Download Multiple-choice exam questions in Advanced

Multiple-choice exam questions in Advanced Neurobiology 12 Jan 2015
For every main question (1 - 50)
choose "True" or "False" for an answer to each option (a – d) on the
corresponding answering sheet.
Example question: correct answer is in bold
Qs. Sweden
a) Sweden is in Europe
true false
b) The language in Sweden is Danish true false
c) Uppsala University is in Stockholm true false
d) Stockholm is the capital of Sweden true false
Correct answer will give +1point
Wrong answer or no answer will give -0.5 points
1
1. Ion channels in adult neurons
a) Voltage-gated Na+ channels depolarize the membrane potential when
they open
b) Voltage-gated K+ channels depolarize the membrane potential when
they open
c) Voltage gated-Ca2+ channels depolarize the membrane potential when
they open
d) Voltage-gated Cl- channels depolarize the membrane potential when
they open
2. A neurotransmitter can be
a) Amino acid
b) Peptide
c) Amide
d) Benzodiazepine
3. GABA-A receptors
a) Are activated by the neurotransmitter GABA
b) Are only expressed by neurons
c) Are present at both synapses and outside of synapses in neurons
d) Are chloride channels
4. The identified ion triggers exocytosis and transmitter release in the
nerve terminal?
a) Ca2+ (calcium)
b) Na + (sodium)
c) K+ (potassium)
d) Mg2+ (magnesium)
5. The Ca2+-sensor of synaptic exocytosis is
a) Syntaxin
b) Complexin
c) P/Q type Ca2+-channel
d) Synaptotagmin
6. Immune cells
a) Can sometimes cross the blood brain barrier
b) Can express receptors activated by neurotransmitters
c) Can modify neuronal connections
d) Can sometimes secrete neurotransmitter
2
7. During routine EEG recordings, provocations are made in order to
increase the chance of recording epileptiform activity in the EEG. The
following provocation(s) is/ are performed.
a) Hyperventilation
b) Photic stimulation with flickering light
c) Sleep deprivation
d) Sedating drugs, for example melatonin
8. Seizure semiology (clinical symptoms and signs during epileptic
seizures) is important to analyze in order to localize the epileptic focus
in focal epilepsy. The following symptom(a) is/are suggesting a seizure
onset in the temporal lobe.
a) Oroalimentary automatisms (licking, chewing, spitting)
b) Hypermotor appearance, fast mowing arms and legs
c) Visual hallucinations, temporary loss of parts of the visual field
d) Adversive movement, slowly turning of the head
9. Brain Oscillations are an important mechanism of
a) Dynamical coupling between brain areas
b) Neurotransmitter release
c) Cell repair
d) Neurogenesis
10. A fundamental properties of central pattern generators (CPGs) are
a) Their activity is mostly mediated by pyramidal cells
b) Their activity depends on sensory input
c) Can produce rhythmic patterns
d) Their activity does not depend on sensory inputs
11. Axon guidance is an important process for development of the
nervous system. It is dependent of
a) Soluble attractants such as Eph receptors
b) Contact repellents such as Netrins
c) Soluble repellents such as Netrins
d) Contact attractants such as Laminins
3
12. A mutation in Dmrt3 was recently proven to be responsible for
alternative gaits in horses. In mice, Dmrt3 positive neurons are
a) Inhibitory
b) Ipsilateral interneurons
c) Responsible for gait coordination
d) Important for olfaction
13. Muscle specific tyrosine kinase (MuSK) is an important receptor,
which:
a) Is located at the motor nerve terminal
b) Is targeted with antibodies in a fraction of patients with myasthenia
gravis
c) Is a co-receptor of Lrp4 and is activated by agrin
d) Is located at the muscle membrane
14. Antibodies against the myelin, the node or the paranode of the
peripheral nerves often cause the following event(s):
a) Demyelinating neuropathy
b) Conduction block of nerve signals on neurography
c) Flaccid paralysis
d) Epilepsy
15. The following statements concern childhood ADHD and stress
a) Cortisol levels are lower than in healthy comparisons
b) Cortisol levels are different than in healthy comparisons only during
early years (before 10 yrs of age)
c) Cortisol levels are lowered by medication with central stimulants
d) The affected children report higher levels of perceived stress than
comparisons
16. Melatonin is a neuroendocrine hormone.
a) Melatonin plays a critical role in synchronizing internal biological
events
b) Melatonin acts only inside the brain to synchronize various circadian
rhythms
c) Melatonin synthesis and release are stimulated by darkness
d) The pineal gland is the only source of endogenous production of
melatonin.
4
17. A number of common diseases in humans, including irritable bowel
syndrome and gastroduodenal ulcer, are well known for showing
circadian rhythms in pain and discomfort. Please clarify:
a) H. pylori infected patients with duodenal ulcer disease have impaired
duodenal bicarbonate secretion.
b) Eradication of the infection at least partly restores the duodenal
bicarbonate secretion.
c) The secretion of bicarbonate is regulated by the central nervous
system only.
d) A viscoelastic mucus gel on top of the epithelial surface and the
bicarbonate secreted into the mucus gel provide defense against gastric
acid.
18. There are four functional classes of neurons in the enteric nervous
system (ENS): The intrinsic primary afferent neuron (IPAN), the
interneuron, the motor neuron and the intestinofugal neuron.
a) The intestinofugal neurons are sensory neurons that make synapses
with sympathetic neurons in the prevertebral ganglia.
b) The interneurons have their cell bodies in the myenteric and
submucosal plexa of the gut.
c)The IPAN:s have a Dogiel type II morphology and exhibit a long
afterhyperpolarisation potential.
d) VIP and NO are the two main neurotransmitters of the excitatory
motor neurons.
19. The effect(s) of GLP-1 analogs on gastric emptying is/are:
a) Slowing
b) Speeding
c) No effect
d) Distending
20. How is plasma glucose changing with gastric emptying rate?
a) Slowing – dropping
b) Speeding – dropping
c) Slowing – increasing
d) Speeding – increasing
5
21. How is ghrelin plasma concentrations changing during the 24-hour
profile?
a) Increasing before breakfast, lunch and dinner
b) Decreasing after breakfast, lunch and dinner
c) Basal levels increased after weight loss
d) Basal levels increased after gastric bypass surgery
22. Hippocampus is NOT involved in the following function(s)
a) Spatial navigation and spatial memory
b) Metabolic control
c) Neurogenesis
d) Procedural memory
23. Insulin signaling modulates the following activities in the
hippocampus.
a) Synaptic plasticity.
b) Neurotransmission.
c) Neurogenesis.
d) Apoptosis.
24. Leptin and the brain.
a) Leptin is produced by white adipocytes and can enter the brain.
b) Leptin receptors are abundantly expressed in the hippocampus and
hypothalamus.
c) Leptin promotes food intake and decreases energy expenditure via
leptin receptors in the hypothalamus.
d) Leptin affects glutamatergic and GABAergic transmission and
modulates hippocampal functions.
25. The amino acid L-tryptophan is the precursor of the monoaminergic
neurotransmitter serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT):
a) The rate limiting step in 5-HT synthesis is the decarboxylation of 5hydroxytryptophan.
b) Stress results in an activation of the brain 5-HT system.
c) Acute stress results in an elevation of plasma levels of free Ltryptophan.
d) L-tryptophan is an essential amino acid and the rate of brain 5-HT
synthesis is affected by dietary intake of L-tryptophan.
6
26. The brain 5-HT system is evolutionary well conserved throughout
the vertebrate subphylum. However, the central 5-HT system in teleost
fish and mammals differ in some respects:
a) Fish specific 5-HT cell populations are present in the hypothalamus.
These, 5-HT cells are not found in the mammalian brain.
b) Fish and other non-mammalian vertebrates are lacking the raphe
nuclei.
c) Serotonin acts inhibitory on aggressive behavior in both fish and
mammals.
d) The 5-HT1A receptor acts as a somatodendritic autoreceptor in both
fish and mammals.
27. Sensory transduction by hair cells in the cochlea.
a) Hair cells are postsynaptic to secondary order auditory neurons.
b) Bending of the cilia toward the longest cilium produces
hyperpolarization.
c) Neurotransmitter is released by hair cells when the calcium that
rushes into the cilia reaches the active zone at the base of the hair cells.
d) The firing of action potential in the auditory nerve can be either up-or
down-regulated, depending on the direction in which the cilia of hair
cells are bent.
28. The visual system.
a) The visual system is pretty much like a camera.
b) Cortical processing of visual input affects the retina.
c) Cortical processing of visual input affects the LGN in the thalamus.
d) Saccades keep the interesting part of the image projected onto the
fovea.
29. The following eye diseases mainly affect photoreceptor
degenerations.
a) Macular degeneration.
b) Retinitis pigmentosa.
c) Glaucoma.
d) Opticus neuropathies.
7
30. The vestibular system is sensitive to the following stimuli:
a) The position of the body in space
b) The position of the head in space
c) Sudden changes in the direction of the head
d) Stimuli from the basal ganglia
31. What treatment is considered to be the most efficient when a
person has been diagnosed with vestibular neuritis?
a) Medication and rest
b) Positional maneuver
c) Vestibular rehabilitation (physical therapy)
d) No treatment
32. Highly specialized Neurointensive care for patients with severe
Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI):
a) Aims at reducing secondary (delayed) brain injury after TBI
b) Reduces mortality after TBI
c) Increases favourable outcome (number patients living an independent
life) after TBI
d) Increases the number of patients with severe disability after TBI
33. Severe TBI is associated with the following secondary (delayed)
injury events at the cellular level:
a) Increased glucose consumption
b) Oxidative stress and neuroinflammation
c) Blood-brain-barrier leakage
d) Diffuse (traumatic) axonal injury
34. Severe TBI is a chronic disease process with reduced life expectancy
requiring long term rehabilitation and is frequently associated with the
following symptom(s):
a) Neurological disorders (epilepsy, sleep disorders)
b) Neuroendocrine dysregulation (growth hormone overproduction)
c) Neurodegeneration (dementia, Alzheimer, Parkinson)
d) Psychiatric disease (depression, aggression, psychosis, abuse)
8
35. The axonal injury in traumatic brain injury.
a) Forceful rotation of the head is associated with axonal injury
b) Standard computerized tomography (CT scan) can easily detect the
extent of axonal injury after traumatic brain injury
c) The most common mechanism of axonal injury is that the axon is
transected, “snaps” (breaks), immediately at the moment of traumatic
impact
d) β-amyloid precursor protein (APP or βAPP) is a common
immunohistochemical marker for axonal injury in traumatic brain injury
36. The consequences and mechanisms of axonal injury.
a) Cognitive problems, caused by disrupted brain networks, are
common in patient with wide-spread axonal injury
b) In contrast to axonal injury, myelin injury is exceedingly rare following
traumatic brain injury
c) Naturally occurring factors in myelin, such as Nogo-A, are believed to
inhibit regeneration of injured axons after traumatic brain injury
d) Axonal injury does not elicit an inflammatory response
37. What can cause cerebral ischemia?
a) Low cerebral blood flow.
b) High cerebral metabolism.
c) Seizures.
d) Hypothermia.
38. How can high intracranial pressure be treated?
a) Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid via a ventricular catheter drainage
system.
b) Surgical evacuation of intracranial hematomas.
c) D vitamin.
d) Intravenous infusion of glucose solutions.
39. Traumatic brain injury (TBI) results in elevated levels of many gene
transcripts in the cerebral cortex. TBI results in increased mRNA levels
of
a) Glial fibrillary acid protein (GFAP) transcript.
b) Neurofilament transcripts.
c) Chemokine CCL3.
d) Microtubule associated protein transcripts.
9
40. Traumatic brain injury results in invasion of inflammatory cells into
the affected cerebral cortex. Which of the following signaling
molecule(s) contribute(s) to the immigration of circulating peripheral
cells?
a) Platelet selectin (Selp).
b) Chemokine CxCL10/IP-10.
c) Chemokine receptor CCR2.
d) Chemokine CCL2.
41. What is the main target for pharmacotherapy in Parkinson's
disease?
a) Dopamine receptors
b) Adenosine receptors
c) NMDA receptors
d) Cholinergic receptors
42. What do Lewy bodies (present in for example Parkinson's disease
and multiple system atrophy) contain?
a) Alpha-synuclein
b) Amyloid beta
c) Tau
d) Huntingtin
43. Neuropeptides, neurotransmitters and the brain.
a) Neuropeptides are present and work as small molecule
neurotransmitters / neuromodulators
b) The anterior region of the animal contains a brain
c) The nervous system is dorsal due to inversion of the animal
d) Acetylcholine is present as a neuromuscular neurotransmitter
44. The brain size.
a) The largest brain in a mammal is found in a sperm whale
b) A mouse has a larger brain in relation to its body size than a human
c) A dolphin brain is larger than a human brain
d) The cerebellum can be larger than the cerebrum in some species.
10
45. The schizophrenia diagnosis is based on the following:
a) Observation or report of characteristic symptoms
b) Duration of the symptoms
c) Functional impairment
d) Characteristic morphological brain abnormalities
46. The following neurotransmitter systems are associated with the
following symptoms in schizophrenia :
a) Overactive mesolimbic dopamine neurons are associated with
positive symptoms
b) Decreased NMDA receptor function in the brainstem is associated
with positive symptoms
c) Decreased NMDA receptor function in the brainstem is associated
with negative symptoms
d) Underactive mesocortical dopamine neurons are associated with
negative symptoms
47. Schizophrenia is caused by
a) Cannabis use
b) Emotionally distanced mothers
c) Infections during gestation
d) Too strong synapses
48. Retinoblastoma
a) One of the few cancers derived from neuronal tissue.
b) Results from the inactivating mutations in the RB1 gene.
c) Has genetic lesions in the p53 gene.
d) Is only present in inherited forms.
49. Low grade gliomas
a) Mean age at diagnosis is around 40 years
b) Treatment of choice for low risk patients is radiotherapy
c) Surgical treatment of choice is biopsy
d) Awake surgery is suitable for patients with a tumor in speech areas
50. Positive prognostic factor(s) in low grade gliomas.
a) High age
b) Unmethylated MGMT
c) Positive for LOH 19q1p
d) No contrast enhancement
11
12