Download 1 - A patient allergic to penicillin group of antibiotics has to avoid

‫بسـم هللا الرحمن الرحيم‬
Choose the correct answer for question (1 – 90)
1 . A patient allergic to penicillin group has to avoid which of these antibiotics
a – Laricid
d – Myrox
b – Klaridex
e – Zinex
c – Tavanic
2. A patient comes in for advise on a non-prescription sleeping aid, what would you
recommend:
a – Prazolex
d – Nytol
b –Clonex
e – None of the above
c – Vapen
3 . Which of the following should not be given to children
a – Taricin
d – All of the above
b – Ceproxx
e – None of the above
c – Avodart
4 . Which of the following matches is not true
a – Progest – allylestrenol
b –MyRox– roxithromycin
c – Tericox – celecoxib
d – Locid – omeprazole
e – Vascopin – amlodipine
5 - Acetylcysteine is used in the overdose of which of the following drugs
a – fluticasone
d – acetaminophen
b – carbepenem
e – diazepam
c – vit k
6 – Drugs that are useful in the treatment of gout include all of the following
EXCEPT
a – Allopurinol
d – Indomethacin
b – Aspirine
e - Probenecid
c – Colchicine
7 - When prescribing Glucomet tablets ,the patient is adviced to be monitered for
a – lactic acidosis
d – hypercalcemia
b – alkaline urine
e – hyperlipedemia
c – respiratory distress
8 – Which of the following drug(s) is/are used to treat high blood pressure in
pregnant women?
a – Amicor
d – Ramipril
b- Rasilez
e – All of the above
c – Methyldopa
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9 – Medications that should be avoided by a lactating mother include all of the
following except:
a – Narcotics
d – Diazepam
b- Acetaminophen
e – All of the above
c – Alcohol
10 – Which drug of the following is not a combination dosage form:
a – Ogmin
d –Novocort
b –Sulprim
e – Demistil
c –Megacare
Read the following prescription then answer questions from (11-15):
Prazolex 1mg
1tab h.s for XX days
11 – Prazolex is the trade name for the following drug:
a – Lorazepam
d – Oxazepam
b- Alprazolam
e – Prazolam
c- Clonazepam
12 – Prazolex is classified as:
a – Quinolone
b – Barbiturates
c – Hydantoins
d – Succinimides
e – Benzodiazepines
13 – Prazolex is manufactured locally by the following company:
a – Birzeit
d – Jerusalem
b – Pharmacare
e – Gama
c – Beit jala
14 – A drug that contains the same active ingredient as Prazolex is:
a – Nirvaxal
d – Vaben
b- Dekinet
e – Partane
c – Xanagis
15 – The patient must take:
a – 1 tablet at bed time for 15 days
b – 1 tablet at bed time for 20 days
c – 1 tablet after meal for 15 days
d – 1 tablet before meals for 20 days
e – I tablet in the morning for 20 days
16 – The active ingredient in Xtram is
a – Tramadol
d – Oxazepam
b –Ciprofloxacin
e – Zolpidem
c - Sulpride
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17 – Xtram is classified as
a – OTC drug
b- Dangerous drug
c – Controlled drug
d–a+c
e – None of the above
18 – All of the following are hormones EXCEPT
a- Bromocriptine
d – Thyroxine
b – Somatomedin
e – Vasopressin
c – Somatotropin
19 – Clovix is classified as
a – Anti-hypertensive
b- Platelet aggregation inhibitor
c – Anti- diabetic c – Anti- diabetic
d – Anti-Parkinson
e –Non of the above
20 – Use of highly selective COX-2 inhibitors like Rofecoxib may be associated with
increased risk of:
a- gastrointestinal bleeding
b- nephropathy
c- cardiovascular events
d- hepatotoxicity
e- reduced platelet count
21- A 50- year – old woman with positive mammogram undergoes lumpectomy and
a small carcinoma is removed.After this procedure she will probably receive:
a – Danazol
d – Leuprolide
b- Flutamide
e – Tamoxifen
c – Ketoconazole
22- Effects of insulin include all of the following EXCEPT
a – Increased glucose transport into cells
b – Induction of lipoprotein lipase
c – Decreased gluconeogenesis
d – Stimulation of glycogenolysis
e – Decreased conversion of amino acids into glucose
23- The active ingredient in Rizacef is
a – Cefotaxime
d – Ceftriaxone
b – Cefixime
e – Cefuroxime
c – Cefoxiten
24- Rizacef is classified as
a – First generation Cephalosporin
b- Second generation Cephalosporin
c – Third generation Cephalosporin
d – Macrolide
e -Fluoroquinolone
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25- Which of the following statements about the fluoroquinolones is LEAST
accurate?
a. Antacids may decrease the oral bioavailability of fluoroquinolones
b .Pneumococcal resistance to fluoroquinolones may involve changes in
topoisomerase IV
c. Modification of fluoroquinolone dosage is required in patients if creatinine
clearance is less than 50 ml/min
d . A fluoroquinolone is the drug of choice for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary
tract infection in a 10-year-old girl
e .Fluoroquinolones inhibit relaxation of positively supercoiled DNA
26- The active ingredient in Lolip is
a. Atrovastatin
d – Pravastatin
b. Lovastatin
e -Simvastatin
c. Fluvastatin
27 - The manufacturer of Lolip is
a. Birzeit
d – Jerusalem
b. Pharmacare
e – Gama
c. Beit jala
28 – The major recognized mechanism of action of Niacin is
a. Increased endocytosis of HDL by the liver
b. Decreased secretion of VLDL by the liver
c. Increased lipid hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase
d. Decreased lipid synthesis in adipose tissue
e. Decreased Oxidation of lipids in endothelial cells
29 – The active ingredient in Modulon is
a. Chlordiazepoxide
d– a + b
b. Clidinium bromide
e – All of the above
c. Mebeverine HCL
30- ----------------- is a product that can substitute Modulon
a. Colotal
d – Paravomine
b. Motilium
e – Ancozine
c. Nirvaxal
31- The active ingredient in Sporanox is
a- Fluconazole
d – Terbinafine
b – Ketoconazole
e – Tolnaftate
c – Itraconazole
32 – Sporanox is classified as
a – Anthelmentic
b – Antiprotozoal
c – Antiviral
d – Antifungal
e – Antibacterial
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33 – The active ingredient in Profenid is
a – Ibuprofen
c – Naproxen
b –Ketoprofen
d – Ketotifen
e – Diclofenac
34 – All of the following are useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia EXCEPT
a – Calcitonin
d – Parental infusion of phosphate
b – Glucocorticoids
e – Thiazides
c – Plicamycin
35- The drug EXFORGE TAB contains the following active ingredient:
a-Amlodipine
d- a+b
b-Valsartan
e-b+c
c- Amiloride
36- EXFORGE is manufactured by:
a-Abbot
d- GSK
b-Sanofi Aventis
e-Eli Lilly
c- Novartis Pharma
37- All of the following drugs are classified as Anti-Convulsant except:
a-Gabapentin
d- Citalopram
b-Clonazepam
e-None of the above
c-Phenytoin
38- Which of the following is True regarding the drug Zyprexa:
a-Zyprexa contains Fexofenadrine and manufactured by Aventis
b-Zyprexa contains Olanzapine and manufactured by Eli Lilly
c-Zyprexa is used for the treatment of Schizophrenia
d-a+c
e-b+c
39- Which of the following is True regarding the drug Tamiflu:
a-Tamiflu contains Oseltamivir and manufactured by Roche
b-Tamiflu contains Adefovir and manufactured by GSK.
c-Tamiflu is an Antiviral against influenza type A and B
d-a+c
e-b+c
40- A satisfactory suppository base must meet all of the following except:
a. It should have a narrow melting range.
b. It should be nonirritating and nonsensitizing.
c. It should dissolve or disintegrate rapidly in the body cavity.
d. It should melt below 30oC.
e. It should be inert.
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41- Which of the following capsule size has the largest size:
a. 5
d. 0
b. 4
e. 000
c. 1
42- USP tests for ensuring the quality of drug products in tablet form include all of
the following EXCEPT
a. Disintegration
b. Dissolution
c. Hardness and friability
d. Content uniformity
e. Weight variation
43- Vanishing-cream is an ointment that may be classified as
a. Water-in-oil (w/o) emulsion.
b. An oleaginous base
c. An absorption base
d. An oil-in-water (o/w) emulsion
e. An oleic base
44- Which of the following drugs is considered to be the agent of choice for
anaphylactic reactions?
a. Clonidine
d. Phenylephrine
b. Isoproterenol
e. Terbutaline
c. Epinephrine
(Questions 45-47): The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy:
RX
Ezomax 20mg cap
Take 1 Tab BID
2 weeks
45- According to the prescription, Ezomax should be taken as follows
a. Take one tab twice weekly(28 tablets)
b. Take one tab twice weekly(4 tablets)
c. Take two tablets twice daily(56 tablets)
d. Take one tablet twice daily(28 tablets)
e. Take one tablet twice daily(14 tablets)
46- Ezomax is manufactured by the following manufacturing company:
a. Birzeit Pharmaceutical Company
b. Pharmacare PLC
c. Jerusalem Pharmaceutical company
d. Beit Jala Pharmaceuticals company
e. Megapharm
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47- A drug that contains the same active ingredient as Ezomax is:a. Losec
d- Modal
b. Cytotec
e- None of the above
c. Nexium
48- When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance,
true statements include
I.
Tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate
II.
Tolerance doesn’t occur in patients who are concurrently on metoprolol
III.
Tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate
medication
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
49- In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, the salicylates:
a. Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement.
b. Specifically reverse the cause of the disease.
c. Provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.
d. Are effective because they are uricosuric.
e. Are more effective when given with allopurinol.
50- In dispensing, the Latin abbreviation for “before meals” is:
a. ac
d- ic
b. aa
e- cc
c. pc
51- Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a deficiency of:
a. Acetylcholine in the motor cortex.
b.Noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons.
c. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways.
d.Dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway.
e. Serotonin in the brain stem.
52- With respect to bioequivalence, the parameter "Cmax" is:
a. Affected by the extent of absorption only.
b. Affected by the rate of absorption only.
c. Affected by both rate and extent of absorption.
d. Affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption.
e. The only significant parameter.
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53- Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation?
a. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet.
b. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily.
c. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution.
d. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst.
e. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression.
54- Hypercalcemia may result from:
I. An excessive intake of calcium
II. Hyperparathyroid disease.
III. An inadequate intake of vitamin D
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II and III
Read the following prescription carefully, then answer questions (55- 59)
Rx
Dostinex 0.5mg Tab
0.25mg twice wkly
1 month
55- The active ingredient in the drug Dostinex is:
a. Dydrogesterone
d. Triptorelin aceteate
b. Bromocriptine
e. Progesterone
c. Cabergoline
56- Dostinex is used for
a. Hyperprolactinemia
b. Hypoprolactenimia
c. Inhibition and suppression of Lactation
d. None of the above
e. a+c
57- Dostinex is manufactured by:
a. Astra Zeneca
b. Sanofi Aventis
c. Ferring
d. Pfizre
e. Novo Nordisk
58- According to the prescription, Dostinex should be taken as follows:
a. 0.25 Tab twice weekly for 1 month.
b. 1/2 Tab weekly for 1 month.
c. 1 Tab twice weekly for 1 month
d. 1/2 Tab twice weekly for 1 month
e. None of the above
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59- According to the prescription, the pharmacist should dispense:
a. 2 tablets
d. 30 tablets
b. 4 tablets
e. 40 tablets
c. 8 tablets
60- State which of the following Pharmaceutical abbreviation is not correct:
a. D5W = dextrose 5% solution
b. s.o.s = when required
c. h.s = after meals
d. q.i.d = every other day
e. c+d
61- A Phenothiazine derivative commonly used for its anti-histaminic effect is:
a. chlorpromazine
d. prochlorperazine
b. promazine
e. thioridazine
c. promethazine
62- Of the following glucocorticoids, which one has the greatest anti-inflammatory
potency when administered systemically:
a. hydrocortisone
d. dexamethasone
b. prednisone
e. cortisone
c. triamcinolone
63- An example of a pure narcotic antagonist is:
a. naloxone HCL
d. butorphanol
b. buprenorphine
e. morphine
c. nalbuphine
64-Potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxic effect associated with:
a. Demeclocycline
d. clindamycin
b. chloramphenicol
e. cefadroxil
c. nitrofurantoin
65- Which of the following drugs is generally considered the drug of choice in
treating status epileptics:
a. Glutethimide
d. paraldehyde
b.Ethosuximide
e. diazepam
c. phenytoin
66- When dispensing a new prescription, for which of the following drugs should
the pharmacist advise the patient that he may experience a large fall in the
pressure following the first dose:
a. Methyldopa
d. reserpine
b. prazosin
e. propranolol
c. clonidine
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67-Clomiphene citrate is used clinically in the treatment of:
a. Psoriasis
d. depression
b.Infertility
e. dysmenorrhea
c. nausea
68- The most important indication for vancomycin is in the treatment of serious
infections that do NOT respond to other treatment and that are caused by which
of the following organisms:
a. pneumococcal
d. gonococcal
b. staphylococcal
e. pseudomonal
c. streptococcal
69-A Common name for the antidiuretic hormone secreted by the posterior
pituitary gland is:
a. Norepinephrine
d. vasopressin
b. Rennin
e. secretin
c. luteteotropic hormone
70--The anticoagulant action of heparin is monitored by:
a. complete blood count
b. activated partial thromboplastin time
c. antiplatelet clotting time
d. bleeding time
e. non of the above
71-- Which of the following would be considered to be a blood sugar concentration
within normal limits for a fasting adult:
a. 100 mg/dl
d. 400 mg/ml
b. 200 mg/ml
e. 500 mg/ml
c. 300 mg/ml
72-Asthmatic patient with a documented allergy to aspirin should not receive :
a. propoxyphene
d. pentazocine
b. paracetamol
e. nalbuphine
c. ibuprofen
73-Dyspnea refers to:
a. difficult or labored breathing
b. difficulty in swallowing
c. impairment of digestive function
d. painful difficult urination
e. restlessness
74-Phlebitis is most closely associated with which type of injections:
a. intradermal
d. subcutaneous
b. intramuscular
e. none of the above
c. intravenous
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75-The time of peak serum concentration gives indication of the relative rate of:
a. absorption
d- elimination
b. distribution
e. biotransformation
c. metabolism
76-The area under the serum concentration vs. time curve (AUC) represents the:
a. biologic half-time of the drug
b. amount of the drug that is cleared by the kidneys
c. amount of the drug in the original dosage form
d. amount of the drug absorbed
e. amount of the drug excreted in the time
77-The volume of distribution of a drug is:
a. A mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in body and
concentration of drug in the blood.
b. A measure of drug in the blood
c. Ameasure of an individual 's blood volume
d. an expression of total body volume
e. non of the above
78-The metabolism of drugs generally results in:
a. less acidic compounds
b. more acidic compound
c. compounds having higher oil/water partition coefficient
d. more polar compound
e. compounds with lower aqueous solubility
79- A vial of lyophilized drug is labeled 10000 units; to reconstitute, add 17 ml of
Sterile Water for injection to obtain 500 units per ml, how many ml of SWFI must a
pharmacist add if a 1000 unit/ml concentration is needed by the nurse:
a. 7
d. 17
b. 8.5
e. 20
c. 10
80- A TPN order requires 500 ml of D30W, How many ml of D40W should be used
if D30W is not available:
a. 125
d. 400
b. 300
e. 667
c. 375
81- How many grams of pure hydrocortisone powder must be mixed with 60 gm of
0.5% hydrocortisone cream if one wishes to prepare a 2.0% W/W preparation:
a. 0.9
d. 1.2
b. 0.92
e. 1.53
c. 0.3
82-Liquifilm is a vehicle used in preparing:
a. topical gels
d. otic solution
b. ophthalmic solution
e. none of the above
c. topical aerosols
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83- Potassium supplements are administered in all of the following manners
EXCEPT:
a. IV infusion
d. Effervescent tablets
b. IV bolus
e. Slow release tablets, p.o
c. Elixirs,p.o
84- Insulin preparations are usually administered by:
a. intradermal injection
b. intramuscular injection
c. intravenous injection
d. subcutaneous injection
e. intravenous infusion
85-Which of the following commonly available large volume dextrose solutions for
intravenous use is isotonic:
a. 2.5%
d- 20%
b. 5.0%
e. 50%
c. 10%
86- PH is mathematically:
a. the log of the hydroxyl ion concentration
b. the negative log of the hydroxyl ion concentration
c. the log of the hydronium ion concentration
d. the negative log of the hydronium ion concentration
e. none of the above
87- Losartan:
a. Is an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist
b. Is an ACE inhibitor
c. Ca- channel antagonists
d. Exhibits a lower incidence of cough as a side-effect compared with enalapril
e. Dose may be increased to 50 mg daily
88- Protamine sulfate is used to treat overdoses of
a. Vitamin K1
d. Heparin
b. Atropine
e. Benzodiazepine
c. Acetaminophen
89- A disease modifying drug used in rheumatoid arthritis that also chelates copper
is:
a. Penicillamine
d. Sulfasalazine
b. Aurothiomalate
e. Etanercept
c. Methotrexate
90- A diuretic that can lead to alkalinization of urine is:
a. Acetozolamide
d. Amiloride
b. Bendrofluazide
e. Ammonium chloride
c. Furosemide
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‫أجب بنعم أو ال على األسئلة من (‪:)100-91‬‬
‫‪ .91‬يجوز للصيدلي أن يكون مالكا ألكثر من مؤسسة صيدالنية واحدة‪.‬‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫‪ .92‬يجب أن ال تقل مساحة الصيدلية عن ‪ 40‬متر مربع‪.‬‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫‪ .93‬مستودع األدوية مخصص لبيع األدوية بالجملة و المفرق ألي كان‪.‬‬
‫‪ .94‬صيدلية أغلقها صاحبها لمدة ‪ 11‬شهرا فقط حسب األصول بسبب سفره إلى الخارج و عندما رجع له الحق‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫بإعادة فتحها و ممارسة عمله‪.‬‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫‪ .95‬يجوز أن يكون تاريخ انتهاء الدواء مختوما بالحبر أو مطبوعا من قبل الشركة الصانعة‪.‬‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫‪ .96‬يجوز أن يكون للصيدلية العامة باب فرعي آخر يتصل بمنزل الصيدالني المسئول‪.‬‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫‪ .97‬يجوز حقن اإلبر في الصيدلية من قبل الصيدلي المسئول فقط‪.‬‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫‪ .98‬يجب أن يكون باب الصيدلية الخاصة التابعة لجمعية خيرية على الشارع العام‪.‬‬
‫‪ . 99‬يجوز للصيدلي المالك و المسئول عن الصيدلية العمل كمندوب دعاية باإلضافة إلى عمله في الصيدلية‪.‬‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫)‬
‫‪ .100‬يلغى الترخيص الممنوح من الوزارة في حال تم بيع الصيدلية دون علم و موافقة الوزارة‪( .‬‬
‫مع تمنياتنا لكم بالنجاح‬
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