Download 2003 SE4TA Competencies in Athletic Training Workshop

2003 SE4TA Competencies in Athletic Training Workshop
Written Exam Questions
1. What motion of the tibia accompanies pronation of the foot:
A. plantar flexion
B. dorsiflexion
C. IROT
D. EROT
2. If the athletic trainer asks their patient to walk on their heels, they are assessing active range of motion of the foot:
A. plantar flexors
B. inverters
C. everters
D. dorsiflexors
3. Of the structures that may be involved in an inversion sprain of the ankle, which is considered to be the strongest:
A. calcaneofibular ligament
B. posterior talofibular ligament
C. anterior talofibular ligament
D. posterior tibiofibular ligament
4. When performing ankle dorsiflexion with the knee in a flexed position. the limitation of dorsiflexion is caused by a:
A. peroneal nerve disruption
B. absence of a plantaris muscle
C. tight soleus
D. tight gastroc
5. The anterior drawer test performed by the athletic trainer following an ankle sprain is used to determine instability
between:
A. talus and calcaneus
B. talus and fibula
C. talus and ankle mortise
D. fibula and calcaneus
6. Most corticosteroid preparations used in the treatment of tendinitis conditions are used prilnarily for which of the following
actions:
A. analgesic
B. anti-inflammatory
C. antibiotic
D. anticoagulant
E. protein synthesis
7. The evaluation/treatment following a strain of the Achilles tendon would include all of the following except:
A. AROM with and without gravity
B. splint in full plantar flexed position
C. surgical repair if ruptured
D. I.C.E.R.S.
8. Pain associated with a thickening at the point where the medial and lateral branches of the plantar nerve join between 3rd
and 4th toes describes:
A. plantar fasciitis
B. rigid pes planus
C. retrocalcaneal bursitis
D. Morton's neuroma
9. What are the criteria for progressing from the initial (phase I) to intermediate stage (phase II) of rehabilitation?
A. edema stabilized, almost full and pain free ROM, progress with ice plateaus, and no hyperemia
B. edema is stabilized, progress increasing with ice, and decreasing hyperemia
C. ischemia decreasing, ROM can be noted, and pain free through the range
D. initial contractions can be felt, no ischemia, decreasing edema, and full ROM
E. athlete is motivated, full ROM, pain-free range, and decreasing edema
10. Which of the following is not part of the treatment protocol for an acute case of shin splints:
A. ice massage
B. NSAID's
C. vigorous stretching/massage
D .pulsed ultrasound
11. Lisfranc fractures involve the:
A. Ist metatarsal
B. 2nd metatarsal
C. middle cuneiform
D. 5th metatarsal
12. Proprioceptive input from the articular structures is so important to joint stability because:
A. cutaneous sensation is enhanced
B. reflex muscle action improves muscle activity
C. peripheral receptors are stimulated according to Hilton' s Law
D. they trnnsmit pain sensations to the joint structures
13. Which of the following mechanisms is/are associated with rupture of the ACL:
A. Internal Tibial Rotation + Varus
B. External Tibial Rotation + Valgus
C. Hyperextension + Internal Tibial Rotation
D. Hyperextension + External Tibial Rotation
E. Any of the above
14. Tightness in which of the following musculotendinous structures may exacerbate patello-femoral pain:
A. Iliotibial Band
B. Hamstrings
C. Adductor Magnus
D. A and B
E. Any of the above
15. The force vector created by quadriceps tension that is transmitted through the patellar tendon has an anterior tibial
translatory component when the lower leg is extended against open-chain resistance through which of the following ranges
of motion:
A. 90 degrees to full extension
B. 90 to 45 degrees of extension
C. 60 degrees to full extension
D. 60 to 45 degrees of extension
E. 75 degrees to full extension
16. Which of the following is a primary concern during the earliest phase of rehab for an ACL reconstruction:
A. > 90 degrees passive flexion
B. full weight bearing gait
C. ability to actively flex > 45 degrees
D. full passive knee extension
E. full revolutions on stationary cycle
17. A patellar tendon ACL graft has the least sb"ength during which post -surgery period:
A. 28-36 weeks
B. 20-28 weeks
C. 12-18 weeks
D. 6-10 weeks
E. 0-2 weeks
18. Which of the following designates a condition that is characterized by subluxation of the lateral tibial plateau with anterior
trnnslation and internal rotation of the tibia:
A. Anteromedial rotary instability
B. Anterolateral rotary instability
C. Posterolateral rotary instability
D. Posteromedial rotary instability
E. None of the above
19. Which of the following is a traction apophysitis that affects the tibial tuberosity:
A. Sever's Syndrome
B. Sinding-~sen-Johansson Syndrome
C. Osgood-Schlatter Syndrome
D. Chondrolmalacia
E. Osteochondritis Dissecans
20. Which of the following tests is performed with the subject in a prone position and the knee flexed at 90 degrees:
A. McMurray's Test
B. Yergason's Test
C. Pivot Shift Test
D. Apley's Test
E. Lachman's Test
21. The "unhappy triad" knee injury involves which of the following structures:
A. Medial Collateral Ligament, Medial Meniscus, Posterior Cruciate Ligament
B. Medial Collateral Ligament, Medial Meniscus, Anterior Cruciate Ligament
C. Lateral Collateral Ligament, Lateral Meniscus, Anterior Cmciate Ligament
D. Medial Collateral Ligament, Lateral Meniscus, Anterior Cmciate Ligament
E. Lateral Collateral Ligament, Arcuate Ligament, Anterior Cmciate Ligament
22. Which of the following ligaments is most susceptible to injury when the knee is hyperextended:
A. Anterior Cmciate Ligament
B. Medial Collateral Ligament
C. Posterior Cmciate Ligament
D. Lateral Collateral Ligament
E. Both A and B
23. Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning functional knee braces:
A. Proven effective for the prevention of non-contact knee ligaments injuries.
B. Widely utilized despite relatively little research to document effectiveness.
C. Proven ineffective for control of anterior tibial translation during athletic activity.
D. Found to give athletes a false sense of security .
E. Essential for protection of the surgically reconstructed anterior cruciate ligament.
24. Which of the following statements concerning the menisci is false:
A. The lateral meniscus is more mobile than the medial meniscus.
B. The menisci enhance joint stability.
C. The menisci dissipate forces between the femur and tibia.
D. Peripheral meniscus lesions have the greatest healing potential.
E. Both menisci are directly attached to the collateral ligaments.
25. Which primary factor may cause an athlete to suffer from lateral epicondylitis?
A. Not warming up properly prior to activity
B. Excessive pronation during activity
C. Excessive supination during activity
D. Poor technique and body mechanics
26. Which factor is NOT a means of preventing lateral epicondylitis?
A. Intense flexibility program
B. Intense strength program
C. Use of a counter-irritant during the warm-up period
D. Enforcing good body mechanics and good technique
27. In preventing throwing related injuries in adolescent athletes:
A. Emphasize 90 degrees of shoulder abduction and appropriate weight transference to minimize valgus stress of the elbow
during throwing.
B. Emphasize 90 degrees of elbow flexion during the throwing motion.
C. Emphasize the 90 degrees of shoulder abduction and appropriate weight transfer to minimize varus stress of the elbow
during throwing.
D. Emphasize less than 90 degrees of shoulder abduction during throwing.
28. Lateral epicondylitis may be recognized when:
A. There is extensor tendon pain when the elbow is extended, with middle finger extension
B. There is flexor tendon pain with elbow flexion and wrist flexion
C. There is pain on supination with wrist extension
D. There is pain on pronation with wrist flexion
29. The term
is another way of identifying a strain to the ulnar collateral ligament.
A. varus stress overload
B. valgus stress overload
C. pronation stress overload
D. supination stress overload
30. In throwing athletes, repeated valgus stress can create a condition called:
A. Radial nerve subluxation
B. Ulnar nerve subluxation
C. Medial nerve compression
D. Radial nerve compression
31. The management of an acute dislocation of the elbow by an athletic trainer should include:
1. Surgical reduction
2. Immobilization with an air splint
3. Immobilization with a vacuum splint in the found position
4. Activation of the EMS system to effect transport
A. I &2
B. 2&4
C. 3&4
D. 1&3
32. The management of an acute dislocation of the elbow by an athletic trainer should include:
A. Checking of the pulse at the distal radius
B. Having the athlete perform an Allen test
C. Having the athlete perform active ROM of the elbow
D. A & B only
33. In a suspected acute olecranon bursitis, the initial treatment by an athletic trainer should include:
A. Heat
B. Surgical excision of the bursa
C. NSAIDs
D. Ice
34. The initial rehabilitation protocol for a dislocated elbow would include all of the following in the early stages except:
A. Restoration of active and passive ROM
B. Strengthening exercises for the triceps and biceps
C. Functional progression activities
D. Emphasis placed on eccentric strengthening of the biceps and supinators to minimize hyperextension forces.
35. Following a dislocation injury to the elbow, the following rehabilitation activities would be initiated after the elbow joint
capsule is totally healed (8 to 10 weeks post injury).
A. Sport specific activity
B. Full return to sports
C. Functional progression activities
D. Isokinetic exercises
36. Rehabilitation of an elbow injury should include:
A. Mimic the specific stresses that are going to be experienced in the sporting activity.
B. Strengthening and flexibility programs to prevent future injuries
C. Power and endurance training as well as an overall body conditioning program.
D. All the above
37. Cardiovascular effects of fever on exercise include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased oxygen consumption
C. Decreased blood pressure
D. Decreased maximal workload
38. The first line medication treatment for asthma is:
A. Beta-2 agonist aerosol
B. Theophylline
C. Chromolyn sodium inhaler
D. Aerosolized corticosteroids
E. Systemic steroids
39. In the athlete, a key trigger of an asthmatic attack is:
A. Concomitant URI
B. Exercise in cold, dry air
C. High pollen counts
D. All of the above
E. a and c only
40. Choose the true statement regarding exercise-induced asthma:
A. Recent studies suggest that inappropriate use of medications results when basing the diagnosis or EIA purely on
symptoms.
B. Pharmacologic interventions are required to control the symptoms of EIA.
C. Challenge tests are not needed to diagnose EIA
D. Exercise rarely acts as a trigger for an asthmatic episode in an athlete known to have asthma.
41. In the athlete, a key trigger of an asthmatic attack is:
A. exercise in cold dry air
B. the first 8 minutes of an activity session
C. concomitant cold or infection
D. fine pollens in the air
E. all of the above
42. Auricular hematoma is a common problem in sports medicine. Which one of the following statements constitutes
appropriate management?
A. the hematoma should be watched for 48 72 hours to allow reabsorption, and treatment with anti-inflammatory agents
should be started for pain management
B. aseptic aspiration of the hematoma should be done within 24 hours of injury, and compression dressing should be
applied
C. if athlete appears 7 to 10 days after injury, incision and drainage can usually produce good results
D. when compression dressing is used, reexamine in 3-5 days.
43. Which of the following statements constitutes appropriate management for anterior epistaxis?
A. The athlete should first be instructed to recline.
B. All nosebleeds should be evaluated by an ENT within 24 hours.
C. Control bleeding initially with nasal pressure applied by the thumb and index finger place on either side of the nose for 2-5
minutes.
44. Distinguish URI from flu. Pick the symptom attributable only to the flu:
A. Bodyaches
B. Malaise persisting for several days
C. Fever
D. Cough
E. Nasal congestion
45. Choose the false statement. Splenic rupture as related to mononucleosis…:
A. Is rare.
B. Has never been reported if individual has recovered from illness greate rthan 3 weeks.
C. Is caused by splenic architecture distortion.
D. Is mostly due to trauma.
46. An athlete with otitis media who is receiving antibiotic agents may return to play if the athlete is afebrile, the tympanic
membrane is intact, and, when the athlete is returning to water sports, the ear is not draining.
A. True
B. False
47. The treatment of tympanic membrane perforation is conservative and geared toward preventing infection because most
perforations heal spontaneously.
A. True
B. False
48. When treating an athlete with an avulsed tooth, appropriate steps include:
A. start the athlete on analgesic agents, store the tooth in milk, and recommend follow up with an endodontist the next
morning
B. advise the athlete to store the tooth in cold, sterile water until an appointment with a dentist can be obtained
C. handle the tooth by the crown. clean the root of the tooth with milk, saline, or saliva, and attempt to reimplant the tooth as
soon as possible
D. allow the athlete to finish competing, store the tooth in saline, and recommend follow-up with an endodontist within 24
hours
49. Maintaining normal earwax, bacterial flora, and proper ear canal acidity constitutes the best protection against otitis
externa.
A. True
B. False
50. When assessing the pupils, you should look for
A. Pupil size
B. Pupil shape
C. Equality
D. Reaction to light
E. All of the above
51. Cheyene-Stokes is:
A. A breathing pattern characterized by arrhythmic fluctuations between hypopnea and apnea
B. A breathing pattern characterized by arrhythmic fluctuations between hyperpnea and apnea
C. A breathing pattern characterized by arrhythmic fluctuations between dyspnea and apnea
D. A breathing pattern characterized by consistent fluctuations between hyperpnea and apnea
52. When you encounter an athlete who is unconscious, you should:
A. Assume the athlete is not breathing
B. Assume there is a cervical injury
C. Assume there is a head injury
D. B and C only
E. All of the above
53. When assessing an athlete following a concussion, what domains should be considered?
A. Cognitive, somatic, affective
B. Cognitive, coordination, neurological
C. Somatic, coordination, neurological
D. Affective, somatic, coordination
54. Retrograde amnesia is:
A. The loss of memory and inability to recall events before the traumatic event
B. The loss of immediate memory and ability to recall events that have occurred since the injury
C. The loss of long-term memory and ability to recall events that have occurred since the injury
D. The loss of short-term memory
55. When dealing with a concussion, which of the following is not a vital sign?
A. Pulse
B. Breathing
C. Core temperature
D. Blood pressure
E. All of the above are vital signs
56. What is assessed during the primary survey?
A. Vital signs
B. ABCs
C. Internal injuries
D. Head injuries
E. All of the above
57. If an athlete was found prone in an unconscious state, but breathing, you should
A. Log roll him and begin rescue breathing/CPR
B. Log roll him and monitor his vital signs
C. Roll him onto his side so his airway does not become obstructed
D. Leave him in that position and assess him
E. None of the above
58. If an athlete was found prone in an unconscious state and not breathing, you should
A. Log roll him and begin rescue breathing/CPR
B. Log roll him and monitor his vital signs
C. Roll him onto his side so his airway does not become obstructed
D. Leave him in that position and wait for EMS to arrive
E. None of the above
59. An epidural hematoma:
A. Is due to a focal type injury
B. Results from damage to the middle meningeal artery
C. Results from damage to the middle meningeal vein
D. A and B
E. None of the above
60. Focal type brain injuries:
A. Are usually associated with damage to a 'small' concentrated area
B. Usually result from high velocity-low mass injury mechanisms
C. More ftequently result in death than diffilsed injuries
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
61. The Standardized Assessment of Concussion (SAC) has three main sections to the sideline evaluation. Those sections
include:
A. Mental status testing, exercise testing, knowledge testing
B. Neurological testing, cardiovascular testing, mental status testing
C. Mental status testing, neurological examination, exertional provocative tests
D. Mental status testing, psychological testing, exertional provocative tests
62. Over the counter NSAIDs should be used for a maximum of
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
days when used for the treatment of inflammation.
63. Rubor skin, rash and itching are examples of:
A. systemic adverse drug reaction
B. local adverse drug reaction
C. toxic drug reaction
D. antiprurite reaction
64. The half-life of acetaminophen is 2 hours. If 500 mg of acetaminophen is taken, how many milligrams will be left in the
body 2 hours after the initial dose?
A. 100 mg
B. 175 mg
C. 250 mg
D. 300 mg
65. If the fluid of an Epi-Pen is discolored and cloudy you should:
A. shake the pen to dissolve the medication in the fluid
B. discard the pen and use a different pen
C. use the pen for the treatment of anaphylaxis shock
D. only use part of the fluid upon injection
66. Spacers are used to:
A. provide better exhalation of medication while using dose-meter inhalers
B. provide better inhalation of medication while using dose-meter inhalers
C. provide measurement of inhaled air
D. provide measurement of exhaled air
67. If an athlete has hypertension which of the following should the athlete not use?
A. Motrin
B. Aleve
C. Celebrex
D. Voltarin
68. Which of the following is not a property of NSAIDs?
A. anticoagulant
B. analgesic
C. antihistamine
D. anti-inflammatory
69. The major side effect of taking aspirin and NSAIDs is:
A. gastrointestinal irritation
B. constipation
C. diarrhea
D. dizziness
70. A subcutaneous injection of dexamathasone will produce:
A. local affects
B. collective affects
C. systemic effects
D. intermittent effects
71. Alcohol should not be taken in combination with NSAIDs because of:
A. the combination increases drowsiness
B. the combination decreases inhibitions
C. the combination increases gastrointestinal irritation
D. the combination increases blood coagulation
72. Medications should always be stored in:
I. original containers III. cool and dry place V. dark places
II. direct light IV. locked and secure place
A. I, IV, and V
B. I, n and IV
C. I and IV
D. I, III and IV
73. Oral Cox-2 inhibitors can be used for long-term treatment of inflammation because they:
A. inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins responsible for inflammation but not
B. prostaglandins responsible for proper functioning of the gastrointestinal tract
C. inhibit the work of all cyclooxygenase enzymes
D. decrease inflammation by facilitating the production of synovial fluid
E. decrease muscle spasms associated with articular pain receptors
74. Which is not true concerning all fonns of radiant energy?
A. they are produced by applying electrical chemical and other forces to the various forms of matter
B. their velocity of travel is equal in a vacuum
C. some type of medium is required for transmission
D. their direction of propagation is normally a straight line
75. If a beam of white light passes through a prism a colorful spectrum will appear because of the fact that the prism
each color differently.
A. absorbs
B .transmits
C. reflects
D. refracts
76. Which of the following is true concerning wavelengths
A. the longer the wavelength the less the depth of penetration
B. the lower the temperature the longer the wavelength
C. the shorter the wavelength the lower the frequency
D. the velocity of the wavelength is directly related to its rate of absorption
77. Which of the following is true of the Arndt-Schultz principle?
A. the tissues must absorb enough energy to stimulate them
B. the amount of energy absorbed should be greater than that needed to stimulate the tissue
C. once the electrical balance between the inside and outside of a membrane is destroyed it will not be normal until the
electrical balance is restored
78. Which of the following modalities would not be appropriate particularly during the early fibroblastic-repair phase of
healing?
A. cold whirlpool
B. low intensity ultrasound
C. intermittent compression
D. electrical stimulating currents
E. active range of motion exercises
79. With long duration continuous DC current what happens under the positive pole?
A. attraction of positive ions
B. an alkalinic reaction
C. increased nerve irritability
D. softening of the tissues
E. nothing
80. At what minimum frequency will a pulsed DC current result in a tetanic response in a normally innervated muscle
A. 120 Hz
B. 80 Hz
C. 10 Hz
D. 50 Hz
81. When setting up an iontophoresis treatment which of the following is true?
A. Maximum current intensity should be determined by the size of the active electrode and should be between .1-.5 mA/cm
B. The lead wire from the generator to the active electrode is attached such that the polarity is opposite from the ion in
solution.
C. Higher amperage currents are more effective than lower intensity currents as a driving force for ions.
D. Iontophoresis generators must be capable of producing continuous alternating current.
82. Which of the following statements is true concerning electrical stimulation of acupuncture and trigger points for pain
modulation?
A. the current of choice is low voltage high frequency continuous DC
B. the reduction of pain is due to a reduction of impulses traveling in ascending spinal tracts
C. the stimulation of these points is best accomplished by using long duration, high voltage current
D. the most effective results may be obtained by using a low voltage, high frequency pulsed DC current
83. Transmission of heat energy from a hot body to a cold which takes place in and through matter by direct contact is a form
of
A. conduction
B. convection
C. conversion
D. radiation
84. Which of the follow would not be a clinical application for electrically induced muscle contraction?
A. re-education
B. strengthening
C. edema reduction
D. pain control
85. The use of diathermy is contraindicated
A. to increase circulation to skeletal muscle
B. in acute inflammatory conditions )
C. in tissues which cannot tolerate pressure
D. in the treatment of large areas of the body
86. Maximum muscle loading at a fixed speed occurring throughout the entire range of motion is characterized by what
method of exercise?
A. Accommodating resistance
B. Isokinetic
C. Isotonic
D. Isometric
87. Which of the following is not an indicator of being too aggressive with exercise?
A. Increased flexibility
B. Swelling
C. Spasm
D. Pain
88. When the focus involved in an exercise is directed to the foot from the ground, that exercise is considered:
A. An open kinetic chain
B. Isometric
C. A closed kinetic chain
D. lsokinetic
89. What exercises are best to use when the immobilization is discontinued and you want to increase the mechanical
properties of ligaments?
A. Low-frequency, low-duration endurance exercises
B. Low-frequency , high-duration endurance exercises
C. High-frequency, low-duration endurance exercises
D. High-frequency, high-duration endurance exercises
90. Which of the following is an advantage of isotonic resistance?
A. Reduces expense of equipment
B. Works one primary muscle group at a time
C. Allows exercises to be performed in a straight plane
D. Can exercise at only slow velocities
91. Which of the following is not true of core stability training?
A. It assists in gaining neuromuscular control.
B. It should incorporate challenging single plane exercises
C. It should be started at the highest level the athlete can perform
D. It is designed to strengthen the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
92. The optimal time for commencement of the rehabilitation process is approximately how long after surgery or injury?
A. Immediately after
B. 24 hours later
C. 3 to 4 days later
D. When pain subsides
93. Decisions on how to progress an athlete through a rehabilitation program should be based on:
A. The healing process
B. The desire of the athlete
C. The strength of the musculature
D. The pressure from the coach
94. The athletic trainer should incorporate mobilization when:
A. The musculotendinous junction is tight
B. Movement is restricted by muscle contraction
C. Articular structures are tight
D. Accessory motion at the joint is normal
95. A method of promoting or hastening the recovery response of muscles through the use of diagonal or spiral patterns is
characteristic of
A. DeLorme's progressive resistance exercises
B. Hydrotherapeutic exercises
C. Cybex exercises
D. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation exercises
96. Disuse of an extremity will result in all of the following except
A. Atrophy
B. Muscular contractures
C. Increased motor neuron discharge
D. Inflexibility
97. Increasing static strength and decreasing atrophy can best be accomplished by using what method of exercise?
A. Accommodating resistance
B. Isokinetic
C. Isotonic
D. Isometric
98. True leg length is measured from the:
A. ASIS to the medial malleolus
B. ASIS to the lateral malleolus
C. umbilicus to the medial malleolus
D. umbilicus to the lateral malleolus
E. greater trochanter to the lateral malleolus
99. Measurement from the ASIS to the medial malleolus would assess:
A. True leg length
B. Functional leg length
C. Anterior displacement of the femur
D. Static strength of the rectus femoris
E. Hamstring flexibility
100. The lateral border of the femoral triangle is the:
A. inguinalligament
B. adductor longus
C. adductor magnus
D. sartorius
E. rectus femoris
101."Skiers hip" refers to:
A. a hip dislocation
B. femoral neck fracture
C. intertrochanteric and subtrochanteric fracture
D. avascular necrosis of the femoral head
E. acetabular osteorarthritis
102.Legg-Perthes disease is typically seen in
A. adolescents (13-18 year old)
B. young adults (22-28 years of age)
C. older adults (65 yeas or older)
D. children (5-10 years old)
E. young adolescent females (13-}8 year of age)
103.Freiberg's sign evaluates for:
A. hip flexor tightness
B. 1TB tightness
C. nerve root compression
D. piriformis syndrome
E. trochanteric bursitis
104. The starting position for the D11ower extremity movement pattern, the hip would be:
A. flexed, adducted and externally rotated position
B. extended, abducted and internally rotated position
C. extended, adducted and externally rotated position
D. flexed, abducted and internally rotated position
105. The inguinal ligament can be palpated between the:
A. ASIS and pubic symphysis
B. PSIS and greater trochanter
C. ASIS and greater trochanter
D. pubic symphysis and greater trochanter
106. Which hip ligament is tight in extension and prevents hyperextension of the hip which in turn allows prolonged standing:
A. iliofemoral
B. pubofemoral
C. ischialfemoral
D. ligamentum teres
E. inguinal
107. Treatment following a hamstring strain should include:
A. RICE, aggressive stretching, concentric strengthening
B. RICE, light stretching, concentric strengthening
C. RICE, aggressive stretching, eccentric strengthening
D. RICE, light stretching, eccentric strengthening
108. The sciatic nerve is best palpated:
A. with the athlete standing, locate the bisect between the PSIS and ASIS and press deeply
B. with the athlete side lying, hip and knee slightly flexed, locate the bisect of the greater trochanter and ischial tuberosity,
and press deeply
C. with the athlete lying supine, find the femoral triangle and feel for a pulse; the sciatic nerve is just medial to this point
D. it is best to not try because the sciatic nerve cannot be palpated
109. Which of the following describes the collection of blood in the pleura cavity?
A. Hemothorax
B. Peritonitis
C. Hematocele
D. Orchitis
E. Hematoma
110.During palpation you begin at the manubrium and palpate inferiorly to the sternal body. If you continue to palpate
inferiorly, the next structure you will feel is the:
A. Stomach
B. Spleen
C. Umbilicus
D. McBurney's point
E. Xiphoid process
111. Kehr's sign is:
A. Pain in the upper right quadrant and right shoulder
B. Pain in the upper left quadrant and left shoulder
C. Pain in the lower right quadrant and right hip
D. Pain in the lower left quadrant and left hip
E. Pain 1/3 of the distance between the ASIS and wnbilicus
112. Kehr's sign is indicative of:
A. Appendix rupture
B. Hemothorax
C. Pnewnothorax
D. Splenic rupture
E. Heart attack
113. During palpation, pain over McBurney's point is indicative of:
A. Appendix rupture
B. Hemothorax
C. Pnewnothorax
D. Splenic rupture
E. Heart attack
114. What structures are present in the lower left abdominal quadrant?
A. Liver, pancreas, kidney, lung
B. Ureter, bladder, colon, gonads
C. Heart, spleen, kidney, lung, stomach
D. Appendix, ureter, bladder, colon
E. Kidney, spleen, appendix, colon
115. Pain referred to the posterior Iwnbar region radiating to the flanks and groin may indicate damage to the:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder
E. Spleen
116 Distension of the veins in the neck is indicative of what condition?
A. Rib fracture
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Spleen rupture
D. Pnewnothorax
E. Gallbladder rupture
117. Hematuria is indicative of injury to what structure?
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Gall bladder
D. Lung
E. Kidney
118. A direct blow to the anterolateral aspect of the thorax, a sudden twist, or falling on a ball can compress the rib cage,
resulting in:
A. Costochondral separation
B. Hemothorax
C. Kidney laceration
D. Solar plexus punch
E. Orchitis
119. Which of the following conditions can predispose an individual to injuries of the spleen?
A. Cinhosis
B. Eating right before competition
C. Hematuria
D. Mononucleosis
E. Sickle Cell Anemia
120. Which of the following does not result in decreased blood pressure?
A. Severe bleeding
B. Dehydration
C. Shock
D. Decreased cardiac output
E. Increased stroke volume
121.Correction of excessively lordotic posture may help prevent the development of which lumbosacral spine injury?
A. spondylitis
B. spondylolysthesis
C. Scheuermann's disease
D. disc sequestration
122. In order to prevent posterior rotation of the pelvis and the low back pain that rotation may cause, this muscle group
must have adequate flexibility
A. hamstrings
B. external rotators
C. hip flexors
D. adductors
123. lnternallumbar disc pressure is greatest when an athlete is in this position.
A. standing & extended
B. sitting & extended
C. sitting & flexed
D. lying prone
124.Disruption of the L4-L5 and L5-Sl disc can result in decreased strength in this muscle.
A. Rectus femoris
B. Piriformis
C. Sartorius
D. Tibialis anterior
125. An athlete presents with pain and paresthesias radiating into the posterior thigh. Which test would be indicated in order
to assess for lumbar disc injury?
A. Lasegue's test
B. Trendelenberg test
C. Fabere test
D. Hoover test
126. You have been treating a 17 yo baseball pitcher for low back pain for the past month. The athlete has had some relief
with a hamstring stretching program but still complains of pain. He has a noted lordotic posture and states that he has the
most pain in the cocking and acceleration phases of pitching. Based on this limited history , what injury are you most
suspicious of:
A. facet syndrome
B. spondylolysis
C. disc herniation
D. spinal stenosis
127. An athlete is complaining of paresthesia in both legs. You saw this athlete' s mechanism of injury and it involved a direct
blow to the lower back from another athlete's helmet. What would be the most appropriate course of action in the on-field
management of this injury?
A. spine boarding the athlete with the assistance of EMS personnel
B. removing the athlete from the field on a Gator
C. having the athlete walk from the field with assistance
D. removing the athlete from the field on a transport chair
128. Which type of electrical stimulation would be most appropriate during the immediate management of a lumbosacral
strain?
A. low frequency TENS
B. NMES
C. high frequency TENS
D. interferential current
129. A 20 yo field hockey player is complaining of pain along the right side ofher lower back. Your team physician has
evaluated her; the diagnosis is lumbar facet syndrome. What modality would you use in order to manage this athlete's pain?
A. spray and stretch
B. microcurrent electrical stimulation
C. moist heat and stretching
D. joint mobilizations using grade I AP oscillations
130. The rehabilitation of an athlete with spondylolisthesis should focus on strengthening of the
help control lumbar lordosis.
A. abdominal
B. hamstring
C. hip flexor
D. spinal extensor
musculature in order to
131. A nonnallordotic curve is necessary for shock absorption in the lumbar spine. Tightness in these muscle groups must
be addressed in the rehabilitation of an athlete who presents with decreased lumbar lordosis.
A. hip flexors
B. knee flexors
C. trunk extensors
D. hip rotators
132.In postural training the neutral position of the pelvis is achieved when these structures are in alignment (when athlete is
viewed from the side).
A. ASIS & PSIS
B. greater trochanter and lateral malleolus
C. patella & ASIS
D. midline of trunk & chin
133.Game keeper's thumb is an injwy to the ulnar collateral ligament, what is the best way to prevent this injwy?
A. glove like thumb spica
B. push ups
C. wrist curls with a light dumb bell
D. ulna and radial-deviation with a light dumb bell
134. To prevent injuries to the wrist what would be the best exercise?
A. Wrist curls with a light dumbbell
B. Ulna and radial deviation with a light dumbbell
C. Push ups
D. All of the above
135. To protect a boxer's hand, what is the best way to wrap the hand prior to the boxer putting on the gloves?
A. tape a pad over the knuckles
B. wrap a short arm spica around the thumb and over the knuckles
C. wrap a short arm cloth spica around the thumb and continue wrapping figure 8' s around each MP joint with the hand in
slight extension
D. wrap a short arm cloth spica around the thumb and continue wrapping figure 8' s around each MP joint with the hand in a
neutral position
136. Thumb metacarpophalangeal joint dislocation should be reduced by
A. pulling the thumb longitudinally
B. adducting thumb while pulling longitudinally
C. adducting thumb while pushing it dorsally
D. abducting thumb while pushing it dorsally
E. a physician
137. To protect a cross country skier's hands from the cold weather, the skier should wear
A. wool mittens
B. a thermo protective finger glove
C. golfer's glove
D. cover the hands with Vaseline
138.In a wrist fracture where the radius and ulna are forced backward and upward (hyperextension) we call this a:
A. Bowler's fracture
B. Colles'fracture
C. DeQuervain's fracture
D. Smith's fracture
139.Flexion of the DIP and PIP joints test damage to which nerve?
A. Median
B. Radial
C. mnar
D. Volar
140.Extension of the thumb and fingers test damage to which nerve?
A. Median
B. Radial
C .Ulnar
D. Volar
141. The tapping sign over the transverse carpalligarnents test for
A. arterial impingement
B. ganglions
C. tenosynovitis of flexor tendons
D. carpal tunnel syndrome
142.A female gymnast is presented with a "Drop Wrist" after making a vault What would be appropriate first-aid procedure:
A. splint the wrist on the palmer side, wrap with an ace bandage and then apply ice
B. splint the wrist on the palmer side, straighten out the wrist with in-line traction, wrap with an ace bandage and then apply
ice
C. check the radial pulse, capillary refill and finger sensation, then apply the splint on the palmer side of the wrist, wrap
with an ace bandage and then apply ice
D. check the radial pulse, capillary refill and finger sensation, then apply the splint on the palmer side of the wrist, reevaluate the vital signs, wrap with an ace bandage and apply ice
143. To treat a felon of the finger
A. drill a hole through fingernail and apply pressure
B. soak the finger in hot water for three days
C. clip ends of the fingernail in a U-shape
D. refer to a physician for surgical drainage
E. bandage and soak the finger in hot water daily
144. The first step in rehabilitating a hand or wrist injury is to:
A. improve strength
B. perform functional
C. attain motion in the digits
D. regain proprioception
145.A concise statement that describes the ideal state to which an organization aspires:
A. Vision statement
B. Evaluation
C. Needs assessment
D. Mission statement
E. Goal statement
146. A written description of the specific responsibilities a position holder of a job will be accountable for in an organization:
A. Job specification
B. Job description
C. Position vacancy noticed
D. Position description
E. None of the above
147. The most important thing to remember when evaluating an athletic training staff member is:
A. Center the evaluation on performance
B. Center the evaluation on group dynamics
C. Dwell only on the critical issues
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
148. Safety electrical outlets should be used in the design of an athletic training room hydrotherapy facility. These are
referred to as:
A. Alternate current outlets
B. Direct current outlets
C. Water proof outlets
D. Ground fault interrupters
E. None of the above
149.An athletic trainer who has been certified for several years must obtain
reporting period.
A. 55
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80
E. 90
CEU's during the designated three year
150. The amount that an institution or individual must pay for an insurance policy is called a/an:
A. Explanation of benefits
B. Premium
C. Deductible
D. Installment plan
E. None of the above
151. The NCAA recommends the following regarding pre-participation examinations
A. Each athlete must have a full physical each year
B. All freshmen must undergo a physical and have an update in subsequent years
C. All athletes should have a physical their freshman year only
D. All athletes should undergo a physical every other year
E. None of the above
152. Which of the following organizations is responsible for monitoring a certified athletic trainer's continuing education
A. NATA
B. NCAA
C. NATABOC
D. NAJA
E. None of the above
153.Health Information Portability and Accountability Act regulations are going to have significant impact upon the daily
duties of the
A. athletic training staff
B. program directors
C. certified graduate assistants
D. all of the above
154.Competencies related to psychosocial intervention and referral are now addressed in the
A. code of ethics
B. role delineation
C. minimal requirements
D. mode legislation
155.Many college athletes experience academic problems, and related psychological issues. In the last decade, academic
requirements at interscholastic and intercollegiate levels of sports have
A. leveled off
B. been removed
C. con~ued to escalate
D. contInued to decrease
156.Athletes experiencing their first major athletic injury are generally
A. Freshman or red shirts
B. ineligible
C. over reactive
D. depressed
157.Punishments administered to participating athletes, because of alcohol or drug abuse are
A. consistent for colleges
B. inconsistent in pro sports
C. consistent for males
D. inconsistent at all levels
158. To avoid and resolve conflicts among superiors and subordinates, it is essential that the certified athletic trainers
understands and activate the appropriate
A. chain of command
B. athletic board
C. cellular phone
D. brown nose strategy
159.An emotional disorder with derangement personality and the loss of contact with reality does occur in athletes and is a
description of
A. epistemology
B. psychoses
C. realitosis
D. losing head coach
160. "Frozen Shoulder" is a common name for
A. Adhesive capsulitis
B. Rotator cuff tendonitis
C. Subacromial bursitis
D. Deltoid myositis
161. The "Empty Can" position is with the humerus in
A. 90 degree abducted, 30 degree horizontal adduction
B. 90 degree adducted. 30 degree horizontal adduction
C. 90 degree abducted, 30 degree horizontal abduction
D. 90 degree adducted, 30 degree horizontal abduction
162.Infraspinatus & Teres Minor strength may be checked using manual muscle testing technique by pushing
A. Outwardly against patient's hands while patient maintains arm rigidly by the side in neutral with elbow flexed 90°
B. Inwardly against patient's hands while patient holds arm rigidly by the side in neutral with his elbow flexed 90°
C. The arm down while the patient holds it in an abducted 90°, horizontally adducted 30° position
D. The arm backward while the patient holds it in an abducted 90°, horizontally adducted 30° position
163.All of the following are mechanisms and/or contributing causes of posterior glenohumeral subluxations except
A. Bench press
B. Linemen blocking with hands in front
C. Push up
D. Armtackling
164. The C- 7 nerve root controls which of the following motor functions?
A. finger flexion. hand intrinsics
B. wrist extension, biceps
C. wrist flexors, finger extension. triceps
D. deltoid, biceps
165. The primary function of the rotator cuff IS to
A. internal rotation of the humerus in the glenoid fossa
B. stabilization of the humerus into the glenoid fossa ,}
C. external rotation of the humerus in the glenoid fossa
D. abduction of the arm from 90 degrees to 150 degrees
E. abduction of the humerus
166. When wrapping or bracing to prevent recurrent anterior glenohumeral joint dislocations the brace or wrap should be
applied in a manner to prevent excessive
A. adduction and internal rotation
B. abduction aIId external rotation
C. adduction and external rotation
D. abduction and Internal rotation
E. A&B
167.In early stage rehabilitation following surgical reconstrl1ction of the rotator cuff
should be strengthened gradually.
A. Adduction.Abduction
B. Internal Rotation, External Rotation
C. External Rotation. Internal Rotation
D. Abduction, Adduction
E. Flexion. Extension
should be avoided while
168.A Grade 2 brachial plexus injury is characterized by:
A. Permanent complete loss of nerve function with motor and sensory deficit resulting in no improvement for at least one
year
B. Significant motor weakness & partial sensory deficit lasting longer than 2 weeks
C. Transitory cessation in function of some of the fibers in the plexus, possibly resulting in mild muscular weakness
D. Motor weakness & occasional sensory deficit lasting from several minutes to several days
169.A Bankhart lesion involves
and results in
.
1. detachment of the labrum or tearing of the capsule from the anterior rim of the glenoid
2. detachment of the labrum or tearing of the capsule from the posterior rim of the glenoid
3. a compression fracture of the superolateral head aspect of the humeral head
4. a compression fracture of the inferior medial aspect of the humeral head
5. chronic posterior glenohumeral instability
6. chronic anterior glenohumeral subluxation
7. luxatio erecta
8. acute posterior glenohumeral dislocation
A. 1&6
B. 2&5
C. 3&8
D. 4&7
E. 3&7
170. The correct descending order of brachial plexus anatomy is:
A. Branches, Cords, Divisions, Trunks, & Roots
B. Roots, Divisions, Cords, Trunks, & Branches
C. Branches, Divisions, Trunks, Cords, & Roots
D. Roots, Trunks, Divisions, Cords, & Branches
171.A Hill Sachs Lesion involves
and is a result of
.
1. a compression fracture of the anteromedial ~f the humeral head
2. a compression fracture of the posterolateral aspect of the humeral head
3. detachment of the labrum or tearing of the capsule from the anterior rim of the glenoid
4. detachment of the labrum or tearing of the capsule from the posterior rim of the glenoid
5. a primary acute posterior glenohumeral dislocation
6. a primary acute anterior glenohumeral dislocation
7. chronic posterior glenohumeral instability
8. direct blows from opponents helmet on the anterior lateral humerus
A. 4 & 5
B. 3 & 7
C. 2 & 6
D. 1& 6
E. 1& 8
172.Development of a painful bony prominence of the anterolateral humerus, just distal pad is known as
and is caused
by
.
1. Football shoulder
2. Tackler's Exostosis
3. Humerus Fracture
4. Bench Press Bump
5. Direct blows from helmets of opposing players
6. Excessive throwing of the football without adequate rest & recovery
7. Internally rotating the humerus repetitiously to block defensive lineman
8. Excessive upper extremity weight room workouts with emphasis on bench & military press at the subcutaneous
part to the edge of the shoulder
A. 4 & 8
B. 2 & 5
C. 3 & 7
D. 1 & 6
E. 1 & 5