Download Cumulative Multiple Choice

Cumulative Multiple Choice Practice:
1. In a chemical synapse, what is the gap between the presynaptic neuron and the effector/target cell?
A. Synaptic Cleft
B. Perikaryon
C. Gap Junction
D. Axon Hillock
2. Gray Matter in the CNS has a different appearance than White Matter because it contains:
A. Extensive bundles of myelinated axons
B. Dense packing of somata
C. Collections of Ganglia
D. Dense packing of enteroreceptors
3. The most common type of neurons in the central nervous system is:
A. Unipolar Neurons
B. Bipolar Neurons
C. Multipolar Neurons
D. Anaxonic Neurons
4. Touch receptors are a component of which type of communication?
A. Efferent
B. Endocrine
C. Special Sensory
D. Afferent
5. Where are interneurons primarily found?
A. In the Central Nervous Sytem
B. In the Peripheral Nervous System
C. In the Autonomic Ganglia
D. In the White Matter
6. Perikaryon describes:
A. The Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. The cytoplasm of the soma excluding the nucleus
C. Parallel bundles of axons
D. The synaptic terminal
7. Which of the following would you not expect to find in an axon?
A. Mitochondria
B. Neurofilaments
C. Nissl Bodies
D. Lysosomes
8. The Central Nervous System contains:
A. The brain only
B. The brain, spinal cord, and special sensory receptors
C. The somatic and autonomic nervous system
D. The brain and spinal cord
9. Intercellular Signaling at a chemical synapse is accomplished via:
A. Neurotransmitter diffusion across the synaptic cleft
B. Ion flow across gap junctions
C. Ion flow across the synaptic cleft
D. Neurotransmitter flow through the bloodstream
10. The two master coordination/communication systems in the body are:
A. The Nervous System and the Circulatory System
B. The Nervous System and the Endocrine System
C. The Circulatory System and the Immune System
D. The Nervous System and the Muscular System
11. Like other fully differentiated cells, neurons tend to accumulate________ around the nucleus:
A. Multiple Nuclei
B. Mitochondria
C. Lipofuscin
D. Mitotic Spindles
12. Which of the following lists is in the correct order of input → output for a bipolar neuron?
A. Axon Terminal → Axon Collaterals → Axon → Dendrite → Dendritic Spines
B. Axon Terminal → Axon Collaterals → Axon → Soma → Dendrite → Dendritic Spines
C. Dendritic Spines → Dendrite → Axon → Axon Collaterals → Axon Terminal
D. Dendritic Spines → Dendrite → Soma → Axon → Axon Collaterals → Axon Terminal
13. In the Central Nervous System, most of the surface area of a neuron’s plasma membrane is contained:
A. On Dendrites
B. On Axons
C. On Nissl Bodies
D. On the Soma
14. Which of the following would you not expect to find in a peripheral nerve fascicle?
A. Motor Nerve Fibers
B. Satellite Cells
C. Schwann Cells
D. Endoneurium
15. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelinating peripheral nerves.
B. Schwann cells can myelinate multiple axons.
C. All axons within the peripheral nervous system are either myelinated or ensheathed.
D. The internode is the gap between two segments of myelin.
E. All of the above are true
16. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Ion flow across an ion channel occurs passively
B. At rest the concentration of potassium ions is higher outside of the cell than inside.
C. The resting membrane potential is different in axons than it is in dendrites.
D. In order for sodium ions to depolarize the membrane its concentration gradient must be dramatically reduced
in the process.
17. The following integral membrane proteins play a critical role in maintaining the resting membrane potential except:
A. Potassium Leak Channels
B. The Sodium/Potassium ATPase
C. Sodium leak channels
D. Voltage-Gated Sodium Channels
18. All of the following cells are found in the Central Nervous System except:
A. Ependymal Cells
B. Satellite Cells
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Microglia
19. When the membrane at rest suddenly becomes very permeable to Na + , you would expect to see __________ of Na+
ions in order to __________ the membrane.
A. Net efflux, Hyperpolarize.
B. No net movement, Have no effect upon
C. Net influx, Depolarize
D. Net efflux, Depolarize
20. The gaps between myelin segments along myelinated axons in the PNS are called:
A. Internodes
B. Mesaxons
C. Ganglia
D. Nodes of Ranvier
21. If you decreased the extra-cellular concentration of potassium, what would happen to the resting membrane potential?
A. It would be more positive
B. It would be more negative
C. It would be unaffected
D. There is not enough information
22. If a cell at resting membrane potential increased its permeability to sodium, what would happen to the ionic equilibrium
potential for sodium?
A. It would be more positive
B. It would be more negative
C. It would be unaffected
D. There is not enough information
23. The activation of ligand-gated ion channels is always associated with:
A. Generation of action-potentials
B. Change in the permeability to an ion
C. Depolarization
D. Hyperpolarization
24. If you were an axon establishing a new connection with another neuron, where would you want to establish that synapse
to have to most profound impact on the frequency with which that neuron fires action potentials?
A. Dentritic Branches
B. Dentritic Spines
C. The Axon Hillock
D. The point at which dendrites branch from the soma
25. The duration of the absolute refractory period is dictated by:
A. Inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels
B. Prolonged opening of voltage-gated potassium channels
C. Prolonged opening of potassium leakage channels
D. Inactivation of sodium leak channels
26. During an action potential, activity at which type of channel is responsible for the rapid restoration of the resting
membrane potential after depolarization has occurred?
A. Potassium leak channels
B. Voltage-gated sodium channels
C. The Na+/K+ ATPase
D. Voltage-gated potassium channels
27. All of the following are associated with activity at a chemical synaptic terminal except:
A. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. Gap Junctions
C. Voltage Gated Calcium Channels
D. Mitochondria
28. Atropine from deadly nightshades blocks certain receptors (muscarinic) for acetylcholine. Cholinergic neurons (neurons
that release ACh as a neurotransmitter) will still be capable of all of the following functions except:
A. Propagating Action Potentials
B. Clearing Acetylcholine from the Synaptic Cleft
C. Generating PSP’s on Target Cells Containing Muscarinic Receptors
D. Releasing Acetylycholine into the Synaptic Cleft
29. Neurons requiring the highest rate of communication with the CNS or target tissues will probably utilize:
A. Large, Myelinated Axons
B. Small, Myelinated Axons
C. Small, Non-Myelinated Axons
D. Large, Non-Myelinated Axons
30. At a particular axosomatic synapse, repeated action potentials arrive at the synaptic terminal of the presynaptic neuron.
In the post-synaptic neuron, you will observe:
A. A combination of depolarization and hyperpolarization
B. Temporal Summation
C. Spatial Summation
D. An Immediate Action Potential
31. A toxin is present in sufficient amount to block 20% of Potassium leak channels in the dendrites and soma of a neuron.
Which of the following would you expect as a result?
A. The cell cannot fire action potentials
B. The resting membrane potential will be more negative
C. It will be easier to achieve above threshold stimulation of the neuron
D. The relative refractory period will be longer
32. The presence of a membrane potential is primarily due to:
A. A greater concentration of potassium ions inside of the cell versus outside of the cell
B. The presence of negative charges extending from the plasma membrane into the cytoplasm
C. The presence of positive charges surrounding the outer surface of the membrane.
D. All of the above
33. Which of the following neurotransmitters might you expect to have cytosolic receptors?
A. Neuropeptide Y
B. Glycine
C. Nitric Oxide
D. Acetylcholine
34. Direct activation of calcium channels by serotonin release at an axo-axonic synapse would be an example of:
A. Spatial Summation
B. Second messenger mediated stimulation
C. Presynaptic Faciliation
D. All of the above
35. Often activation of metabotropic receptors (receptors whose activation is coupled to second messenger activation) by a
neurotransmitter leads to the opening or closing of an ion channel. Why not just activate the ion channel directly?
A. Inhibitory stimuli require second-messengers to mediate their effects
B. Changes in cell metabolism and gene expression can be simultaneously initiated
C. Metabotrobic receptors are required for spatial summation to occur
D. Actually, activation of metabotropic receptors never indirectly leads to ion channel activation
36. Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscle:
A. Maintenance of posture and body position
B. Red blood cell production
C. Maintenance of body temperature
D. Stabilization of joints
37. Skeletal muscle fibers are said to have excitable membranes. What specifically accounts for this?
A. Presence of Voltage Gated Channels
B. Sarcomeres
C. The Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
D. Abundant mitochondria
E. All of the above
38. Which of the following contains the correct order of organization from large to small:
A. Skeletal muscle, muscle fibers, fascicles, myofibrils, myofilaments
B. Muscle fibers, biceps muscle, fascicles, sarcomeres, myofibrils
C. Biceps muscle, muscle fibers, fascicles, myofilaments, sarcomeres
D. Biceps muscle, fascicles, muscle fibers, myofibrils, myofilaments
39. The functional contractile unit of muscle fibers is the:
A. A-band
B. Sarcomere
C. T-tubule/sarcoplasmic reticulum triad
D. Z-disk
40. Binding sites for calcium are present on:
A. G-Actin
B. Troponin
C. Tropomyosin
D. Nebulin
E. All of the above
41. Where might you find proteins running perpendicular to the longitudinal proteins within a sarcomere?
A. The M-line
B. The zone of overlap
C. The Z-disk
D. A and C
42. How many terminal cisternae exist per sarcomere?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
43. Which protein is responsible for establishing the correct length of f-actin?
A. Titin
B. Tropomyosin
C. Nebulin
D. Actinin
43. Which protein prevents overstretching of the sarcomere?
A. Troponin
B. Nebulin
C. Titin
D. M-line proteins
44. The striated appearance of skeletal muscle is due to:
A. The transverse tubule system
B. Alternating A-bands and I-bands in a parallel arrangement
C. Alternating M-lines and Z-disks in a parallel arrangement
D. Alternating H-zones and I-bands in a parallel arrangement
45. Muscle Fascicles are encased in:
A. Perimysium
B. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
C. Endomysium
D. Epimysium
46. Every ____________is completed enveloped in sarcoplasmic reticulum:
A. Muscle Fascicle
B. Muscle Fiber
C. Myofibril
D. Motor Nerve Axon
47. Satellite cells are found in:
A. The Central Nervous System
B. Epimysium
C. Perimysium
D. Endomysium
48. Actin-Myosin cross-bridge formation is directly prevented at rest due to the position of:
A. Nebulin
B. Titin
C. Tropomyosin
D. Mitochondria
49. At resting length, which zone in the sarcomere would contain only thin filaments and titin?
A. The I-band
B. The M-Line
C. The zone of overlap
D. The H-zone
50. Each thick filament can theoretically form cross bridges with ___different thin filaments:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 1
D. 12
51. Endomysium, Epimysium, and Perimysium can fuse together at the ends of muscle to form:
A. Tendons
B. Ligaments
C. Periosteum
D. Articular Cartilage
52. The boundaries that define a sarcomere are:
A. From one M-line to the next M-line
B. From one Z-line to the next Z-line
C. Longitudinally from the start to the end of a myofibril
D. From one zone of overlap to the next zone of overlap
53. Which of the following statements is false:
A. Depending on the extent of activation, a muscle can grade the strength of its contraction by only activating
some of its myofibrils.
B. The motor end plate is typically situated ½ way along the length of a muscle fiber
C. Voltage gated sodium channels are present within the T-tubule membrane
D. The fluid contained within the t-tubules has the same ionic composition as extracellular fluid.
54. Which of the following contains the correct order of organization from large to small:
A. Skeletal muscle, muscle fibers, fascicles, myofibrils, myofilaments
B. Muscle fibers, biceps muscle, fascicles, myofilaments, myofibrils
C. Biceps muscle, muscle fibers, fascicles, myofilaments, sarcomeres
D. Biceps muscle, fascicles, muscle fibers, myofibrils, myofilaments
55. Which of the following correctly describes the power stroke?
A. Myosin heads bound to g-actin hydrolyze ATP to enable pivoting towards the H-zone
B. Free myosin heads hydrolyze ATP to ‘recock’ away from the H-zone
C. Myosin heads bound to g-actin release ADP + P to enable pivoting towards the H-zone
D. Myosin heads bind ATP to disassociate from g-actin
56. Which of the following would you expect to find within the T-tubule membrane:
A. Acetylcholine receptors
B. Voltage gated sodium channels
C. Acetylcholine-esterase
D. A high density of Ca2+ ATPases
57. Which of the following is not responsible for onset of rigor mortis (temporary muscle rigidity after death)?
A. Inability for myosin heads to disassociate from g-actin
B. Lack of Ca2+ ATPase activity
C. Leakage of proteases from lysosomes
D. Interaction of Ca2+ with troponin to expose active sites
58. At what sarcomere position(s) would your ability to generate muscle fiber tension be minimal or non-existent
A. When the zone of overlap disappears
B. When the H-zone disappears
C. When the I-band disappears
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
59. External tension in a whole muscle can be increased via:
A. Increasing the number of sarcomeres contracting
B. Increasing the number of motor units activated
C. Enhancing the activity of the Ca2+ ATPase
D. Increasing the total number of myofibrils contracting in stimulated muscle fibers
E. All of the above
60. What does the latent period refer to specifically?
A. The resting membrane potential of a muscle fiber
B. The period between the initial stimulus at the motor end plate and the contraction phase
C. The period during which free myosin heads hydrolyze ATP to ‘recock’ away from the H-zone
D. The time required to pump Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum after the stimulation of the muscle fiber
ceases
61. Which of the following require wave summation?
A. Incomplete tetanus
B. Treppe
C. Sarcomere shortening
D. Increase in muscle tension
E. All of the above
62. During treppe:
A. Successive stimulation of muscle fibers occurs immediately after the relaxation period has ended, resulting in
steady increase in tension that will ultimately plateau if treppe persists
B. Successive stimulation of muscle fibers occurs immediately after the relaxation period to ultimately achieve
maximum muscle tension if treppe persists
C. Wave summation occurs to achieve maximum muscle tension
D. The relaxation phase disappears entirely
63. Two individual muscle fibers will definitely be the same fiber type (fast, intermediate, or slow) if they:
A. Are from the same muscle (such as the biceps).
B. Are from the same motor unit.
C. Are from the same fascicle.
D. Have the same twitch speed.
64. The degree of tension within a muscle fiber directly corresponds to:
A. The number of motor units activated
B. The number of sarcomeres contracting
C. The concentration of Ca2+ within the sarcoplasm
D. The extent of the interactions of intermediate filaments with the sarcolemma
65. Complete tetanus is represented by:
A. The lack of a relaxation period
B. Thick filaments jammed against the z-line
C. Inactivation of the Ca2+ ATPase
D. Inability of myosin heads to detach from G-actin
66. After an isotonic muscle contraction, all of the following can assist to restore resting length except:
A. Gravity
B. Elasticity of the connective tissue sheaths
C. Contraction of opposing muscles across the joint
D. Recoil in the elastic domains of titin
E. Actually, all of the above
67. Which of the following could not play a potential role in preventing the muscle from extreme overstretching to the
extent that the zone of overlap disappears?
A. The shape of the joint
B. Titin
C. Nebulin
D. Connective tissue
68. After a muscle has fully shortened, what can assist to restore the resting length of the muscle?
A. Contraction of the antagonist muscle
B. Gravity
C. Recoil of elastic components of the muscle fibers
D. All of the above
69. Which of the following is characterized by increase in muscle tension with simultaneous increase in muscle length?
A. Isometric Contraction
B. Isotonic Contraction
C. Eccentric Contraction
D. Complete Tetanus
70. Which of the following does not accurately describe motor units:
A. A motor unit is all of the muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron
B. All of the muscle fibers within a motor unit have the same characteristics
C. All of the muscle fibers within a fascicle are innervated by the same motor neuron
D. Alternate firing of motor units allows those fibers to have temporary rest without reducing the overall tension
in a muscle
E. Muscles controlling the hands have smaller motor units than muscles that maintain posture
71. Which of the following is a consequence result of muscle tone?
A. Stabilization of bones and joints
B. Increased energy consumption during inactivity
C. Appearing ‘ripped’
D. All of the above
72. Transfer of energy from what source can regenerate ATP most rapidly?
A. Mitochondria
B. Glycolysis
C. Creatine Phosphate
D. Fatty Acids
73. What molecule accumulates when oxygen supply to a muscle is low, and is responsible for generating fatigue?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Lactic Acid
C. Choline
D. Creatine Kinase