehydrogenases
d) Oxygenases
59.The major protein responsible for the storage of iron
a) Ferredoxin
b) Ferretin
c) Hemosiderine
d) Transferine
60. Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter?
a) Glutamate
b) GABA
c) Glycine
d) Taurine
61. Which of the following is not involved in enzyme regulation?
a) Covalent modification
b) Competitive inhibition
c) Suicide inhibition
d) Allosteric activation
62.The preferred substrate for hexokinase is
a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Glucose and fructose are equally preferred
d) None of these
CHEMISTRY
1.0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the
resulting solution is ______.
(A)11
(B)10
(C)12
(D)9
2.0.5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a container. A hole was made
in the container. After 3 hours, the order of partial pressures in the container will
be
(A)pH2> pSO2> pCH4
(B)pH2> pCH4> pSO2
(C)pSO2> pH2> pCH4
(D)pSO2> pCH4, > pH2
3.10 cm3 of 0.1 N monobasic acid requires 15 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution
whose normality is
(A)1.5 N
(B)0.15 N
(C)0.066 N
(D)0.66 N
4. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) is an example for
(A)irreversible reaction
(B)heterogenous catalysis
(C)homogenous catalysis
(D)neutralisation reaction
5. 5 moles of SO2 and 5 moles of O2 are allowed to react. At equilibrium, it was
found that 60% of SO2 is used up. lf the partial pressure of the equilibrium mixture
is one atmosphere. the partial pressure of O2 is
(A)0.21 atm
(B)0.41 atm
(C)0.82 atm
(D)0.52 atm
6.Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene?
(A)It forms only one type of monosubstituted product
(B)There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double
bonds
(C)Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value
(D) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120°
7.Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
(A)N2
(B)NO
(C)CO
(D)O3
8.Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene?
(A)It forms only one type of monosubstituted product
(B)There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double
bonds
(C)Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value
(D) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120°
9.Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
(A)N2
(B)NO
(C)CO
(D)O3
10.Which one of the following is a covalent crystal?
(A)Ice
(B)Rock salt
(C)Dry ice
(D)Quartz
11.Which one of the following DOES NOT involve coagulation?
(A)Formation of delta region
(B)Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride
(C)Peptization
(D)Treatment of drinking water by potash alum
12.Which one is not a constituent of nucleic acid?
(A)Uracil
(B)Guanidine
(C)Phosphoric acid
(D)Ribose sugar
13. 50 cm3 of 0.2 N HCI is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration is
discontinued after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed
by adding 0.5 N KOH. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is
______.
(A)10 cm3
(B)12 cm3
(C)10.5 cm3
(D)25 cm3
14. 80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in
(A)80 g of hydrogen
(B)1 g of hydrogen
(C)10 g of hydrogen
(D)5 g of hydrogen
15. 9.65 C of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous magnesium
chloride. The magnesium metal thus obtained is completely converted into a
Grignard reagent. The number of moles of the Grignard reagent obtained is
______.
(A)1´10-4
(B)5´10-4
(C)1´10-5
(D)5´10-5
16. A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
(A)6% solution of Glucose
(B)25% solution of Glucose
(C)1 M solution of Glucose
(D)0.05 M solution of Glucose
17. A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32. The molecular mass of the
metal nitrate is
(A)I92
(B)188
(C)182
(D)168
18.A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms–1. The wavelength
of de-Broglie wave associated with it would be
(Note : h = 6.63´ 10–34Js)
(A)6.63´10-37m
(B)6.63´10-31m
(C)6.63´10-34m
(D)6.63´10-35m
19. A body of mass x kg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms–1. Its de Broglie
wavelength is 6.62 ´10–35m.
Hence x is (h = 6.62´10–34Js)
(A)0.15 kg
(B)0.2 kg
(C)0.1 kg
(D)0.25 kg
20. A buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3of
0.1 M acetic acid. To the above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is
further added and dissolved.
The pH of the resulting buffer is equal to ______.
(A)pKa
(B)pKa-Log2
(C)pKa+ L0g2
(D)pKa+ 2
21.A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3is 0.30 M and
the concentration of is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3equals 1.8
× 10–5, what is the pH of this solution?
(A)8.73
(B)9.08
(C)9.43
(D)11.72
22. A complex compound in which the oxidation number of a metal is zero is
(A)K4[Fe (CN)6]
(B)K3[Fe (CN)6]
(C)[Ni (CO)4]
(D)[Pl (NH3)4]Cl2
23. Which of the following is used to prepare Cl2 gas at room temperature from
concentrated HCI?
(A)MnO2
(B)H2S
(C)KMnO4
(D)Cr2O3
24. Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium?
(A)Carnallite
(B)Dolomite
(C)Calamine
(D)Sea water
25. Which of the following has the highest bond order?
(A)N2
(B)O2
(C)He2
(D)H2
26.Which of the following gives an aldehyde on dry distillation?
(A)Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate
(B)Calcium formate + calcium acetate
(C)Calcium benzoate
(D)Calcium acetate
27. Which of the following does not give benzoic acid on hydrolysis?
(A)phenyl cyanide
(B)benzoyl chloride
(C)benzyl chloride
(D)methyl benzoate
29.
MICROBIOLOGY
1.Which of the following diseases caused by drinking unpasteurized milk
a)
Pharyngitis caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b)
Q fever
c)
Bovine tuberculosis
d)
Brucellosis
e)
Viral pharyngitis
2. Plasmids are
a)
Extra chromosomal RNA
b)
Replicate independently from the cell’s chromosome
c)
Can survive outside the cell
d)
Transfer among cells by translocation
e)
Carry genes for antibacterial resistance
3) Methods by which transfer of genetic material take place in bacteria include
a)
Uptake of naked DNA from the surrounding media
b)
Conjugation via sex pilli
c)
Through bacteriophage infecting the bacterial cell
d)
Through flagellae
e)
By binary fission
4) Bacteria that are anaerobic during growth include
a)
Bacteroides fragilis
b)
Veilonella
c)
Clostridium botulinum
d)
Peptostreptococcus spp
e)
Fusobacterium spp
5) Prokaryotic organisms can be identified by the presence of
a)
A capsule
b)
A cell wall
c)
Nuclear membrane
d)
Mitochondria
e)
Nucleiolus
6) Permanent features of a bacterial cell include
a)
Cell wall
b)
Flagellae
c)
Nucleus
d)
Capsule
e)
Plasmids
7) Exotoxins
a)
Are cell wall components of gram negative bacteria
b)
Are polypeptides
c)
Are unstable at temperature above 60 cent.
d)
Production is controlled by plasmids
e)
Are weakly antigenic
8) Endotoxins
a)
Can be converted in to toxoids
b)
Are lipopolysccharides
c)
Produce fever
d)
Are excreted by gram positive bacteria
e)
Need receptors for adherence
9) Viruses responsible for the cause of common cold include
a)
Influenza A virus
b)
RSV
c)
Rhino virus
d)
Corona virus
e)
Coxsackie A virus
10) A macular popular rash is a recognized feature of
a)
Dengue
b)
Measles
c)
Rubella
d)
Parvovirus B 19 infection
e)
Hepatitis B infection
11. Regarding dermatophytes
a)
Invade deep tissues
b)
Dermatophyte infections of cats can transmit to human
c)
Kerion is a zoonotic dermatophyte infection caused by Epidermotophyton floccosum
d)
Trichophyton spp & Epidermotophyton spp cause infection of nails
e)
Griseofulvin is the drug of choice for treatment
12. A kerion
a)
Is a non suppurative lesion
b)
Mainly found in scalp
c)
Is caused by anthropophilic fungi
d)
Is diagnosed by demonstrating the fungal spores in or around the hair follicle
e)
Can be treated with griseofulvin
13) Dermatophytes
a)
Cause erythrasma
b)
Grow at 26 cent. on laboratory media
c)
Cause infection in scalp
d)
Cause piedra
e)
Cause in nail infections,can be treated with nystatin
14) Candida spp
a)
Is a filamentous fungi
b)
Can be stain by gram’s method
c)
Is known cause of onycomycosis
d)
Infection is treated with griseofulvin
e)
Produce arthrospores in tissues
15) Regarding kerion
a)
Predominat in children
b)
Not treated with antibiotics
c)
Produce scaly itchy patch over scalp
d)
Can not be cultured
e)
Is suppurative lesion
16) Regarding candida nail infection
a)
More common in toe than fingers
b)
Paronychia associated with onychomycosis
c)
Commonly occur in cook
d)
Has dry brittle nails
e)
Effectively treated with nystatin
17) Superficial fungal infection on the skin
a)
Are characterized by scaly macular rash
b)
Can be caused by candida spp
c)
Causes pruritis
d)
Can be transmitted from soil to human
e)
Caused by dermatophytes , is effectively treated with nystatin
18) Diseases caused by Aspergillus spp
a)
Allergy
b)
Pharyngitis
c)
Keratitis
d)
Bronchopneumonia
e)
Paranasa sinusitis
19) Fungi
a)
Can cause human infection by implantation through the skin
b)
Are prokaryotic cells
c)
Contain cellulose in their cell wall
d)
Contain chitin in their cell wall
e)
Causes serious infections in immunocompromized people
20) Regarding the ring worm infection
a)
Caused by candida
b)
Are characterized by scaly macular rash
c)
Cause prurits
d)
Human to human transmission can occur
e)
Treated with nystatin
22) Dimorphic fungi are
a)
Candida albicans
b)
Sporothrix schenckii
c)
Coccidion immitis
d)
Fusarium spp
e)
Histoplasma capsulatum
23.Regarding disinfection and antiseptics
a)
Alcohol are ineffective against bacterial spores
b)
Hypochlorite is inactivated by organic material
c)
Phenols are used in disinfection of blood spills
d)
Iodophores are less skin irritant than aqueous iodine
e)
Chlorhexidine has a residual activity on the skin
24) Factors determining the effectiveness of chemical disinfection include
a)
Prior cleaning of the article
b)
Concentration of the disinfectant used
c)
Duration of exposure
d)
Container used for the disinfectant procedure
e)
The mineral content of the water used for dilution of the disinfectant
25) True or false regarding disinfectant
a)
Quaternary ammonium compounds are low level disinfectants
b)
High level disinfectants are effective against tubercle bacilli
c)
Povidone iodine has poor activity against Staphylococcus aureus
d)
Hypochlorite can be used as a skin antiseptic
e)
Phenolic disinfectants have a poor activity against virus
26) Sterilization
a)
Removes all microorganisms from an article
b)
Can be achieved by autoclaving
c)
Of heat sensitive equipment can be done by immersion in 2%gluteraldehyde
d)
Of glassware can be achieved by heating to 160 ‘C for 2 hrs
e)
Of surgical equipment is done by moist heat at 100 ‘C for 30 mins
27) True or false regarding disinfectant
a)
Hypochlorite is a disinfectant of choice against viruses
b)
Chlorhexidine is active against gram negative organisms
c)
Phenol is inactivated by organic matter
d)
2% gluteraldehyde has sporicidal activity
e)
70% alcohol has low activity against Mycobacteria spp
28) True or false regarding sterilization and disinfection
a)
High level disinfectants kill all microorganisms including bacterial spores
b)
Intermediate level disinfectants kill all vegetative bacteria but not viruses
c)
Low level disinfectants kill mycobacteria spp
d)
Mycobacteria are the most resistant bacteria among vegetative bacteria
e)
Lipid containing medium sized viruses are the least resistant among all organisms
29) True or false regarding disinfection and sterilization
a)
Ward thermometer is sterilized by boiling
b)
Disposable syringes are sterilized by UV radiation
c)
Hypochlorite solution is used to sterilize endoscopes
d)
Iodine solution is used to disinfect the skin
e)
Per acetic acid is a high level disinfectant
30. Benzyl penicillin
a)
Can be used to treat effectively for gram negative bacterial infections
b)
Achieves therapeutic levels in CNS by crossing inflamed meninges
c)
Has oral preparations
d)
Interrupt with peptidoglycan synthesis
e)
Active against most anaerobes
31) Cephalosporin
a)
Allergy to patients who are allergic to penicillin
b)
Can be used to treat atypical pneumonia
c)
Can be used to treat gram negative infections
d)
Are beta lactam antibiotics
e)
Ceftazidime is the usual drug of choice for Pseudomonas spp infections
32) True or false regarding main methods of acquiring antibiotic resistance
a)
Penicillin-enzyme production
b)
Gentamycin- altered target
c)
Ciprofloxacin-
d)
Erythromycin- altered transport
e)
Tetracycline- efflux of drug
33) Which of the following, given to neonatal meningitis
a)
Chloramphenicol
b)
Benzyl penicillin
c)
Gentamycin
d)
Cefotaxime
e)
Cotimoxazole
34) Prophylactic antimicrobials are indicated
a)
Prior to catheterization
b)
Rheumatic fever
c)
Implantation of prosthetic heart valves
d)
Contact with pneumococcal meningitis
e)
Deep dog bite
35) Acyclovir is used to treat
a)
Herpes simplex
b)
Herpes simplex encephalitis
c)
Shingles
d)
Infectious mononucleosis
e)
Primary genital herpes
36) Candidiasis can be treated with
a)
Gresiofulvin
b)
Mebendazole
c)
Fluconozole
d)
Amphotericin B
e)
Miconazole
37) Prophylactic antimicrobials are indicated
a)
Chickenpox
b)
Recurrent UTI
c)
Clean elective surgery
d)
Outbreak of cholera
e)
Rheumatic fever
38) Spectrum of erythromycin includes
a)
Salmonella typhi
b)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c)
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d)
Campylobacter jejuni
e)
Staphylococcus aureus
39) Drugs can be used to treat candidiasis
a)
Nystatin
b)
Amphotericin B
c)
Chloramphenicol
d)
5 FT
e)
Fluconazole
40. The following statements describe the pathogenesis of genital tract infections
Not all genital tract infections are sexually transmitted
Risk of sexually transmitted infection (STI) increases with a new sex partner
Contraceptive use can increase the risk of infection
Some contraceptive methods can reduce the risk of infection
Increase age of 1st sexual encounter leads to increase risk on infection
41) The following statements describe clinical features of genital tract infections
a)
Urethritis always causes a purulent discharge
b)
Male patients with dyspareunia probably have Urethritis
c)
Only a very small proportion of patients with genital tract infections have no local
symptoms
d)
Ulceration or vesiculation are common features of external genital tract infections
e)
Patients may not divulge key features of genital tract infections unless asked
42. Viruses cause diarrhoea include
a)
Rota virus
b)
Calici virus
c)
Coxsackie virus
d)
Norwalk agent
e)
Enterovirus 70
43) True or false
a)
Salmonella spp cause gastro-enteritis
b)
In Staphylococci food poisoning ,toxins are produced in the gut
c)
Vibrio cholarae invades the tissue
d)
Diarrhoea is common feature of enteric fever
e)
Clostridium difficile produses potent neurotixin
44) True or false regarding typhoid fever
a)
It is caused by Salmonella typhimurium
b)
Faeces culture is negative on the 3rd week of infection
c)
Chloramphenicol resistance Salmonella typhi is documented in Kenya
d)
Widal test is a specific diagnostic tool
e)
Intestinal perforation is a complication
45) Pathogenesis that cause gastro-enteritis following ingestion of contaminated sea food
include
a)
Staphylococcus aureus
b)
Shigella sonnei
c)
Vibrio cholarae
d)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
e)
Plesiomonas spp
46) Laboratory diagnosis of gastro-enteritis
a)
Specific tests are required to identify strains of pathogenic E.coli
b)
Certain virus can be diagnosed by antigen detection
c)
In all bacterial diarrhoea Clary Blair medium is used as transport medium
d)
Antibiotic associated colitis is diagnosed by stool culture and toxin assay
e)
Some virus can be diagnosed by direct microscopy
47) Regarding typhoid fever
a)
Blood cultures are the most sensitive during the 1st week of infection
b)
Stool cultures are the most sensitive during the 2nd week of infection
c)
Primary bacteraemia coincides with the onset of fever
d)
Perforation of Payer’s patches occur during the infection
e)
Cholecystectomy is performed to eradicate long term carriers
48) Regarding shigellosis
a)
Blood cultures are effective in the diagnosis
b)
Stool culture is the best way to isolation of organism
c)
Causes large intestinal ulceration
d)
Characterized by blood & mucus diarrhoea
e)
Toxin production is the major virulence factor
49) Which of the following organisms cause food poisoning due to pre formed toxins
a)
Staphylococcus aureus
b)
Clostridium botulinum
c)
Clostridium welchi
d)
Bacillus cereus
e)
EIEC
50) Risk factors for the transmission of HIV include
a)
Transfusion of contaminated blood & blood products
b)
Unprotective sex with HIV positive partner
c)
Caring for an infected person
d)
Close contact with HIV positive individual
e)
Vertical transmission via breast milk of an infected mother
52) HIV
a)
Is a retrovirus
b)
Type most commonly associated with man is HIV-2
c)
Contains reverse transcriptase enzyme
d)
Is inactivated at 56 cent. for 30 min
e)
Is susceptible to 70% ethanol
53) HIV can be transmitted by
a)
Unprotected sexual intercourse
b)
Blood transfusion
c)
Needle stick injuries
d)
Breast milk
e)
Fomites
54) Regarding AIDS
a)
HIV can be destroyed by heating at 56 cent. for 30 min.
b)
There are two types of HIV as HIV-1 & HIV-2
c)
It attacks CD8 cells
d)
Contaminated cloths can be decontaminated with soap and water
e)
Is mainly transmitted by blood transfusion
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1) In the primary alkyl halides, hydrogen is bonded to that carbon atom which
is further attached to carbon atoms? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) none
2) Which of the following is least reactive? a)H2O b)ether c)alcohol d)H2SO4
3)which of the following is the formula of methylene chloride? a)CH2Cl2
b)CH3Cl c)CHCl3 d)CCl4
4) The planer shape is made in which type of hybridization? a)SP3 b)SP2 c)SP d)
5)which catalyst is used to convert carboxylic acid into alcohol? a)NaBH4
b)LiAlH4 c)H2SO4 d)none
6)methylated alcohol contains: a)95% alcohol b)80% alcohol c)90%alcohal d)none
7) which is a synthetic polymer? a)polystyrene b)PVC c)polyethylene d)none
8)the reactivity order of alkyl halides for a particular alkyl group is: a)F>Cl>Br>I
b)Cl>Br>F>I c)I>Br>Cl>F d)Br>I>Cl>F
9 )which has the maximum boiling point? a)ethanol b)propanal c)methanol d)2hexanone
10)which one is artificial polymer? a)lipids b)starch c)cellulose d)polyethylene
11) which of the following is not a Nucleophile? a)H2O b)H2S c)BF3 d)NH3
12) formula of methylene chloride is: a)CH2Cl2 b)CH3Cl c)CHCl3 d)CCl4
13) universal solvent is” a)H2O b)ether c)alcohol d)H2SO4
14)which of the following is least reactive? a)ester b)ether c)aldehydes d)ketones
15)when the molecule of H2 is removed from benzene , then it turns into: a)cyclohexane b)toluene
c)phenol d)formaldehyde
16)which of the following compound can directly be formed from acetic acid?
a)acetamide b)acetic anhydride c)acetyl chloride d)both b &c
17)which of the following reagent will react with both aldehydes and ketones?
a)Grignard reagent b)Tollen’s reagent c)Fehling’s reagent d)Benedict’s reagent
18) acetylene under pressure over an organo-nickle catalyst at 70 centigrade
converts into a) benzene b) toluene c) benzoic acid d) phenol
19) the mode of hybridization in alkane is _________ and three hybrid orbits are
formed a) sp3 b) sp2 c) sp d) sp4
20) which of the following agent oxidizes the aldehydes to carboxylic acids a)
alcohol b) Grignard reagent c) tollens reagent d) both a and c 21) the IUPAC name
of formic acid is a) methanoic b) ethanoic c) propanoic d) pentanoic 22) the
enzyme which is used for treatment of blood cancer in children is a) Lasparaginase b) alkaline phosphatase c) thrombin d) LHD-1
23) which of the following test is not given by aldehydes a) sodium nitroprusside
b) benedict solution c) fehling solution d) tollen’s test
24) sodium reacts with alkyl hallides in ether to form alkanes , the reaction is
known as a) wurtz synthesis b) Grignard reagent c) nucleophilic substitution d)
none
25) which of the following is the co-factor of carbonic anhydrase a) Fe+2 b) Zn+2
c) Mg+2 d) Co+2
26) which of them is most reactive a) alkane b) alkene c) alkyne d) benzene
27) which electrophile is used in the nitration of benzene a) HNO3 b) NO2+ c)
NO3 d) NO2
28) which compound has maximum repulsion with water? a) C6H6 b)
CH3CH2CH2OH C) C2H5OH D) CH3OCH3
29) rectified spirit contains alcohol about a) 98% b) 90% c) 95% d) 80% 30) which
acid is used in the manufacture of synthetic fiber a) formic acid
30) which acid is used in the manufacture of synthetic fiber a) formic acidb) oxalic
acid c) carbonic acid d) acetic acid
31) which one of the following polymer is addition polymer? a) polystyrene b)
polyethylene c) PVC d) all
32) which one is a water soluble vitamin a) niacin b) riboflavin c) trypsin d)
ascorbic acid
33) in primary alcohols carbon atom is attached to carbon attached to ____
carboxyl group? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) none
34) which one of the following is nucleophile a) H2O B) NH3 C) BF3 D) HCl 35)
ethers show phenomenon of a) position isomerism b) metamerism c) functional
group isomerism d) tautemerism
PARASITOLOGY
Which of
the
recognized
groups of
protozoans
lack typical
organelles
for
movement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Sarcodinians
Apicomplexans
Ciliates
Amoebas
Flagellates
2
Where is the highest occurrence of amebiasis found?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
British Isles
North America
Tropical regions
Siberia
Desert regions
3
Although both Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba are found in many water supplies,
where they are especially abundant?
A)
B)
In warm waters containing high concentrations of bacteria
In the Great Salt Lake
In the Arctic Ocean
C)
D)
E)
In freshwater lakes
In hot sulfur springs
4
What is the reservoir for Balantidium coli?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The human gastrointestinal tract
Soil
Rodents
The large intestines of pigs
Mosquitoes
5
Which mastigophoran species causes a sexually transmitted disease?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Trypanosoma cruzi
Leishmania donovani
Giardia lamblia
Trichomonas vaginalis
Trypanosoma brucei
6
What is the most common flagellate isolated in clinical specimens?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Trypanosoma cruzi
Leishmania donovani
Giardia lamblia
Trichomonas vaginalis
E)
Trypanosoma brucei
7
What form of Giardia lamblia plays a greater role in transmission?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Nuclei
Trophozoites
Metacysts
Karyosomes
Cysts
8
How are both Trypanosoma and Leishmania spread?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
By blood-sucking vectors
Mother-to-fetus
Sexually transmitted
Fecal-oral route
Person-to-person
9
In what developmental stage of the homoflagellates does the organism possess a free anterior
flagellum and an undulating membrane?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Cyst
Epimastigote
Trypomastigote
Amastigote
Promastigote
10
How are trypanosomes able to evade the host immune system?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
They have an anti-phagocytic capsule.
They are obligate intracellular parasites.
They continuously alter their surface antigens.
They produce enzymes that digest antibodies.
They cause lysis of T cells.
11
What organ is targeted during an infection with Trypanosoma cruzi?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Heart
Brain
Nervous system
Liver
Spleen
12
What serves as an important reservoir of Leishmania?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Humans
Soil
Rodents
Mosquitoes
Dogs
13
What is the most prevalent protozoan disease in the world?
A)
Amebiasis
B)
C)
D)
E)
Balantidiosis
Giardiasis
Malaria
Trypanosomiasis
14
Where do most new cases of malaria occur?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
South America
Australia
Asia
India
Africa
15
In malaria, where do the asexual sporozoites undergo schizogony to form merozoites?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
In the stomach of the female Anopheles mosquito
In liver cells
In red blood cells
In macrophages
In lymph nodes
16
What organism causes the most dangerous form of malaria?
A)
B)
Giardia lamblia
Trypanosoma cruzi
Plasmodium ovale
C)
D)
E)
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium falciparum
17
The Cryptosporidium outbreak in Milwaukee, WI prompted water treatment plants to make
what change?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Add more chlorine to the water supplies
Begin filtering water supplies
Begin boiling water supplies
Begin subjecting water supplies to ethylene oxide
Begin protecting water supplies from terrorists
18
Transmission of cyclosporiasis occurs by what method?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Person-to-person
Through the bite of the tsetse fly
Fecal-oral route
Respiratory route
Sexual transmission
19
Babesiosis resembles what disease in both pathology and symptomology?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Giardiasis
Amebiasis
Toxoplasmosis
Malaria
E)
Cryptosporidiosis
20
Which group has the highest rate of helminth infections?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Adults living in industrialized countries
Children living in rural America
Teenage males throughout the world
Young girls who live in cold climates
Children in rural topical or subtropical areas
21
Which is not a pathological effect of helminth infections?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Diarrhea
Hemorrhage
Enlargement and swelling of organs
Anemia
Weight loss
22
What helminth is responsible for causing the greatest number of worm infections worldwide?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
23
Enterobius vermicularis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Strongyloides stercoralis
Trichinella spiralis
Taenia saginata
How do humans acquire trichinosis?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
By walking barefoot through areas where cats or dogs have defecated
By self-inoculation
By frequent contact with a dog's fur, paws, and tongue
By eating the uncooked meat of an infected animal
By a bite from a vector
24
What helminthic infection results in elephantiasis?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Bancroftian filariasis
Strongyloidiasis
Trichinosis
Whipworm infection
Pinworm infection
25
What is the intermediate host for the schistosomes?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Humans
Soil
Snails
Blood-sucking insects
Raw sewage