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Transcript
10 Pages
Contestant Number ________
Total Work Time ________
Rank ________
CISCO NETWORK
ADMINISTRATION (45)
Regional—2006
Objective Questions (60 @ 10 pts. each)
TOTAL POINTS
_______ (600 pts.)
_______ (600)
Failure to adhere to any of the following rules will result in disqualification:
Contestant must hand in this test booklet and all printouts. Failure to do so will result in
disqualification.
No equipment, supplies, or materials other than those specified for this event are allowed
in the testing area. No previous BPA tests and/or sample tests or facsimile
(handwritten, photocopied, or keyed) are allowed in the testing area.
No programmable cordless calculators, PDAs, or personal information managers may be
used in any event.
No more than 60 minutes of testing time
Do NOT open test booklet until instructed to do so.
Property of Business Professionals of America. May be reproduced only for use in the Business
Professionals of America Workplace Skills Assessment Program regional-level competitions.
CISCO NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
REGIONAL 2006
PAGE 2
1. Which of the following commands could be used on a Windows-based computer to view the current
IP configuration of the system?
A. show ip
B. configip
C. ifconfig
D. ipconfig
E. winipconfig
2. The technology used to connect multiple computers together in a single office is called _______.
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. MAN
D. Internet
E. SPAN
3. What is attenuation?
A. The delay between the time a frame leaves its source device and reaches its destination
B. Opposition to the flow of current
C. Measurement of electrical signals relative to time
D. Degradation of a signal as it travels along the medium
E. Amount or volume of traffic that is flowing on the medium
4. What is the correct order for the OSI layers?
A. Physical, Data Link, Network, Session, Transport, Presentation, Application
B. Physical, Network, Data Link, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
C. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Application, Presentation
E. Physical, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Presentation, Application
5. Which layer is responsible for multiplexing data from upper layers and placing the data into a
segment?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Physical
E. Application
6. The Network layer’s primary function is to ___________________________.
A. add MAC Addresses to the packet
B. establish a communication path to the communication partner
C. provide connection-oriented service
D. Encode binary data on the wire
E. route data between different network segments
7. Which of the following is the decimal representation of the binary number 11010010?
A. 203
B. 240
C. 204
D. 210
E. 212
CISCO NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
REGIONAL 2006
PAGE 3
8. Which of the following terms describes the address used at the Network layer?
A. Physical
B. Logical
C. MAC
D. Host
E. Hexadecimal
9. Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal number 110?
A. 10000011
B. 01101110
C. 01111101
D. 11110111
E. 11101101
10. How is data packaged for transmission over ATM media?
A. Frames
B. Packets
C. Cells
D. Datagrams
E. Bits
11. Which of the following describes a physical full-mesh topology?
A. It requires termination at both ends of the cable.
B. It requires the use of fiber optic cables.
C. It uses a hub or a switch as a central point to connect all wires.
D. It provides maximum connectivity between all network systems.
E. It links all computers to a main computer that controls all traffic on the network.
12. Which of the following is a reliable transport layer protocol of the DoD TCP/IP model?
A. FTP
B. UDP
C. SMTP
D. TFTP
E. TCP
13. What does the acronym CSMA/CD stand for?
A. Collision Sense, Multiple Access, Carrier Division
B. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access, Carrier Division
C. Carrier Sense, Media Access, Collision Detection
D. Common Switched Multi-station Assembly, Collision Detection
E. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access, Collision Detection
14. When segmenting a network, it is essential to ______________________________.
A. limit the number routers in a segment
B. re-address
C. decrease the size of the collision domain
D. increase the number of nodes in a segment
E. use repeaters whenever possible
CISCO NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
REGIONAL 2006
PAGE 4
15. Which of the following describes latency?
A. The noise generated from outside a cable
B. The degradation of a signal as it travels along the media
C. The time required for a NIC to place a frame on the network media
D. The delay between the time a frame leaves its source device and reaches its destination
16. What method is used to prevent bridging loops?
A. Manually disable the ports
B. Spanning Tree Algorithm
C. VLAN
D. IEEE 802.10
E. Use a crossover cable
17. What is the name of the messages that bridges use to communicate with each other?
A. SPT
B. SPA
C. BPDU
D. MAC
E. DES
18. Which device always works at the Network layer?
A. Repeaters
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. Transceivers
E. Routers
19. Which method of switching has the best error checking capability?
A. Fragment Free
B. Cut-Through
C. Store-and-Forward
D. Cut-Forward
E. Verify-and-Switch
20. What method can switches use to create smaller broadcast domains?
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Virtual Trunking Protocol
C. Virtual Local Area Networks
D. Routing
E. Port Spanning
21. Which type of UTP network cable is required to connect two Cisco switches?
A. T513
B. Straight-through
C. Crossover
D. Rollover
E. Patch
CISCO NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
REGIONAL 2006
PAGE 5
22. The router will route a datagram after changing which two fields in the IP header?
A. Source MAC address and Destination MAC address
B. Source IP address and Destination MAC address
C. Source MAC address and Destination IP address
D. Data and Checksum
E. Source IP address and Destination IP address
23. Which type of cable is required to make a connection between a router console port and a PC COM
port?
A. straight-through cable
B. crossover cable
C. rollover cable
D. DB-9 cable
E. coaxial cable
24. Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. STP
E. ICMP
25. Which of the following is a connectionless protocol?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Telnet
D. FTP
E. HTTP
26. Which protocol uses the three-way handshake?
A. TCP
B. ICMP
C. ARP
D. DNS
E. STP
27. Which protocol can be used to log in and configure Cisco routers using an IP based network?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. DNS
D. SNMP
E. DHCP
28. A user can run any number of commands at the user mode. Which command must be run in
privileged mode?
A. Show version
B. Show startup-config
C. Show users
D. Show sessions
E. Show interface
CISCO NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
REGIONAL 2006
PAGE 6
29. Which command will turn on a banner that users will see when logging in?
A. Banner Welcome to Router 3
B. Banner #Welcome to Router 3#
C. Banner motd You have connected to Router 3
D. Set banner You have connected to Router 3
E. Banner motd % You have connected to Router 3%
30. What command will enter privileged mode?
A. Press the Enter key
B. Privileged
C. Privilege
D. Start
E. Enable
31. Which command will save you hours of work by backing up the router configuration?
A. Copy running configuration NVRAM
B. Copy run NVRAM
C. Save all
D. Copy run to start
E. Copy run start
32. How does network cable length affect attenuation?
A. Category 5 cable that is run in metal conduit has the highest attenuation in the shortest distance.
B. Shorter cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
C. Longer cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
D. The length of the cable has no effect on signal attenuation
33. Which set of commands will require a password to log in to the console?
A. Line con 0, password console
B. Line user 0, login, password console
C. Line con 0, login, password console
D. Line aux 0, login, password console
34. Which command will administratively disable an interface?
A. Shutdown
B. Disable
C. No disable
D. No enable
E. No shutdown
35. Which cable specifications are indicated by 100BASE-T?
A. 10-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
B. 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, coaxial cable
C. 100-Mbps transmission speed, broadband signal, twisted-pair cable
D. 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
E. Equal to 10-Gbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
CISCO NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
REGIONAL 2006
PAGE 7
36. What number is 175 in binary?
A. 10110010
B. 10100001
C. 10110001
D. 01111111
E. 10101111
37. Identify the Class A address.
A. 192.168.17.34
B. 131.15.45.120
C. 128.0.0.0
D. 125.76.13.234
E. 191.234.56.34
38. Which of the following devices extend a collision domain?
A. switch
B. hub
C. bridge
D. router
E. A PC
39. How many bits are available for Host IDs with a Class B network?
A. 8
B. Unlimited
C. 16
D. 24
E. 32
40. If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the address of the subnetwork to
which this host belongs?
A. 172.16.45.0
B. 172.16.45.4
C. 172.16.45.8
D. 172.16.45.12
E. 172.16.45.18
41. You have been given a Class C address and need to subnet it to support five subnets. What is the
correct subnet mask?
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.128
255.0.0.0
42. To change the name of a router, what command should you use?
A. config t, change name SF
B. config t, host name SF
C. config t, prompt SF
D. config t, hostname SF
CISCO NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
REGIONAL 2006
PAGE 8
43. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses?
A. 192.168.146.0/22
B. 172.10.25.0/16
C. 172.32.0.0/16
D. 20.0.0.0/8
E. 116.172.92.8/29
44. Which of the following will change your enable secret password to bob?
A. config t, enable password bob
B. config t, enable secret password bob
C. config t, enable secret, login, password bob
D. config t, enable secret, Bob
E. config t, enable secret bob
45. When in privileged mode, which of the following will clear the configuration and begin setup mode
dialog?
A. You can do a reload to enter setup mode.
B. You can type “erase startup-config” and then perform a reload to enter setup mode.
C. You can type “setup” to enter setup mode.
D. If you type “erase start”, you will automatically be prompted with setup commands.
46. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco
router?
A. defines which addresses are excluded from the NAT pool
B. defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
C. defines which IP packets are allowed out of the router
D. defines which addresses can be translated
E. defines which IP packets are filtered at the interface
47. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
A. dial string
B. DLCI
C. idle time out
D. interesting traffic
E. PVC
48. What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?
A. The switch is currently using backup power
B. The switch is going through POST.
C. The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
D. The switch has failed POST.
E. The switch has passed POST and is working properly.
49. A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the
network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?
add additional hubs
replace hubs with switches
replace hubs with access points
add a router to every hub segment
CISCO NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
REGIONAL 2006
PAGE 9
50. Which Cisco router mode is shown in Router(config-if)#?
User EXEC mode
Privileged EXEC mode
Global Configuration mode
Interface Configuration mode
51. Once in Line configuration mode, what is the easiest way to get back to the Privileged EXEC mode?
A. Type “exit”
B. Type “quit”
C. Press Ctrl-Z
D. Press the Up Arrow
52. Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
A. access
B. backbone
C. distribution
D. core
E. Internet
53. What protocol is used to help prevent bridging loops in a network?
A. VTP
B. Spanning-tree
C. CDP
D. Hello
E. Xmodem
54. What are we trying to achieve when we segment a LAN?
A. Decrease the number of routers in a segment
B. Decrease the size of the collision domain
C. Increase the number of nodes in a segment
D. Use repeaters where possible
55. What is a negative effect of redistribution on routing?
Decreases complexity and potential for routing confusion
Increases the complexity and potential for routing confusion
Redistribution has no negative effects on routing
Doubles the routing tables size
56. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?
A. Collisions occur at fixed intervals and cannot be increased.
B. The use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
C. The use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
D. A reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
E. An increase in the number of devices attached to the hub
CISCO NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
REGIONAL 2006
PAGE 10
57. Which set of ISDN protocols is responsible for defining switching and signaling?
A. I Series
B. Q Series
C. E Series
D. M Series
E. F Series
58. What command is used to prevent RIP routes from being forwarded needlessly on the links when the
remote router cannot understand or is not using RIP, and similarly for IGRP?
A. Distance
B. Floating static routes
C. Passive interface
D. IP classless
59. A standard IP access list is applied to an Ethernet interface of a router. What does this standard access
list filter on?
A. The source and destination addresses
B. The destination port number
C. The destination address
D. The source address
E. All of the above
60. Which frame relay encapsulation type is required if the two connecting devices are not both Cisco?
A. cisco
B. ppp
C. hdlc
D. ietf
E. gre