Download Epidemiology_1

1. Quantity of motive forces of epidemic process:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
ANSWER: B
2. First link of epidprocess:
A. susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. mechanism of transmission
E. factor of transmission of causative agent
ANSWER: C
3. Second link of epidprocess:
A. susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. mechanism of transmission
E. factor of transmission of causative agent
ANSWER: D
4. Third link of epidprocess:
A. susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. mechanism of transmission
E. factor of transmission of causative agent
ANSWER: A
5. Specific localization of causative agent at intestinal infection:
A. oropharynx
B. esophagus and stomach
C. colon
D. intestine
E. digestive channel
ANSWER: E
6. Specific localization of causative agent at respiratory infection:
A. oropharynx and nasopharynx
B. respiratory tract
C. trachea and bronchial tubes
D. lungs
E. alveolus pulmonis
ANSWER: B
7. Specific localization of causative agent at blood infection:
A. blood plasma
B. leucocytes
C. circulatory system
D. blood
E. red cells
ANSWER: C
8. Specific localization of causative agent at external covers infection:
A. skin
B. mucous of external part of gynaecologic organs
C. external coverings
D. conjunctiva
E. epidermis
ANSWER: C
9. Mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the bloody infections
A. contact
B. fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. transmissive
E. alimentary
ANSWER: D
10. Mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the respiratory infections
A. contact
B. fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. transmissive
E. vertical
ANSWER: C
11. Mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the intestinal infections
A. contact
B. fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. water
E. alimentary
ANSWER: B
12. Secondary forces of epidprocess are:
A. natural and social phenomena
B. natural phenomena
C. social phenomena
D. governmental politics
E. climatic conditions
ANSWER: A
13. At anthroponosis the reservoir of agent is:
A. man
B. animal
C. environment
D. man and animal
E. man, animal and environment
ANSWER: A
14. At zoonosis the reservoir of agent is:
A. man
B. animal
C. environment
D. man and animal
E. man, animal and environment
ANSWER: B
15. At sapronosis the reservoir of agent is:
A. man
B. animal
C. environment
D. man and animal
E. man, animal and environment
ANSWER: C
16. Prophylactic disinfection conduct:
A. In a focus, where there is an infectious patient
B. At the home of chronic carrier
C. In an infectious hospital
D. In the places of great accumulation of people
E. After death patient
ANSWER: D
17. Primary bacteriocarrier is:
A. transient
B. inapparent
C. transient, inapparent, acute recovering and chronic
D. acute recovering and chronic
E. transient and inapparent
ANSWER: E
18. Secondary bacteriocarrier is:
A. transient
B. inapparent
C. transient, inapparent, acute recovering and chronic
D. acute recovering and chronic
E. transient and inapparent
ANSWER: D
19. The half-life of the most firm Ig in averages is:
A. 25 days
B. 50 days
C. 100 days
D. 200 days
E. 1 year
ANSWER: A
20. Active immunity appears after introduction:
A. immune serum
B. immunoglobulin
C. antitoxin
D. vaccines
E. bacteriophage
ANSWER: D
21. Passive immunity is created after introduction:
A. immune serum
B. immunoglobulin
C. antitoxin
D. vaccines
E. bacteriophage
ANSWER: A
22. Passive immunity is created after introduction:
A. antibiotic
B. immunoglobulin
C. antitoxin
D. vaccines
E. bacteriophage
ANSWER: B
23. Artificial immunity is created after:
A. introduction of antibiotic
B. introduction of immunoprotein
C. disease
D. birth of child
E. introduction of a bacteriophage
ANSWER: B
24. Artificial immunity is created after:
A. introduction of antibiotic
B. introduction of immune serum
C. disease
D. birth of child
E. introduction of a bacteriophage
ANSWER: B
25. Artificial immunity is created after:
A. introduction of antibiotic
B. introduction of vaccine
C. disease
D. birth of child
E. introduction of a bacteriophage
ANSWER: B
26. Passive immunity can be only:
A. artificial
B. natural
C. artificial and natural
D. innate
E. specific
ANSWER: C
27. Active immunity can be only:
A. artificial
B. natural
C. artificial and natural
D. innate
E. specific
ANSWER: C
28. Innate immunity can be:
A. specific
B. collective
C. individual
D. specific and collective
E. specific, collective and individual
ANSWER: C
29. The acquired immunity can be:
A. specific
B. collective
C. individual
D. specific and collective
E. specific, collective and individual
ANSWER: E
30. The source of causative agent in an epizootic focus is:
A. animal
B. people
C. people and animal
D. environment
E. pathogenic bacteria, viruses and fungus
ANSWER: A
31. One of criteria of epidemic meaningfulness of infection is:
A. morbidity
B. death rate
C. disability
D. duration of incapacity
E. indexes of the ineffective use of capable of working population
ANSWER: A
32. Epidemiology diagnostics – it:
A. aggregate of the scientifically grounded recommendations
B. system of looking after an epidemic process
C. recognition of morbidity and epidemic state of population
D. mass surveys of population for the receipt of complete information
E. an analysis of the systems is in the theory of management the disease system
ANSWER: C
33. For the long-term dynamics of morbidity characteristic is:
A. seasonality
B. whole-year morbidity
C. recurrence
D. epidemic flash
E. single separate morbidity
ANSWER: C
34. For the annual dynamics of morbidity characteristic:
A. recurrence
B. long-term epidemic tendency
C. seasonality
D. irregular vibrations
E. morbidity which is offtype for certain locality
ANSWER: C
35. A recurrence is in a long-term dynamics – it:
A. basic direction of development of epidemic process for the row of years
B. appropriate getting up of morbidity in a certain period
C. regular vibrations of morbidity for the row of years
D. irregular vibrations of morbidity for the row of years
E. brief getting up of morbidity on the limited territory
ANSWER: C
36. To the infections with the global natural habitat of distribution belongs:
A. tick encephalitis
B. leptospirosis
C. rabbit-fever
D. malaria
E. viral hepatitis B
ANSWER: B
37. Morbidity does not show up in a kind:
A. sporadic morbidity
B. epidemic outbreak
C. epidemic
D. pandemic
E. exotic cases
ANSWER: E
38. To the quarantine infections is not included:
A. plague
B. diphtheria
C. cholera
D. yellow fever
E. fever of Ebola
ANSWER: B
39. To the especially dangerous infections is not included:
A. plague
B. cholera
C. yellow fever
D. measles
E. fever of Lassa
ANSWER: D
40. Natural focus of infectious disease is:
A. aggregate of biological objects.
B. epizootic focus.
C. territory which zoonotic infections are constantly registered on.
D. place, where the infection of man took a place.
E. area of territory of geographical landscape with inherent by it biocenosis, where the
disease agent circulates among a population and animals.
ANSWER: E
41. The aim of antiepidemic work is:
A. warning of infectious diseases.
B. decline of infectious morbidity.
C. liquidation of separate infections.
D. improvement of epidemic supervision.
E. warning, decline of infectious morbidity and liquidation of separate infections.
ANSWER: E
42. To the controlled infectious diseases does not belong:
A. measles.
B. scarlet fever.
C. diphtheria.
D. tetanus.
E. whooping-cough.
ANSWER: B
43. To the uncontrolled infectious diseases does not belong:
A. hepatitis B.
B. hepatitis G.
C. hepatitis E.
D. salmonellosis.
E. typhoid.
ANSWER: A
44. The focus of infectious disease is not:
A. settlement.
B. apartment.
C. room in a dormitory.
D. school.
E. preschool.
ANSWER: A
45. In case of occurring of hepatitis A in preschool:
A. conduct a medical supervision.
B. conduct a laboratory inspection.
C. inject an immunoprotein to the children which were not ill viral hepatitis A.
D. conduct all of foregoing measures.
E. conduct no measures.
ANSWER: D
46. Sick and suspicious on a cholera it is necessary to hospitalize:
A. in infectious permanent establishment
B. in a provisory hospital
C. in an insulator
D. in an observation department
E. it is possible to treat at home
ANSWER: A
47. Persons which contacted with a cholera patient are:
A. send in an insulator, conduct a medical supervision, antibioticprophylaxis.
B. send in an insulator, where conduct a medical supervision.
C. send in an insulator and urgent antibioticprophylaxis is conducted.
D. examine ambulatory and conduct treatment.
E. conduct only antibioticprophylaxis.
ANSWER: A
48. Contact persons in the focus of typhoid fever are observed during:
A. 6 days.
B. 12 days.
C. 21 day.
D. 25 day.
E. 35днів.
ANSWER: C
49. Contact persons in the focus of paratyphoid are observed during:
A. 6 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 21 day.
D. 25 days.
E. 35 days.
ANSWER: B
50. In a prophylaxis of typhoid fever the basic measures are:
A. the isolation of source of infection.
B. measures, directed on the way of transmission.
C. measures, directed on creation of immunity of population.
D. deratization.
E. sanitary-educational work.
ANSWER: B
51. In a prophylaxis of salmonellosis the basic measures are:
A. the isolation of source of infection.
B. measures, directed on the way of transmission.
C. measures, directed on creation of immunity of population.
D. deratization.
E. sanitary-educational work.
ANSWER: B
52. What group of infectious diseases diphtheria belong to?
A. Sapronosis
B. Zoonosis
C. Anthroponosis
D. Zooanthroponosis
E. A group is not certain
ANSWER: C
53. Corynebacterium diphtheria:
A. Contain only endotoxin
B. Exotoxin products
C. Exotoxin does not product
D. An enterotoxin products
E. Myelotoxin products
ANSWER: B
54. The source of infection at diphtheria is:
A. Sick person and bacteriocarriers
B. Sick agricultural animals
C. Rodents
D. Mosquito
E. Aerosol of saliva and epipharyngeal mucous of patients
ANSWER: A
55. What mechanism of Corynebacterium diphtheria transmission?
A. Vertical
B. Transmissive
C. Air-drop
D. Contact
E. Parenteral
ANSWER: C
56. Diphtheria planned vaccination begin in:
A. In first days after birth of child
B. In 3 month age
C. In 6-month age
D. In 1 year
E. In 6 years
ANSWER: B
57. Etiologic agent of meningitis is:
A. Neisseria meningitis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Vibro cholerae
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Campylobacter pylori
ANSWER: A
58. Which of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?
A. Chill, high temperature, headache
B. Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, muscular cramps
C. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence
D. Headache, dry cough, chill
E. Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting,
confusion, irritability
ANSWER: E
59. What laboratory methods should be taken to confirm meningitis?
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Serologic detection
C. Urine examination
D. Stool test
E. Biopsy of tissues
ANSWER: A
60. Source of meningitis is:
A. Animals
B. Birds
C. Fish
D. Lice
E. Human
ANSWER: E
61. What is taken for serum research for confirmation of meningococcal infection?
A. Blood
B. Mucus
C. Urine
D. CSF
E. Saliva
ANSWER: A
62. The measures of urgent prophylaxis of plague.
А. Administration of human immunoglobulin
В. Chlorochin (delagil) 0,25 g 2 times in week
С. 6-day’s prophylaxis with streptomycin or tetracycline
D. In first 5 days intake antibiotics of penicillin or tetracycline origin
Е. Іnterferon
ANSWER: C
63. The rules of hospitalization of patients with plague:
А. To separate ward
В. To ward for respiratory infections
С. To box ward
D. Patient’s are not hospitalized
Е. To ward for intestinal infections
ANSWER: C
64. Preparations for urgent prophylaxis of plague:
A. Injection of human immunoglobulin
B. Streptomycin or tetracycline
С. Human immunoglobulin
D. Dry living vaccine.
E. Interferon
ANSWER: B
65. The duration of incubation period of plague is:
A. 3 to 8 days;
B. 2 to 12 days;
C. 2 to 10 days;
D. 1 to 8 days.
E. 2 to 6 days;
ANSWER: E
66. Your must begin to treat patients with a plague:
A. Immediately after hospitalization
B. Immediately after hospitalization, taking out only material for research
C. After putting the final diagnosis
D. After laboratory and instrumental diagnostics
E. All answers are faithful
ANSWER: B
67. For how long a patient with complicated form of measles should be isolated:
A. For 4 days from the beginning of rash
B. For 7 days from the beginning of rash
C. For 10 days from the beginning of rash
D. For 17 days from the beginning
E. For 20 days from the beginning of illness
ANSWER: C
68. Term of contagious period of patient diagnosed with uncomplicated form of measles
A. Until clinical recovery
B. After rash starts disappearing
C. Before appearance of rash
D. 4 days from the beginning of rash
E. 10 days from the beginning of illness
ANSWER: D
69. What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?
A. 11 days
B. 21 day
C. 10 days
D. No need for quarantine
E. 5 days after isolation of the last child
ANSWER: E
70. What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis (mumps)?
A. 21 days
B. First week of illness
C. First 10 days from the beginning of disease
D. Whole period of clinical symptoms
E. First 9 days of disease.
ANSWER: E
71. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?
A. 10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. Till the 22d day from the beginning of illness
E. Not contagious
ANSWER: A
72. What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever?
A. 7 days from time of contact
B. 21 day
C. Till patient’s rash is present
D. Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment
E. Not conducted
ANSWER: A
73. Methods of specific prophylaxis of scarlet fever:
A. Isolation of ill
B. Vaccination
C. Use of antibiotics
D. Disinfection
E. Does not exist
ANSWER: E
74. What is incubation period for hepatitis B:
A. 45 days
B. 180 days
C. 360 days
D. 90 days
E. 25 days
ANSWER: B
75. All the hepatitis have parenteral way of transmission except:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. TTV
ANSWER: A
76. Chronic course is common for viral hepatitis except:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. B+C
ANSWER: A
77. All the following medicines are interferons except:
A. Intron
B. Roferon
C. Reaferon
D. Leukinferon
E. Cycloferon
ANSWER: E
78. All the following medicines are hepatoprotective agents except:
A. Carsil
B. Silibor
C. Legalon
D. Acesol
E. Arginine
ANSWER: D
79. The diagnosis of malaria can be confirmed:
A. Microscopy of urine
B. Blood culture
C. Bacteriologic investigation of stool
D. Swab from nasopharynx
E. Parazitoscopy of blood
ANSWER: E
80. Rules of hospitalization of patients with malaria:
A. In separate room
B. In the house for respiratory infections
C. In the Meltserovsky‘s box
D. Patients are not hospitalized
E. In the house for intestinal infections
ANSWER: A
81. Activities on contact with import cases of malaria:
A. Parasitoscopy of blood
B. The direction of the contact in the detention facility for 5 days
C. Chemoprophylaxis
D. Vaccination
E. Do not hold
ANSWER: E
82. Who would be a subject for inspection on malaria?
A. People who recovered of malaria
B. Persons, returning from endemic regions of malaria
C. Patients with fever more than 5 days
D. Patients with splenomegaly
E. All enumerated
ANSWER: E
83. Methods used for identification of sources of malaria:
A. Stool culture test
B. Blood culture
C. Microscopy of blood
D. Burne’s test
E. All enumerated
ANSWER: C
84. The infective agent of Tetanus is:
A. Clostridium tetani
B.Corynebacterium tetani
C. Candida tetani
D. Tetani virus
E. Helmints
ANSWER: A
85. What is the source of Tetanus infective agent?
A. Ill person, bacteriocarrier
B. Rodents
C. Soil
D. Insects
E. Cattle
ANSWER: C
86. The spores of Tetanus infective agent are saved:
A. Boiling during 1 hour
B. Under the influence of dry air at a temperature 115°C
C. In soil during many years
D. In 1 % solution of formalin during 6 hour
E. All above enumerated
ANSWER: C
87. Mechanism of transmission at Tetanus:
A. Droplet
B. Contact
C. Transmission
D. Fecal-oral
E. Vertical
ANSWER: B
88. What susceptibility of humans to the Tetanus?
A. Unsusceptible
B. 50 %
C. Almost 100 %
D. 10 %
E. 70 %
ANSWER: C
89. Duration of latent period at a Tetanus:
A. 1-6 hour
B. 1-4 days
C. 5-14 days
D. 1-6 weeks
E. 1-6 months
ANSWER: C
90. An infection of Tetanus takes place:
A. During trauma
B. At the bite of mosquito
C. At using somebody clothes
D. At communication with a person sick on Tetanus
E. At the use of poor quality water
ANSWER: A
91. Measures in relation to contact persons at a Tetanus:
A. Vaccination
B. Direction of all persons in an insulator
C. Chemoprophylaxis
D. Laboratory inspection
E. Does not conduct
ANSWER: E
92. Antiepidemic measures at a Tetanus are directed on:
A. Deletion of agent source
B. Treatment of source
C. Specific prophylaxis
D. Chemoprophylaxis
E. Not conducted
ANSWER: C
93. The basic reservoir of rhabdovirus is:
A. Fishes
B. Reptiles
C. Birds
D. Weed-eaters
E. Carnivores
ANSWER: E
94. What receptivity to rabies?
A. 45 %
B. 25 %
C. 85 %
D. 100 %
E. 10 %
ANSWER: D
95. What mechanism of transmission at rabies?
A. Transmissive
B. Fecal-oral
C. Droplet
D. Contact-wound
E. Domestic
ANSWER: D
96. At rabies the source of causative agent can be:
A. Wild animal
B. Domestic animal
C. Bats
D. Rodents
E. All enumerated
ANSWER: E
97. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with chicken pox?
A. 10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. Till the 21d day from the beginning of illness
E. 5 days after appearance the last rash
ANSWER: E
98. Subjects for clinical supervision:
A. Infectious patients at acute period of a disease
B. Health persons that were in contact with patient
C. Convalescents after an infectious disease
D. Workers of sphere of public food consumption
E. All enumerated
ANSWER: C
99. How long has be the increasing of temperature for including the patient into the
group of the prolonged fever?
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. Week
D. Month
E. A few months
ANSWER: B
100. Patients with the prolonged fever it is necessary to inspect on the presence of such
diseases, except:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Malaria
D. Acute respiratory viral infections
E. AIDS
ANSWER: D