Download Exam Chapters 44,45,46,47

Exam Chapters 44,45,46,47
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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) A marine sea star was mistakenly placed in freshwater and it died. What is the most likely
explanation for its death?
A) The cells of the sea star dehydrated and lost the ability to metabolize.
B) The sea star is hyperosmotic to the freshwater, and it could not osmoregulate.
C) The osmoregulatory system of the sea star could not handle the change in ionic content
presented by the freshwater.
D) The sea star was stressed and needed more time to acclimate to new conditions.
E) The contractile vacuoles used to regulate water content ruptured in the freshwater.
1)
2) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be __________ with its __________ environment.
A) isoosmotic; saltwater
B) hyperosmotic; freshwater
C) hypoosmotic; saltwater
D) isotonic; freshwater
E) hyperosmotic; saltwater
2)
3) Compared to the seawater around them, most marine invertebrates are
A) hyperosmotic and isoosmotic.
B) hypoosmotic.
C) hypoosmotic and isoosmotic.
D) hyperosmotic.
E) isoosmotic.
3)
4) Where and from what compound(s) is urea produced?
A) kidneys from glucose
B) bladder from uric acid and H2 O
4)
C) liver from glycogen
D) liver from NH3 and CO2
E) kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids
5) Which of the following is true of urea? It is
A) more toxic to human cells than ammonia.
B) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds.
C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates.
D) insoluble in water.
E) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans.
5)
6) The advantage of excreting wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that
A) urea can be exchanged for Na+ .
6)
B) urea is less toxic than ammonia.
C) urea does not affect the osmolar gradient.
D) less nitrogen is removed from the body.
E) urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia.
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7) What is the main nitrogenous waste excreted by birds?
A) nitrite
B) uric acid
C) nitrate
7)
D) urea
E) ammonia
8) Which of the following nitrogenous wastes requires hardly any water for its excretion?
A) urea
B) amino acid
C) uric acid
D) ammonia
E) nitrogen gas
8)
9) In animals, nitrogenous wastes are produced mostly from the catabolism of
A) triglycerides and steroids.
B) starch and cellulose.
C) fatty acids and glycerol.
D) phospholipids and glycolipids.
E) proteins and nucleic acids.
9)
10) Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid
A) is readily soluble in water.
B) is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products.
C) excretion allows birds to live in desert environments.
D) requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal which is conducive to the function of
flight in terms of weight.
10)
11) Which of the following excretory systems is partly based on the filtration of fluid under high
hydrostatic pressure?
A) flame-bulb system of flatworms
B) Malpighian tubules of insects
C) protonephridia of rotifers
D) kidneys of vertebrates
E) metanephridia of earthworms
11)
12) What substance is secreted by the proximal-tubule cells and prevents the pH of urine from
becoming too acidic?
A) glucose
B) ammonia
C) NaOH
D) bicarbonate
E) salt
12)
13) Which one of the following, if present in a urine sample, would likely be caused by trauma?
A) vitamins
B) amino acids
C) salts
D) erythrocytes
E) glucose
13)
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14) The secretion of hormone A causes a change in the amount of protein X in an organism. If this
mechanism works by positive feedback, which of the following statements represents that
fact?
A) An increase in X produces a decrease in A.
B) An increase in A produces an increase in X.
C) A decrease in A produces an increase in X.
D) A and B are correct.
E) B and C are correct.
14)
15) What is the mode of action of aspirin and ibuprofen?
A) They inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins.
B) They inhibit the release of nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator.
C) They stimulate the release of oxytocin.
D) They stimulate the release of endorphins.
E) They block paracrine signaling pathways.
15)
16) Which of the following statements about hormones is incorrect?
A) They travel through a dedicated pathway.
B) Not all cells respond to a particular hormone.
C) They circulate in blood or hemolymph.
D) They are secreted into the extracellular fluid.
E) They communicate messages throughout the body.
16)
17) Which of the following statements about hormones is incorrect?
A) Glands that produce them are ductless glands.
B) They are produced only by organs called endocrine organs.
C) Some are water soluble and some are not.
D) They may turn genes off or on.
E) They often maintain steady-state conditions.
17)
18) The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary by means of
A) antibodies.
B) releasing hormones.
C) second messengers.
D) third messengers.
E) cytokines.
18)
19) If a person drinks a large amount of water in a short period of time, he or she may die from
water toxicity. ADH can help prevent water retention through interaction with target cells in
the
A) bladder.
B) posterior pituitary.
C) anterior pituitary.
D) adrenal gland.
E) kidney.
19)
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20) Which combination of hormones helps a mother to produce milk and nurse her baby?
A) oxytocin, prolactin, and luteinizing hormone
B) prolactin and calcitonin
C) luteinizing hormone and oxytocin
D) oxytocin and prolactin
E) follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
20)
21) Testosterone is an example of
A) melatonin.
B) an androgen.
C) a progestin.
D) an estrogen.
E) a catecholamine.
21)
22) Estradiol is an example of
A) a progestin.
B) an androgen.
C) a catecholamine.
D) melatonin.
E) an estrogen.
22)
23) An advantage of asexual reproduction is that
A) asexual reproduction allows a species to readily rid itself of harmful mutations.
B) asexual reproduction produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens.
C) asexual reproduction enhances genetic variability in the species.
D) asexual reproduction enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to
that species.
E) asexual reproduction allows the species to endure long periods of unstable
environmental conditions.
23)
24) If you observe vertebrate organisms with parthenogenetic reproduction, internal development
of embryos, and the lack of parental care for its young, you should categorize these organisms
as
A) frogs.
B) earthworms.
C) lizards.
D) birds.
E) mammals.
24)
25) In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal
fertilization, but internal fertilization offers the advantage that
A) it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability.
B) it requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction.
C) it is the only way to ensure the survival of the species.
D) it permits the most rapid population increase.
E) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental
investment.
25)
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26) Internal and external fertilization both
A) occur only among invertebrates.
B) occur only among birds.
C) occur only among terrestrial animals.
D) depend on the use of intromittent copulatory organs.
E) produce zygotes.
26)
27) A cloaca is an anatomical structure found in many nonmammalian vertebrates, which
functions as
A) a specialized sperm-transfer device produced by males.
B) a common exit for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems.
C) a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening.
D) a region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females.
E) a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes.
27)
28) Chemical signals exchanged between potential reproductive partners are called
A) paracrine signals.
B) hormones.
C) gametes.
D) cytokines.
E) pheromones.
28)
29) An oocyte released from a human ovary enters the oviduct as a result of
A) the beating action of the flagellum on the oocyte.
B) Peristaltic contraction of ovarian muscles.
C) the wavelike beating of cilia lining the oviduct.
D) movement of the oocyte through the pulsing uterus into the oviduct.
E) the force of the follicular ejection directing the oocyte into the oviduct.
29)
30) The junction of the upper vagina and the uterus is called the
A) fallopian tube.
B) cervix.
C) clitoris.
D) oviduct.
E) labia majora.
30)
31) The male and female structures that consist mostly of erectile tissue include
A) testes and ovaries.
B) prostate and ovaries.
C) seminiferous tubules and hymen.
D) vas deferens and oviduct.
E) penis and clitoris.
31)
32) Sperm cells are stored within human males in the
A) seminal vesicles.
B) prostate.
C) urethra.
D) bulbourethral gland.
E) epididymis.
32)
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33) Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the
A) urinary bladder.
B) urethra.
C) seminal vesicle.
D) vas deferens.
E) ureter.
33)
34) The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely
A) greatly reduce the volume of semen.
B) enhance the fertilization potency of sperm in the uterus.
C) cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body.
D) cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity.
E) cause sterility because sperm would not be produced.
34)
35) Increasing and holding the temperature of the scrotum by 2°C, near the normal body-core
temperature, would
A) increase the fertility of the affected man by enhancing the rate of spermatogenesis.
B) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing the production of gonadal steroid hormones.
C) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing by abolishing sexual interest.
D) have no effect on male reproductive processes.
E) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis.
35)
36) The moment of orgasm is characterized by
A) increased synthesis and release of ovarian steroid hormones.
B) rhythmic contraction of many parts of the reproductive system.
C) the release of sperm from the seminiferous tubules.
D) the ovulation of the oocyte from the ovary.
E) increased synthesis and release of testicular steroid hormones.
36)
37) In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ, in that
A) oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one
functional spermatozoon.
B) spermatogenesis is not completed until after fertilization occurs, but oogenesis is
completed by the time a girl is born.
C) oogenesis ends at menopause, whereas spermatogenesis is finished before birth.
D) oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity, whereas spermatogenesis happens in
embryonic development.
E) cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis.
37)
38) Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that
A) they are formed before birth.
B) they both have the same number of chromosomes.
C) they are approximately the same size.
D) they are produced from puberty until death.
E) they each have a flagellum that provides motility.
38)
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39) The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that
A) copulation normally occurs across the estrous cycle, whereas in menstrual cycles
copulation only occurs during the period surrounding ovulation.
B) behavioral changes during estrous cycles are much less apparent than those of menstrual
cycles.
C) most estrous cycle are of much longer duration compared to menstrual cycles.
D) the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed but the shed
endometrium is excreted from the body during the menstrual cycle.
E) season and climate have less pronounced effects on estrous cycle than they do on
menstrual cycles.
39)
40) The breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues that occurs if no egg is fertilized is
called
A) lactation.
B) ovulation.
C) fertilization.
D) menopause.
E) menstruation.
40)
41) This hormone is secreted directly from a structure in the brain:
A) estradiol
B) progesterone
C) testosterone
D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone
E) follicle stimulating hormone
41)
42) Ovulation is the follicular response to a burst of secretion of
A) progesterone.
B) estradiol.
C) inhibin.
D) LH.
E) prolactin.
42)
43) Prior to ovulation, the steroid hormone secreted by the growing follicle is
A) LH.
B) FSH.
C) estradiol.
D) GnRH.
43)
E) inhibin.
44) For normal human fertilization to occur,
A) only one sperm need penetrate one egg.
B) secretion of pituitary FSH and LH must decrease.
C) the uterus must be enlarged.
D) the secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus.
E) many ova must be released.
44)
45) Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the
A) cervix.
B) uterus.
C) ovary.
45)
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D) vagina.
E) oviduct.
46) Labor contractions would be increased by the use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action of
A) luteinizing hormone.
B) inhibin.
C) oxytocin.
D) vasopressin.
E) prolactin.
46)
47) A woman in the final week of pregnancy who is given an injection of oxytocin would likely
A) stop secreting prostaglandins from the placenta.
B) undergo the loss of oxytocin receptors from her uterine smooth muscle cells.
C) undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles.
D) be prevented from lactation.
E) increase the synthesis and secretion of progesterone.
47)
48) Among these contraception methods, which has the highest risk of accidental pregnancy?
A) coitus interruptus
B) diaphragm
C) rhythm method
D) condom
E) vasectomy
48)
49) The use of birth-control pills (oral contraceptives)
A) prevents fertilization by keeping sperm and egg physically separated by a mechanical
barrier.
B) prevents implantation of an embryo.
C) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus.
D) reduces the incidence of ovulation.
E) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra.
49)
50) Which pair includes two contraceptive methods that are generally irreversible means to block
gametes from moving to a site where fertilization can occur?
A) male condom and oral contraceptives
B) vasectomy and tubal ligation
C) coitus interruptus and rhythm method
D) male condom and female condom
E) diaphragm and subcutaneous progesterone implant
50)
51) Tubal ligation
A) prevents implantation of an embryo.
B) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus.
C) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra.
D) prevents fertilization by preventing sperm from entering the uterus.
E) reduces the incidence of ovulation.
51)
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52) Vasectomy
A) eliminates testosterone synthesis.
B) prevents implantation of an embryo.
C) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus.
D) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra.
E) eliminates spermatogenesis.
52)
53) Human fertility drugs increase the chance of multiple births, probably because they
A) prevent parturition.
B) enhance implantation.
C) mimic progesterone.
D) stimulate spermatogenesis.
E) stimulate follicle development.
53)
54) As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of
A) epigenesis.
B) cell division.
C) morphogenesis.
D) preformation.
E) differentiation.
54)
55) Contact of a sperm with signal molecules in the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo
A) mitosis.
B) vitellogenesis.
C) depolarization.
D) the acrosomal reaction.
E) apoptosis.
55)
56) During fertilization, the acrosomal contents
A) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm.
B) block polyspermy.
C) help propel more sperm toward the egg.
D) digest the protective coat on the surface of the egg.
E) nourish the mitochondria of the sperm.
56)
57) Fertilization normally
A) merges two dipoloid cells into one haploid cell.
B) is required for parthenogenesis.
C) follows gastrulation.
D) precedes ovulation.
E) reinstates diploidy.
57)
58) The sequence of developmental milestones proceeds as follows:
A) cleavage
morula
blastula
gastrula
B) cleavage
gastrula
morula
blastula
C) morula
cleavage
gastrula
blastula
D) gastrula
morula
blastula
cleavage
E) cleavage
blastula
gastrula
morula
58)
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59) The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is
A) endoderm
mesoderm
ectoderm.
B) mesoderm
endoderm
ectoderm.
C) ectoderm
endoderm
mesoderm.
D) endoderm
ectoderm
mesoderm.
E) ectoderm
mesoderm
endoderm.
59)
60) The vertebrate ectoderm is the origin of the
A) liver.
B) pancreas.
C) heart.
D) nervous system.
E) kidneys.
60)
61) A correct statement is:
A) The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B) The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
C) The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
D) The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
E) The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
61)
Use the following information to answer the following questions.
In a study of the development of frog embryos, several early gastrulas were stained with vital dyes. The locations of the
dyes after gastrulation were noted. The results are shown in the following table.
Tissue
Brain
Notochord
Liver
Lens of the eye
Lining of the digestive tract
Stain
red
yellow
green
blue
purple
Figure 47.1
62) The ectoderm should give rise to tissues containing
A) red and yellow colors.
B) yellow and purple colors.
C) green and red colors.
D) red and blue colors.
E) purple and green colors.
62)
63) The mesoderm was probably stained with a
A) blue color.
B) yellow color.
C) red color.
D) green color.
E) purple color.
63)
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64) The endoderm was probably stained with
A) yellow and green colors.
B) green and purple colors.
C) blue and yellow colors.
D) purple and red colors.
E) red and yellow colors.
64)
65) In all vertebrate animals, development requires
A) an amnion.
B) a primitive streak.
C) an aqueous environment.
D) extraembryonic membranes.
E) a large supply of yolk.
65)
66) At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a
A) zygote.
B) gastrula.
C) somite.
D) fetus.
E) blastocyst.
66)
67) Gases are exchanged in a mammalian embryo in the
A) hypoblast.
B) yolk sac.
C) amnion.
D) trophoblast.
E) chorion.
67)
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