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MODULE 2. THORACIC, CARDIOVASCULAR AND ENDOCRINE SURGERY. Text test questions 1. What is the abscessing pneumonia characterized by? A. *Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs B. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity, filled by pus C. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent pulmonary parenchyma D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined demarcation E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity 2. What is the lung abscess characterized by? A. *Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity, filled by pus B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs C. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent pulmonary parenchyma D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined demarcation E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity 3. What is the lung gangrenous abscess characterized by? A. *Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent pulmonary parenchyma B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs C. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity, filled by pus D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined demarcation E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity 4. What is the lung gangrene characterized by? A. *Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined demarcation B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs C. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity, filled by pus D. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent pulmonary parenchyma E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity 5. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs are called: A. *Abscessing pneumonia B. Lung abscess C. Lung gangrenous abscess D. Lung gangrene E. Bronchoectatic disease 6. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity, filled by pus is called: A. *Lung abscess B. Abscessing pneumonia C. Lung gangrenous abscess D. Lung gangrene E. Bronchoectatic disease 7. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent pulmonary parenchyma is called: A. *Lung gangrenous abscess B. Lung abscess C. Abscessing pneumonia D. Lung gangrene E. Bronchoectatic disease 8. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis beyond the lobe without the tendency to defined demarcation is called: A. *Lung gangrene B. Lung gangrenous abscess C. Lung abscess D. Abscessing pneumonia E. Bronchoectatic disease 9. What type of the lung gangrene is considered to be limited? A. *The lesion within 1 lobe B. The lesion within 1 segment C. The total lesion of 1 lung D. The lesion of 2 lungs E. The lesion of lungs and pleura 10. What is the I stage of lung abscess? A. *Necrotic pneumonia B. Asymptomatic C. Destruction and rejection D. Cleaning and cicatrization E. Gangrenous 11. What is the II stage of lung abscess? A. *Destruction and rejection B. Asymptomatic C. Necrotic pneumonia D. Cleaning and cicatrization E. Gangrenous 12. What is the III stage of lung abscess? A. *Cleaning and cicatrization B. Asymptomatic C. Necrotic pneumonia D. Destruction and rejection E. Gangrenous 13. What stage of lung abscess correlates with the necrotic pneumonia? A. *I B. II C. III D. IV E. V 14. What stage of lung abscess correlates with the destruction and rejection? A. *II B. I C. III D. V E. IV 15. What stage of lung abscess correlates with the cleaning and cicatrisation? A. *III B. II C. I D. IV E. V 16. What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess? A. *Disturbances of bronchial permeability with the development of atelectasis B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Rheumatism, endocarditis E. Myocardial infarction 17. What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess? A. *Infection in a pulmonary tissue B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Rheumatism, endocarditis E. Myocardial infarction 18. What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess? A. *Regional disturbances of pulmonary blood supply with a further necrosis of parenchyma B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Rheumatism, endocarditis E. Myocardial infarction 19. What acute complication is characteristic for lung abscess? A. *Pulmonary bleeding B. Emphysema C. Rib fracture D. Malignancy E. Esophageal bleeding 20. What acute complication is characteristic for lung abscess? A. *Pyopneumothorax B. Rib fracture C. Emphysema D. Malignancy E. Esophageal bleeding 21. What complication is characteristic for lung abscess? A. *Pleural empyema B. Esophageal bleeding C. Rib fracture D. Emphysema E. Malignancy 22. What complication is characteristic for lung abscess? A. *Sepsis B. Esophageal bleeding C. Rib fracture D. Emphysema E. Malignancy 23. What complication is characteristic for lung abscess? A. *Bronchogenic dissemination B. Esophageal bleeding C. Rib fracture D. Emphysema E. Malignancy 24. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical: A. *Chest pain B. Abdominal pain C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve D. Edema of legs E. Dilated cervical veins 25. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical: A. *Dyspnea B. Abdominal pain C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve D. Edema of legs E. Dilated cervical veins 26. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical: A. *Fever to 39-40°С B. Abdominal pain C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve D. Edema of legs E. Dilated cervical veins 27. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical: A. *Troubling cough B. Abdominal pain C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve D. Edema of legs E. Dilated cervical veins 28. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical: A. *Intoxication B. Abdominal pain C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve D. Edema of legs E. Dilated cervical veins 29. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical: A. *Troubling cough with foul-smelling sputum B. Abdominal pain C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve D. Edema of legs E. Dilated cervical veins 30. The fever to 39-40°С is typical for: A. *Lung abscess B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Lung cyst 31. The chest pain is typical for: A. *Lung abscess B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Lung cyst 32. The intoxication is typical for: A. *Lung abscess B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Lung cyst 33. The troubling cough with foul-smelling sputum is typical for: A. *Lung abscess B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Lung cyst 34. What is revealed in acute lung abscess by percussion? A. *Blunted sound B. Bandbox sound C. Tympanic sound D. Clear sound E. Pulmonary sound 35. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for: A. *Lung abscess B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pneumothorax E. Lung cyst 36. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for: A. *Pneumonia B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pneumothorax E. Lung cyst 37. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for: A. *Lung gangrene B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pneumothorax E. Lung cyst 38. What is revealed in the I stage of acute lung abscess by auscultation? A. *Bronchial breathing with moist rales B. Vesicular breathing C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales D. Harsh breathing with dry rales E. The breathing isn't auscultated 39. What is revealed in the II stage (after draining) of acute lung abscess by auscultation? A. *Amphoric breathing with moist rales B. Vesicular breathing C. Bronchial breathing with moist rales D. Harsh breathing with dry rales E. The breathing isn't auscultated 40. What is revealed in the I stage of acute lung abscess by X-ray? A. *Rounded shadow with irregular contour B. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level C. Expressed fibrosis D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath 41. What is revealed in the II stage (after draining) of acute lung abscess by X-ray? A. *Rounded cavity with air-fluid level B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour C. Expressed fibrosis D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath 42. What is revealed in the III stage of acute lung abscess by X-ray? A. *Expressed fibrosis B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath 43. What is revealed in lung gangrene by X-ray? A. *Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level D. Expressed fibrosis E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath 44. What is revealed in chronic lung abscess by X-ray? A. *One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level D. Expressed fibrosis E. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels 45. The rounded shadow with irregular contour on X-ray is typical for: A. *I stage of acute lung abscess B. II stage of acute lung abscess C. III stage of acute lung abscess D. Lung emphysema E. Lung cyst 46. The rounded cavity with air-fluid level on X-ray is typical for: A. *II stage of acute lung abscess B. I stage of acute lung abscess C. III stage of acute lung abscess D. Lung emphysema E. Lung cyst 47. The expressed fibrosis on X-ray is typical for: A. *III stage of acute lung abscess B. II stage of acute lung abscess C. I stage of acute lung abscess D. Lung emphysema E. Lung cyst 48. The intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities with sequesters and fluid levels on X-ray is typical for: A. *Lung gangrene B. III stage of acute lung abscess C. II stage of acute lung abscess D. Lung emphysema E. Lung cyst 49. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath on X-ray is typical for: A. *Chronic lung abscess B. Lung gangrene C. Acute lung abscess D. Lung emphysema E. Lung cyst 50. When the lung abscess is considered to be chronic? A. *In 6-8 weeks after the onset B. In 10 days after the onset C. In 3-4 weeks after the onset D. In 6-8 months after the onset E. In 1 year after the onset 51. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for acute lung abscess before draining? A. *Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact pulmonary tissue C. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications, excentric destruction and regular edge D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona maligna) E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis 52. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for lung cyst? A. *Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact pulmonary tissue B. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration C. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications, excentric destruction and regular edge D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona maligna) E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis 53. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tuberculoma? A. *Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact pulmonary tissue C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona maligna) E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis 54. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for peripheral lung cancer? A. *Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona maligna) B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact pulmonary tissue C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis 55. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tubercular cavern? A. *Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact pulmonary tissue C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge E. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona maligna) 56. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact pulmonary tissue on X-ray is typical for: A. *Lung cyst B. Tuberculoma C. Peripheral lung cancer D. Tubercular cavern E. Lung emphysema 57. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge on X-ray is typical for: A. *Tuberculoma B. Lung cyst C. Peripheral lung cancer D. Tubercular cavern E. Lung emphysema 58. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona maligna) on X-ray is typical for: A. *Peripheral lung cancer B. Tuberculoma C. Lung cyst D. Tubercular cavern E. Lung emphysema 59. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis on X-ray is typical for: A. *Tubercular cavern B. Peripheral lung cancer C. Tuberculoma D. Lung cyst E. Lung emphysema 60. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by prompt positive clinical, roentgenological and laboratory dynamics and recovery after the adequate treatment regards to the: A. *Favorable course B. Non-progressive course C. Progressing course D. Incapsulated process E. Complicated course 61. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by transforming of the process into the chronic form due to poor drainage of the suppurative focus and permanent purulent intoxication regards to the: A. *Non-progressive course B. Favorable course C. Progressing course D. Incapsulated process E. Complicated course 62. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by expansion of the zone of necrosis and destruction with transforming in gangrene regards to the: A. *Progressing course B. Non-progressive course C. Favorable course D. Incapsulated process E. Complicated course 63. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by the partial or complete obstruction of the draining bronchus combined with satisfactory resistance of the organism regards to the: A. *Incapsulated process B. Progressing course C. Non-progressive course D. Favorable course E. Complicated course 64. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by different kinds of complications regards to the: A. *Complicated course B. Incapsulated process C. Progressing course D. Non-progressive course E. Favorable course 65. What disease doesn't result in pulmonary bleeding? A. *Pleurisy B. Lung gangrene and abscess C. Lung cancer D. Tuberculosis E. Bronchiectatic disease 66. What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as I degree? A. *Less than 300 ml B. 300-500 ml C. 500-700 ml D. 700-1000 ml E. More than 1500 ml 67. What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as II degree? A. *500-700 ml B. 50-100 ml C. 100-300 ml D. 700-1000 ml E. More than 1500 ml 68. What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as III degree? A. *More than 700 ml B. 50-100 ml C. 100-300 ml D. 300-500 ml E. 500-700 ml 69. The pulmonary hemorrhage less than 300 ml is classified as: A. *I degree B. 0 degree C. II degree D. III degree E. IV degree 70. The pulmonary hemorrhage within 500-700 ml is classified as: A. *II degree B. I degree C. 0 degree D. III degree E. IV degree 71. The pulmonary hemorrhage more than 700 ml is classified as: A. *III degree B. II degree C. I degree D. 0 degree E. IV degree 72. The coughing out of the blooddy sputum without hemodynamic disturbances are characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding: A. *I degree B. III degree C. II degree D. 0 degree E. IV degree 73. The decrease of arterial pressure on 20-30 mm Hg is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding: A. *II degree B. I degree C. III degree D. 0 degree E. IV degree 74. The amount of hemoglobin within 60-80 g/l is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding: A. *II degree B. I degree C. III degree D. 0 degree E. IV degree 75. The tachycardia to 100 beats/min is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding: A. *II degree B. I degree C. III degree D. 0 degree E. IV degree 76. The decrease of arterial pressure to 40-60 mm Hg is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding: A. *III degree B. II degree C. I degree D. 0 degree E. IV degree 77. The rapid (more than 100-120 beats/min), small, thread pulse is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding: A. *III degree B. II degree C. I degree D. 0 degree E. IV degree 78. The amount of hemoglobin less than 50-60 g/l is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding: A. *III degree B. II degree C. I degree D. 0 degree E. IV degree 79. What is the main method of lung abscess sanation? A. *Microtracheostomy B. Transpleural C. Transesophageal D. Endovascular E. Thoracotomy 80. What is the main treatment of noncomplicated acute lung abscess? A. *Conservative treatment B. Segmentectomy C. Lobectomy D. Pneumonectomy E. Pleural puncture 81. What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics? A. *Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol B. Euphyllin, No-spa C. Vasaprostan, Alprostan D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant 82. What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics? A. *Tebris, Ciprinol B. Dimedrol, Suprastin C. Vasaprostan, Alprostan D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant 83. What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics? A. *Zanocin B. Naclofen C. Vasaprostan D. Nicotine acid E. Omeprasol 84. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding? A. *Aminocapronic acid B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol 85. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding? A. *Calcium chloridi B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol 86. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding? A. *Dicinon B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol 87. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding? A. *Vitamin K B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol 88. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding? A. *Benzohexonium B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol 89. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs? A. *Pulmonary bleeding of ІІ- ІІІ degree B. Decompensation of the vital organs C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs D. Incurable malignant tumours E. Pulmonary hypertension 90. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs? A. *Progression of the process despite appropriate therapy B. Decompensation of the vital organs C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs D. Incurable malignant tumours E. Pulmonary hypertension 91. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs? A. *Tense pyopneumothorax, which is failed to liquidate by the draining of pleural space B. Decompensation of the vital organs C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs D. Incurable malignant tumours E. Pulmonary hypertension 92. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs? A. *Impossibility to rule out the suspicion on a malignant tumour B. Decompensation of the vital organs C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs D. Incurable malignant tumours E. Pulmonary hypertension 93. What operation is performed in complicated acute lung abscess? A. *Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy B. Draining of a pleural space C. Transthoracic drainage of the abscess D. Bronchial plastics E. Transplantation of lungs 94. What is the main treatment of chronic lung abscess? A. *Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy B. Draining of a pleural space C. Transthoracic drainage of the abscess D. Transplantation of lungs E. Conservative treatment 95. The pneumonectomy is indicated for: A. *Chronic lung abscess B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Lung emphysema E. Pleural empyema 96. The pneumonectomy is indicated for: A. *Complicated lung abscess B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Lung emphysema E. Pleural empyema 97. The pneumonectomy is indicated for: A. *Lung gangrene B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Lung emphysema E. Pleural empyema 98. The pneumonectomy is indicated for: A. *Lung cancer B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Lung emphysema E. Pleural empyema 99. The pneumonectomy is indicated for: A. *Tuberculosis cavern B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Lung emphysema E. Pleural empyema 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. What is the cause of pleural empyema? A. *Destructive processes of lungs B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What is the cause of pleural empyema? A. *Abscesses of abdominal cavity B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What is the cause of pleural empyema? A. *Open and closed damages of chest B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What is the cause of pleural empyema? A. *Operative approaches on thoracic organs B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What sign is not typical for pleural empyema? A. *Hemoptysis B. Pain C. Dyspnea D. Cough E. Intoxication For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical: A. *Chest pain B. Vomiting C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia E. Dilated cervical veins For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical: A. *Dyspnea B. Vomiting C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia E. Dilated cervical veins For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical: A. *Cough with sputum B. Vomiting C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia E. Dilated cervical veins For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical: A. *Intoxication B. Vomiting C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia E. Dilated cervical veins 109. What is revealed in pleural empyema by percussion? A. *Blunted sound B. Clear sound C. Bandbox sound D. Metallic ringing E. Tympanic sound 110. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for: A. *Pleural empyema B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pneumothorax E. Lung cyst 111. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for: A. *Pleurisy B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pneumothorax E. Lung cyst 112. What is revealed in pleural empyema by auscultation? A. *The breathing isn't auscultated B. Vesicular breathing C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales E. Harsh breathing with dry rales 113. The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for: A. *Pleurisy B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Pneumonia 114. The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for: A. *Pleural empyema B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Pneumonia 115. What is revealed in wide-spread pleural empyema by X-ray? A. *Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour E. Lung atelectasis 116. What is the most informative in differential diagnostic of pleural empyema with pleuropneumonia? A. *Pleural puncture B. X-ray examination C. Auscultation D. Clinical manifestation E. Sputum analysis 117. What is the most informative in the diagnostic of pleural empyema? A. *Pleural puncture B. General blood analysis C. Auscultation D. Clinical manifestation 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. E. Sputum analysis The swelled soft tissues of supraclavicular region are typical for the: A. *Apical empyema B. Paracostal empyema C. Paramediastinal empyema D. Basal empyema E. Postoperative empyema The restricted thoracic excursion with severe chest pain are typical for the: A. *Paracostal empyema B. Apical empyema C. Paramediastinal empyema D. Basal empyema E. Postoperative empyema The heart pain is typical for the: A. *Paramediastinal empyema B. Paracostal empyema C. Apical empyema D. Basal empyema E. Postoperative empyema The pain in subcostal area, which increases at respiration is typical for the: A. *Paramediastinal empyema B. Paracostal empyema C. Apical empyema D. Basal empyema E. Postoperative empyema What is the typical method of treatment of focal empyema? A. *Pleural puncture B. Drainage of pleural space C. Thoracotomy D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy E. Conservative treatment What is the typical method of treatment of spread empyema? A. *Drainage of pleural space B. Pleural puncture C. Thoracotomy D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy E. Conservative treatment Where is the drainage of pleural space in spread empyema performed? A. *VII intercostal space, scapular line B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line C. II intercostal space, scapular line D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line What is the typical method of treatment of chronic empyema? A. *Pleurectomy, decortication of lung B. Drainage of pleural space C. Thoracotomy D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy E. Conservative treatment The pleurectomy is indicated for: A. *Chronic empyema B. Complicated lung abscess C. Pneumonia D. Pulmonary hypertension 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. E. Lung emphysema The decortication of lung is indicated for: A. *Chronic empyema B. Complicated lung abscess C. Pneumonia D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Lung emphysema What is the cause of pyopneumothorax? A. *Lung abscess B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What is the cause of pyopneumothorax? A. *Lung gangrene B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What is the cause of pyopneumothorax? A. *Suppurative cyst of lung B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What is the cause of pyopneumothorax? A. *Abscessing pneumonia B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What is the cause of pyopneumothorax? A. *Subphrenic abscess B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What is the cause of pyopneumothorax? A. *Chest trauma B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema What is the cause of pyopneumothorax? A. *Bronchiectatic disease B. Obstructive bronchitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchial asthma E. Pulmonary emphysema For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical: A. *Chest pain B. Vomiting C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. E. Dilated cervical veins For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical: A. *Dyspnea B. Vomiting C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia E. Dilated cervical veins For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical: A. *Cough with sputum B. Vomiting C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia E. Dilated cervical veins For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical: A. *Intoxication B. Vomiting C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia E. Dilated cervical veins For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical: A. *Hectic fever B. Vomiting C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia E. Dilated cervical veins What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by percussion? A. *Blunt sound over the exudate and bandbox sound over the region of collapsed lung B. Pulmonary sound C. Bandbox sound over the whole lung D. Blunted sound over the whole lung E. Metallic ringing What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by auscultation? A. *The breathing isn't auscultated B. Vesicular breathing C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales E. Harsh breathing with dry rales What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by X-ray? A. *Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour E. Lung atelectasis What is the typical method of treatment of restricted pyopneumothorax? A. *Pleural puncture B. Drainage of pleural space C. Thoracotomy D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy E. Conservative treatment What is the typical method of treatment of pyopneumothorax? A. *Drainage of pleural space B. Pleural puncture C. Thoracotomy D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. E. Conservative treatment Where is performed the drainage of pleural space in pyopneumothorax? A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line and VII intercostal space, scapular line simultaneously B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line C. II intercostal space, scapular line D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line E. VII intercostal space, scapular line What is the early complication of chest trauma? A. *Pneumothorax B. Posttraumatic pneumonia C. Posttraumatic pleurisy D. Lung abscess E. Pleural empyema What is the early complication of chest trauma? A. *Hemothorax B. Lung abscess C. Pleural empyema D. Posttraumatic pneumonia E. Posttraumatic pleurisy What is the early complication of chest trauma? A. *Traumatic shock B. Lung abscess C. Pleural empyema D. Posttraumatic pneumonia E. Posttraumatic pleurisy What is the late complication of chest trauma? A. *Pleural empyema B. Pneumothorax C. Hemothorax D. Mediastinal emphysema E. Traumatic shock, asphyxia What is the late complication of chest trauma? A. *Posttraumatic pneumonia B. Pneumothorax C. Hemothorax D. Mediastinal emphysema E. Traumatic shock, asphyxia What is the chief clinical manifestation of noncomplicated rib fracture? A. *Pain B. Dyspnea C. Hemoptysis D. Shock E. Vomiting What is revealed in noncomplicated rib fracture by auscultation? A. *Diminished vesicular breathing B. The breathing isn't auscultated C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales E. Harsh breathing with dry rales What kind of X-ray picture is typical for noncomplicated rib fracture? A. *Break in continuity of bone fragments of ribs B. Exudate in pleural space C. Collapse of the lung 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. D. Lung athelectasis E. Heterogeneous lung shadow with destruction What is the chief clinical manifestation of floating rib fracture? A. *Shock B. Pain C. Dyspnea D. Hemoptysis E. Vomiting What is the chief objective sign of floating rib fracture? A. *Paradoxical respiratory movements of chest B. Crepitation of ribs C. Hematoma of the chest wall D. Hemoptysis E. Subcutaneous emphysema What is revealed in floating rib fracture by auscultation? A. *Diminished vesicular breathing B. The breathing isn't auscultated C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales E. Harsh breathing with dry rales What kind of X-ray picture is typical for floating rib fracture? A. *Multiple rib fracture with deformity of the chest B. Lung emphysema C. Spheric shadow of the lung D. Lung athelectasis E. Heterogeneous lung shadow with destruction What is the typical treatment of noncomplicated rib fracture? A. *Novocaine block B. External fixation of ribs C. Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis; D. Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure E. Thoracotomy What is the first aid of floating rib fracture? A. *Fixation of floating segment B. Analgesics C. Spasmolytics D. Hemostatic drugs E. Antibiotics What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture? A. *Skeletal extraction B. Pleural puncture C. Pneumonectomy D. Resection of lung E. Decortication of lung What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture? A. *Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis B. Pleural puncture C. Pneumonectomy D. Resection of lung E. Decortication of lung What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture? A. *Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure B. Pleural puncture C. Pneumonectomy 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. D. Resection of lung E. Decortication of lung What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture? A. *Vagosympathetic block B. Paranephral block C. Spinal block D. Epidural anesthesia E. Lung root dlock What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture? A. *Alcohol - novocaine block of the site of fracture B. Paranephral block C. Spinal block D. Epidural anesthesia E. Lung root dlock What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture? A. *Paravertebral block B. Paranephral block C. Spinal block D. Epidural anesthesia E. Lung root dlock Partial pneumothorax means: A. *Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume B. No collapse of lung C. Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume D. Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume E. Total collapse of lung Subtotal pneumothorax means: A. *Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume B. No collapse of lung C. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume D. Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume E. Total collapse of lung Total pneumothorax means: A. *Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume B. No collapse of lung C. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume D. Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume E. Collapse of lung to 1/2 of its volume The collapse of lung in pneumothorax from 1/3 to 2/3 of its volume is called: A. *Subtotal pneumothorax B. Partial pneumothorax C. Total pneumothorax D. Bilateral pneumothorax E. Paradoxal pneumothorax The collapse of lung in pneumothorax less than 1/3 of its volume is called: A. *Partial pneumothorax B. Subtotal pneumothorax C. Total pneumothorax D. Bilateral pneumothorax E. Paradoxal pneumothorax The collapse of lung in pneumothorax more than 2/3 of its volume is called: A. *Total pneumothorax B. Partial pneumothorax C. Subtotal pneumothorax 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. D. Bilateral pneumothorax E. Paradoxal pneumothorax What is the most dangerous pneumothorax? A. *Valvular B. Subtotal closed C. Total closed D. Subtotal open E. Total open What is the chief clinical manifestation of pneumothorax? A. *Dyspnea B. Vomiting C. Hemoptysis D. Shock E. Heart failure What is the chief manifestation of valvular pneumothorax? A. *Shock B. Vomiting C. Melena D. Hemoptysis E. Heart failure What is the chief clinical manifestation of pneumothorax? A. *Chest pain B. Vomiting C. Hemoptysis D. Melena E. Heart failure What is revealed in pneumothorax by percussion? A. *Bandbox sound over the whole lung B. Pulmonary sound C. Blunted sound over the whole lung D. Metallic ringing E. Blunt sound over the region of collapsed lung The bandbox sound by percussion is typical for: A. *Pneumothorax B. Lung gangrene C. Pneumonia D. Pleural empyema E. Lung abscess What is revealed in pneumothorax by auscultation? A. *The breathing isn't auscultated B. Vesicular breathing C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales E. Harsh breathing with dry rales The absence of breathing sound by auscultation is typical for: A. *Pneumothorax B. Chronic bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Lung emphyzema E. Lung abscess What is revealed in pneumothorax by X-ray? A. *Lung collapse B. Lung atelectasis C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour The lung collapse by X-ray is typical for: A. *Pneumothorax B. Chronic bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Lung emphyzema E. Lung abscess The lung collapse by X-ray is typical for: A. *Pneumothorax B. Lung cancer C. Pneumonia D. Tuberculosis E. Lung empyema What is the treatment of partial pneumothorax? A. *Pleural puncture B. Pleural drainage C. Thoracotomy D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy E. Conservative treatment What is the treatment of subtotal and total pneumothorax? A. *Pleural drainage B. Pleural puncture C. Thoracotomy D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy E. Conservative treatment The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of: A. *Pneumothorax B. Chronic bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Lung emphyzema E. Lung abscess The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of: A. *Pyopneumothorax B. Chronic bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Lung emphyzema E. Lung abscess The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of: A. *Pleural empyema B. Chronic bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Lung emphyzema E. Lung abscess What is the first aid in closed pneumothorax? A. *It doesn't require first aid measures B. Pleural drainage C. Compression bandage with closure of the wound D. Artificial respiration E. Intubation What is the first aid in open pneumothorax? A. *Compression bandage with closure of the wound B. It doesn't require first aid measures C. Pleural drainage 190. 191. 192. of: 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. D. Artificial respiration E. Intubation What is the first aid in valvular pneumothorax? A. *Pleural drainage (to transform into open) B. It doesn't require first aid measures C. Compression bandage with closure of the wound D. Artificial respiration E. Intubation Where the drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is performed? A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line B. II intercostal space, scapular line C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line E. VII intercostal space, scapular line The pleural drainage in II intercostal space along midclavicular line is used for the treatment A. *Pneumothorax B. Pleural empyema C. Pneumonia D. Pleurisy E. Hemothorax The pleural drainage in VII intercostal space along scapular line is used for the treatment of: A. *Pleural empyema B. Pneumothorax C. Chronic bronchitis D. Pneumonia E. Lung emphyzema What is the indication for operative treatment of pneumothorax? A. *Valvular B. Subtotal closed C. Total closed D. Subtotal open E. Total open The small hemothorax means: A. *Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood B. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood C. Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood The moderate hemothorax means: A. *Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood B. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood C. Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood The great hemothorax means: A. *Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood B. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood C. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood The total hemothorax means: A. *Loss more than 40 % of volume of circulating blood B. Loss of 20-30 % of volume of circulating blood 199. 200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. C. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood D. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood E. Loss of 30-40 % of volume of circulating blood The bloodloss to 10 % of volume of circulating blood relates to: A. *Small hemothorax B. Moderate hemothorax C. Great hemothorax D. Total hemothorax E. Coagulated hemothorax The bloodloss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood relates to: A. *Moderate hemothorax B. Small hemothorax C. Great hemothorax D. Total hemothorax E. Coagulated hemothorax The bloodloss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood relates to: A. *Great hemothorax B. Moderate hemothorax C. Small hemothorax D. Total hemothorax E. Coagulated hemothorax The bloodloss more than 40 % of volume of circulating blood relates to: A. *Total hemothorax B. Moderate hemothorax C. Small hemothorax D. Great hemothorax E. Coagulated hemothorax What is the chief clinical manifestation of hemothorax? A. *Clinic of internal bleeding B. Pain C. Vomiting D. Hemoptysis E. Intoxication What is revealed in hemothorax by percussion? A. *Blunted sound B. Clear sound C. Bandbox sound D. Tympanic sound E. Metallic ringing The blunted sound by percussion is typical for: A. *Hemothorax B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pneumothorax E. Lung cyst The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for: A. *Hemothorax B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Lung abscess E. Pneumonia What is revealed in hemothorax by auscultation? A. *The breathing isn't auscultated B. Vesicular breathing 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales E. Harsh breathing with dry rales What is revealed in hemothorax by X-ray? A. *Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour B. Lung atelectasis C. Rounded shadow with irregular contour D. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in small hemothorax? A. *Shadow observed only in the region of sinus B. Up to scapular angle C. Up to ІІІ rib D. Complete shadow of a pleural space E. The shadow is absent Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in moderate hemothorax? A. *Up to scapular angle B. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus C. Up to ІІІ rib D. Complete shadow of a pleural space E. The shadow is absent Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in great hemothorax? A. *Up to ІІІ rib B. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus C. Up to scapular angle D. Complete shadow of a pleural space E. The shadow is absent Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in total hemothorax? A. *Complete shadow of a pleural space B. Up to scapular angle C. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus D. Up to ІІІ rib E. The shadow is absent The X-ray shadow in hemothorax observed only in the region of sinus relates to: A. *Small hemothorax B. Moderate hemothorax C. Great hemothorax D. Total hemothorax E. Coagulated hemothorax The X-ray shadow in hemothorax up to scapular angle relates to: A. *Moderate hemothorax B. Small hemothorax C. Great hemothorax D. Total hemothorax E. Coagulated hemothorax The X-ray shadow in hemothorax up to III rib relates to: A. *Great hemothorax B. Small hemothorax C. Moderate hemothorax D. Total hemothorax E. Coagulated hemothorax The complete X-ray shadow of a pleural space in hemothorax relates to: A. *Total hemothorax B. Small hemothorax 217. 218. 219. 220. 221. 222. 223. 224. 225. C. Moderate hemothorax D. Great hemothorax E. Coagulated hemothorax What method is the most informative in differential diagnostic of hemothorax with pleurisy? A. *Pleural puncture B. Clinical manifestation C. Sputum analysis D. Auscultation E. X-ray examination What method is the most informative in the diagnostic of hemothorax? A. *Pleural puncture B. General blood analysis C. Sputum analysis D. Auscultation E. X-ray examination What is the sign of continuity of pleural bleeding? A. *The property of pleural blood to form the clot B. Data of general blood analysis C. Data of biochemical blood analysis D. Data of coagulogram E. Clinical manifestation What test is used to determine the continuity of pleural bleeding? A. *Revilour-Greguar's test B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test C. Talman's test D. Mayo-Pratt's test E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) The Revilour-Greguar's test is used in the diagnostics of: A. *Pleural bleeding B. Lung abscess C. Pleural empyema D. Pneumothorax E. Deep vein thrombosis The property of pleural blood to form the clot is called: A. *Revilour-Greguar's test B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test C. Talman's test D. Mayo-Pratt's test E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) What sign shows that the pleural bleeding is stopped? A. *The pleural blood doesn't form the clot B. Data of general blood analysis C. Data of biochemical blood analysis D. Data of coagulogram E. Clinical manifestation What does the clotted hemothorax result in? A. *Pleural empyema B. Dyspnea C. Hemoptysis D. Obliteration of pleural space E. Cardiac tamponade What kind of hemothorax is treated by pleural aspiration? A. *Small B. Great 226. 227. 228. 229. 230. 231. 232. 233. 234. C. Total D. Clotted E. Continuing hemothorax What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax? A. *Aminocapronic acid B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax? A. *Calcium chloridi B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax? A. *Dicinon B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax? A. *Vitamin K B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol What pathology is the indication for operative treatment? A. *Great and total hemothorax B. Noncomplicated rib fracture C. Closed partial pneumothorax D. Closed total pneumothorax E. Subcutaneous emphysema What pathology is the indication for operative treatment? A. *Clotted hemothorax B. Noncomplicated rib fracture C. Subcutaneous emphysema D. Closed partial pneumothorax E. Closed total pneumothorax What pathology is the indication for operative treatment? A. *Continuing hemothorax B. Closed partial pneumothorax C. Closed total pneumothorax D. Noncomplicated rib fracture E. Subcutaneous emphysema What is the main cause of mediastinal emphysema? A. *Disruptions of trachea, bronchi B. Rib fracture C. Pneumothorax D. Hemothorax E. Mediastinal tumours What does the mediastinal emphysema result in? A. *Cardiac tamponade B. Hemoptysis 235. 236. 237. 238. 239. 240. 241. 242. 243. C. Pleural empyema D. Pneumothorax E. Lung atelectasis What is the treatment of mediastinal emphysema? A. *Drainage of anterior mediastinum B. Conservative treatment C. Drainage of pleural cavity D. Novocaine block E. Pericardial puncture Where is located the first anatomical narrowing of esophagus? A. *The site of pharyngoesophageal junction B. The site of crossing with left bronchus C. The site of crossing with aorta D. The site of passing through diaphragm E. The site of cardia Where is located the second anatomical narrowing of esophagus? A. *The site of crossing with left bronchus B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction C. The site of crossing with aorta D. The site of passing through diaphragm E. The site of cardia Where is located the third anatomical narrowing of esophagus? A. *The site of passing through diaphragm B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction C. The site of crossing with aorta D. The site of crossing with left bronchus E. The site of cardia Where is located the first physiological narrowing of esophagus? A. *The site of crossing with aorta B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction C. The site of crossing with left bronchus D. The site of passing through diaphragm E. The site of cardia Where is located the second physiological narrowing of esophagus? A. *The site of cardia B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction C. The site of crossing with aorta D. The site of crossing with left bronchus E. The site of passing through diaphragm The site of pharyngoesophageal junction is: A. *The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus B. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus The site of crossing with left bronchus is: A. *The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus The site of passing through diaphragm is: A. *The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus 244. 245. 246. 247. 248. 249. 250. 251. 252. C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus The site of crossing with aorta is: A. *The first physiological narrowing of esophagus B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus The site of cardia is: A. *The second physiological narrowing of esophagus B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus E. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus What is the mechanism of formation of pulsion diverticula? A. *Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing B. Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis What is the mechanism of formation of traction diverticula? A. *Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues B. Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis What sign is not typical for Zenker's diverticula? A. *Dyspnea B. Salivation C. Cervical dysphagia D. Difficult swallowing E. Cough Zenker's diverticulum is: A. *Pharyngoesophageal diverticulum B. Bifurcational diverticulum C. Epiphrenic diverticulum D. Paraaortal diverticulum E. Multiple diverticula What is the main objective manifestation of Zenker's diverticula? A. *Compressible mass on the left side of the neck B. Signs of achalasia C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia E. Lung atelectasis What can bifurcational diverticula result in? A. *Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia B. Signs of achalasia C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck E. Coarctation of aorta What is the main objective manifestation of epiphrenal diverticula? A. *Signs of achalasia B. Cyanosis of the upper part of body 253. 254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260. 261. C. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia E. Lung atelectasis For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical: A. *Salivation B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical: A. *Cervical dysphagia B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical: A. *Difficult swallowing B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical: A. *Compressible mass in the neck B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical: A. *Gurgling sound while eating B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical: A. *Foul-smell from the mouth B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical: A. *The sign "of a wet pillow" B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal diverticula? A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow B. Pleural punctere C. Ultrasound examination D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest E. Irrigoscopy What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal diverticula? A. *Esophagogastroduodenoscopy B. Pleural punctere 262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267. 268. 269. 270. C. Ultrasound examination D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest E. Irrigoscopy What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula? A. *Bleeding B. Obstructive jaundice C. Intestinal obstruction D. Myocardial infarction E. Lung atelectasis What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula? A. *Perforation into pleural space B. Myocardial infarction C. Pancreatitis D. Obstructive jaundice E. Intestinal obstruction What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula? A. *Diverticulitis B. Obstructive jaundice C. Intestinal obstruction D. Myocardial infarction E. Lung atelectasis What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula? A. *Malignancy B. Obstructive jaundice C. Intestinal obstruction D. Myocardial infarction E. Lung atelectasis What disease should be the diverticulitis differentiated from? A. *Angina pectoris B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What is the typical treatment of complicated Zenker's diverticula? A. *Surgical treatment B. Spasmolytics C. Analgetics D. Nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs E. Antibiotics What is the indication for conservative treatment of bifurcational diverticula? A. *Asymptomatic course B. Frequently recurrent diverticulites C. Perforation D. Esophago-bronchial fistula E. Suspicion on malignancy What operation is performed in esophageal diverticula? A. *Resection of diverticulum B. Esophagomyotomy C. Esophagogastric anastomosis D. Extirpation of esophagus E. Esophageal plastics by intestine What surgical access should be applied for Zenker's diverticula? A. *Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle B. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space 271. 272. 273. 274. 275. 276. 277. 278. 279. C. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space What surgical access should be applied for bifurcational diverticula? A. *Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space What surgical access should be applied for epiphrenal diverticula? A. *Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space D. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space What is the characteristic feature of achalasia of the cardia? A. *Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax B. Spasm of the lower esophageal sphincter C. Cicatrical changes after the burn D. Anorexia E. Esophageal gaping The failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax is called: A. *Achalasia B. Chalasia C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction What is the cause of achalasia? A. *Disturbance of innervation of esophagus B. Ischemia of esophagus C. Tumour growth of esophagus D. Diverticula of esophagus E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus What is the cause of achalasia? A. *Psycho-emotional trauma B. Ischemia of esophagus C. Tumour growth of esophagus D. Diverticula of esophagus E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus What is the cause of achalasia? A. *Influence of vegetotrophic substances on muscular fibers B. Ischemia of esophagus C. Tumour growth of esophagus D. Diverticula of esophagus E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus Who mostly suffer from achalasia? A. *Young women B. Young men C. Old men D. Old women E. Both old men and women What is the characteristic feature of the I stage of achalasia? A. *Functional spasm without esophageal dilation B. Asymptomatic C. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis D. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation. 280. What is the characteristic feature of the II stage of achalasia? A. *Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis B. Asymptomatic C. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation D. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation. 281. What is the characteristic feature of the III stage of achalasia? A. *Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent B. Asymptomatic C. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation D. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation. 282. What is the characteristic feature of the IV stage of achalasia? A. *Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation. B. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent C. Asymptomatic D. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation E. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis 283. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation relates to such stage of achalasia: A. *I B. II C. III D. IV E. V 284. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis relates to such stage of achalasia: A. *II B. I C. III D. IV E. V 285. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation with absent peristalsis relates to such stage of achalasia: A. *III B. I C. II D. IV E. V 286. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation relates to such stage of achalasia: A. *IV B. I C. II D. III E. V 287. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical: A. *Dysphagia B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" 288. 289. 290. 291. 292. 293. 294. 295. 296. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical: A. *Regurgitation B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical: A. *Splashing sounds and gurgling B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical: A. *Nocturnal cough B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical: A. *Pain and sense of tightness in the chest B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical: A. *Loss of weight B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" What does dysphagia mean? A. *Disturbances of swallowing B. Pain behind breastbone C. Absence of appetite D. Esophageal vomiting E. Vomiting with blood What is the I stage of dysphagia? A. *Disturbances of solid food passage B. Asymptomatic C. Disturbances of semisolid food passage D. Disturbances of liquid food passage E. No passage of food What is the II stage of dysphagia? A. *Disturbances of semisolid food passage B. Asymptomatic C. Disturbances of solid food passage D. Disturbances of liquid food passage E. No passage of food What is the III stage of dysphagia? A. *Disturbances of liquid food passage B. Asymptomatic C. Disturbances of solid food passage D. Disturbances of semisolid food passage E. No passage of food 297. 298. 299. 300. 301. 302. 303. 304. 305. What is the IV stage of dysphagia? A. *No passage of food B. Asymptomatic C. Disturbances of solid food passage D. Disturbances of semisolid food passage E. Disturbances of liquid food passage Disturbances of solid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia: A. *I B. II C. III D. IV E. V Disturbances of semisolid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia: A. *II B. I C. III D. IV E. V Disturbances of liquid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia: A. *III B. II C. I D. IV E. V No passage of any food relates to such stage of dysphagia: A. *IV B. III C. II D. I E. V What is the roentgenological sign of achalasia? A. *"Rat tail" sign B. Filling defects C. "Niche" sign D. "Bell" sign E. Blunt His angle What is the roentgenological sign of esophageal cancer? A. *Filling defects B. "Rat tail" sign C. "Bird-beak" sign D. "Bell" sign E. Blunt His angle "Rat tail" is the X-ray sign of: A. *Achalasia B. Esophageal cancer C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction "Bird-beak" is the X-ray sign of: A. *Achalasia B. Esophageal cancer C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction 306. 307. 308. 309. 310. 311. 312. 313. 314. What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal achalasia? A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow B. Pleural punctere C. Ultrasound examination D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest E. Irrigoscopy What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal achalasia? A. *Esophagogastroduodenoscopy B. Pleural punctere C. Ultrasound examination D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest E. Irrigoscopy What is the main treatment of the I stage of achalasia? A. *Diet, conservative treatment B. Cardiodilatation C. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation) D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation) E. Esophageal plastics by intestine What is the main treatment of the II stage of achalasia? A. *Cardiodilatation B. Diet, conservative treatment C. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation) D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation) E. Esophageal plastics by intestine What is the main treatment of the III stage of achalasia? A. *Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation) B. Diet, conservative treatment C. Cardiodilatation D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation) E. Esophageal plastics by intestine What is the main treatment of the IV stage of achalasia? A. *Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation) B. Diet, conservative treatment C. Cardiodilatation D. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation) E. Esophageal plastics by intestine Diet, conservative treatment is indicated for such stage of achalasia: A. *I B. II C. III D. IV E. V Cardiodilatation is indicated for such stage of achalasia: A. *II B. I C. III D. IV E. V Esophagomyotomy is indicated for such stage of achalasia: A. *III B. II C. I D. IV E. V 315. 316. 317. 318. 319. 320. 321. 322. 323. Heller's operation is indicated for such stage of achalasia: A. *III B. II C. I D. IV E. V Esophagogastroanastomosis is indicated for such stage of achalasia: A. *IV B. III C. II D. I E. V Helerovsky's operation is indicated for such stage of achalasia: A. *IV B. III C. II D. I E. V Helerovsky's operation is used for the treatment of: A. *Esophageal achalasia B. Esophageal ulcer C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction Esophagogastroanastomosis is used for the treatment of: A. *Esophageal achalasia B. Esophageal ulcer C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction Heller's operation is used for the treatment of: A. *Esophageal achalasia B. Esophageal cancer C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction Esophagogastroanastomosis is used for the treatment of: A. *Esophageal achalasia B. Esophageal ulcer C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction Esophagomyotomy is used for the treatment of: A. *Esophageal achalasia B. Esophageal cancer C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction Cardiodilatation is used for the treatment of: A. *Esophageal achalasia B. Esophageal cancer C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction 324. 325. 326. 327. 328. 329. 330. 331. 332. Heller's operation is: A. *Esophagomyotomy B. Resection of the stomach C. Cardiodilatation D. Esophagogastroanastomosis E. Esophageal plastics by intestine Helerovsky's operation is: A. *Esophagogastroanastomosis B. Esophagomyotomy C. Resection of the stomach D. Cardiodilatation E. Esophageal plastics by intestine Esophagogastroanastomosis is: A. *Helerovsky's operation B. Heller's operation C. Bilroth's operation D. Cocher's operation E. Lerishe's operation Esophagomyotomy is: A. *Heller's operation B. Helerovsky's operation C. Bilroth's operation D. Cocher's operation E. Lerishe's operation What is the most often cause of cicatrical esophageal stricture? A. *Chemical burns B. Thermal burns C. Radial burns D. Esophagitis E. Peptic ulcers What is the I stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns? A. *Stage of acute esophagitis B. Asymptomatic C. Stage of chronic esophagitis D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus E. Stage of late complications What is the II stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns? A. *Stage of chronic esophagitis B. Asymptomatic C. Stage of acute esophagitis D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus E. Stage of late complications What is the III stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns? A. *Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus B. Asymptomatic C. Stage of acute esophagitis D. Stage of chronic esophagitis E. Stage of late complications What is the IV stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns? A. *Stage of late complications B. Asymptomatic C. Stage of acute esophagitis D. Stage of chronic esophagitis E. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus 333. What is the I degree of esophageal burns? A. *Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus; B. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus; C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus; D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs. E. Asymptomatic 334. What is the II degree of esophageal burns? A. *The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus; B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus; C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus; D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs. E. Asymptomatic 335. What is the III degree of esophageal burns? A. *The burn damage of all layers of esophagus; B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus; C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus; D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs. E. Asymptomatic 336. What is the IV degree of esophageal burns? A. *The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs. B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus; C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus; D. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus; E. Asymptomatic 337. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus relates to such degree of esophageal burns: A. *I B. II C. III D. IV E. V 338. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus relates to such degree of esophageal burns: A. *II B. I C. III D. IV E. V 339. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus relates to such degree of esophageal burns: A. *III B. II C. I D. IV E. V 340. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs relates to such degree of esophageal burns: A. *IV B. III C. II D. I E. V 341. How long has been the risk of esophageal bleeding after the burn? A. *1-2 months B. 2-3 days 342. 343. 344. 345. 346. 347. 348. 349. 350. C. 10-20 days D. 1-2 years E. 2 years and more How long is formed the esophageal stricture after the burn? A. *1-2 years B. 2-3 days C. 10-20 days D. 1-2 months E. 2 years and more What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of mild degree? A. *Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis B. Filling defects without peristalsis C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis E. Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of moderate degree? A. *Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis B. Filling defects without peristalsis C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis E. Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis What is the main clinical manifestation of the esophageal burn of severe degree? A. *Clinic of shock B. Clinic of reflux-esophagitis C. Clinic of acute abdomen D. Clinic of hepatic insufficiency E. Clinic of respiratory insufficiency What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal stricture? A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow B. General blood analysis C. Ultrasound examination D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy What solution is used for washing out of acid esophageal burn? A. *Sodium hydrocarbonatis solution B. Antiseptic solution C. Antibiotic solution D. Glucose solution E. Vinegar solution What solution is used for washing out of alkaline esophageal burn? A. *Vinegar solution B. Antiseptic solution C. Antibiotic solution D. Glucose solution E. Sodium hydrocarbonatis solution What is the main prophylaxis of esophageal stricture after the chemical burn? A. *Esophageal bougienage B. Spasmolytics C. Parenteral feeding D. Pneumocompression E. Gastrostomy What complication is typical for esophageal burn? A. *Disturbances of epiglottic valve B. Esophageal diverticulum 351. 352. 353. 354. 355. 356. 357. 358. 359. C. Obstructive jaundice D. Intestinal obstruction E. Lerishe's syndrome What complication is typical for esophageal burn? A. *Pyloric stenosis B. Esophageal diverticulum C. Obstructive jaundice D. Intestinal obstruction E. Lerishe's syndrome What complication is typical for esophageal burn? A. *Esophageal sticture B. Esophageal diverticulum C. Obstructive jaundice D. Intestinal obstruction E. Lerishe's syndrome What complication is typical for esophageal burn? A. *Gastrointestinal bleeding B. Esophageal diverticulum C. Obstructive jaundice D. Intestinal obstruction E. Lerishe's syndrome What complication is typical for esophageal burn? A. *Mediastinitis B. Esophageal diverticulum C. Obstructive jaundice D. Intestinal obstruction E. Lerishe's syndrome What complication is typical for acute stage of esophageal burn? A. *Shock B. Esophageal diverticulum C. Obstructive jaundice D. Intestinal obstruction E. Lerishe's syndrome What complication is typical for acute stage of esophageal burn? A. *Renal insufficiency B. Esophageal diverticulum C. Obstructive jaundice D. Intestinal obstruction E. Lerishe's syndrome What kind of operation is performed for liquidation of esophageal stricture? A. *Esophageal plastic B. Esophagostomy C. Gastrostomy D. Resection of the esophagus E. Resection of the stomach What kind of esophageal plastic doesn't exist? A. *Retroperitoneal B. Subcutaneous C. Retrosternal D. Intrapleural E. Mediastinal What organ is used for esophageal plastic? A. *Large intestine B. Part of vein 360. 361. 362. 363. 364. 365. 366. 367. 368. C. Prosthetic graft D. Xsenotransplantat E. Lyophilized esophagus What is the predominant manifestations of sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Reflux-esophagitis B. Achalasia C. Dysphagia D. Cardiospasm E. Pylorostenosis What is the chief clinical manifestations of reflux-esophagitis? A. *Heartburn B. Achalasia C. Dysphagia D. Vomiting E. Coughing For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical: A. *Pain behind breastbone B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical: A. *Heartburn B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical: A. *Belching by air B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical: A. *Regurgitation B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical: A. *The sign of "lacing shoes" B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical: A. *Nausea and vomiting B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical: A. *Dysphagia B. Dyspnea 369. 370. 371. 372. 373. 374. 375. 376. 377. C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body D. Retention of stool and gases E. Vomiting by "coffee masses" What is the roentgenological sign of sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Blunt His angle B. Filling defects C. "Rat tail" sign D. "Bird-beak" sign E. Esophageal dilatation What is the roentgenological sign of sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Lack of air bubble of the stomach B. Esophageal dilatation C. Filling defects D. "Rat tail" sign E. "Bird-beak" sign What is the roentgenological sign of sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *"Bell" sign B. "Rat tail" sign C. Filling defects D. "Bird-beak" sign E. Esophageal dilatation "Bell"-sign is the X-ray sign of: A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia B. Achalasia C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction Lack of air bubble of the stomach is the X-ray sign of: A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia B. Achalasia C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction Blunt His angle is the X-ray sign of: A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia B. Achalasia C. Esophageal diverticulum D. Pilorostenosis E. Intestinal obstruction What is the typical clinic of paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Asymptomatic B. Achalasia C. Dysphagia D. Pylorostenosis E. Reflux-esophagitis What is the most often complication of paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Strangulation B. Bleeding C. Dysphagia D. Pylorostenosis E. Reflux-esophagitis What is the most often complication of sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Bleeding B. Strangulation 378. 379. 380. 381. 382. 383. 384. 385. 386. C. Dysphagia D. Pylorostenosis E. Reflux-esophagitis What is the most often complication of sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Peptic stricture of esophagus B. Strangulation C. Dysphagia D. Pylorostenosis E. Reflux-esophagitis What is the most often complication of sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Malignancy B. Strangulation C. Dysphagia D. Pylorostenosis E. Reflux-esophagitis What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion? A. *Blockers of proton pomp B. Spasmolytics C. Adrenoblockers D. Blockers of calcium channel E. Anticoagulants What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion? A. *H2-histamin blockers B. Spasmolytics C. Adrenoblockers D. Blockers of calcium channel E. Anticoagulants What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion? A. *Omeprasol, Nexium B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol C. Euphyllin, No-spa D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion? A. *Lansa, Ultop B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol C. Euphyllin, No-spa D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion? A. *Esomeprasol, Omez B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol C. Euphyllin, No-spa D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion? A. *Quamatel, Ranitidin B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol C. Euphyllin, No-spa D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant What drugs belong to blockers of proton pomp? A. *Esomeprasol, Omez B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol 387. 388. 389. 390. 391. 392. 393. 394. 395. C. Euphyllin, No-spa D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant What drugs belong to blockers of proton pomp? A. *Lansa, Ultop B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol C. Euphyllin, No-spa D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant What drugs belong to blockers of proton pomp? A. *Omeprasol, Nexium B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol C. Euphyllin, No-spa D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant What drugs belong to H2-histamin blockers? A. *Quamatel, Ranitidin B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol C. Euphyllin, No-spa D. Nicotine acid, Heparin E. Detrlex, Venoplant Quamatel, Ranitidin belong to: A. *H2-histamin blockers B. Blockers of proton pomp C. Adrenoblockers D. Blockers of calcium channel E. Anticoagulants Omeprasol, Nexium belong to: A. *Blockers of proton pomp B. H2-histamin blockers C. Adrenoblockers D. Blockers of calcium channel E. Anticoagulants Lansa, Ultop belong to: A. *Blockers of proton pomp B. H2-histamin blockers C. Adrenoblockers D. Blockers of calcium channel E. Anticoagulants What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from? A. *Angina pectoris B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from? A. *Peptic ulcer B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from? A. *Lung atelectasis B. Pancreatitis 396. 397. 398. 399. 400. 401. 402. 403. 404. C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from? A. *Pleurisy B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from? A. *Pneumonia B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from? A. *Hypochromic anemia B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What is the main treatment of sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Conservative treatment B. Esophagostomy C. Esophageal plastic D. Resection of the esophagus E. Resection of the stomach What is the main treatment of sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication B. Esophagostomy C. Esophageal plastic D. Resection of the esophagus E. Resection of the stomach What type of operation is used for paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Cruroplasty B. Esophagostomy C. Resection of the esophagus D. Resection of the stomach E. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication What type of operation is used for sliding diaphragmatic hernia? A. *Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication B. Esophagostomy C. Cruroplasty D. Resection of the esophagus E. Resection of the stomach Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication is used for the treatment of: A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia B. Esophageal achalasia C. Esophageal cancer D. Esophageal diverticulum E. Pilorostenosis Nissen's fundoplication is used for prevention of: A. *Reflux-esophagitis B. Intestinal obstruction 405. 406. 407. 408. 409. 410. 411. 412. 413. C. Esophageal cancer D. Esophageal diverticulum E. Pilorostenosis For prevention of reflux-esophagitis is used: A. *Nissen's fundoplication B. Helerovsky's operation C. Heller's operation D. Cocher's operation E. Lerishe's operation What is the roentgenological sign of diaphragmatic relaxation? A. *High standing of diaphragmatic dome B. Filling defect C. "Rat tail" sign D. Sign of "nishe" E. Pneumoperitoneum What is the X-ray sign of diaphragmatic relaxation? A. *Restriction of diaphragmatic excursion B. Filling defect C. "Rat tail" sign D. Sign of "nishe" E. Pneumoperitoneum What is the X-ray sign of diaphragmatic relaxation? A. *Inflection of abdominal part of esophagus B. Filling defect C. "Rat tail" sign D. Sign of "nishe" E. Pneumoperitoneum What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from? A. *Diaphragmatic elevation B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from? A. *Pneumothorax B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from? A. *Pyopneumothorax B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from? A. *Pleurisy B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from? A. *Diaphragmatic hernia B. Pancreatitis 414. 415. 416. 417. 418. 419. 420. 421. 422. C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from? A. *Esophageal cancer B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma What operation is performed for diaphragmatic relaxation? A. *Phrenoplasty B. Esophagomyotomy C. Cruroplasty D. Cruroplasty with Nissen’s fundoplication E. Esophageal plastics by intestine Phrenoplasty is used for the treatment of: A. *Diaphragmatic relaxation B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia C. Esophageal achalasia D. Esophageal diverticulum E. Pilorostenosis What is the cause of acute mediastinitis? A. *Perforation of esophagus B. Ischemia of esophagus C. Tumour growth of esophagus D. Diverticula of esophagus E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus What is the cause of acute mediastinitis? A. *Chemical burns of esophagus B. Ischemia of esophagus C. Tumour growth of esophagus D. Diverticula of esophagus E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus What is the cause of acute mediastinitis? A. *Injuries of trachea B. Ischemia of esophagus C. Tumour growth of esophagus D. Diverticula of esophagus E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus What is the cause of acute mediastinitis? A. *Injuries of bronchi B. Ischemia of esophagus C. Tumour growth of esophagus D. Diverticula of esophagus E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical: A. F. *Hectic temperature B. G. Vomiting C. H. Retention of stool and gases D. Portal hypertension E. J. Obstructive jaundice For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical: A. *Dyspnea B. Vomiting 423. 424. 425. 426. 427. 428. 429. 430. 431. C. Retention of stool and gases D. Portal hypertension E. Obstructive jaundice For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical: A. *Profuse sweating B. Vomiting C. Retention of stool and gases D. Portal hypertension E. Obstructive jaundice For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical: A. *Dysphagia B. Vomiting C. Retention of stool and gases D. Portal hypertension E. Obstructive jaundice For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical: A. *Constant cough B. Vomiting C. Retention of stool and gases D. Portal hypertension E. Obstructive jaundice For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical: A. *Hoarseness B. Vomiting C. Retention of stool and gases D. Portal hypertension E. Obstructive jaundice For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical: A. *Change of cardiac rhythm B. Vomiting C. Retention of stool and gases D. Portal hypertension E. Obstructive jaundice The fever to 39-40°С is typical for: A. *Acute mediastinitis B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia C. Esophageal achalasia D. Esophageal cancer E. Esophageal diverticulum The dyspnea is typical for: A. *Acute mediastinitis B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia C. Esophageal achalasia D. Esophageal cancer E. Esophageal diverticulum The chest pain is typical for: A. *Acute mediastinitis B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia C. Esophageal achalasia D. Esophageal cancer E. Esophageal diverticulum The severe intoxication is typical for: A. *Acute mediastinitis B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia 432. 433. 434. 435. 436. 437. 438. 439. 440. C. Esophageal achalasia D. Esophageal cancer E. Esophageal diverticulum The dysphagia is typical for: A. *Acute mediastinitis B. Bronchitis C. Lung emphysema D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Lung cyst What is the roentgenological sign of acute mediastinitis? A. *Widening of mediastinum, shadowing of its anterior B. Filling defect C. The sign of "bell" D. Lack of air bubble of the stomach E. High standing of diaphragmatic dome What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis? A. *Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region C. Intensifying of pain during vertebral pressing D. Intensifying of pain at swallowing E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis? A. *Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region C. Intensifying of pain at swallowing D. Swelling above clavicle E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis? A. *Signs of compression of superior vena cava B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region C. Intensifying of pain at swallowing D. Swelling above clavicle E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis? A. *Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis? A. *Intensifying of pain during vertebral pressing B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis? A. *Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava What disease should be the acute mediastinitis differentiated from? A. *Pyopneumothorax B. Diaphragmatic hernia C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Esophageal achalasia 441. What disease should be the acute mediastinitis differentiated from? A. *Acute pneumonia B. Diaphragmatic hernia C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Esophageal achalasia 442. What disease should be the acute mediastinitis differentiated from? A. *Pleural empyema B. Diaphragmatic hernia C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Esophageal achalasia 443. What disease should be the acute mediastinitis differentiated from? A. *Exsudative pericarditis B. Diaphragmatic hernia C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Esophageal achalasia 444. What operation is performed for acute mediastinitis? A. *Mediastinotomy B. Esophagomyotomy C. Thoracotomy D. Laparotomy E. Phrenoplasty 445. Mediastinotomy is used for the treatment of: A. *Acute mediastinitis B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia C. Esophageal achalasia D. Esophageal diverticulum E. Pilorostenosis 446. Which of the following statements about microalbuminuria is true? A. To be of clinical value, microalbuminuria must be measured in a time 12- to 24-hour B. *Microalbuminuria is a cardiovascular risk factor that is independent of traditional Framingham risk factors C. Microalbuminuria is a predictor of risk only in patients with diabetes D. Microalbuminuria is present when the “spot” urine albumin-to-creatinine ration is >500 mg/l E. All of the above statements are correct 447. All of the following are associated with hyperviscosity in the setting of Eisenmenger's syndrome exept: A. *Coronary artery ectasia B. Erythrocytosis C. Visual disturbances D. Paresthesias E. Thrombosis and bleeding 448. All of the following physical examination findings are usually associated with ostium Secondary exept: A. Precordial heave B. Fixed split S2 C. *Lateral and inferior displacement of the apex beat D. Soft systolic ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space E. Normal S1 All of the following statements regarding patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) are true exept: A. *The majority of cases close spontaneously after infancy B. There is a higher incidence in mothers who acquired rubella during pregnancy C. A decrease in the duration and intensity of the murmur has a poor prognostic implication D. Left ventricular hypertrophy precedes RV hypertrophy E. If it is uncorrected, approximately one third of patients die by the age of 40 years 450. Congenital MR is commonly encountered in all of the following conditions exept: A. *Cor triatriatum B. Ostium primum ASD C. Coarctation of the aorta D. Congenitally corrected TGA E. Subaortic stenosis 451. Coronary sinus ASD is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. Cleft mitral valve D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. *Left superior vena cava 452. Each of the following statements regarding splitting of the second heart sound is true exept: A. Severe pulmonic valvular stenosis is associated with a softened P2 B. Delayed closure of the pulmonic valve with inspiration contributes to physiologic splitting of S2 C. Fixed splitting of S2 is the auscultatory hallmark of an ostium Secondary atrial septal defect D. Paradoxical splitting of S2 is expected in patients with a right ventricular electronically paced rhythm E. *Right bundle branch block is associated with paradoxical splitting of S2 453. In which of the following cases is surgical correction recommended? A. Asymptomatic small VSD to decrease risk of endocarditis B. PDA with severe pulmonary hypertension C. *Asymptomatic subaortic stenosis with severe aortic valve insufficiency D. Coarctation of the aorta with a transcoarctation gradient of 20 mmHg item E. Small ASD to prevent paradoxical embolization 454. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings: wide pulse pressure, prominent LV impulse, and a continuous machinery murmur enveloping S2 A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. *Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 455. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: prominent central PAs (possible calcifications) and peripheral PA prunning? A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 456. Which lifestyle change has been shown to produce the biggest reduction in systolic blood pressure? A. *10-kg weight loss B. Dietary sodium reduction C. Moderation of alcohol consumption 449. D. Change to a vegetarian diet E. Magnesium supplement 457. Which of the following syndromes is associated with pumonary arterio-venous fistula? A. Williams syndrome B. *Weber-Osler-Rendu syndrome C. Bland-Garland-White syndrome D. Kartagener's syndrome E. Crouzon's syndrome 458. A 30-year-old man with Eisenmenger's syndrome and irreversible pulmonary hypertension caysed by untreated VSD is at risk for developing symptoms and signs of hyperviscosity. All of the following are associated with hyperviscosity syndrome exept A. *Coronary artery ectasia B. Erythrocytosis C. Visual disturbances D. Paresthesias E. Thrombosis and bleeding 459. A 34-year-old female with hypertension is considering becoming pregnant. Which of the following medications would be absolutely CONTRAINDICATED to control her BP during pregnancy? A. Methyldopa B. Metoprolol C. Labetalol D. *Captopril E. Nifidipine 460. A 48-year-old male with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presents to the ER with hypertensive emergency. His mean arterial pressure is 150 mmHg. Which medications would be most appropriate therapy for this patient? A. *Nitroprusside B. Enteral metoprolol C. Fenoldopam D. Intravenous nitroglycerine E. Any of the above 461. A young hypertensive patient has serum potassium 2.8 mEq/l and increased aldosterone level with decreased plasma renin activity. The diagnosis is: A. Renal artery stenosis B. Ectopic ACTH syndrome C. *Conn syndrome D. Liddle syndrome E. Cushing syndrome 462. All of the following are characteristic findings of ostium primum atrial septal defect (ASD) exept: A. Precordial heave B. Fixed split S2 C. *Right axis deviation D. Systolic ejection murmur E. Prominent pulmonary vascular markings on CXR 463. All of the following are indications for surgical closure of an ASD exept: A. Significant symptoms in a 65-year-old B. RV dysfunction C. *Pulmonary vascular resistance >15 D. An asymptomatic 20-year-old with a Qp/Qs of 1,7 with no pulmonary hypertension E. RV enlargement 464. All of the following are risk factors for hypertension, exept A. Increased body weight B. Family history of hypertension C. Excessive intake of sodium D. *Regular use of one glass of wine per month E. Cigarette smoking 465. All of the following characteristics are typical of hypertensive crisis exept: A. Diastolic BP >120 mmHg B. Retinal hemorrhages C. *Constriction of cerebral arterioles with decreased vascular permeability D. Proteinuria E. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia 466. ?All of the following findings are suggestive of LVH except: A. S in V1 + R in V5 or V6 > 35 mm B. R in aVL > 11 mm C. R in aVF > 20 mm D. R in I + S in III > 25 mm E. *R in aVR > 8 mm 467. All of the following findings are suggestive of RVH except: A. R in V1=7 mm (15 mm with RBBB) B. R in V1 + S in V5 or V6 > 10 mm C. R < S in V6 D. R or R’ in V1 E. *S in V3 + R in aVL > 28 mm (20 mm for women) 468. All of the following statements concerning hypertension are true, exept A. In a western adult population the prevalence of hypertension exceeds 20% B. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease C. The pathophysiology of hypertension differs in black adults compared to South Asians and Europeans D. *People of African descent commonly have a high renin type hypertension E. An increase in potassium intake may significantly reduce blood pressure in hypertensive patients 469. All of the following statements concerning target organ damage are true exept A. Microalbuminuria is a sensitive marker of hypertension-induced renal damage B. *An increase in serum creatinine when antihypertensive therapy is intensified is a sign of progressive renal deterioration C. Electrocardiography should be part of all routine assessment of subjects with high BP D. Echocardiography is much more sensitive than electrocardiography in diagnosing left ventricular hypertrophy E. Grades 1 and 2 arteriolar retinal changes do not have a significant prognostic value 470. All of the following statements regarding Ebstein's anomaly are true exept A. An ASD or PFO is present in up to 80% of patients B. The cardinal feature is an apically displaced tricuspid valve resulting in atrialization of ventricular tissue C. WPW syndrome is common in these patients and multiple tracts can exist D. *A bicuspid aortic valve is commonly present E. A "sail sound" is a common finding on physical examination 471. All of the following statements regarding the effects of maneuvers on the auscultation of cardiac murmurs are true exept: A. In patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), the diastolic phase of the murmur is intensified by isometric handgrip B. *The murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy becomes softer with standing or during a Valsalva strain maneuver C. The murmur of a ventricular septal defect (VSD) increases with isometric handgrip D. Sudden squatting or isometric handgrip increases the diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation E. The mid-diastolic and presystolic murmurs of mitral stenosis become louder with exercise 472. Bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis is indicated in all adults who have the following congenital heart disease exept: A. VSD B. Coarctation of the aorta C. *Secondary ASD D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy E. PDA 473. Besides pulmonary valve stenosis, which of the following is the most common associated cardiac defect present in patients with PA stenosis? A. *VSD B. ASD C. Coarctation of the aorta D. PDA E. Bicuspid aortic valve 474. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination fingings: wide pulse pressure, prominent LV impulse, and a continuous machinery murmur enveloping S2: A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. *Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 475. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination fingings: weak or delayed femoral pulses, harsh systolic murmur in the back, and a systolic ejection click in the aortic area A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. *Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 476. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination fingings: RV lift with a loud systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border, with a single S2 A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. *Tetralogy of Fallot 477. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination fingings: loud S1, holosystolic murmur in left sternal border, systolic ejection click, and hepatomegaly A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. *Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 478. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination fingings: cyanosis, digital clubbing, loud P2, and a variable Graham-Steel murmur A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot Choose the case in which surgical correction is recommended? A. Asymptomatic small VSD to decrease risk of endocarditis B. PDA with severe pulmonary hypertension C. *Asymptomatic subaortic stenosis with severe aortic valve insufficiency D. Coarctation of the aorta with a transcoarctation gradient of 20 mmHg E. Small ASD to prevent paradoxical embolization 480. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings: posterior rib notching and a "reverse E" or "3" sign A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. *Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 481. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings: pulmonary plethora, prominent ascending aorta, proximal PA dilatation, and opacity at the confluence of the aortic knob and descending aorta A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. *PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 482. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings: marked cardiomegaly, severe right atrial enlargement, and normal lung fields A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. *Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 483. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings: prominent central PAs (possible calcifications) and peripheral PA prunning? A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 484. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings: right aortic arch, RV enlargement, and a "boot-shaped" heart? A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. *Tetralogy of Fallot 485. Each of the following statements regarding the effects of maneuvers on the auscultation of cardiac murmurs is true exept: A. Ductus arteriosus (PDA), the diastolic phase of the murmur is intensified by isometric handgrip B. *The murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy becomes softer with standing or during a Valsalva strain maneuver C. The murmur of a ventricular septal defect (VSD) increases with isometric handgrip D. Sudden squatting or isometric handgrip increases the diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation E. The mid-diastolic and presystolic murmurs of mitral stenosis become louder with exercise 479. 486. If there is suspicion of phaeochromocytoma, the first line drug is: A. Sodium-nitroprusside B. Nifedipine C. *Phentolamine D. Verapamil E. Enalapril 487. In patients of African descent the drug of choice for initial treatment of hypertension is: A. Verapamil B. Atenolol C. Perindopril D. *Hydrochlorothiazide E. Amlodipine 488. In the elderly with systolic hypertension antihypertensive therapy should be initiated if SBP A. 120 mmHg B. 130 mmHg C. 140 mmHg D. *160 mmHg E. 170 mmHg 489. Infective endocarditis prophylaxis is indicated in all adults who have the following congenital heart disease exept: A. VSD B. Coarctation of the aorta C. *Secondary ASD D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy E. PDA 490. Noonan's syndrome is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. Cleft mitral valve D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. Persistent left superior vena cava 491. Of the following pairs, choose one which is incorrectly matched with the indication for therapy in hypertension? A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris D. Diuretics – heart failure E. *Loop diuretic – gout 492. Of the following syndromes, which one is associated with pumonary arterio-venous fistula? A. Williams syndrome B. *Weber-Osler-Rendu syndrome C. Bland-Garland-White syndrome D. Kartagener's syndrome E. Crouzon's syndrome 493. Optimal blood pressure (BP) is defined as a BP level of A. *120/80 mmHg B. 130/80 mmHg C. 140/90 mmHg D. 160/100 mmHg E. 125/80 mmHg 494. Ostium primum ASD is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. *Cleft mitral valve D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. Persistent left superior vena cava 495. Physicians should diagnose isolated office hypertension (so-called “white-coat hypertension”) whenever office BP is ?140/90 mmHg at several visits, while 24-h ambulatory BP is A. 160/100 mmHg B. 140/90 mmHg C. 130/85 mmHg D. *125/80 mmHg E. 120/70 mmHg 496. Renin-dependent hypertension includes: A. Primary hyperaldosteronism B. Essential hypertension C. *Renovascular hypertension D. Pheochromocytoma E. Cushing syndrome 497. Sinus venosus ASD is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. Cleft mitral valve D. *Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. Persistent left superior vena cava 498. Target organs in hypertension include all of the following exept A. Brain and eyes B. Heart C. Kidneys D. Peripheral arteries E. *Liver 499. Tetralogy of Fallot includes all of the following lesions exept A. A ventricular septal defect B. An overriding aorta C. *An atrial septal defect D. Right ventricular outflow obstruction E. Right ventricular hypertrophy 500. The best medication for the treatment of isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly: A. ACE-inhibitor and diuretic B. *Dihydropiridine calcium-channel blocker and diuretic C. Beta-blocker and diuretic D. Non-dihydropiridine calcium-channel blocker and diuretic E. Beta- and alpha blocker 501. The congenital mitral regurgitation is commonly encountered in all of the following conditions exept: A. *Cor triatriatum B. Ostium primum ASD C. Coarctation of the aorta D. Congenitally corrected TGA E. Subaortic stenosis 502. The coronary sinus ASD is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. Cleft mitral valve D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. *Persistent left superior vena cava 503. The following cardiovascular malformations are all associated with congenital rubella exept: A. PDA B. PA stenosis C. *Ebstein's anomaly D. Tetralogy of Fallot E. Coarctation of the aorta 504. The following drug combinations are effective to treat hypertension exept A. Diuretics + beta-blockers B. Beta-blockers + dihydropiridine calcium channel blockers C. Diuretics + ACE-inhibitors/ARB D. ACE-inhibitors/ARB + calcium channel blockers E. *Beta-blockers + ACE-inhibitors/ARB 505. The following medications can be used in pregnancy exept A. Methyldopa B. Labetalol C. *ACE-inhibitor / ARB D. Hydralazine E. Nifidipine 506. The following statements regarding patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) are true exept: A. *The majority of cases close spontaneously after infancy B. There is a higher incidence in mothers who acquired rubella during pregnancy C. A decrease in the duration and intensity of the murmur has a poor prognostic implication D. Left ventricular hypertrophy precedes RV hypertrophy E. If it is uncorrected, approximately one third of patients die by the age of 40 years 507. The Noonan's syndrome is commonly associated with: A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. Cleft mitral valve D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. Persistent left superior vena cava 508. The ostium primum ASD is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. *Cleft mitral valve D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. Persistent left superior vena cava 509. The ostium Secondary ASD is usually associated with the following physical examination findings exept: A. Precordial heave B. Fixed split S2 C. *Lateral and inferior displacement of the apex beat D. Soft systolic ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space E. Normal S1 510. The proportion of essential (primary) hypertension among all hypertension causes is as high as A. 25-30% B. 40-45% C. 60-65% D. 70-75% E. *90-95% 511. The sinus venosus ASD is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. Cleft mitral valve D. *Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. Persistent left superior vena cava The timing of an "innocent" murmur is usually: A. Early systolic B. Presystolic C. *Midsystolic D. Holosystolic E. Early diastolic 513. The Williams syndrome is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. Cleft mitral valve D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. Persistent left superior vena cava 514. Thiazide diuretics can contribute to each of the following metabolic effects exept: A. Hypomagnesemia B. *Hypouricemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypercholesterolemia E. Hyponatremia 515. What is the correct feature of the hypertensive urgency? A. It is always a life-threatening situation B. Patient must be hospitalized C. *Patients can be managed as outpatients D. Therapy should not be given orally E. None of the above 516. What is the most common coexisting congenital anomaly in patients with coarctation of the aorta? A. Cleft mitral valve B. *Bicuspid aortic valve C. Ebstein's anomaly D. VSD E. PDA 517. When present, each of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S2 exept: A. Opening snap B. Third heart sound C. *Ejection clic D. Tumor plop E. Pericardial knock 518. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings: cyanosis, digital clubbing, loud P2, and a variable Graham-Steel murmur A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 519. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings: RV lift with a loud systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border, with a single S2 A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. *Tetralogy of Fallot 520. Which BP profile below identifies the patient with the highest risk for development of cardiovascular complications? 512. A. 160/90 mmHg B. *160/65 mmHg C. 140/100 mmHg D. 130/90 mmHg E. 120/70 mmHg 521. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy? A. Surgically corrected transposition of great arteries (TGA) B. Congenitally corrected TGA C. Ebstein's anomaly D. *Eisenmenger's syndrome E. Status post Fontan operation 522. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: pulmonary plethora, prominent ascending aorta, proximal PA dilatation, and opacity at the confluence of the aortic knob and descending aorta A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. *PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 523. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: posterior rib notching and a "reverse E" or "3" sign A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. *Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 524. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: right aortic arch, RV enlargement, and a "boot-shaped" heart? A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. *Tetralogy of Fallot 525. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: marked cardiomegaly, severe right atrial enlargement, and normal lung fields A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. *Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 526. Which lifestyle change has been shown to produce the biggest reduction in systolic blood pressure? A. *10-kg weight loss B. Dietary sodium reduction C. Moderation of alcohol consumption D. Change to a vegetarian diet E. Magnesium supplement 527. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic findings of ostium primum atrial septal defect (ASD)? A. Precordial heave B. Fixed split S2 C. *Right axis deviation D. Systolic ejection murmur E. Prominent pulmonary vascular markings on CXR 528. Which of the adult congenital disorders corresponds to the following physical examination fingings: weak or delayed femoral pulses, harsh systolic murmur in the back, and a systolic ejection click in the aortic area A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. *Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 529. Which of the adult congenital disorders corresponds to the following physical examination fingings: loud S1, holosystolic murmur in left sternal border, systolic ejection click, and hepatomegaly A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. *Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 530. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication for therapy? A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris D. *Hydrochlorthiazide – diabetes mellitus E. Loop diuretic – heart failure 531. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication for therapy? A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris D. Diuretics – heart failure E. *Loop diuretic – gout 532. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication for therapy? A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris D. *Hydrochlorthiazide – diabetes mellitus E. Loop diuretic – heart failure 533. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is a known cause of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? A. Metoprolol B. *Methyldopa C. Captopril D. Losartan E. Monoxidine 534. Which of the following cardiovascular malformations is NOT associated with congenital rubella? A. PDA B. PA stenosis C. *Ebstein's anomaly D. Tetralogy of Fallot E. Coarctation of the aorta 535. Which of the following diagnostic studies is most likely to demonstrate the cause of the headaches? A. MRI of the head B. MRI of the kidney C. *MRI of the thorax D. 24-h urinary 5-HIAA E. 24-h urinary free cortisol 536. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy? A. Surgically corrected transposition of great arteries (TGA) B. Congenitally corrected TGA C. Ebstein's anomaly D. *Eisenmenger's syndrome E. Status post Fontan operation 537. Which of the following is NOT an indication for surgical closure of an ASD? A. Significant symptoms in a 65-year-old B. RV dysfunction C. *Pulmonary vascular resistance >15 Wood units that does not diminish with vasodilators D. An asymptomatic 20-year-old with a Qp/Qs of 1,7 with no pulmonary hypertension E. RV enlargement 538. Which of the following is the most common associated cardiac defect present in patients with pulmonary stenosis? A. *VSD B. ASD C. Coarctation of the aorta D. PDA E. Bicuspid aortic valve 539. Which of the following pairs of medical conditions and antihypertensive medications would be incorrect to use in a patient with essential hypertension? A. Beta-blocker and a history of myocardial infarction B. Alpha-blocker and prostatic hypertrophy C. *Thiazide diuretic and gout D. Amlodipine and heart failure E. ACE-inhibitor and diabetes mellitus 540. Which of the following pairs of medical conditions and antihypertensive medications would be incorrect to use in a patient with essential hypertension? A. Beta-blocker and a history of myocardial infarction B. Alpha-blocker and prostatic hypertrophy C. *Thiazide diuretic and gout D. Amlodipine and heart failure E. ACE-inhibitor and diabetes mellitus 541. Which of the following statements regarding antihypertensive agents and atrial fibrillation (AF) is true? A. *Losartan has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than atenolol B. Valsartan has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than amlodipine C. Atenolol has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than captopril D. Nifedipine has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than diltiazem E. All of the above are false 542. Which of the following statements regarding Ebstein's anomaly is NOT correct? A. An ASD or PFO is present in up to 80% of patients B. The cardinal feature is an apically displaced tricuspid valve resulting in atrialization of ventricular tissue C. WPW syndrome is common in these patients and multiple tracts can exist D. *A bicuspid aortic valve is commonly present E. A "sail sound" is a common finding on physical examination 543. Which of the following statements regarding prevention of stroke is correct? A. Treatment of systolic hypertension does not decrease the risk of stroke in patients older than age 60 B. Hypertension should not be a target of secondary prevention after an ischemic stroke because elevated BP is desirable to maintain adequate cerebral perfusion C. *Treatment with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors reduces the risk of recurrent stroke D. The combination of aspirin and clopidogrel is superior to aspirin alone for prevention of recurrent stroke E. None of the above 544. Which of the following syndromes and cardiac anomalies are incorrectly matched? A. Trisomy 21 – atrioventricular canal defects B. Noonan syndrome – pulmonic stenosis C. Holt-Oram syndrome – atrial septal defects D. Marfan syndrome – mitral valve prolapse E. *Williams syndrome – ventricular septal defects 545. Which of these statements is true regarding renin-angiotensin system-blocking agents? A. Less effective when combined with a diuretic than when used alone B. More effective in patients of African descent than in white patients C. *Preserve kidney function in addition to lowering blood pressure D. Are the first-line antihypertensive medications in pregnancy E. All of the above 546. Which of these statements is true regarding renin-angiotensin system-blocking agents? A. Less effective when combined with a diuretic than when used alone B. More effective in patients of African descent than in white patients C. *Preserve kidney function in addition to lowering blood pressure D. Are the first-line antihypertensive medications in pregnancy E. All of the above 547. Which parameter of arterial blood pressure (BP) yields the best prognostic information in patients at risk for cardiovascular disease? A. Systolic BP B. Diastolic BP C. Mean arterial BP D. *Pulse pressure E. None 548. Williams syndrome is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. Cleft mitral valve D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. Persistent left superior vena cava 549. Thiazide diuretics can contribute to each of the following metabolic effects exept: A. Hypomagnesemia B. *Hypouricemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypercholesterolemia E. Hyponatremia 550. What is the correct feature of the hypertensive urgency? A. It is always a life-threatening situation B. Patient must be hospitalized C. *Patients can be managed as outpatients D. Therapy should not be given orally E. None of the above 551. What is the most common coexisting congenital anomaly in patients with coarctation of the aorta? A. Cleft mitral valve B. *Bicuspid aortic valve C. Ebstein's anomaly D. VSD E. PDA 552. When present, each of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S2 exept: A. Opening snap B. Third heart sound C. *Ejection clic D. Tumor plop E. Pericardial knock 553. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings: cyanosis, digital clubbing, loud P2, and a variable Graham-Steel murmur A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 554. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings: RV lift with a loud systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border, with a single S2 A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. *Tetralogy of Fallot 555. Which BP profile below identifies the patient with the highest risk for development of cardiovascular complications? A. 160/90 mmHg B. *160/65 mmHg C. 140/100 mmHg D. 130/90 mmHg E. 120/70 mmHg 556. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy? A. Surgically corrected transposition of great arteries (TGA) B. Congenitally corrected TGA C. Ebstein's anomaly D. *Eisenmenger's syndrome E. Status post Fontan operation 557. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: pulmonary plethora, prominent ascending aorta, proximal PA dilatation, and opacity at the confluence of the aortic knob and descending aorta A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. *PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 558. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: posterior rib notching and a "reverse E" or "3" sign A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. *Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 559. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: right aortic arch, RV enlargement, and a "boot-shaped" heart? A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. *Tetralogy of Fallot 560. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: marked cardiomegaly, severe right atrial enlargement, and normal lung fields A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. *Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 561. Which lifestyle change has been shown to produce the biggest reduction in systolic blood pressure? A. *10-kg weight loss B. Dietary sodium reduction C. Moderation of alcohol consumption D. Change to a vegetarian diet E. Magnesium supplement 562. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic findings of ostium primum atrial septal defect (ASD)? A. Precordial heave B. Fixed split S2 C. *Right axis deviation D. Systolic ejection murmur E. Prominent pulmonary vascular markings on CXR 563. Which of the adult congenital disorders corresponds to the following physical examination fingings: weak or delayed femoral pulses, harsh systolic murmur in the back, and a systolic ejection click in the aortic area A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. *Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 564. Which of the adult congenital disorders corresponds to the following physical examination fingings: loud S1, holosystolic murmur in left sternal border, systolic ejection click, and hepatomegaly A. Eisenmenger's syndrome B. Coarctation of the aorta C. PDA D. *Ebstein's anomaly E. Tetralogy of Fallot 565. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication for therapy? A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris D. *Hydrochlorthiazide – diabetes mellitus E. Loop diuretic – heart failure 566. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication for therapy? A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris D. Diuretics – heart failure E. *Loop diuretic – gout 567. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication for therapy? A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris D. *Hydrochlorthiazide – diabetes mellitus E. Loop diuretic – heart failure 568. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is a known cause of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? A. Metoprolol B. *Methyldopa C. Captopril D. Losartan E. Monoxidine 569. Which of the following cardiovascular malformations is NOT associated with congenital rubella? A. PDA B. PA stenosis C. *Ebstein's anomaly D. Tetralogy of Fallot E. Coarctation of the aorta 570. Which of the following diagnostic studies is most likely to demonstrate the cause of the headaches? A. MRI of the head B. MRI of the kidney C. *MRI of the thorax D. 24-h urinary 5-HIAA E. 24-h urinary free cortisol 571. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy? A. Surgically corrected transposition of great arteries (TGA) B. Congenitally corrected TGA C. Ebstein's anomaly D. *Eisenmenger's syndrome E. Status post Fontan operation 572. Which of the following is NOT an indication for surgical closure of an ASD? A. Significant symptoms in a 65-year-old B. RV dysfunction C. *Pulmonary vascular resistance >15 Wood units that does not diminish with vasodilators D. An asymptomatic 20-year-old with a Qp/Qs of 1,7 with no pulmonary hypertension E. RV enlargement 573. Which of the following is the most common associated cardiac defect present in patients with pulmonary stenosis? A. *VSD B. ASD C. Coarctation of the aorta D. PDA E. Bicuspid aortic valve 574. Which of the following pairs of medical conditions and antihypertensive medications would be incorrect to use in a patient with essential hypertension? A. Beta-blocker and a history of myocardial infarction B. Alpha-blocker and prostatic hypertrophy C. *Thiazide diuretic and gout D. Amlodipine and heart failure E. ACE-inhibitor and diabetes mellitus 575. Which of the following pairs of medical conditions and antihypertensive medications would be incorrect to use in a patient with essential hypertension? A. Beta-blocker and a history of myocardial infarction B. Alpha-blocker and prostatic hypertrophy C. *Thiazide diuretic and gout D. Amlodipine and heart failure E. ACE-inhibitor and diabetes mellitus 576. Which of the following statements regarding antihypertensive agents and atrial fibrillation (AF) is true? A. *Losartan has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than atenolol B. Valsartan has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than amlodipine C. Atenolol has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than captopril D. Nifedipine has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than diltiazem E. All of the above are false 577. Which of the following statements regarding Ebstein's anomaly is NOT correct? A. An ASD or PFO is present in up to 80% of patients B. The cardinal feature is an apically displaced tricuspid valve resulting in atrialization of ventricular tissue C. WPW syndrome is common in these patients and multiple tracts can exist D. *A bicuspid aortic valve is commonly present E. A "sail sound" is a common finding on physical examination 578. Which of the following statements regarding prevention of stroke is correct? A. Treatment of systolic hypertension does not decrease the risk of stroke in patients older than age 60 B. Hypertension should not be a target of secondary prevention after an ischemic stroke because elevated BP is desirable to maintain adequate cerebral perfusion C. *Treatment with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors reduces the risk of recurrent stroke D. The combination of aspirin and clopidogrel is superior to aspirin alone for prevention of recurrent stroke E. None of the above 579. Which of the following syndromes and cardiac anomalies are incorrectly matched? A. Trisomy 21 – atrioventricular canal defects B. Noonan syndrome – pulmonic stenosis C. Holt-Oram syndrome – atrial septal defects D. Marfan syndrome – mitral valve prolapse E. *Williams syndrome – ventricular septal defects 580. Which of these statements is true regarding renin-angiotensin system-blocking agents? A. Less effective when combined with a diuretic than when used alone B. More effective in patients of African descent than in white patients C. *Preserve kidney function in addition to lowering blood pressure D. Are the first-line antihypertensive medications in pregnancy E. All of the above 581. Which of these statements is true regarding renin-angiotensin system-blocking agents? A. Less effective when combined with a diuretic than when used alone B. More effective in patients of African descent than in white patients C. *Preserve kidney function in addition to lowering blood pressure D. Are the first-line antihypertensive medications in pregnancy E. All of the above 582. Which parameter of arterial blood pressure (BP) yields the best prognostic information in patients at risk for cardiovascular disease? A. Systolic BP B. Diastolic BP C. Mean arterial BP D. *Pulse pressure 583. 584. 585. 586. 587. 588. 589. 590. 591. E. None Williams syndrome is commonly associated with... A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis C. Cleft mitral valve D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage E. Persistent left superior vena cava One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Idiopathic degenerative fibrotic infiltration B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Amyloidosis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Arteritis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Cardiomyopathies B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Collagen vascular disease B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Diphtheria B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Familial sinoatrial node disorders B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Fatty replacement B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia 592. 593. 594. 595. 596. 597. 598. 599. 600. E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Friedreich's ataxia B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Hemochromatosis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Myocardial infarction B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Muscular dystrophy B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Myocarditis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Pericarditis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Rheumatic fever B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Sarcoidosis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Hyperkalemia B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia 601. 602. 603. 604. 605. 606. 607. 608. 609. E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Digitalis intake B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Calcium channel blockers intake B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Beta blockers intake B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Sympatholytic agents intake B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Antiarrhythmics intake B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is: A. *Sinoatrial nodal artery deficiency intake B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Dementia B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Lethargy B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Nocturnal wakefulness B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region 610. 611. 612. 613. 614. 615. 616. 617. 618. E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Lightheadedness B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Syncope or pre-syncope B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Angina pectoris B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Arterial thromboemboli B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Cerebrovascular accident B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Congestive heart failure B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Dementia B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Palpitations B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical: A. *Dizziness B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region 619. 620. 621. 622. 623. 624. 625. 626. 627. E. Profuse vomiting What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Profuse vomiting B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Regurgitation B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Melena B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Defans of abdominal wall B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Wooden abdomen B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Pneumoperitoneum B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Vomiting by bile B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Exophthalmus B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Pain in epigastric region B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure 628. 629. 630. 631. 632. 633. 634. 635. 636. E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Pain in right iliac region B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Retention of stool and gases B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Dysphagia B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Intermittent claudication B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Leriche's syndrome B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Trophic ulcers on foot B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Toes gangrene B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Muscular contracture of limbs B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Cough with blood sputum B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure 637. 638. 639. 640. 641. 642. 643. 644. 645. E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Signs of hypothyroidism B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Signs of hyperthyroidism B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome: A. *Upper lid lag when the patient looks downward B. Nocturnal wakefulness C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Congestive heart failure E. Palpitations To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs: A. *Sinus bradycardia B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Atrial flutter D. Atrial fibrillation E. Atrial tachycardia To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs: A. *Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Atrial flutter D. Atrial fibrillation E. Atrial tachycardia To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs: A. *Sinoatrial exit block B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Atrial flutter D. Atrial fibrillation E. Atrial tachycardia To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs: A. *Ectopic atrial bradycardia B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Atrial flutter D. Atrial fibrillation E. Atrial tachycardia To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs: A. *Atrial fibrillation with slow ventricular response B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Atrial flutter D. Atrial fibrillation E. Atrial tachycardia To supraventricular tachyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs: A. *Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape D. Sinoatrial exit block E. Ectopic atrial bradycardia To supraventricular tachyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs: A. *Atrial flutter B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape D. Sinoatrial exit block E. Ectopic atrial bradycardia 647. To supraventricular tachyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs: A. *Atrial fibrillation B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape D. Sinoatrial exit block E. Ectopic atrial bradycardia 648. To supraventricular tachyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs: A. *Atrial tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape D. Sinoatrial exit block E. Ectopic atrial bradycardia 649. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent sinus pauses that produce symptoms belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 650. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy, with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *IIa B. I C. IIb D. III E. IV 651. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than 30 bpm while awake belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *IIb B. IIa C. I D. III E. IV 652. Sick sinus syndrome in asymptomatic patients, including those in whom substantial sinus bradycardia (heart rate less than 40 bpm) is a consequence of long-term drug treatment belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *III B. IIb C. IIa D. I E. IV 653. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug therapy belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *III B. IIb C. IIa 646. D. I E. IV 654. Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are clearly documented as not associated with a slow heart rate belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *III B. IIb C. IIa D. I E. IV 655. To the class I as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus syndrome belong: A. *Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent sinus pauses that produce symptoms B. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy, with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented C. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than 30 bpm while awake D. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug therapy E. Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are clearly documented as not associated with a slow heart rate 656. To the class IIa as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus syndrome belong: A. *Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy, with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented B. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent sinus pauses that produce symptoms C. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than 30 bpm while awake D. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug therapy E. Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are clearly documented as not associated with a slow heart rate 657. To the class IIb as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus syndrome belong: A. *Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than 30 bpm while awake B. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent sinus pauses that produce symptoms C. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy, with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented D. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug therapy E. Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are clearly documented as not associated with a slow heart rate 658. To the class III as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus syndrome belong: A. *Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug therapy B. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent sinus pauses that produce symptoms C. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy, with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented D. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than 30 bpm while awake E. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic tachycardia 659. To the class III as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus syndrome belong: A. *Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are clearly documented as not associated with a slow heart rate B. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than 30 bpm while awake C. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent sinus pauses that produce symptoms D. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy, with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented E. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic tachycardia 660. To the class III as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus syndrome belong: A. *Sick sinus syndrome in asymptomatic patients, including those in whom substantial sinus bradycardia (heart rate less than 40 bpm) is a consequence of long-term drug treatment B. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than 30 bpm while awake C. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent sinus pauses that produce symptoms D. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy, with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented E. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic tachycardia 661. One of the causes of AV-block of the I degree is: A. *Professional sport B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease 662. One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Myocardial infarction B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease 663. One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Angina pectoris B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease 664. One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Viral myocarditis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease 665. One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Rheumatic fever B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease 666. One of the causes of AV-block is: 667. 668. 669. 670. 671. 672. 673. 674. 675. A. *Infectious mononucleosis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Sarcoidosis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Amyloidosis B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Malignant tumours B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Beta blockers intake B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Calcium channel blockers intake B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Digitalis intake B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Leva's disease B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease One of the causes of AV-block is: A. *Lenegra's disease B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Parkinson's disease Leva's disease is: 676. 677. 678. 679. 680. 681. 682. A. *Idiopathic heart stroma sclerosis B. Idiopathic conducting system sclerosis C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Sarcoidosis Lenegra's disease is: A. *Idiopathic conducting system sclerosis B. Idiopathic heart stroma sclerosis C. Aortic aneurysm D. Cardiac achalasia E. Sarcoidosis Idiopathic conducting system sclerosis is: A. *Lenegra's disease B. Leva's disease C. Parkinson's disease D. Mobitz disease E. Wenckebach disease First-degree AV block is characterized by: A. *Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s B. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers Mobitz I second-degree AV block is characterized by: A. *Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause B. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers Wenckebach block is characterized by: A. *Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause B. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers Mobitz II second-degree AV block is characterized by: A. *Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles B. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause C. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers Third-degree AV block is characterized by: A. *No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles B. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles C. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause D. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers 683. AV dissociation is characterized by: A. *Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers B. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles D. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause E. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s 684. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s is: A. *First-degree AV block B. Mobitz I second-degree AV block C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block D. Third-degree AV block E. AV dissociation 685. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause is: A. *Mobitz I second-degree AV block B. First-degree AV block C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block D. Third-degree AV block E. AV dissociation 686. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause is: A. *Wenckebach AV block B. First-degree AV block C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block D. Third-degree AV block E. AV dissociation 687. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles is: A. *Mobitz II second-degree AV block B. Mobitz I second-degree AV block C. First-degree AV block D. Third-degree AV block E. AV dissociation 688. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles is: A. *Third-degree AV block B. Mobitz II second-degree AV block C. Mobitz I second-degree AV block D. First-degree AV block E. AV dissociation 689. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers is: A. *AV dissociation B. Third-degree AV block 690. 691. 692. 693. 694. 695. 696. 697. 698. C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block D. Mobitz I second-degree AV block E. First-degree AV block First-degree AV block is characterized by: A. *Slowed AV conduction B. Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles C. Complete failure of AV conduction D. Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles E. Paroxysmal tachycardia Second-degree AV block is characterized by: A. *Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles B. Slowed AV conduction C. Complete failure of AV conduction D. Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles E. Paroxysmal tachycardia Third-degree AV block is characterized by: A. *Complete failure of AV conduction B. Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles C. Slowed AV conduction D. Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles E. Paroxysmal tachycardia AV dissociation is characterized by: A. *Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles B. Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles C. Slowed AV conduction D. Complete failure of AV conduction E. Paroxysmal tachycardia Slowed AV conduction is typical for: A. *First-degree AV block B. Second-degree AV block C. Third-degree AV block D. AV dissociation E. Paroxysmal tachycardia Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles is typical for: A. *Second-degree AV block B. First-degree AV block C. Third-degree AV block D. AV dissociation E. Paroxysmal tachycardia Complete failure of AV conduction is typical for: A. *Third-degree AV block B. First-degree AV block C. Second-degree AV block D. AV dissociation E. Paroxysmal tachycardia Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles is typical for: A. *AV dissociation B. Third-degree AV block C. First-degree AV block D. Second-degree AV block E. Paroxysmal tachycardia No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles is: A. *Third-degree AV block B. Mobitz II second-degree AV block 699. 700. 701. 702. 703. 704. C. Mobitz I second-degree AV block D. First-degree AV block E. AV dissociation ECG changes of the first-degree AV block are characterized by: A. *Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s B. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers ECG changes of the Mobitz I second-degree AV block are characterized by: A. *Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause B. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers ECG changes of the Mobitz II second-degree AV block are characterized by: A. *Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles B. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause C. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers ECG changes of the third-degree AV block are characterized by: A. *No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles B. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles C. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause D. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers ECG changes of the AV dissociation are characterized by: A. *Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers B. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles D. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause E. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s Prolongation of the PR interval more than 0.20 s is the ECG sign of: A. *First-degree AV block B. Mobitz I second-degree AV block C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block D. Third-degree AV block E. AV dissociation 705. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single nonconducted P wave that results in a pause is the ECG sign of: A. *Mobitz I second-degree AV block B. First-degree AV block C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block D. Third-degree AV block E. AV dissociation 706. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles is the ECG sign of: A. *Mobitz II second-degree AV block B. Mobitz I second-degree AV block C. First-degree AV block D. Third-degree AV block E. AV dissociation 707. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles is the ECG sign of: A. *Third-degree AV block B. Mobitz II second-degree AV block C. Mobitz I second-degree AV block D. First-degree AV block E. AV dissociation 708. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers is the ECG sign of: A. *AV dissociation B. Third-degree AV block C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block D. Mobitz I second-degree AV block E. First-degree AV block 709. For the clinical manifestation of third-degree AV block is typical: A. *Dizziness B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting 710. For the clinical manifestation of third-degree AV block is typical: A. *Lightheadedness B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting 711. For the clinical manifestation of third-degree AV block is typical: A. *Syncope or pre-syncope B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting 712. For the clinical manifestation of third-degree AV block is typical: A. *Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome B. Exophthalmus C. Weight loss D. Pain in the epigastric region E. Profuse vomiting 713. For the clinical manifestation of first-degree AV block is typical: A. *Asymptomatic course B. Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Lightheadedness E. Dizziness 714. For the clinical manifestation of second-degree AV block is typical: A. *Asymptomatic course B. Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome C. Syncope or pre-syncope D. Lightheadedness E. Dizziness 715. Syncope or pre-syncope syndrome in AV block is called: A. *Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome B. Leriche's syndrome C. Mobitz syndrome D. Wenckebach syndrome E. Leva's disease 716. Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome is A. *Syncope or pre-syncope syndrome in AV block B. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the ventricles D. Lightheadedness in AV block E. Association of AV block with myocardial infarction 717. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with bradycardia and symptoms presumed to be due to AV block belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 718. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with arrhythmias and other medical conditions that require drugs that result in symptomatic bradycardia belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 719. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with documented periods of asystole 3.0 seconds belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 720. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with documented any escape rate <40 beats per minute (bpm) in awake, symptom-free patients belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 721. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level after catheter ablation of the AV junction belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 722. Postoperative third-degree AV block at any anatomic level that is not expected to resolve belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 723. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with myotonic muscular dystrophy belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 724. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with Erb's dystrophy (limb-girdle dystrophy) belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 725. Second-degree AV block regardless of type or site of block, with associated symptomatic bradycardia belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *I B. IIa C. IIb D. III E. IV 726. Asymptomatic third-degree AV block at any anatomic site with average awake ventricular rates of 40 bpm or faster belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *IIa B. I C. IIb D. III E. IV 727. Asymptomatic type II second-degree AV block belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *IIa B. I C. IIb D. III E. IV 728. Asymptomatic type I second-degree AV block at intra- or infra-His levels found incidentally at electrophysiological study for other indications belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *IIa B. I C. IIb D. III E. IV 729. First-degree AV block with symptoms suggestive of pacemaker syndrome and documented alleviation of symptoms with temporary AV pacing belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *IIa B. I C. IIb D. III E. IV 730. Marked first-degree AV block (>0.30 second) in patients with LV dysfunction and symptoms of congestive heart failure in whom a shorter AV interval results in hemodynamic improvement belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *IIb B. IIa C. I D. III E. IV 731. Asymptomatic first-degree AV block belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *III B. IIb C. IIa D. I E. IV 732. Asymptomatic type I second-degree AV block at the supra-His (AV node) level belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *III B. IIb C. IIa D. I E. IV 733. AV block which expected to resolve and unlikely to recur (eg, drug toxicity, Lyme disease) belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation: A. *III B. IIb C. IIa D. I E. IV 734. A main direct danger for a patient with acute bleeding is A. deficit of hemoglobin B. *Hypovolemia C. Hypoproteinemia D. coagoulopatia E. deficit of fibrinogen 735. A most important for the life of patient through possible transformation in ventricles fibrillation is presented by arrhythmia A. ventricle premature beats more than 20 in a minute B. *ventricle tachycardia C. arrhythmias, that unite with lengthening of intraventricular conductivity blockade of the left leg of bunch of Giss D. arrhythmia E. all answers are correct 736. At a patient with concomitant cardiac insufficiency acutely the expressed anemia. Which from offered remedies for transfusion prevails? A. *erithromass B. fresh blood C. frozen plasma D. there are all wrong answers E. all answers are faithful 737. Endotracheally it is possible to enter the following drugs, except for: A. noradrenalin B. adrenalin C. lidocain D. atropine E. *oxybutirat 738. A complete atrioventricular block is characterised A. by absence of conducting of impulses from an autriums to ventricles B. by a idioventricoular rhythm C. by the attacks Morgani - Adams - Stocs D. all answers are faithful E. *all answers are right 739. A doctor decided to perform the defibrillation to patient with arrhythmia, using a synchronizer. The digit of defibrillator must be synchronized: A. *with wave Q B. with the descending phase of R C. by an T D. consideration of phase of ECG-complex not important E. there is no right answer 740. A leading symptom for the diagnosis of stop of circulation of blood is: A. wide pupils, that are irresponsive on light B. absence of consciousness C. absence of breathing D. *absence of pulse on a carotid E. cyanosis 741. At anafilactic shock obligatory medicine are: A. *providing of permeability of respiratory tracts and adequate B. imobilisation extremities C. infousion therapy D. analgesia E. injection of vazopresors 742. At development of signs of toxic action of digoxinum medical treatment includes intravenous injection of A. verapamilum B. *lidocainum C. calcium chloride D. all answers are wrong E. faithful all answers 743. At which types of arrhythmia intravenous injection of potassium is effective? A. Ventricular tahycardia B. Nodular tahycardia C. Ventricular extrasystolia D. Supraventricular arrhythmia E. *At all of indicated types of arrhythmia 744. Cardiotoxic properties of hypercalciemia is taken off by application: A. Adrenalin B. Coffeinum C. Ephedrine D. *Molar solution of lactat natrium E. 10 % solution of glucose 745. Cardiotoxicity action of hypocalciumemia treated by application: A. adrenalin B. ephedrine C. *preparations of calcium D. a 10% solution of glucose E. corticosteroid 746. For the hypovolemia is not typical: A. reduction of volume of circulatory blood B. decline of BP, tachycardia C. reduction of shock volume and cardiac troop landing D. *rise of CVP E. decline of pressure of filling of the left ventricle 747. For the prophylaxis of carcinogenic shock it does not use at the acute heart attack follow A. beta-adrenoblocers B. anaesthetizing, sedation C. inhalation O2 D. beta-adrenostimulators E. *all answers are not complete 748. Hypotension at anaphylactic shock develops as a result of A. *increase of permeability of vessels and loss of volume of intravascular liquid B. losses of likable tone C. free prostaglandin D. bradicardia E. all are right 749. In the case of tamponade of heart is not observed A. rise of central vein pressure B. *noise of systole C. cyanosis D. paradoxical pulse E. rise of pulmonary capillary pressure 750. In the origin of hyperdynamic type of circulation of blood at patients with a sepsis, acute bleeding the following reactions take part: A. acute tamponade of heart B. shunting of circulation C. *violations of microcirculation, disorders of tissue exchange and accumulations of vasoactive metabolities D. faithful all answers E. there is no right answer 751. Intravenous injection of morphine at the carcinogenic edema of lungs can be attained the following positive effects: A. increase of irritating of myocardium B. decline of retroactive power of myocardium C. spasm of coronal vessels D. *faithful all answers E. right all answers 752. Lengthening of interval P-Q more than 0,2 sec is observed at: A. Fibrillation of auricles B. Sine bradycardia C. Alternuous pulse D. *AV block 1 E. Bigemenia 753. Medical treatment of anaphylactic shock includes first time the use of A. *adrenalin B. antihistaminic preparations C. neuroplegic D. All answers are wrong E. faithful all answers 754. Properties of blood reology are fixed: A. By viscidity of blood B. By physical and chemical stability of suspenzion of uniform elements C. By the state of vessels wall D. *All answers are correct E. There is no right answer 755. Signs of local myocarditis recovering are represented best of all by the changes of wave A. P B. Q C. T D. *R E. S 756. Stretched neck veins in standing position are observed at A. tamponade of heart B. tense pneumothorax C. to pulmonary embolism D. *faithful all answers E. all answers are wrong 757. The acute carcinogenic edema of lungs is conditioned most of all: A. by the rise of hydrostatical pressure in pulmonary capillaries B. by the promoted pulmonary capillary permeability C. *by insufficiency of the left ventricle D. faithful all answers E. All answers are wrong 758. The basic sign of heart death is: A. agonal complexes B. mechanical asistolia with saving of electric systole C. electric asistolia during 30 min, not looking on cordial - pulmonary reanimation and proper medical therapy D. *isoelectric line on ECG during 15 min E. all answers are faithful 759. The dosage of bicarbonate of sodium in case of stopping of heart makes: A. the first injection 1 mmol/Kg B. the first injection 2 mmol/Kg C. the repeated injections 0.5 meq/cg every 10 mines D. *approximately 100 ml for each min of clinical death E. faithful all answers 760. The forcing function of heart is supported in case: A. At wrong situation of electrodes B. At inadequate ventilation of lungs C. acidosis D. When the previous massage of heart was uneffective E. *All answers are right 761. The injection of the following medicines may prevent the attack of paroxysmal tahycardia, except of : A. *Isoproterenol B. Mezatonum C. Digitalis and hinidinum D. Metocsaminum E. Morphynum 762. The most expressed positive inotropic effect at cardiogenic shock is observed at injection of: A. noradrenalinum B. *dopaminum C. digocsinum D. isadrinum E. ephedrinum 763. The most frequent reason of embolism is: A. Trauma B. Cardial insufficiency C. Aneurism D. Atherosclerosis E. *Fibrillation of atrium 764. The most important ECG-sign of subendocardial myocardial ischemia is: A. *rise of segment S-T higher to the isoline line more than on 2 mm B. decline of segment S-T below to the isoline line more than on 2 mm C. inversion of T D. there are all wrong answers E. all answers are faithful 765. The permission to use lidocainum in the process of cardiac-pulmonary reanimation are: A. *fibrillation of ventricles B. electro mechanics dissociation C. fibrillation of atriums D. right all answers E. wrong all answers 766. The satisfactory oxygen capacity of blood is provided by hematocrit, not below A. 20-25% B. *30% C. 35% D. 40% E. 45% 767. To arrhythmias, which are accompanied by acute cardiac insufficiency, belong: A. fibrillation of ventricles B. complete atrioventricullar block C. high-frequency trembling of atriums D. faithful all answers E. *right all answers 768. To medicines which have most vasodilatational and lowering postload, belong: A. nitrates B. *ganglioblocers C. nitroprousid D. morfin E. faithful all answers 769. What medicine is used for medical treatment of atrio-ventricular block III? A. Lidocain B. Inderal C. Novocainamid D. *Isuprel E. There is no right answer 770. What must be applied from following during haemotransfusion for saving of blood properties, that take part in coagulation? A. Warmed-up blood B. Calcium 771. 772. 773. 774. 775. 776. 777. 778. 779. C. Oxygen D. Blood of two-week remoteness E. *Fresh blood What type of hypoxia changes greatly oxygen saturation of arterial blood ? A. Circulatory B. Anemic C. *Hypoxic D. Tissue E. There is no right answer At medical treatment of paroxysmal tachycardia it is not prescribed to apply A. antagonists of beta-adrenoreceptors B. electric cardioversia C. pressure on a carotid sine D. lidocain E. *atropin Characteristic signs for different types of shocks are: A. Oppression of consciousness B. *Lowering of arterial pressure C. Lowering of shock index Algovera D. Lowering TSVD E. Oppression of breathing Choose the most optimum therapy of anaphylactic shock A. *Adrenalin, polyglucin, prednisolone IV B. Dimedrol, prednisolon, cordiaminum, - IV C. Atropin, pipolphenum, prednisolon, - IV D. Polyhlukin, calcium chloride, hydrocortyson, - IV E. Antihistaminic orally Deep wave Q may be the sign of A. MI B. Ischemia of myocardium C. Hypokaliemia D. Hyperpotassiumemia E. *All answers are wrong Deep wave Q may be the sign of A. Necrosis of myocardium B. Ischemia of myocardium C. Hypokaliemia D. Hyperpotassiumemia E. *All answers are wrong Electrocardiostymulation is not prescribed at: A. to the complete atrioventricular block B. syndrome of weakness of sine knot with the attacks Morgani-Adams-Stocs C. ciliary arrhythmia with rare contraction of ventricles D. *bradiarhythmia, by the caused intoxication by cardiac glucoside E. all answers are faithful For cardiogenic shock is not characteristic: A. *Decreasing of central venous pressure B. Stagnation in the small circle of blood C. Low BP D. Diminishing of arteriotony E. Decline of diuresis For treatment of pulmonary edema of cardiac origin the doctor should prescribe A. *Narcotic analgetic B. Solution of euphyllinum 780. 781. of: C. Diuretic - MANNITOL D. Diuretic - veroshpiron E. Calcium chloride Heparin behaves to the group; A. *Enkefalins B. Endorfins C. Eucasinoids D. A superoxyde anion E. There is no right answer High vein pressure, hypotension and acute circulation insufficiency are observed in the case A. tense pneumathorax B. embolisms of pulmonary artery C. to vein air embolism D. wrong all answers E. *right all answers 782. Hypovolaemic shock is determined in: A. *Reduction of body weight B. By the decline of hemokoncentrative indexes C. By paresis of peripheral vessels D. By hypoglycemia E. By growth of central venous pressure 783. Medical treatment of patient with acute left side ventricular insufficiency includes A. ALV at the permanent promoted pressure B. infusion of nitroglycerinum C. ingibitor of phosphodiesterase, furosemide D. all answers are faithful E. *All answers are wrong 784. Medicine of choice at paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is: A. digoxin B. lidocain C. *isoptin D. novocainamid E. polarized mixture 785. Removing a pain syndrome at the urgent call concerning the acute heart attack of myocardium is possible simpler than all: A. *by injection of narcotic and unnarcotic analgetic B. epidural analgesia C. by inhalation of nitrous oxide, xenon with O2(1:1) D. there is no right answer E. all answers are faithful 786. The depression of ST segment means A. Hypoxia of myocardium B. Hypokaliemia C. Hyperpotassiumemia D. *Necrosis of myocardium E. All answers are wrong 787. The depression of T wave may mean A. Hypoxia of myocardium B. Fibrillation of atriums C. *Hyperpotassiumemia D. Necrosis of myocardium E. All answers are wrong 788. The depression of T wave means 789. 790. 791. 792. 793. 794. 795. 796. 797. A. Hypoxia of myocardium B. Hypokaliemia C. *Hyperpotassiumemia D. Necrosis of myocardium E. All answers are wrong The elevation of ST segment means A. *Hypoxia of myocardium B. Hypokaliemia C. Hyperpotassiumemia D. Necrosis of myocardium E. All answers are wrong The insufficiency of left ventricle can be caused : A. *by insufficient flow of blood to the heart B. by the overload volume of blood C. by the decline of refractive power of myocardium D. wrong all answers E. faithful all answers The main EGC sign of transmural MI is A. Elevation of T wave B. Depression of ST segment C. *Pathological QS wave D. Pathological S wave E. All answers are wrong The most important sign of acute heart attack of myocardium during anesthesia are: A. Hypotensia B. *changes of ECG, arrhythmia C. increase of pulse pressure D. All answers are wrong E. All answers are right The stop of heart during asynchronous defibrillation is linked A. with direct damaging of myocardium B. with the hit of impulse on the P wave of ECG C. with the hit of impulse on ascending part of T wave D. *with the hit of impulse on descending part of T wave E. all answers are faithful What assertion is incorrect for traumatic shock? A. *Sharp decreases of shock index B. A syndrome of low cardiac ejection C. Centralization of circulation of blood develops D. CVP goes down E. Disturbances of coagulation ?What remedy does dilate veins? A. *Nitroglicerin B. Analgin C. Strophantine D. Dopamine E. Anaprilin What remedy does not dilate veins? A. Nitrosorbid B. Analgin C. Strophantine D. *Dopamine E. Anaprilin Which of medicines are most contra-indicated at ventricular tahycardia A. Lidocain B. Propranolol C. Novocainamid D. *Isuprel E. Metaraminol 798. Which of the following changes on ECG is typical for hypercaliemia? A. fibrillation of ventricules B. fibrillation of auricles C. *High and narrow wave T D. Decline of indent T and appearance of indent V E. Decline of segment S-T 799. You can use for treatment of ischemic heart disease A. *Nitrates B. Stabisol C. Manitol D. Arduan E. All answers are wrong 800. You will use for treatment of ischemic heart disease A. Sustac B. Stabisol C. Manitol D. Arduan E. *All answers are wrong 801. You will use for treatment of ischemic heart disease A. *Nitrong B. Stabisol C. Manitol D. Arduan E. All answers are wrong 802. What is the endemic goiter characterized by? A. *Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in environment B. Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions C. Goiter lesion of both lobes D. Goiter of atypical localization E. Goiter with changed function 803. What is the sporadic goiter characterized by? A. *Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions B. Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in environment C. Goiter lesion of both lobes D. Goiter of atypical localization E. Goiter with changed function 804. Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in environment is called: A. *Endemic goiter B. Sporadic goiter C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Myxedema E. Atypical goiter 805. Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions is called: A. *Sporadic goiter B. Endemic goiter C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Myxedema E. Atypical goiter 806. What is the 0 degree of goiter? A. *The thyroid gland is not palpated; B. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; C. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck"); E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck; 807. What is the I degree of goiter? A. *The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; B. The thyroid gland is not palpated; C. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck"); E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck; 808. What is the II degree of goiter? A. *Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; B. The thyroid gland is not palpated; C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck"); E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck; 809. What is the III degree of goiter? A. *The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck"); B. The thyroid gland is not palpated; C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; D. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck; 810. What is the IV degree of goiter? A. *The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck; B. The enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major sizes) C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; D. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; E. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck"); 811. What is the IV degree of goiter? A. *The enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major sizes) B. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck; C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; D. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated; E. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck"); 812. What is the degree of goiter when the thyroid gland is not palpated? A. *0 B. II C. I D. III E. IV 813. What is the degree of goiter when the isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated? A. *I B. V C. II D. III E. IV 814. What is the degree of goiter when entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated? A. *I B. II C. V D. III E. IV 815. What is the degree of goiter when the enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck")? A. *III B. I C. V D. II E. IV 816. What is the degree of goiter when the gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck? A. *IV B. III C. I D. V E. II 817. What is the degree of goiter when the enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major sizes)? A. *V B. IV C. III D. I E. II 818. What is the predominant factor which causes the goiter? A. *Lack of iodine B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia C. Suprarenal insufficiency D. Rheumatism, endocarditis E. Lack of vitamin C 819. What is the contributing factor which causes the lung abscess? A. *Excessive calcium, deficiency of bromine in environment B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia C. Suprarenal insufficiency D. Rheumatism, endocarditis E. Lack of vitamin C 820. What is the contributing factor which causes the lung abscess? A. *Lack of cobalt, and zinc B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia C. Suprarenal insufficiency D. Rheumatism, endocarditis E. Lack of vitamin C 821. Goiter which localized on the back of the tongue is called: A. *Ectopic goiter B. Aberrant goiter C. Typical D. Presternal E. Retrosternal 822. Intrathoracic localization of goiter is called: A. *Ectopic goiter B. Aberrant goiter C. Typical D. Presternal E. Retrosternal 823. The goiter of additional gland is called: 824. 825. 826. 827. 828. 829. 830. 831. 832. A. *Aberrant goiter B. Ectopic goiter C. Typical D. Presternal E. Retrosternal Ectopic goiter is: A. *Dislocation of the goiter B. The goiter of additional gland C. The goiter with increased function D. The goiter with decreased function E. The goiter with normal function Aberrant goiter is: A. *The goiter of additional gland B. Dislocation of the goiter C. The goiter with increased function D. The goiter with decreased function E. The goiter with normal function What complication is characteristic for the goiter? A. *Strumitis B. Laringospasm C. Pneumothorax D. Mediastinal emphysema E. Atypical goiter What complication is characteristic for the goiter? A. *Hemorrhage into the gland B. Laringospasm C. Pneumothorax D. Mediastinal emphysema E. Atypical goiter What complication is characteristic for the goiter? A. *Malignancy B. Laringospasm C. Pneumothorax D. Mediastinal emphysema E. Atypical goiter What complication is characteristic for the goiter? A. *Asphyxia B. Laringospasm C. Pneumothorax D. Mediastinal emphysema E. Atypical goiter In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Neck deformity B. Sleepiness C. Hypomnesia D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Difficult breathing B. Sleepiness C. Hypomnesia D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: 833. 834. 835. 836. 837. 838. 839. 840. 841. A. *Difficult swallowing B. Sleepiness C. Hypomnesia D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Sudden attacks of cough B. Sleepiness C. Hypomnesia D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms For the clinical manifestation of retrosternal is typical: A. *Dyspnea B. Sleepiness C. Hypomnesia D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms For the clinical manifestation of retrosternal is typical: A. *Hoarseness B. Sleepiness C. Hypomnesia D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms For the clinical manifestation of retrosternal is typical: A. *Distended veins of neck B. Sleepiness, C. Hypomnesia D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms The neck deformity is a clinical manifestation plaint of the patient with: A. *Euthyroid goiter B. Hypothyroidism C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Esophageal achalasia E. Empyema The difficult breathing is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Euthyroid goiter B. Hypothyroidism C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Esophageal achalasia E. Gastric ulcer The difficult swallowing is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Euthyroid goiter B. Hypothyroidism C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Gastric ulcer E. Empyema In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Sleepiness B. Difficult breathing C. Neck deformity D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: 842. 843. 844. 845. 846. 847. 848. 849. 850. A. *General weakness B. Difficult breathing C. Neck deformity D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Malaise B. Difficult breathing C. Neck deformity D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Hypomnesia B. Difficult breathing C. Neck deformity D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Dry skin B. Difficult breathing C. Neck deformity D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Constipations B. Difficult breathing C. Neck deformity D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Leg edemas B. Difficult breathing C. Neck deformity D. Excessive sweating E. Tremor of arms The sleepiness is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hypothyroid goiter B. Euthyroid goiter C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The general weakness is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hypothyroid goiter B. Euthyroid goiter C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The malaise is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hypothyroid goiter B. Euthyroid goiter C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The hypomnesia is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: 851. 852. 853. 854. 855. 856. 857. 858. 859. A. *Hypothyroid goiter B. Euthyroid goiter C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The dry skin is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hypothyroid goiter B. Euthyroid goiter C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The edemas is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hypothyroid goiter B. Euthyroid goiter C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The constipation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hypothyroid goiter B. Euthyroid goiter C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Excessive sweating B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Irritability B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Heartbeat B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Tremor of arms B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Sleeplessness B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: 860. 861. 862. 863. 864. 865. 866. 867. 868. A. *Feeling of fever B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Loss of weight B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation The irritability is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hyperthyroid goiter B. Hypothyroid goiter C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The heartbeat is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hyperthyroid goiter B. Hypothyroid goiter C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The excessive sweating is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hyperthyroid goiter B. Hypothyroid goiter C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The tremor of arms is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hyperthyroid goiter B. Hypothyroid goiter C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The feeling of fever is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hyperthyroid goiter B. Hypothyroid goiter C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The loss of weight is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Hyperthyroid goiter B. Hypothyroid goiter C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum What is the main treatment of noncomplicated goiter? A. *Conservative treatment B. Segmentectomy C. Lobectomy D. Thyroidectomy E. Hemithyroidectomy What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter? 869. 870. 871. 872. 873. 874. 875. 876. 877. A. *Inorganic iodine B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter? A. *Thyroidine B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter? A. *Thyroxine B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter? A. *Triiodothyronine B. Heparin C. Vasaprostan D. Fenillin E. Omeprasol What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? A. *Nodular goiter B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? A. *Mixed forms of goiter B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? A. *The sings of neck compression by goiter B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? A. *The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? A. *The goiter with suspicion on malignancy B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? 878. 879. 880. 881. 882. 883. 884. 885. 886. A. *The goiter of additional thyroid glands B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? A. *The aberrant goiter B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? A. *The intrathoracic goiter B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? A. *The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter? A. *The complicated goiter B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter What is the indication for the conservative treatment of the goiter? A. *The goiter of I degree B. The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland C. The aberrant goiter D. The goiter of IV degree E. The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism What is the indication for the conservative treatment of the goiter? A. *The goiter of II degree B. The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland C. The aberrant goiter D. The goiter of IV degree E. The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism What operation is performed in endemic goiter? A. *Subfascial resection of thyroid gland B. Segmentectomy C. Lobectomy D. Thyroidectomy E. Hemithyroidectomy Diffuse goiter with hyperthyroidism is called: A. *Grave's disease B. Hashimoto disease C. De Kerven disease D. Riedel's disease E. Raynaud's disease Diffuse goiter with hyperthyroidism is called: A. *Basedow's disease B. Hashimoto disease C. De Kerven disease D. Riedel's disease E. Raynaud's disease 887. Basedow's disease is: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Wooden thyroiditis C. Purulent thyroiditis D. Autoimmune thyroiditis E. Mixedema 888. Grave's disease is: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Wooden thyroiditis C. Purulent thyroiditis D. Autoimmune thyroiditis E. Mixedema 889. What is the cause of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Autoimmune disturbances B. Atherosclerotic changes C. Calcium metabolism disturbances D. Renal insufficiency E. Pulmonary emphysema 890. What belongs to the I stage of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland B. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size C. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems E. Asymptomatic course 891. What belongs to the II stage of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size B. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland C. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems E. Asymptomatic course 892. What belongs to the III stage of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera B. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size C. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems E. Asymptomatic course 893. What belongs to the IV stage of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems B. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera C. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size D. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland E. Asymptomatic course 894. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the onset of the disease, slight enlargement of thyroid gland? A. *I B. II C. III D. IV E. 0 895. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the marked sings of thyrotoxicosis and noticeably enlarged thyroid? A. *II B. I C. III D. IV E. 0 896. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the thyrotoxic lesion of viscera? A. *III B. II C. I D. IV E. 0 897. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems? A. *IV B. III C. II D. I E. 0 898. What is the I stage of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Neurotic B. Neurohormonal C. Visceropathic D. Cachectic E. Asymptomatic 899. What is the II stage of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Neurohormonal B. Neurotic C. Visceropathic D. Cachectic E. Asymptomatic 900. What is the III stage of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Visceropathic B. Neurohormonal C. Neurotic D. Cachectic E. Asymptomatic 901. What is the IV stage of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Cachectic B. Visceropathic C. Neurohormonal D. Neurotic E. Asymptomatic 902. In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Excessive sweating B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation 903. In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Irritability B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia 904. 905. 906. 907. 908. 909. 910. 911. 912. D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Heartbeat B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Tremor of arms B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Sleeplessness B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Feeling of fever B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Loss of weight B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Palpitation B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Exophthalmos B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of: A. *Tremor B. Leg edemas C. Hypomnesia D. Neck deformity E. Constipation The palpitation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter 913. 914. 915. 916. 917. 918. 919. 920. 921. D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The palpitation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The exophthalmos is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The tremor is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The heartbeat is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The excessive sweating is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The tremor of arms is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The feeling of fever is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The loss of weight is a clinical manifestation of the patient with: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum For the laboratory disturbances of Basedow's disease is typical: A. *Increased level of triiodothyronine B. Decreased level of triiodothyronine C. Increased level of hlucocorticoids 922. 923. 924. 925. 926. 927. 928. 929. 930. D. Decreased level of hlucocorticoids E. Decreased level of insuline For the laboratory disturbances of Basedow's disease is typical: A. *Increased level of thyroxine B. Decreased level of triiodothyronine C. Increased level of hlucocorticoids D. Decreased level of hlucocorticoids E. Decreased level of insuline For the laboratory disturbances of thyrotoxicosis is typical: A. *Increased level of protein metabolism B. Decreased level of carbohydrate metabolism C. Decreased level of lipid metabolism D. Decreased level of protein metabolism E. Decreased level of all kinds of metabolism For the laboratory disturbances of thyrotoxicosis is typical: A. *Increased level of carbohydrate metabolism B. Decreased level of carbohydrate metabolism C. Decreased level of lipid metabolism D. Decreased level of protein metabolism E. Decreased level of all kinds of metabolism For the laboratory disturbances of thyrotoxicosis is typical: A. *Increased level of lipid metabolism B. Decreased level of carbohydrate metabolism C. Decreased level of lipid metabolism D. Decreased level of protein metabolism E. Decreased level of all kinds of metabolism The increased level of protein metabolism is typical for: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The increased level of lipid metabolism is typical for: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The increased level of carbohydrate metabolism is typical for: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The Graefe's sign is typical for: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum The Stellwag's sign is typical for: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum 931. The Mebius' sign is typical for: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum 932. The Dalrymple's sign is typical for: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum 933. The Kocher's sign is typical for: A. *Thyrotoxicosis B. Mixedema C. Euthyroid goiter D. Gastric ulcer E. Esophageal diverticulum 934. The Graefe's sign is: A. *The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward B. Infrequent winking C. A weakness of convergence D. Wide palpebral fissure E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view 935. The Mebius' sign is: A. *A weakness of convergence B. Infrequent winking C. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward D. Wide palpebral fissure E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view 936. The Stellwag's sign is: A. *Infrequent winking B. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward C. A weakness of convergence D. Wide palpebral fissure E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view 937. The Dalrymple's sign is: A. *Wide palpebral fissure B. Infrequent winking C. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward D. A weakness of convergence E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view 938. The Kocher's sign is: A. *Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view B. Wide palpebral fissure C. Infrequent winking D. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward E. A weakness of convergence 939. How is the sign, which is characterized by the upper lid lag when the patient looks downward named by author? A. *Graefe's sign B. Mebius' sign C. Stellwag's sign D. Dalrymple's sign E. Kocher's sign 940. How is the sign, which is characterized by infrequent winking named by author? A. *Stellwag's sign B. Graefe's sign C. Mebius' sign D. Dalrymple's sign E. Kocher's sign 941. How is the sign, which is characterized by a weakness of convergence named by author? A. *Mebius' sign B. Stellwag's sign C. Graefe's sign D. Dalrymple's sign E. Kocher's sign 942. How is the sign, which is characterized by a wide palpebral fissure named by author? A. *Dalrymple's sign B. Mebius' sign C. Stellwag's sign D. Graefe's sign E. Kocher's sign 943. How is the sign, which is characterized by retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view named by author? A. *Kocher's sign B. Dalrymple's sign C. Mebius' sign D. Stellwag's sign E. Graefe's sign 944. For the thyrotoxicosis is typical: A. *Graefe's sign B. Homan's sign C. Lovenberg's sign D. Mondor's sign E. Murphy's sign 945. For the thyrotoxicosis is typical: A. *Mebius' sign B. Homan's sign C. Lovenberg's sign D. Mondor's sign E. Murphy's sign 946. For thyrotoxicosis is typical: A. *Stellwag's sign B. Homan's sign C. Lovenberg's sign D. Mondor's sign E. Murphy's sign 947. For the thyrotoxicosis is typical: A. *Dalrymple's sign B. Homan's sign C. Lovenberg's sign D. Mondor's sign E. Murphy's sign 948. For the thyrotoxicosis is typical: A. *Kocher's sign 949. 950. 951. 952. 953. 954. 955. 956. 957. B. Homan's sign C. Lovenberg's sign D. Mondor's sign E. Murphy's sign What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a mild? A. *Pulse rate less than 100 beat/min B. Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min C. Pulse rate 120-140 beat/min D. Pulse rate 140-160 beat/min E. Pulse rate more than 160 beat/min What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a moderate? A. *Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min B. Pulse rate less than 100 beat/min C. Pulse rate 120-140 beat/min D. Pulse rate 140-160 beat/min E. Pulse rate more than 160 beat/min What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as severe? A. *Pulse rate more than 120 beat/min B. Pulse rate less than 40 beat/min C. Pulse rate 40-80 beat/min D. Pulse rate 80-100 beat/min E. Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a mild? A. *Loss weight less than 3-5 kg B. Loss weight 5-8 kg C. Loss weight 8-10 kg D. Loss weight 10-15 kg E. Loss weight exceeds 15 kg What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a moderate? A. *Loss weight 5-10 kg B. Exceed of weight more than 1-2 kg C. Exceed of weight more than 3-5 kg D. Loss weight 10-15 kg E. Loss weight exceeds 15 kg What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as severe? A. *Loss weight exceeds 10 kg B. Loss weight less than 1-2 kg C. Loss weight 2-3 kg D. Exceed of weight more than 1-2 kg E. Exceed of weight more than 3-5 kg What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a mild? A. *Increase of basal metabolism to 30 % B. Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 % C. Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 % D. Decrease of basal metabolism to 30 % E. Decrease of basal metabolism more than 50 % What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a moderate? A. *Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 % B. Increase of basal metabolism to 30 % C. Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 % D. Decrease of basal metabolism to 30 % E. Decrease of basal metabolism more than 50 % What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as severe? A. *Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 % 958. 959. 960. %? 961. 962. 963. 964. 965. 966. B. Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 % C. Increase of basal metabolism to 30 % D. Decrease of basal metabolism to 30 % E. Decrease of basal metabolism more than 50 % What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %? A. *Moderate B. Mild C. Severe D. Subclinic E. Asymptomatic What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism to 30 %? A. *Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Subclinic E. Asymptomatic What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism more than 50 A. *Severe B. Mild C. Moderate D. Subclinic E. Asymptomatic What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight less than 3-5 kg? A. *Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Subclinic E. Asymptomatic What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight 5-10 kg? A. *Moderate B. Mild C. Severe D. Subclinic E. Asymptomatic What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight more than 10 kg? A. *Severe B. Moderate C. Mild D. Subclinic E. Asymptomatic What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Thyroid hormone concentration B. General blood analysis C. X-ray examination with barium D. Coagulogram E. X-ray examination of the neck What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Serum iodine-binding globulin concentration B. General blood analysis C. X-ray examination with barium D. Coagulogram E. X-ray examination of the neck What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis? 967. 968. 969. 970. 971. 972. 973. 974. 975. A. *Serum thyroidstimulating hormone of hypophysis B. General blood analysis C. X-ray examination with barium D. Coagulogram E. X-ray examination of the neck What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Serum thyroidstimulating antibodies B. General blood analysis C. X-ray examination with barium D. Coagulogram E. X-ray examination of the neck What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis? A. *Detecting of basal metabolism B. General blood analysis C. X-ray examination with barium D. Coagulogram E. X-ray examination of the neck What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with? A. *Rheumatic disease B. Obesity C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Achalasia What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with? A. *Chroniosepsis B. Obesity C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Achalasia What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with? A. *Diencephalic lesions B. Obesity C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Achalasia What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with? A. *Thyroid cancer B. Obesity C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Achalasia What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with? A. *Encephalitis B. Obesity C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Achalasia What medicines belong to thyrostatic agents? A. *Mercasolil B. Euphyllin C. Vasaprostan D. Nicotine acid E. Detrlex What medicines belong to thyrostatic agents? 976. 977. 978. 979. 980. 981. 982. 983. 984. A. *Lithium carbonate B. Euphyllin C. Vasaprostan D. Nicotine acid E. Detrlex What group of medicines does Mercasolil belong to? A. *Thyrostatic agents B. Antibiotics C. Anticoagulants D. Antiaggregants E. Vitamines What group of medicines does Lithium carbonate belong to? A. *Thyrostatic agents B. Antibiotics C. Anticoagulants D. Antiaggregants E. Vitamines The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for: A. *Thyrotoxocosis B. Obesity C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Achalasia The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for: A. *Severe forms of thyrotoxicosis B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Goiter with hypothyroidism The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for: A. *Goiter of IV-V degree B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Goiter with hypothyroidism The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for: A. *Nodular transformation of toxic goiter B. The goiter of 0 degree C. The goiter of I degree D. The goiter of II degree E. Goiter with hypothyroidism Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is: A. *Thyroid storm B. Cretinism C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is: A. *The damage of laryngeal nerve B. Cretinism C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is: A. *Asphyxia B. Cretinism C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 985. Among the complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is: A. *Air embolism B. Cretinism C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 986. Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is: A. *Parathyroid tetany B. Cretinism C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 987. Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is: A. *Bleeding B. Cretinism C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 988. The development of excitement, up to psychosis and coma in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of: A. *Thyroid storm B. The damage of laryngeal nerve C. Air embolism D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 989. The development of tachycardia (pulse rate – 150-200 per minute) in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of: A. *Thyroid storm B. The damage of laryngeal nerve C. Parathyroid tetany D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 990. The development of complete arrhythmia in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of: A. *Thyroid storm B. The damage of laryngeal nerve C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 991. The development of fever to 40°С in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of: A. *Thyroid storm B. The damage of laryngeal nerve C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 992. The development of hyperemia of the face, neck, limbs in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of: A. *Thyroid storm B. The damage of laryngeal nerve C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 993. The development of extremely sweating, diarrhea in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of: A. *Thyroid storm B. The damage of laryngeal nerve C. Parathyroid tetany D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 994. The development of hoarseness in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of: A. *The damage of laryngeal nerve B. Thyroid storm C. Parathyroid tetany D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 995. The development of aphonia in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of: A. *The damage of laryngeal nerve B. Thyroid storm C. Parathyroid tetany D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 996. The development of cramps in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of: A. *Parathyroid tetany B. The damage of laryngeal nerve C. Thyroid storm D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome 997. For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical: A. *Excitement, up to psychosis and coma B. Hoarseness C. Cramps D. Aphonia E. Anemia 998. For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical: A. *Tachycardia (pulse rate – 150-200 per minute) B. Hoarseness C. Cramps D. Aphonia E. Anemia 999. For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical: A. *Complete arrhythmia B. Hoarseness C. Cramps D. Aphonia E. Anemia 1000. For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical: A. *Fever to 40°С B. Hoarseness C. Cramps 1001. 1002. 1003. 1004. 1005. 1006. 1007. 1008. 1009. D. Aphonia E. Anemia For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical: A. *Hyperemia of the face, neck, limbs B. Hoarseness C. Cramps D. Aphonia E. Anemia For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical: A. *Extremely sweating B. Hoarseness C. Cramps D. Aphonia E. Anemia For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical: A. *Diarrhea B. Hoarseness C. Cramps D. Aphonia E. Anemia For the clinical manifestation of the damage of laryngeal nerve is typical: A. *Hoarseness B. Diarrhea C. Cramps D. Fever to 40°С E. Anemia For the clinical manifestation of the damage of laryngeal nerve is typical: A. *Aphonia B. Diarrhea C. Cramps D. Fever to 40°С E. Anemia For the clinical manifestation of the parathyroid tetany is typical: A. *Cramps B. Aphonia C. Diarrhea D. Fever to 40°С E. Anemia The purulent thyroiditis is a: A. *De Kerven thyroiditis B. Hashimoto's goiter C. Riedel's goiter D. Grave's disease E. Basedow's disease The autoimmune thyroiditis is a: A. *Hashimoto's goiter B. De Kerven thyroiditis C. Riedel's goiter D. Grave's disease E. Basedow's disease The fibrous thyroiditis is a: A. *Riedel's goiter B. Hashimoto's goiter C. De Kerven thyroiditis 1010. 1011. 1012. 1013. 1014. 1015. 1016. 1017. 1018. D. Grave's disease E. Basedow's disease The "woody" goiter is a: A. *Riedel's goiter B. Hashimoto's goiter C. De Kerven thyroiditis D. Grave's disease E. Basedow's disease The Riedel's goiter is a: A. *"Woody" goiter B. Autoimmune thyroiditis C. Purulent thyroiditis D. Thyrotoxicosis E. Nodular goiter The Riedel's goiter is a: A. *Fibrous thyroiditis B. Autoimmune thyroiditis C. Purulent thyroiditis D. Thyrotoxicosis E. Nodular goiter The Hashimoto's goiter is a: A. *Autoimmune thyroiditis B. Fibrous thyroiditis C. Purulent thyroiditis D. Thyrotoxicosis E. Nodular goiter The De Kerven thyroiditis is a: A. *Purulent thyroiditis B. Autoimmune thyroiditis C. Fibrous thyroiditis D. Thyrotoxicosis E. Nodular goiter The treatment of de Kerven thyroiditis is a: A. *Drainage of suppurative focus B. Glycocorticoids C. Radioactive iodine D. Resection of thyroid gland E. Mercasolil The treatment of Hashimoto's goiter is a: A. *Glycocorticoids B. Drainage of suppurative focus C. Radioactive iodine D. Resection of thyroid gland E. Mercasolil The treatment of Hashimoto's goiter is a: A. *Thyroidectomy B. Drainage of suppurative focus C. Radioactive iodine D. Resection of thyroid gland E. Mercasolil The treatment of Riedel's goiter is a: A. *Thyroidectomy B. Drainage of suppurative focus C. Radioactive iodine D. Resection of thyroid gland E. Mercasolil 1019. What vessels are usually affected by atherosclerosis obliterans? A. *Aorta and arteries B. Arterioles C. Microcirculatory bed D. Superficial veins E. Deep veins 1020. What is the morphological basis of atherosclerotic lesions? A. *The accumulation of lipids in the intima B. Thrombosis C. Inflammatory process D. Embolism E. Aneurysm 1021. What is the main cause of atherosclerotic lesions? A. *Hypercholesterolemia, dyslipoproteinemia B. Infection C. Trauma D. Rheumatism, endocarditis E. Myocardial infarction 1022. What does applies to the first stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification by Fontane? A. *Full compensation B. Asymptomatic ran C. Functional circulatory insufficiency D. Limb ischemia at rest E. Destruction of tissue 1023. What does belongs to the second stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification by Fontane? A. *Functional circulatory insufficiency B. Asymptomatic ran C. Full compensation D. Limb ischemia at rest E. Destruction of tissue 1024. What does belongs to the third stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification by Fontane? A. *Limb ischemia at rest B. Asymptomatic ran C. Full compensation D. Functional circulatory insufficiency E. Destruction of tissue 1025. What does belongs to the fourth stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification by Fontane? A. *Destruction of tissue B. Asymptomatic ran C. Full compensation D. Functional circulatory insufficiency E. Limb ischemia at rest 1026. What is the most typical feature of the first stage of atherosclerotic lesions? A. *Cooling of the lower extremities B. Fever C. Intermittent claudication D. Gangrene E. Pain at rest 1027. What is the most typical sign of the second stage of atherosclerotic lesions? A. *Intermittent claudication B. Cooling of the lower extremities C. Fever D. Gangrene E. Pain at rest 1028. What is the most typical feature of the third stage of atherosclerotic lesions? A. *Pain at rest B. Fever C. Cooling of the lower extremities D. Intermittent claudication E. Gangrene 1029. What is the most typical feature of the fourth stage of atherosclerotic lesions? A. *Gangrene B. Pain at rest C. Fever D. Cooling of the lower extremities E. Intermittent claudication 1030. What is characterized by intermittent claudication? A. *Pain in the muscles of his legs when walking, which disappears after rest B. Ischialgia, lumbago C. Constant pain in the joints D. Pain along the superficial veins E. Edema of lower extremities 1031. Intermittent claudication is characterized by: A. *Pain in the lower extremities B. Heartache C. Arthralgia D. Dizziness E. Edema of lower extremities 1032. Intermittent claudication is characterized for: A. *Atherosclerosis of the lower extremities B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Pancreatitis D. Varicose E. Cholecystitis 1033. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic intermittent claudication up to 1000 meters? A. *II B. ІІА C. ІІB D. III E. IV 1034. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic intermittent claudication before 500 meters? A. *ІІА B. I C. III D. ІІB E. IV 1035. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions characteristic of intermittent claudication before 200 meters? A. *ІІB B. I C. ІІА D. IV E. III 1036. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic of intermittent claudication 25-50 meters? A. *III B. I C. ІІА D. IV E. ІІB 1037. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic the pain at rest? A. *III B. I C. ІІА D. IV E. ІІB 1038. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions characteristic dry trophic ulcer? A. *III B. I C. ІІА D. IV E. ІІB 1039. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic the necrosis and gangrene? A. *IV B. III C. I D. ІІА E. II B 1040. What is the main cause of limb swelling in patients with atherosclerosis obliterans? A. *Permanent seating position to relieve pain B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Infection, abscess D. Arterial thrombosis E. Heart failure 1041. Where is the most frequent location of venous ulcers with obliterating atherosclerosis? A. *At the tip of the toes B. In the lower third of the lower extremities C. In the upper third of the lower extremities D. On the back of the knee E. At the hip 1042. Leriche syndrome is: A. *Occlusion the bifurcation of abdominal aorta B. Stenosis the brachiocephalic trunk C. Renal artery stenosis D. Stenosis of the abdominal trunk E. Stenosis of pulmonary artery 1043. Leriche syndrome is characterized by: A. *Atherosclerotic lesions B. Obliterative endarteritis C. Varicose D. Phlebemphraxis E. Lymphedema 1044. Leriche is characterized by: A. *Atherosclerotic lesions 1045. 1046. 1047. 1048. 1049. 1050. 1051. 1052. 1053. B. Acute cholecystitis C. Acute pancreatitis D. Ileus E. Appendicular infiltrate For Leriche syndrome is characterized by: A. *Intermittent claudication B. Angina C. Dizziness D. Oedema of lower extremities E. Extension of saphenous veins For Leriche syndrome is characterized by: A. *The absence of pulsations in the lower extremities B. Hyperbilirubinemia C. Ascites D. Oedema of lower extremities E. Extension of saphenous veins For Leriche syndrome is characterized by: A. *Hypercholesterolemia B. Hyperbilirubinemia C. Increased blood amylase D. Leukocytosis E. Anemia For Leriche syndrome is characteristic X-ray symptoms: A. *Occlusion of the terminal aorta B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava D. Dysplasia arteries E. Dysplasia veins For Leriche syndrome is characteristic X-ray symptoms: A. *Occlusion of the terminal aorta B. Cloiber’s bowls C. Pneumoperitoneum D. The symptom of "niche" E. Detelectasis At Leriche syndrome patient has complains on: A. *Intermittent claudication B. Pain in the heart C. Oedema of lower extremities D. Extension of saphenous veins E. Dizziness At Leriche syndrome patient has complains on: A. *Melosalgia B. Pain in the heart C. Pain during urination D. Tenesmus E. Pain in the epigastric area At what level is absent arterial pulsation at the Leriche syndrome? A. *Femoral artery B. Posterior tibial artery C. Dorsal artery of foot D. Popliteal artery E. Common carotid artery What complication is caused by atherosclerosis obliterans? A. *Acute arterial thrombosis B. Arteriorrhexis C. Acute venous thrombosis D. Phlegmon E. Superficial thrombophlebitis 1054. What complication is caused by atherosclerosis obliterans? A. *Aneurysm B. Arteriorrhexis C. Acute venous thrombosis D. Phlegmon E. Superficial thrombophlebitis 1055. Which clinical sign is typical for abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. *Systolic noise over a pulsating formation in the abdominal cavity B. Abdominal pain C. Leukopenia D. Diarrhea E. Tension of abdominal wall 1056. Which clinical sign is typical for the rupture abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. *Hemorrhagic shock B. Leukopenia C. Systolic noise over a pulsating formation in the abdominal cavity D. Diarrhea E. Tension of abdominal wall 1057. Which clinical sign is typical bundle abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. *They expressed the pain radiating to the loin B. Pukes bile C. Systolic noise over the formation of a pulsating abdominal D. Diarrhea E. Voltage anterior abdominal wall 1058. What is the treatment of uncomplicated aortic aneurysm? A. *Aortic prosthesis B. Saphenectomy C. Conservative treatment D. Ligation of the aorta E. Profundoplastic 1059. What is the treatment gap abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. *Endovascular prostheses B. Saphenectomy C. Conservative treatment D. Ligation of the aorta E. Profundoplastic 1060. Which of the instrumental methods of investigation is the most informative at obliterating atherosclerosis? A. *Ultrasound B. ECG C. Spirography D. Urography E. Target biopsy 1061. In obliterating atherosclerosis determined by: A. *Lenel-Lavestin’s symptom B. Homan’s symptom C. Ortner’s symptom D. Rovzing’s symptom E. Babinski symptom 1062. The pulsation of the femoral artery is determined by: 1063. 1064. 1065. 1066. 1067. 1068. 1069. 1070. 1071. A. *By the middle of the inguinal ligament; B. By the middle line above the stomach and the navel; C. By the mid-popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee; D. Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon; E. Between I and II metatarsals. The pulsation of the abdominal aorta is determined by: A. *On the middle line above the stomach and the navel; B. On the middle of the inguinal ligament; C. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee; D. Between lowback edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon; E. Between I and II metatarsals. The pulsation of the popliteal artery is defined: A. *On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee; B. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel; C. On the middle of the inguinal ligament; D. Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon; E. Between I and II metatarsals. The pulsation of the posterior tibial artery is determined by: A. *Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon; B. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee; C. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel; D. On the middle of the inguinal ligament; E. Between I and II metatarsals. Ripple dorsal artery of foot is determined by: A. *Between I and II metatarsals. B. Between lowback edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon; C. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee; D. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel; E. On the middle of the inguinal ligament; What kind of ankle pressure is characterize the critical ischemia? A. *Less than 50 mm Hg. B. Less than 140 mm Hg. C. Less than 70 mm Hg. D. Less than 90 mm Hg. E. Less than 110 mm Hg. What kind of ankle pressure is characterized the II stage of the chronic ischemia? A. *Less than 90 mm Hg. B. Less than 50 mm Hg. C. Less than 140 mm Hg. D. Less than 70 mm Hg. E. Less than 110 mm Hg. What kind of ankle index corresponds to II stage of the chronic ischemia? A. *Less than 0,9. B. Less than 0,5. C. 1,0. D. More than 1,0. E. More than 1,5. What kind of ankle index corresponds to III stage of the chronic ischemia? A. *Less than 0,5. B. Less than 0,9. C. 1,0. D. More than 1,0. E. More than 1,5. Which of the X-ray methods is the most informative at obliterating atherosclerosis? A. *Arteriography B. Abdominal radiography C. Chest radiography D. Radiography limb E. Phlebography 1072. For atherosclerotic lesions at arteriography is characterized by: A. *Segmental occlusion of the arteries B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava D. Dysplasia arteries E. Diffuse stenosis of small arteries 1073. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and endarteritis obliterans? A. *The level of arterial pulsation B. Pain syndrome C. Trophic ulcers D. Changes in coagulation E. Skin color 1074. What method of research is the most informative in the differential diagnosis between atherosclerosis and endarteritis obliterans? A. *Angiography B. ECG C. Biochemical analysis of blood D. Complete blood E. Target biopsy 1075. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and lumbosacral radiculitis? A. *Arterial pulsation in the lower extremities B. Pain syndrome of the lower extremities C. The color of the skin of the lower extremities D. Cold extremities E. Paresthesias of lower extremities 1076. At what level is no ripple at lumbosacral radiculitis? A. *Stored at all levels of B. Calf arteries C. Popliteal artery D. Femoral artery E. Aorta 1077. Which method to study is the most informative in the differential diagnosis between atherosclerosis and diabetic angiopathy? A. *Biochemical analysis of blood B. Complete blood C. Koagulograme D. Imunogramma E. Urinalysis 1078. Which clinical sign is not typical for diabetic angiopathy? A. *No pulsation of femoral artery B. Necrosis of the fingers on the lower extremity C. Trophic ulcers on the foot D. Phlegmon of the foot E. Paresthesias 1079. What are the indications for conservative therapy of obliterative atherosclerosis? A. *I-II stage of chronic arterial insufficiency B. Not shown at all C. III-IV stage of chronic arterial insufficiency D. Leriche syndrome E. Arterial thrombosis 1080. Which drugs has affect on atherogenesis? A. *Cholestyramine B. Trental C. Vasaprostan D. Nicotinic acid E. Aspirin 1081. Which drug does belongs to antiaggregants? A. *Pentoksiphilin B. Cholestyramine C. Vasaprostan D. Nicotinic acid E. Papaverine 1082. What are the indications for surgical arterial reconstruction? A. *II-III stage of chronic arterial insufficiency B. No evidence C. I-II stage of chronic arterial insufficiency D. Gangrene of the lower extremity E. Phlegmon of the lower extremity 1083. Which operation is performed with Leriche syndrome? A. *Aorto-femoral bypass B. Lumbar sympathectomy C. Intimectomy D. Resection of the arteries E. Artery ligation 1084. Which operation is performed at Leriche syndrome? A. *Right answer is absent B. Bypass thick intestinal anastomosis C. Gastrectomy D. Cholecystectomy E. Saphenectomy 1085. What are the indications for endarterectomy: A. *Isolated segmental occlusion of the artery B. Leriche syndrome C. Multi-storey artery occlusion D. Calcinosis artery E. Occlusive disease 1086. What is the most common operation at atherosclerotic occlusion of the femoral artery? A. *Autogenous vein bypass B. Lumbar sympathectomy C. Intimectomy D. Resection of the arteries E. Artery ligation 1087. What is the localization of arterial occlusion requires prophundoplastic? A. *Bifurcation of the common femoral artery B. Bifurcation of the aorta C. Bifurcation of common iliac artery D. Trifurcation popliteal artery E. Bifurcation carotid artery 1088. What is the complication of arterial reconstruction does not require repeated surgical intervention? A. *Deep vein thrombosis B. Arterial thrombosis C. Arterial bleeding 1089. 1090. 1091. 1092. 1093. 1094. 1095. 1096. 1097. D. Injection of synthetic graft E. The increase in lower limb ischemia What are indication to amputation at obliterating atherosclerosis? A. *Gangrene of the lower extremity B. Leriche C. I-II stage of ischemia D. II-III stage of ischemia E. Arterial bleeding Which artery are usually affects occlusive endarteritis? A. *Calf arteries B. Aorta C. Iliac arteries D. Femoral artery E. Deep femoral artery What factors play a very significant role in pathogenesis the obliterative endarteritis? A. *Chronic intoxication B. Hyperlipidemia C. Triglitseridemia D. Vascular injury E. Thrombophlebitis What is the morphological basis of obliterative endarteritis? A. *Intimal hyperplasia B. Atheroma C. Embolism D. Aneurysm E. Arteriovenous fistula What is the fourth stage of obliterating endarteritis? A. *Ulcer-necrotic B. Asymptomatic C. Coronary D. Trophic changes E. Gangrenous What is the main feature of obliterative endarteritis? A. *Intermittent claudication B. Muscle contraction C. Fever D. Arthritic pain E. Ishalgia What is the cause of intermittent claudication? A. *Muscle ischemia B. Trauma C. Ishalgia D. Muscle contraction E. Arthritic pain The most typical localization of intermittent claudication at occlusive disease is? A. *Foot B. Stifle C. Hip D. Hip E. Stomach Cooling stop is characteristic: A. *Surface thrombophlebitis B. Deep thrombophlebitis C. Obliterative endarteritis 1098. 1099. 1100. 1101. 1102. 1103. 1104. 1105. 1106. D. Lymphostasis E. Postthrombotic syndrome Blanching of the skin foot is characteristic: A. *Obliterative endarteritis B. Deep thrombophlebitis C. Surface thrombophlebitis D. Postthrombotic syndrome E. Phlegmon of the foot What is the typical location the venous ulcers at occlusive disease? A. *At fingertips B. In the lower third of the lower extremities C. In the upper third of the lower extremities D. On the back of the knee E. At the hip What is the typical sign for the I stage of obliterating endarteritis? A. *Cooling of the lower extremities B. Intermittent claudication C. Fever D. Pain at rest E. Gangrene What is the typical sign for II stage the obliterative endarteritis? A. *Intermittent claudication B. Fever C. Cooling of the lower extremities D. Gangrene E. Pain at rest What is the typical sign for the III stage of obliterating endarteritis? A. *Pain at rest B. Cooling of the lower extremities C. Fever D. Intermittent claudication E. Gangrene What is the typical sign for the IV stage of obliterating endarteritis? A. *Gangrene B. Cooling of the lower extremities C. Fever D. Pain at rest E. Intermittent claudication What is the most frequent complication the obliterative endarteritis? A. *Arterial thrombosis and gangrene of the extremities B. Bleeding C. Blindness D. Chylorrhea E. Aneurysm What is the main goal of therapy at obliterating endarteritis? A. *Renewal or improvement of capillary circulation B. Resumption pass vein C. Resumption of the entrance of lymph D. Resumption pass arteries E. Improving the innervation of the lower extremity For obliterative endarteritis is characterized by: A. *Intermittent claudication B. Angina C. Dizziness 1107. 1108. 1109. 1110. 1111. 1112. 1113. 1114. 1115. D. Oedema of lower extremities E. Extension of saphenous veins For obliterative endarteritis is characterized by: A. *The pulse absent on the feet B. Hyperbilirubinemia C. Ascites D. Oedema of lower extremities E. Extension of saphenous veins For obliterative endarteritis is characteristic X-ray symptoms: A. *Diffuse stenosis of small arteries B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava D. Arteries dysplasia E. Veins dysplasia For obliterative endarteritis is characteristic X-ray symptoms: A. *No right answer B. Bowls Kloiber C. Pneumoperitoneum D. The symptom of "niche" E. Detelectasis At occlusive disease patient complains on: A. *Intermittent claudication B. Pain in the heart C. Oedema of lower extremities D. Extension of saphenous veins E. Dizziness At obliterating endarteritis patient complains of: A. *Melosalgia B. Pain in the heart C. Pain during urination D. Tenesmus E. Pain in the epigastric area At what level is absent arterial pulsation at obliterative endarteritis ? A. *Arteries foot B. Femoral artery C. Popliteal artery D. Common carotid artery E. Abdominal aorta Which group of drugs are pentoxifyllinum? A. *Antiagrigant B. Antispasmodic C. Antihistamines D. Stimulants metabolism E. Narcotic analgesics Which group of drugs are vasaprostan? A. *Prostaglandins B. Antiagrigant C. Antispasmodic D. Antihistamines E. Stimulants metabolism Which operation is performed at obliterative endarteritis ? A. *Lumbar sympathectomy B. Intimectomy C. Bypass grafting D. Resection of the arteries E. Artery ligation 1116. Which factor is the leader in the development of atherosclerosis? A. *Dyslipoproteinemia. B. Diabetes. C. Suprarenalism. D. Frequent hypothermia. E. Smoking. 1117. Which factor is the leader in the development of obliterative endarteritis? A. *Hypothermia, intoxication. B. Hypercholesterolemia. C. Diabetes. D. Violations electrolytic exchange. E. Suprarenalism. 1118. At what age is the greatest risk of ill atherosclerosis obliterans? A. *Older than 40 years. B. In 20 - 60 years. C. In 19 - 25 years. D. In 30 - 35 years. E. In 35 - 39 years. 1119. At what age is the greatest risk of ill obliterative endarteritis? A. *Up to 40 years. B. 41 - 50 years. C. 51 - 60 years. D. In 10 - 15 years. E. Over 60 years. 1120. At atherosclerosis obliterans first affected: A. *Arteries, aorta. B. Arteriovenous shunt vessels. C. Capillaries. D. Arteries of medium diameter. E. Small arteries. 1121. At obliterative endarteritis first affected: A. *Peripheral arteries. B. Inguinal artery. C. Aorta. D. Ventral trunk. E. The upper and lower mesenteric artery. 1122. At what disease you can auscultated systolic murmur on the major arteries? A. *In obliterating atherosclerosis. B. When occlusive disease. C. With varicose veins. D. In acute venous thrombosis shins. E. When ileofemoralnom venous thrombosis. 1123. With the defeat of what artery atherosclerosis can develops Leriche syndrome? A. *Bifurcation of the aorta, common iliac arteries. B. Popliteal artery. C. Arteries of the lower leg. D. Ventral trunk. E. Inferior mesenteric artery. 1124. What kind of reconstructive operations on the vessels are carried out with Leriche syndrome? A. *Aorto-femoral prosthesis or bypass surgery. B. Operation Linton or Kokkett. C. Leriche's operation. D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation, Babcock’ s operation. E. Embolectomy 1125. What kind of reconstructive operations on the major arteries are carried out with obliterating atherosclerosis? A. *Endarterectomy, bypass surgery or prosthetic arteries. B. Leriche's operation. C. Lumbar sympathectomy. D. Palm’s operation . E. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation. 1126. What operations are conducted in obliterating endartereite lower extremities? A. *Lumbar sympathectomy, Leriche's operation. B. Embolectomy C. Saphenectomy. D. Thrombectomy. E. Intimectomy 1127. What kind of manipulation to be done vascular prostheses ifection? A. *Remove the prosthesis. B. Catheterization subclavian vein. C. Catheterization great saphenous vein. D. Fasciotomy. E. Necrectomy. 1128. Named the arteries that catheterization for aortography with bilateral Leriche syndrome? A. *Brachial artery. B. Total n artery. C. Thigh iliac artery. D. Subclavian artery. E. Rear leg artery 1129. Aorto-occlusive disease at arteriogram characterized by: A. *Uniform narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities. B. Occlusion of peripheral arteries. C. Uneven narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities. D. Occlusion of collateral arteries. E. Occlusion of capillaries. 1130. Lumbar sympathectomy is accompanied by: A. *Removing the spasm of precapillary sphincter . B. Decrease in prothrombin index. C. Normalization of glucose. D. Increased protein content in blood serum. E. Normalization of bilirubin in the blood serum. 1131. To improve the microcirculation provide drugs: A. *Nicotinic acid, reopolyglukine. B. Diphenhydramine, suprastin. C. Anaprilin, lineotol. D. Cytitone, lobeline. E. Amidopyrine, analgin. 1132. What drugs have antisclerotic action? A. *Clofibrate, linetol, parmidin. B. Cytitone, lobeline. C. Fenilin, Omefin. D. Nicotinic acid. E. Diphenhydramine, suprastin. 1133. What methods are used to reduce the concentration of cholesterol and lipoproteins in the blood serum? A. *Plasmapheresis, hemosorption. B. Artificial diuresis. C. Hemodilution. D. Transfusion of blood E. Introduction vasorostana 1134. At what level are removed ganglia at the lumbar sympathectomy? A. *L3 - L4. B. S2 - S3. C. L1. D. Th 10-17 E. Th 8-9. 1135. How soon after the appointment of showing its effect indirect anticoagulants? A. *After 12 - 48 hours. B. After 4 hours. C. After 72 hours. D. After 56 hours. E. 46-56 hours. 1136. Specify non-pharmacological methods of correcting blood coagulation system. A. Hemodilution. B. Hemodialysis. C. Hemosorption. D. Artificial diuresis. E. Limfosorbtsiya. 1137. What are the contrast agents used for angiography? A. *Triyodtrast, verografin. B. Methylene blue. C. Barium sulfate. D. Alprostan. E. Vasoprostan. 1138. Catheterization of the aorta is performed by: A. *Seldinger. B. Billroth. C. Kocher D. Pirogov E. Shalimov 1139. What complications may arise during percutaneous catheterization of the aorta by Seldinger? A. *Bleeding, thrombosis, embolism. B. Acute thrombophlebitis leg veins. C. Relaxation of the diaphragm. D. Thrombosis of the subclavian vein. E. Endocarditis. 1140. At occlusion what arteries can develops Leriche syndrome: A. *Occlusion of the aortic bifurcation, common iliac arteries B. Occlusion of inferior mesenteric artery C. Occlusion of the subclavian and brachial arteries D. Occlusion of the popliteal artery and lower leg E. Occlusion of the internal iliac arteries 1141. At occlusion what arteries can develops unilateral Leriche syndrome? A. *Occlusion of the external and common iliac arteries B. Occlusion of the internal iliac arteries C. Occlusion of the aortic bifurcation D. Occlusion of the deep femoral artery E. Occlusion of popliteal artery 1142. For aorto-arteriography using contrast agents: A. *Triumbrast, verografin, urotrast B. Seabar C. Bilignost D. Holevid E. Iodognost 1143. Aorto-arteriography by percutaneous catheterization of the aorta through a peripheral artery is developed: A. *Seldingerom B. Petrovsky C. Suharev D. Pokrovsky E. Vishnevsky 1144. For aorto-arterigrafii with bilateral Leriche syndrome conducted puncture: A. *Brachialis artery B. Femoral artery C. Popliteal artery D. External iliac artery E. Cubital vein 1145. At obliterating atherosclerosis affected: A. *Aorta and arteries B. Small and small arteries C. Arterivenoznye shunts D. Komunikantni vein E. Arterioles 1146. At obliterating endartereiite affected: A. *Peripheral artery B. Arteriovenous shunts C. Kommunikantnye vein D. Aorta and arteries E. Sural vein 1147. The leading factor in the development of atherosclerotic lesions is: A. *Violation of cholesterol-lipid B. Violation of protein metabolism C. Suprarenalism D. Improving the function of the sympathetic system E. Violation of mineral metabolism 1148. B-lipoproteins show: A. *Antiplatelet effect B. Atherogenic effect C. Spasmolytic D. Antiatherogenic effect E. Surfactant effect 1149. Alpha-lipoproteins has: A. *Atherogenic effect B. Antiatherogenic effect C. Anticoagulant activity D. Antiplatelet effect E. Surfactant effect 1150. At obliterative atherosclerosis of lower limb arteries performed: A. *Bypass surgery, prostheses, endarterectomy B. Leriche's operation, Oppel C. Linton’s operation D. Babcock’s operation E. Troyanov – Trandelenburg’s operation 1151. The most severe complication after reconstructive operations on the major arteries are: A. *Bleeding B. Suppuration C. Thrombosis D. Chylorrhea E. Phlebeurysm 1152. At occlusive disease of the lower extremities performed : A. *Lumbar sympathectomy, Leriche's operation B. Linton’s operation C. Bypass surgery D. Intimectomy E. Troyanov – Trandelenburg’s operation 1153. What are the indications for lumbar sympathectomy at obliterating endartereite? A. *Stage II B. Stage IV C. Gangrene of the lower extremity D. Deep venous thrombosis E. The duration of reactive hyperemia was more than 3 minutes 1154. At segmental occlusion of the bifurcation of the femoral artery what operation is performed: A. *Endarterectomy of the femoral artery B. Bifurcation bypass surgery C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery D. Saphenectomy E. Artery ligation 1155. At segmental occlusion of the superficial femoral artery what operation is performed: A. *Autogenous vein bypass B. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery D. Saphenectomy E. Artery ligation 1156. At segmental occlusion of the popliteal artery what operation is performed: A. *Autogenous vein bypass B. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery D. Saphenectomy E. Artery ligation 1157. At segmental occlusion of the iliac artery what operation is performed: A. *Iliac-femoral aloshuntirovanie B. Autogenous vein bypass C. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery D. Saphenectomy E. Artery ligation 1158. Endarterectomy is performed at: A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans B. Occlusive disease C. Varicose D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema 1159. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery performed at: A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans B. Occlusive disease C. Varicose D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema 1160. Femoropopliteal autovenous bypass surgery is performed at : A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans B. Occlusive disease C. Varicose D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema 1161. Aorto-femoral bifurcation bypass surgery performed at: A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans B. Occlusive disease C. Varicose D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema 1162. Decompression osteoperforation performed at: A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans B. Coxarthrosis C. Varicose D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema 1163. Sympathectomy performed at: A. *Occlusive disease B. Atherosclerosis obliterans C. Varicose D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema 1164. What is the normal number of platelets in the blood? A. *180-320 B. 20-40 C. 40-120 D. 420-650 E. 600-1000 1165. What phase hemocoagulation inhibits heparin: A. *Only the formation of thrombin B. No right answer C. Only the formation of fibrin D. Only the formation of thromboplastin E. It operates on the phase of thrombotic 1166. By indirect anticoagulants include: A. *Preparation of 4-oksikumarina B. Preparations of alkaloids C. Fibrinolytic drugs D. Pentoksifilin E. Thrombolytic drugs 1167. Absolute contraindications to anticoagulation attributes is: A. *Bleeding of any location, hemorrhagic diathesis B. Aplastic anemia C. Respiratory failure D. Cardiovascular insufficiency E. Lack of cerebral circulation 1168. Methods control of coagulation and fibrinolytic systems of blood: A. *Coagulogramm B. Complete blood count C. Determination of the rate of local blood flow D. Blood count E. Biochemical analysis of blood 1169. What vessels are usually affected by atherosclerosis obliterans? A. *Aorta and arteries B. Arterioles C. Microcirculatory bed D. Superficial veins E. Deep veins 1170. What is the morphological basis of atherosclerotic lesions? A. *The accumulation of lipids in the intima B. Thrombosis C. Inflammatory process D. Embolism E. Aneurysm 1171. What is the main cause of atherosclerotic lesions? A. *Hypercholesterolemia, dyslipoproteinemia B. Infection C. Trauma D. Rheumatism, endocarditis E. Myocardial infarction 1172. What principle is the basis classification of ischemic tissues in acute arterial obstruction? A. *Clinical manifestations of ischemic tissues. B. The residual blood flow in the limbs. C. No ripple on the main arteries. D. Segmental principle E. The level of occlusion 1173. Specify non-pharmacological methods of correcting blood coagulation system. A. Hemodilution. B. Hemodialysis. C. Hemosorption. D. Artificial diuresis. E. Limphosorbtsion. 1174. What are the contrast agents used for angiography? A. *Triiodtrast, verografin. B. Barium sulfate. C. Methylene blue. D. Alprostan. E. Vasoprostan. 1175. In stage III acute obstruction of major arteries embolectomy completed: A. *Fasciotomy B. Operation Linton C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation D. Modelung’s operation E. Kokket’s operation 1176. The direct anticoagulant is A. Heparin. B. Phenilin, Omephin. C. Nicotinic acid. D. Streptokinase. E. Acetylsalicylic acid. 1177. In case of overdose of heparin used: A. *Protamine sulfate. B. Rheopolyglucine. C. Albumin. D. Phibrinolysin. E. 10% glucose solution. 1178. For embolectomy used: A. *Fogarty probe . B. Dzhadkins catheter . C. Babcock’s vein stripper. D. Nelaton’s probe . E. Blekmor’s probe 1179. Best results embolectomy occur during an operation in the first place: A. *6 hours. B. 48 hours. C. 8:00. D. 24 hours. E. 12 hours. 1180. What are the methods embolectomy arteries? A. *Direct and indirect embolectomy . B. Fasciotomy. C. Intimtrombektomiya. D. Shunting. E. Endarterectomy. 1181. Indicate the surgical treatment acute thrombosis of major arteries. A. Intimtrombectomy, thrombectomy, bypass surgery. B. Emboleectomy. C. Fasciotomy. D. Sympathectomy. E. Leriche's operation. 1182. Types embolectomy : A. *Direct, indirect B. Retrograde C. Full, partial D. Open, half closed, closed E. Rising 1183. The most frequent cause of arterial thrombosis is: A. *Blood disease B. Obliterating atherosclerosis C. Trauma D. Aneurysm E. Diabetes mellitus 1184. To angiographic signs embolisation of major arteries relates: A. *Uniform narrowing of major vessels B. Breaking contrast, poorer collateral channel, the absence of signs of atherosclerosis C. The dramatic expansion of the main vessel D. Pronounced collateral blood flow E. Phlebeurysm 1185. To angiographic signs of acute thrombosis the major arteries include: A. *Aneurysmal expansion of arteries B. Weak collateral blood flow C. Slanted posted line break contrast, unequal contours of the arteries, developed collateral network D. Uneven, serrated contours artery E. Phlebeurysm 1186. Severe pallor of skin is characteristic for: A. *Artery Embolism B. Varicose C. Deep phlebothrombosis 1187. 1188. 1189. 1190. 1191. 1192. 1193. 1194. 1195. D. Postthrombophlebitic syndrome E. Phlegmon limb Expressed cold extremities is characteristic for: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Varicose C. Deep phlebothrombosis D. Postthrombophlebitic syndrome E. Phlegmon limb Full anesthesia limbs is characteristic for: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Varicose C. Deep phlebothrombosis D. Postthrombophlebitic syndrome E. Phlegmon limb The absence pulsations on the extremities is characteristicfor : A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Varicose C. Deep phlebothrombosis D. Postthrombotic syndrome E. Phlegmon limb Embolectomy performed at: A. *Artery Embolism B. Varicose C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Postthrombotic syndrome E. Phlegmon limb Trombintimectomy performed at: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Artery Embolism D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicose Autovenous bypass grafting is performed when: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Artery Embolism D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicose Thrombolytic therapy is indicated for: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Extremity lymphedema C. Artery Embolism D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicose Acute myocardial infarction is a risk factor: A. *Artery Embolism B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Bacterial endocarditis is a risk factor: A. *Artery Embolism B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose 1196. 1197. 1198. 1199. 1200. 1201. 1202. 1203. 1204. D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Rheumatic heart disease is a risk factor: A. *Artery Embolism B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Abdominal aortic aneurysm is a risk factor for: A. *Artery Embolism B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Atrial fibrillation is a risk factor: A. *Artery Embolism B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Cardiac fibrillationis a risk factor: A. *Artery Embolism B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Obliterating atherosclerosis is a risk factor: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Closed trauma limb is risk factor: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Systemic lupus erythematosus is a risk factor: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Acute leukemia is a risk factor: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Extravessels compression is a risk factor: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose 1205. 1206. 1207. 1208. 1209. 1210. 1211. 1212. 1213. D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Severe pallor of skin is characteristic for: A. *No right answer B. Varicose C. Deep phlebothrombosis D. Postthrombotic syndrome E. Phlegmon limb Expressed cold extremities is characteristic for: A. *No right answer B. Varicose C. Deep phlebothrombosis D. Postthrombotic syndrome E. Phlegmon limb Full anesthesia limbs characteristic: A. *No right answer B. Varicose C. Deep phlebothrombosis D. Postthrombotic syndrome E. Phlegmon limb The absence pulsations on the extremities artery is characteristic for: A. *No right answer B. Varicose C. Deep phlebothrombosis D. Postthrombotic syndrome E. Phlegmon limb Embolectomy performed at: A. *No right answer B. Varicose C. Deep phlebothrombosis D. Posttromboflebitichnogo syndrome E. Phlegmon limb Trombintimectomy performed at: A. *No right answer B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Artery Embolism D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicose Autovenous bypass grafting is performed when: A. *No right answer B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Artery Embolism D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicose Thrombolytic therapy is indicated for: A. *No right answer B. Extremity lymphedema C. Artery Embolism D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicose Acute myocardial infarction is a risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose 1214. 1215. 1216. 1217. 1218. 1219. 1220. 1221. 1222. D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Bacterial endocarditis is a risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Rheumatic heart disease is a risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Abdominal aortic aneurysm is a risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Atrial fibrillation is a risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Cardiac fibrillation is a risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Arterial thrombosis C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Obliterating atherosclerosis is a risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Closed trauma limb risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Systemic lupus erythematosus is a risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Acute leukemia is a risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose 1223. 1224. 1225. 1226. 1227. 1228. 1229. 1230. 1231. D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Extra vessels artery compression is a risk factor: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Angiography is a procedure risk factor: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome Angiography is a procedure risk factor: A. *No right answer B. Artery Embolism C. Varicose D. Phlegmon limb E. Postthrombotic syndrome What drugs belong to a direct anticoagulant? A. *Fraxiparine, B. Sinkumar, C. Streptokinase, D. Trental, E. Diclofenac, What drugs belong to the indirect anticoagulants? A. *Sinkumar B. Fraxiparine C. Streptokinase D. Trental E. Diclofenac What drugs belong to fibrinolytics? A. *Streptokinase, urokinase B. Heparin C. Sinkumar, fenilin D. Trental, Pentoksifilin E. Diclofenac, Naklofen What is initial dose Streptokinase? A. *250000 units B. 5000 C. 10000 points D. 100000 units E. 1000000 Units What drug is used in the overdose of heparin? A. *Protamine sulfate B. Fraxiparine C. Streptokinase D. Trental E. Diclophenac Which drug is used in the overdose of heparin? A. *No right answer B. Fraxiparine C. Streptokinase 1232. 1233. 1234. 1235. 1236. 1237. 1238. 1239. 1240. D. Trental E. Diclophenac What drug is used in an overdose of streptokinase? A. *Aminocaproic acid, trasylol B. Fraxiparine, Clexane C. Protamine sulfate D. Trental, Pentoksifilin E. Diclofenac, Naklofen What is normal prothrombin index? A. *85-100% B. 10-20% C. 30-60% D. 50-70% E. 100-120% What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of anticoagulants? A. *Prothrombin index B. The number of platelets in the blood C. The level of plasma fibrinogen D. Trombotest E. Plasma recalcification time What is the normal level of plasma fibrinogen? A. *2-4 g / l B. 6.8 grams / liter C. 10-16 grams / liter D. 30-50 grams / liter E. 75-100 grams / liter What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of thrombolytics? A. *The level of plasma fibrinogen B. The number of platelets in the blood C. Prothrombin index D. Thrombotest E. Plasma recalcification time What are the normal values of plasma recalcification time? A. *60-120 seconds B. 0.5-2 seconds C. 10-40 seconds D. 40-60 seconds E. 4-8 minutes What are the normal rates thrombotest? A. *IV-V degree B. I-II degree C. II-III degree D. VI-VIII degree E. X-XII level What is the normal number of platelets in the blood? A. *180-320 109 / l B. 20-40 109 / l C. 40-120 109 / l D. 420-650 109 / l E. 600-1000 109 / l What phase hemocoagulation inhibits heparin: A. *Only the formation of thrombin B. No right answer C. Only the formation of fibrin 1241. 1242. 1243. 1244. 1245. 1246. 1247. 1248. 1249. D. Only the formation of thromboplastin E. It operates on the phase of thrombotic Indirect anticoagulants include: A. *Preparation of 4-oksikumarina B. Preparations of alkaloids C. Fibrinolytic drugs D. Pentoksiphylin E. Thrombolitic drugs The absolute contraindication of anticoagulants include: A. *Bleeding of any location, hemorrhagic diathesis B. Aplastic anemia C. Respiratory failure D. Cardiovascular insufficiency E. Lack of cerebral circulation Activators of fibrinolysis include: A. *Nicotinic acid, Complamin B. Phenilin, Omefin C. Gastrotsepin, Venter D. Vitamin B E. Vitamins A, C Preparations thrombolytic action are: A. *Phibrinolysin, celiasa, streptokinase B. Strophanthus C. Tselonid, lantozid D. Rheopolyglucine, poliglucin E. Trental Methods of control the coagulation and fibrinolytic systems of blood: A. *Coagulogramm B. Complete blood C. Determination of the rate of local blood flow D. Blood count E. Biochemical analysis of blood At bleeding caused by anticoagulants of indirect action shall appoint: A. *Vicasol B. Pipolphen C. Digitoxin D. Hydrocortisone E. Pentoksiphilin Clinical signs the embolism arteries in the first hours is A. Severe pain in the limbs B. Dizziness C. Nausea D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia Clinical signs the embolism arteries in the first hours A. Cold extremities B. Dizziness C. Nausea D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is A. Severe weakness of the affected limb B. Dizziness C. Nausea 1250. 1251. 1252. 1253. 1254. 1255. 1256. 1257. 1258. D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is A. Paleness of the skin of the affected limb B. Dizziness C. Nausea D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is A. The deterioration of the picture subcutaneous veins of the affected limb B. Dizziness C. Nausea D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is A. Changing the surface sensitivity of the affected limb B. Dizziness C. Nausea D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is A. Changing the deep sensitivity of the affected limb B. Dizziness C. Nausea D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is A. Violation of the function of the affected limb B. Dizziness C. Nausea D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is A. The disappearance of pulsation of the arteries to the level of obstruction B. Dizziness C. Nausea D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is A. No right answer B. Dizziness C. Nausea D. Limb gangrene E. Dystonia At occlusion of the bifurcation aorta region of ischemia captures A. Both legs and lower abdomen B. Lower limb to crural arch C. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh D. Lower extremity to the knee E. Foot When occlusion of the bifurcation of the aorta region of ischemia captures A. No right answer B. Lower limb to crural arch C. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh 1259. 1260. 1261. 1262. 1263. 1264. 1265. 1266. 1267. D. Lower extremity to the knee E. Foot At occlusion of iliac artery ischemia region captures A. Lower limb to crural arch B. Both legs and lower abdomen C. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh D. Lower extremity to the knee E. Foot When occlusion of iliac artery ischemia region captures A. No right answer B. Both legs and lower abdomen C. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh D. Lower extremity to the knee E. Foot At occlusion of the femoral artery ischemia region captures A. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh B. Lower limb to crural arch C. Both legs and lower abdomen D. Lower extremity to the knee E. Foot At occlusion of the femoral artery ischemia region captures A. No right answer B. Lower limb to crural arch C. Both legs and lower abdomen D. Lower extremity to the knee E. Foot At occlusion of the popliteal artery ischemia region captures A. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh B. Lower limb to crural arch C. Both legs and lower abdomen D. Lower extremity to the knee E. Foot At occlusion of the popliteal artery ischemia region captures A. No right answer B. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh C. Lower limb to crural arch D. Both legs and lower abdomen E. Foot At occlusion of the popliteal artery ischemia region captures A. Lower extremity to the knee B. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh C. Lower limb to crural arch D. Both legs and lower abdomen E. Foot At occlusion of the subclavian artery ischemia region captures A. All hand B. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder C. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder D. Both hands E. Brush When occlusion of the subclavian artery ischemia region captures A. No right answer B. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder C. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder 1268. 1269. 1270. 1271. 1272. 1273. 1274. 1275. 1276. D. Both hands E. Brush When occlusion of the axillary artery ischemia region captures A. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder B. All hand C. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder D. Both hands E. Brush At occlusion of the axillary artery ischemia region captures A. No right answer B. All hand C. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder D. Both hands E. Brush At occlusion of the brachial artery area of ischemia captures A. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder B. All hand C. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder D. Both hands E. Brush At occlusion of the brachial artery area of ischemia captures A. No right answer B. All hand C. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder D. Both hands E. Brush How many days can occur secondary deep vein thrombosis limb? A. *3-6 days B. 1-2 days C. 7-8 days D. 7-10 days E. 14 days How many days can occur secondary deep vein thrombosis limb? A. *No right answer B. 1-2 days C. 7-8 days D. 7-10 days E. 14 days Arterial thrombosis developed on the background: A. *Atherosclerotic lesions B. Ulcer C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Ulcerative colitis E. Chronic gastritis Arterial thrombosis developed on the background: A. *Obliterative endartereita B. Ulcer C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Ulcerative colitis E. Chronic gastritis Arterial thrombosis developed on the background: A. *Nonspecific aortoarteriitis B. Ulcer C. Chronic pancreatitis 1277. 1278. 1279. 1280. 1281. 1282. 1283. 1284. 1285. D. Ulcerative colitis E. Chronic gastritis Arterial thrombosis developed on the background: A. *Infectious Diseases B. Ulcer C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Ulcerative colitis E. Chronic gastritis Arterial thrombosis developed on the background: A. *Erythrocytosis B. Ulcer C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Ulcerative colitis E. Chronic gastritis Arterial thrombosis developed on the background: A. *Hypercoagulation B. Ulcer C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Ulcerative colitis E. Chronic gastritis How long is the reversible phase change? A. *2-3 hours B. 3-5 hours C. 5-6 hours D. 7-8 hours E. 10-12 hours How long is the reversible phase change? A. *No right answer B. 3-5 hours C. 5-6 hours D. 7-8 hours E. 10-12 hours How long is the growth phase of irreversible changes A. 5-6 hours B. 2-3 hours C. 3-5 hours D. 7-8 hours E. 10-12 hours How long is the growth phase of irreversible changes A. No right answer B. 2-3 hours C. 3-5 hours D. 7-8 hours E. 10-12 hours For the diagnosis of embolism of arteries of extremities most informative method is: A. *Doppler ultrasound B. Rheovasography C. Radiography limbs D. ECG E. Echocardiography To diagnose thrombosis of arteries most informative method is: A. *Doppler ultrasound B. Rheovasography C. Radiography limbs 1286. 1287. 1288. 1289. 1290. 1291. 1292. 1293. 1294. D. ECG E. Echocardiography For the diagnosis embolism of arteries the extremities most informative method is: A. *Arteriography B. Rheovasography C. Radiography limbs D. ECG E. Echocardiography For the diagnosis embolism of arteries the extremities most informative method is: A. *No right answer B. Rheovasography C. Radiography limbs D. ECG E. Echocardiography At arteries embolism differential diagnosis must be with: A. *Arterial spasm B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Lymphadenitis D. Coxarthrosis E. Strangulated hernia When embolism arteries differential diagnosis must be with: A. *Acute heart failure on a background of obliterating arterial diseases B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Lymphadenitis D. Coxarthrosis E. Strangulated hernia At arteries embolism differential diagnosis must be with: A. *Stratification of abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Lymphadenitis D. Coxarthrosis E. Strangulated hernia At arteries embolism differential diagnosis must be with: A. *Acute transverse poliomyelitis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Lymphadenitis D. Coxarthrosis E. Strangulated hernia When embolism arteries differential diagnosis must be with: A. *No right answer B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Lymphadenitis D. Coxarthrosis E. Strangulated hernia Absolute contraindication for surgical treatment of embolism is: A. *Agony state of patients B. Angina C. Transient ischemic attack D. Fracture limb E. Heart disease Absolute contraindication for surgical treatment of embolism is: A. *Total contracture limb B. Angina C. Transient ischemic attack D. Fracture limb E. Heart disease 1295. Absolute contraindication for surgical treatment of embolism is: A. *Limb gangrene B. Angina C. Transient ischemic attack D. Fracture limb E. Heart disease 1296. Absolute contraindication for surgical treatment of embolism is: A. *Critically ill patients with a mild degree of ischemia B. Angina C. Transient ischemic attack D. Fracture limb E. Heart disease 1297. Relative contraindications to operation at a mild degree of acute limb ischemia and the absence of its progression is A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Angina C. Varicose disease D. PTFS E. Angiodysplasia 1298. Relative contraindications to operation at a mild degree of acute limb ischemia and the absence of its progression is A. Insult B. Angina C. Varicose disease D. PTFS E. Angiodysplasia 1299. Relative contraindications to operation at a mild degree of acute limb ischemia and the absence of its progression is A. Inoperable tumor B. Angina C. Varicose disease D. PTFS E. Angiodysplasia 1300. Relative contraindications to operation at a mild degree of acute limb ischemia and the absence of its progression is A. No right answer B. Angina C. Varicose disease D. PTFS E. Angiodysplasia 1301. For elimination spasm in acute arterial insufficiency using: A. *Papaverine B. Alprostan C. Heparin D. Warfarin E. Dimexide 1302. For elimination spasm in acute arterial insufficiency using: A. *No-shpa B. Alprostan C. Heparin D. Warfarin E. Dimexide 1303. The elimination of spasm in acute arterial insufficiency using: A. *Halidor B. Alprostan C. Heparin D. Warfarin E. Dimexide 1304. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include: A. *Embolintimtrmbectomy B. Thoracic sympathectomy C. Transverse sympathectomy D. Periarterial simpaekectomy E. Amputation 1305. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include: A. *Intimectomy B. Thoracic sympathectomy C. Transverse sympathectomy D. Periarterial simpaectomy E. Amputation 1306. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include: A. *Shunt surgery B. Thoracic sympathectomy C. Transverse sympathectomy D. Periarterial sympathectomy E. Amputation 1307. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include: A. *Resection of the artery with prosthetic B. Thoracic sympathectomy C. Transverse sympathectomy D. Periarterial sympathectomy E. Amputation 1308. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include: A. *Plasticity of arterial wall with patches B. Thoracic sympathectomy C. Transverse sympathectomy D. Periarterial sympathectomy E. Amputation 1309. To palliative surgery for acute arterial insufficiency include: A. *Periarterial sympaectomy B. Plasticity of arterial wall with patches C. Resection artery prosthetic D. Shunt surgery E. Endarterectomy 1310. To palliative surgery for acute arterial insufficiency include: A. *Transverse sympathectomy B. Plasticity of arterial wall with patches C. Resection artery prosthetic D. Shunt surgery E. Endarterectomy 1311. To palliative surgery for acute arterial insufficiency include: A. *Amputation B. Plasticity of arterial wall with patches C. Resection artery prosthetic D. Shunt surgery E. Endarterectomy 1312. Types embolectomy A. Straight B. Oblique C. Transverse D. Ring E. No right answer 1313. Types embolectomy A. Indirect B. Oblique C. Transverse D. Ring E. No right answer 1314. For secondary prevention thrombosis during the operation in the vascular bed is introduced A. Heparin B. Solcoseryl C. Vicasol D. Actovegin E. No-shpa 1315. For secondary prevention of thrombosis during the operation in the vascular bed is introduced A. No right answer B. Solcoseryl C. Vicasol D. Actovegin E. No-shpa 1316. For secondary prevention of thrombosis during the operation in the vascular bed is introduced at a dose of heparin: A. *5000 B. 10000 C. 1000 D. 7000 E. 9000 1317. Shunting operations include A. Femoropopliteal bypass B. Endarterectomy C. Saphenectomy D. Fasciotomy E. Ganglionectomy 1318. Shunting operations include A. Femoropopliteal bypass autovenous B. Endarterectomy C. Saphenectomy D. Fasciotomy E. Ganglionectomy 1319. What volume of blood flows through superficial veins? A. *10-15 % B. 5 % C. 30-40 % D. 70-80 % E. 90 % 1320. Where does a great saphenous vein drain in? A. *Femoral vein B. The veins of shin C. Popliteal vein 1321. 1322. 1323. 1324. 1325. 1326. 1327. 1328. 1329. D. External iliac vein E. Vena cava inferior Where does a small saphenous vein drain in? A. *Popliteal vein B. Vena cava inferior C. External iliac vein D. Femoral vein E. The veins of shin The localization of great saphenous vein inflow is: A. *2-3 sm. below inguinal ligament B. In upper third of the lower extremity C. In a popliteal fossa D. In lower third of thigh E. In a lumbar area The localization of small saphenous vein inflow is: A. *In a popliteal fossa B. In upper third of the lower extremity C. In lower third of thigh D. 2-3 sm. below inguinal ligament E. In a lumbar area What veins belongs to the superficial system? A. *Small and great saphenous vein B. The veins of shin C. Superficial and deep femoral vein D. Brachial veins E. Elbow and radial veins What veins belongs to the deep system? A. *V. radіalіs B. Small saphenous vein C. Great saphenous vein D. V. basіlіca E. V. ceрhalіca What factor prevails in the development of primary varicosity? A. *Weakness of connecting tissue of vessels B. Arterio-venous fistulas C. Venous hypoplasia D. Diabetes mellitus E. Obliterative atherosclerosis What are the hormonal changes contribute to the development of varicosity? A. *Pregnancy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Miksedema E. Insufficiency of suprarenal glands What is the pathological basis of the development of chronic venous insufficiency? A. *Venous hypertension B. Block of lymph outflow C. Arterial ischemia D. Hypertension E. Disturbance of innervation What is the cause of hypertension in the venous system of lower extremities? A. *Venous valvular incompetence B. Arterial ischemia C. Hypertension D. Block of lymph outflow E. Disturbance of innervation 1330. What does the venous valvular incompetence result in? A. *Venous hypertension B. Arterial ischemia C. Hypertension D. Disturbance of innervation E. Disturbance of lymph outflow 1331. What is the characteristic sign of the I stage of varicosity? A. *Heavy sensation B. Transitory edema C. Permanent edema D. Hyperpigmentation E. Trophic ulcer 1332. What is the characteristic sign of the IIA stage of varicosity? A. *Transitory edema B. Heavy sensation C. Permanent edema D. Hyperpigmentation E. Trophic ulcer 1333. What is the characteristic sign of the IIB stage of varicosity? A. *Hyperpigmentation B. Heavy sensation C. Transitory edema D. Open trophic ulcer E. Healed trophic ulcer 1334. What is the characteristic sign of the IIB stage of varicosity? A. *Permanent edema B. Heavy sensation C. Transitory edema D. Open trophic ulcer E. Healed trophic ulcer 1335. What is the characteristic sign of the III stage of varicosity? A. *Trophic ulcer B. Heavy sensation C. Transitory edema D. Permanent edema E. Hyperpigmentation 1336. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of "heavy sensation"? A. *I B. 0 C. IIA D. IIB E. III 1337. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of a transitory edema? A. *IIA B. 0 C. I D. IIB E. III 1338. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of a permanent edema? A. *IIB B. 0 C. I D. IIA E. III 1339. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of a hyperpigmentation? A. *IIB B. 0 C. I D. IIA E. III 1340. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of lipodermatosclerosis? A. *IIB B. 0 C. I D. IIA E. III 1341. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of opened trophic ulcer? A. *III B. 0 C. I D. IIA E. IIB 1342. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of the healed trophic ulcer? A. *III B. 0 C. I D. IIA E. IIB 1343. Which stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by valvular incompetence of superficial veins? A. *I B. 0 C. IIA D. IIB E. III 1344. Which stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by valvular incompetence of superficial and perforative veins? A. *II B. 0 C. I D. III E. IV 1345. Which stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by valvular incompetence of superficial, perforative and deep veins? A. *IIB-III B. 0 C. I D. IIA E. IV 1346. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical: A. *Heavy sensation B. Intermittent claudication C. Rest pains D. Disappearance of sensation E. Disappearance of movements 1347. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical: A. *Transitory edema of lower extremities B. Intermittent claudication C. Rest pains D. Disappearance of sensation E. Disappearance of movements 1348. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical: A. *Varicose veins B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity C. Pallor of the lower extremity D. Disappearance of sensation E. Disappearance of movements 1349. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical: A. *Lipodermatosclerosis of shin B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity C. Pallor of the lower extremity D. Disappearance of sensation E. Disappearance of movements 1350. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical: A. *Trophic ulcer of shin B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity C. Pallor of the lower extremity D. Disappearance of sensation E. Disappearance of movements 1351. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical: A. *Hyperpigmentation of shin B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity C. Pallor of the lower extremity D. Disappearance of sensation E. Disappearance of movements 1352. Heavy sensation of lower extremities is characteristic for: A. *Varicosity B. Atherosclerosis obliterans C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Embolisms of femoral artery 1353. The transitory edema of lower extremities is characteristic for: A. *Varicosity B. Atherosclerosis obliterans C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Embolisms of femoral artery 1354. Lipodermatosclerosis of the lower third of shin is characteristic for: A. *Varicosity B. Atherosclerosis obliterans C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Embolisms of femoral artery 1355. The hyperpigmentation of the lower third of shin is characteristic for: A. *Varicosity B. Atherosclerosis obliterans C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Embolisms of femoral artery 1356. The trophic ulcer of the lower third of shin is characteristic for: A. *Varicosity B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Embolisms of femoral artery 1357. What test is used for determination of valvular incompetence of superficial veins? A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test B. Talman's test C. Pratt's test D. Mayo-Pratt's test E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) 1358. What test is used for determination of valvular incompetence of perforative veins? A. *Pratt's test B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test C. Gackenbruch's test D. Homan'se's test E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) 1359. What test is used for the estimation of the passability of deep veins? A. *Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test C. Gackenbruch's test D. Pratt's test E. Talman's test 1360. The Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test is used in the diagnostics of: A. *Valvular incompetence of superficial veins B. Valvular incompetence of perforative veins C. Passability of deep veins D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema of the extremity 1361. The Talman's test is used in the diagnostics of: A. *Valvular incompetence of perforative veins B. Valvular incompetence of superficial veins C. Passability of deep veins D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema of the extremity 1362. The Pratt's test is used in the diagnostics of: A. *Valvular incompetence of perforative veins B. Valvular incompetence of superficial veins C. Passability of deep veins D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema of the extremity 1363. The Mayo-Pratt's test is used in the diagnostics of: A. *Passability of deep veins B. Valvular incompetence of perforative veins C. Valvular incompetence of superficial veins D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema of the extremity 1364. The Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) is used in the diagnostics of: A. *Passability of deep veins B. Valvular incompetence of perforative veins C. Valvular incompetence of superficial veins D. Deep vein thrombosis E. Lymphedema of the extremity 1365. What complication is typical for varicosity? A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis B. Arterial thrombosis C. Paresis D. Lymphostasis E. Gangrene 1366. More frequently the subcutaneous thrombophlebitis develops as a result of: A. *Varicosity B. Atherosclerosis obliterans C. Lymphedema of lower extremities D. Acute appendicitis E. Acute cholecystitis 1367. What complication is typical for varicosity? A. *Trophic ulcer B. Arterial thrombosis C. Paresis D. Plegia E. Gangrene 1368. What is the basic method of the diagnostics of arterio-venous fistulas? A. *Phlebography B. Coagulogram C. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) D. Ultrasound examination E. Arteriography 1369. What is the basic method of the diagnostics of venous angiodysplasia? A. *Phlebography B. Coagulogram C. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) D. Ultrasound examination E. Arteriography 1370. A phlebography is used for the diagnostics of: A. *Arterio-venous fistulas B. Atherosclerosis obliterans C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Lymphedema E. Gynaecological pathology 1371. A phlebography is used for the diagnostics of: A. *Venous angiodysplasia B. Atherosclerosis obliterans C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Lymphedema E. Gynaecological pathology 1372. What method is used for the diagnostics of valvular incompetence of perforative and deep veins? A. *Ultrasound duplex scanning B. Coagulogram C. Reovasography D. Ultrasound doppler examination E. Arteriography 1373. What method is used for the estimation of the passability of deep veins? A. *Ultrasound examination B. Coagulogram C. Reovasography D. ECG E. Arteriography 1374. What operation is performed for varicosity? A. *Saphenectomy B. Thrombectomy C. Ligation of vein D. Endarterectomy E. Femoro-popliteal by-passing 1375. What treatment is indicated in varicosity of the IIA stage? A. *Saphenectomy B. Conservative treatment C. Scelerotherapy D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation E. Saphenectomy with the subfascial ligation of perforative veins (Linton's operation) 1376. What treatment is indicated for a noncomplicated varicosity? A. *Saphenectomy B. Conservative treatment C. Scelerotherapy D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation E. Saphenectomy with the subfascial ligation of perforative veins (Linton's operation) 1377. To the real causes of varicosity relapse regard: A. *Remaining of main trunk, long stump of great saphenous vein B. Thrombosis of vena cava inferior C. Arterio-venous fistula D. Insufficiency of the ostial valve E. Thrombosis of iliac veins 1378. To the functional tests for the detection of valvular incompetence of superficial veins used: A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test B. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) C. Oppel's test D. Pratt's test E. Talman's test 1379. To the functional tests for the detection of valvular incompetence of perforative veins used: A. *Talman's test B. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test D. Gackenbruch's test E. Oppel's test 1380. To the functional tests for the detection of valvular incompetence of deep veins used: A. *Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test C. Gackenbruch's test D. Oppel's test E. Talman's test 1381. What is the sequence of the saphenectomy performance? A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation, Bebcock's, Linton's B. Linton's operation, Cocketh's, Bebcock's C. Narath's operation, Bebcock's, Cocketh's D. Bebcock's operation, Linton's, Troyanov-Trendelenburg's E. Bebcock's operation, Narath's, Cocketh's operation 1382. A maximal amount of perforative veins is located in: A. *Lower third of shin B. Upper third of shin C. Middle third of shin D. Area of thigh E. Lower third of thigh 1383. The contraindication for saphenectomy in varicosity is: A. *Obstruction of deep veins B. Insufficiency of valves of perforative veins C. Insufficiency of the ostial valve D. Diffuse type of great saphenous vein E. Valvular incompetence of sural veins 1384. For the saphenectomy operation used: A. *Bebcock's catheter B. Blackmore's zond C. Fogarti's catheter D. Nelaton's catheter E. Nasogastric zond 1385. What operations are performed on the perforative veins of lower extremities: A. *Linton's, Cocketh's operation B. Bebcock's, Narath's C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's D. Madelung's E. Felder's 1386. To the indirect anticoagulants regard the medicines: A. *Fenilin, Omephin, Pelentan. B. Tiklid, Parmidin. C. Papaverin, Platyphyllin. D. Nicotine acid. E. Miscleronum, Lypoic acid. 1387. To the direct anticoagulants belongs: A. *Heparin. B. Fenilin, Omephin. C. Nicotine acid. D. Streptokinase. E. Aspirin. 1388. Saphenectomy is performed for: A. *Varicosity B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis 1389. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation is performed for: A. *Varicosity B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis 1390. The operation crossectomy is performed for: A. *Varicosity B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis 1391. Linton's operation is performed for: A. *Varicosity B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis 1392. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation is: A. *Ligation of saphenofemoral junction B. Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein C. Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins D. Subfascial ligation of perforative veins E. Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein 1393. Narath's operation is: A. *Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein B. Ligation of saphenofemoral junction C. Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein D. Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins E. Subfascial ligation of perforative veins 1394. Bebcock's operation is: A. *Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein B. Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein C. Ligation of saphenofemoral junction D. Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins E. Subfascial ligation of perforative veins 1395. Cocketh's operation is: A. *Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins B. Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein C. Ligation of saphenofemoral junction D. Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein E. Subfascial ligation of perforative veins 1396. Linton's operation is: A. *Subfascial ligation of perforative veins B. Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein C. Ligation of saphenofemoral junction D. Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein E. Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins 1397. The Narath's operation is performed for: A. *Varicosity B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis 1398. The Bebcock's operation is performed for: A. *Varicosity B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis 1399. The Cocketh's operation is performed for: A. *Varicosity B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis 1400. The indication for the scelerotherapy is: A. *Reticular varicosity B. Obliterative atherosclerosis C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Thrombosis of deep veins E. Lymphedema of the extremity 1401. The indication for the scelerotherapy is: A. *Teleangiectasy B. Obliterative atherosclerosis C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Thrombosis of deep veins E. Lymphedema of the extremity 1402. The indication for the scelerotherapy is: A. *Relapse of varicosity B. Obliterative atherosclerosis C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Thrombosis of deep veins E. Lymphedema of the extremity 1403. The method of choice of the treatment of reticular varicosity is: A. *Scelerotherapy B. Linton's operation C. Saphenectomy D. Endarterectomy E. Autovenous by-passing 1404. The method of choice of the treatment of teleangiectasy is: A. *Scelerotherapy B. Linton's operation C. Saphenectomy D. Endarterectomy E. Autovenous by-passing 1405. The method of choice of the treatment of relapse of varicosity is: A. *Scelerotherapy B. Linton's operation C. Saphenectomy D. Endarterectomy E. Autovenous by-passing 1406. For the scelerotherapy used: A. *Fibrovein B. Triumbrast C. Verographin D. Barium sulfate E. Bilignost 1407. After saphenectomy the elastic compression is used for: A. *2-3 months B. 3 days C. 7 days D. 2 weeks E. 3-4 weeks 1408. For the treatment of the varicosity of the I degree the elastic stocks and bandages are used of the: A. *I degree of compression B. II degree of compression C. III degree of compression 1409. 1410. 1411. 1412. 1413. 1414. 1415. 1416. 1417. D. IV degree of compression E. The compression stocks are not used For the treatment of varicosity of II degree the elastic stocks and bandages are used of the: A. *II degree of compression B. I degree of compression C. III degree of compression D. IV degree of compression E. The compression stocks are not used After saphenectomy the elastic stocks and bandages are used of the: A. *II degree of compression B. I degree of compression C. III degree of compression D. IV degree of compression E. The compression stocks are not used In patients with a trophic ulcer the elastic stocks and bandages are used of the: A. *III degree of compression B. II degree of compression C. I degree of compression D. IV degree of compression E. The compression stocks are not used Endotelon is used for the treatment of: A. *Varicosity B. Ulcerous disease C. Uterine bleeding D. Atherosclerosis obliterans E. Hypertensive disease Detralex is used for the treatment of: A. *Varicosity B. Ulcerous disease C. Uterine bleeding D. Atherosclerosis obliterans E. Hypertensive disease Flebodia is used for the treatment of: A. *Varicosity B. Ulcerous disease C. Uterine bleeding D. Atherosclerosis obliterans E. Hypertensive disease Troksevasin is used for the treatment of: A. *Varicosity B. Ulcerous disease C. Uterine bleeding D. Atherosclerosis obliterans E. Hypertensive disease Why the saphenectomy does always begins with the ligation of saphenofemoral junction? A. *To prevent pulmonary embolism B. To prevent bleeding C. To prevent saphenofemoral reflux D. To insert easy a venous extractor E. To perform the scelerotherapy What is the basic sign of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Painful cord along a great saphenous vein B. Trophic ulcer C. A gangrene of toes D. Absence of pulsation E. Edema of the lower extremity 1418. Painful cord along a great saphenous vein is characteristic for: A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis B. Lymphedema C. Atherosclerosis obliterans D. Thrombangiitis obliterans E. Thrombosis of deep veins 1419. Hyperemia and infiltrate along a great saphenous vein is characteristic for: A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis B. Lymphedema C. Atherosclerosis obliterans D. Thrombangiitis obliterans E. Thrombosis of deep veins 1420. What are the clinical manifestations of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Painful infiltrate and hyperemia along a great saphenous vein B. Pale cold extremity, pulsation is absent C. The hot cyanotic edematous lower extremity D. The pale edematous lower extremity E. Gangrene of toes and trophic ulcer 1421. What is the main danger of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Pulmonary embolism B. Venous insufficiency C. Trophic ulcer D. A gangrene of toes E. Paralysis 1422. To the pulmonary embolism can lead: A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis B. Lymphedema C. Obliterative atherosclerosis D. Obliterative thrombangiitis E. Raynaud's phenomenon 1423. Development of edema of the extremity in the case of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis specifies on: A. *Lesion of deep veins B. Infection C. Cardiac insufficiency D. Kidney insufficiency E. Development of lymphostasis 1424. What is the typical treatment of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Surgical treatment B. Anticoagulants C. Thrombolytics D. Spasmolytics E. Vitamins 1425. What is the main cause of the development of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Varicosity B. Arterio-venous fistulas C. Venous hypoplasia D. Diabetes mellitus E. Obliterative atherosclerosis 1426. What is the background of the development of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Inflammatory reaction of venous wall B. Atherosclerotic plaque 1427. 1428. 1429. 1430. 1431. 1432. 1433. 1434. 1435. C. Diabetic angiopathy D. Lipidemia E. Anemia What factor contributes to the development of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Trauma B. Diabetes mellitus C. Obliterative atherosclerosis D. Anemia E. Hemophilia What medicinal medicines can result in formation of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Contraceptives B. Anticoagulants C. Fibrinolytics D. Antiaggregants E. Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory medicines Mondor's disease is: A. *Venous thrombosis of front chest wall B. Ileofemoral venous thrombosis C. Thrombosis of subclavian vein D. Thrombosis of vena cava inferior E. Thrombosis of vena cava superior Venous thrombosis of front chest wall is: A. *Mondor's disease B. Paget-Shretter's syndrome C. Badda-Chiari's syndrome D. Raynaud's phenomenon E. Disease of Madelung A subcutaneous thrombophlebitis often associated with the following disease: A. *Obliterative thromboangitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Obliterative atherosclerosis D. Nonspecific aorto-arteriitis E. Hemophilia A subcutaneous thrombophlebitis often associated with the following disease: A. *Varicosity B. Diabetes mellitus C. Obliterative atherosclerosis D. Nonspecific aorto-arteriitis E. Hemophilia What is the typical treatment of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Surgical treatment B. Anticoagulants C. Thrombolytics D. Spasmolytics E. Vitamins What operation is performed for a subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Saphenectomy B. Trombintimectomy C. Autovenous by-passing D. Prosthetic graft repairing of vessel E. Amputation Saphenectomy is performed for: A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis B. Thrombosis of deep veins 1436. 1437. 1438. 1439. 1440. 1441. 1442. 1443. 1444. C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation is performed for: A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis The operation crossectomy is performed for: A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Lymphedema D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Obliterative thrombangiitis What are the indications for an urgent operation? A. *Acute ascending thrombophlebitis B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis of shin C. Deep venous thrombosis of shin D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Badda-Chiari's syndrome A testimony for an urgent saphenectomy is: A. *Acute ascending thrombophlebitis B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis of shin C. Deep venous thrombosis of shin D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Badda-Chiari's syndrome What is the acute ascending thrombophlebitis? A. *Localization of blood clot in saphenofemoral junction B. Total thrombotic lesion of vein C. Partial thrombotic lesion of vein D. Localization of blood clot in a subclavian vein E. Localization of blood clot in the veins of front chest wall What is the main cause of the development of thrombosis of deep veins? A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis B. Varicosity C. Arterio-venous fistulas D. Diabetes mellitus E. Obliterative atherosclerosis What factor contributes to the development of thrombosis of deep veins? A. *Operating trauma B. Diabetes mellitus C. Obliterative atherosclerosis D. Anemia E. Hemophilia What factor contributes to the development of thrombosis of deep veins? A. *Trauma B. Diabetes mellitus C. Obliterative atherosclerosis D. Anemia E. Hemophilia Localization of blood clot in saphenofemoral junction is: A. *Acute ascending thrombophlebitis B. Ileofemoral venous thrombosis C. Thrombosis of deep veins D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Badda-Chiari's syndrome 1445. What are the clinical manifestations of deep venous thrombosis of shin? A. *Edema of shins with cyanosis B. A total edema of the lower extremity with cyanosis C. Edema of both lower extremities D. Pale lower extremity, pulsation is absent E. Varicosity of shin with a trophic ulcer 1446. What is the main danger of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis? A. *Pulmonary embolism B. Venous insufficiency C. Trophic ulcer D. A gangrene of toes E. Paralysis 1447. The Homan's sign is typical for: A. *Thrombosis of deep veins B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis C. Varicosity D. Obliterative atherosclerosis E. Diabetes mellitus 1448. Homan's sign is: A. *Pain in the muscles of shin, which increases by back flexing of foot B. Intermittent claudication at physical exertion C. Absence of pulsation in a cold environment D. Symptom of caugh shove E. Absence of hepatic dullness 1449. How is the symptom named by author, when back flexing of foot increases the pain in the muscles of shin? A. *Homan's sign B. Lovenberg's sign C. Mondor's sign D. Murphy's sign E. Paget-Shretter's syndrome 1450. The Lovenberg's sign is typical for: A. *Thrombosis of deep veins B. Obliterative atherosclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicosity 1451. Lovenberg's sign is: A. *Pain in the muscles of shin after imposition of cuff with pressure 80-100 mm of Hg. B. Intermittent claudication at physical exertion C. Absence of pulsation in a cold environment D. Absence of hepatic dullness E. Pain in the muscles of shin, caused by the back flexing of foot 1452. What are the clinical manifestations of ileofemoral venous thrombosis? A. *A total edema of the lower extremity with cyanosis B. Edema of shins with cyanosis C. Edema of both lower extremities D. Pale lower extremity, pulsation is absent E. Varicosity of shin with a trophic ulcer 1453. Intermittent claudication is characteristic for: A. *Atherosclerosis of lower extremities 1454. 1455. 1456. 1457. 1458. 1459. 1460. 1461. 1462. B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Pancreatitis D. Varicosity E. Cholecystitis Dilating pain in extremity is characteristic for: A. *Thrombosis of deep veins B. Teleangiektaziy C. Retikulyarnogo varicosity D. Mikotichnogo of lesion E. Diseasees of Madelunga Edema of the extremity is characteristic for: A. *Thrombosis of deep veins B. Teleangiectasia C. Reticular varicosity D. Mycotic lesion E. Madelung's disease Cyanosis of the skin of extremity is characteristic for: A. *Thrombosis of deep veins B. Teleangiectasia C. Reticular varicosity D. Mycotic lesion E. Madelung's disease Intermittent claudication is characteristic for: A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Teleangiectasia D. Reticular varicosity E. Madelung's disease In thrombosis of deep veins the patients complain on: A. *Dilating pain in extremity B. Intermittent claudication C. Coldness of the extremity D. Varicosity E. Presence of trophic ulcer In thrombosis of deep veins the patients complain on: A. *Edema of extremities B. Intermittent claudication C. Coldness of the extremity D. Poblidninnya of the extremity E. Presence of trophic ulcer In thrombosis of deep veins the patients complain on: A. *Cyanosis of the skin of the extremity B. Intermittent claudication C. Coldness of the extremity D. Pale extremity E. Presence of trophic ulcer What is the classic clinical triad for a deep venous thrombosis? A. *Pain, edema, cyanosis of the extremity B. Pale lower extremity, absent pulsation, edema C. The varicosity of the lower extremity, trophic ulcer, edema D. Pain, paralysis, cyanosis E. Pain, paralysis, trophic ulcer What is the characteristic clinical sign of deep venous thrombosis? A. *Edema of extremities B. Pulsation is absent C. Trophic ulcer D. Paralysis E. Gangrene 1463. What are the basic collaterals for compensation of venous outflow in thrombosis of distal segment of vena cava inferior? A. *Azygos and hemiazygos veins B. Lumbar veins C. Femoral veins D. Kidney veins E. Vena cava superior 1464. What are the clinical manifestations of thrombosis of distal segment of vena cava inferior? A. *Edema of lower half of body and lower extremities B. Trophic ulcers of lower extremities C. Gangrene of lower extremities D. Kidney insufficiency E. Insufficiency of liver 1465. Edema of lower extremities is characteristic for: A. *Thrombosis of vena cava inferior B. Lerishe's syndrome C. Aortic aneurysm D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Thrombosis of vena cava superior 1466. Disturbance of sensation is characteristic for: A. *Embolisms of the artery B. Varicosity C. Thrombosis of deep veins D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Lymphedema 1467. Paresis of the extremity is characteristic for: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Varicosity C. Thrombosis of deep veins D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Lymphedema 1468. Plegia of the extremity is characteristic for: A. *Embolisms of the artery B. Varicosity C. Thrombosis of deep veins D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Lymphedema 1469. Absence of pulsation on extremity is characteristic for: A. *Embolisms of the artery B. Varicosity C. Thrombosis of deep veins D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Postphlebitic syndrome 1470. Muscular contracture of the extremity is characteristic for: A. *Embolisms of the artery B. Varicosity C. Thrombosis of deep veins D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Postphlebitic syndrome 1471. Development of kidney insufficiency is characteristic for: A. *Thrombosis of renal segment of vena cava inferior B. Thrombosis of distal segment of vena cava inferior C. Thrombosis of hepatic segment of vena cava inferior D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Thrombosis of vena cava superior 1472. Development of Badda-Chiari's syndrome is characteristic for: A. *Thrombosis of hepatic segment of vena cava inferior B. Thrombosis of renal segment of vena cava inferior C. Thrombosis of distal segment of vena cava inferior D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome E. Thrombosis of vena cava superior 1473. What are the clinical manifestations of thrombosis of kidney segment of vena cava inferior? A. *Kidney insufficiency B. Trophic ulcers of lower extremities C. Edema of lower half of body and lower extremities D. Gangrene of lower extremities E. Insufficiency of liver 1474. What are the clinical manifestations of thrombosis the hepatic segment of vena cava inferior? A. *Badda-Chiari's syndrome B. Trophic ulcers of lower extremities C. Edema of lower half of body and lower extremities D. Gangrene of lower extremities E. Kidney insufficiency 1475. Badda-Chiari's syndrome is: A. *Thrombosis of hepatic veins B. Ileofemoral venous thrombosis C. Thrombosis of subclavian vein D. Thrombosis of kidney veins E. Thrombosis of vein of gate 1476. What are the clinical manifestations of Badda-Chiari's syndrome? A. *Portal hypertension B. Trophic ulcer of lower extremities C. Respiratory insufficiency D. Gangrene of lower extremities E. Gematuria 1477. Thrombosis of axillary and subclavian vein is: A. *Paget-Shretter's syndrome B. Badda-Chiari's syndrome C. Cushing's syndrome D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Syndrome of Morgani-Adams-Stoks 1478. Paget-Shretter's syndrome is: A. *Thrombosis of axillary and subclavian vein B. Occlusion of bifurcation of aorta C. Thrombosis of vena cava superior D. Thrombosis of hepatic veins E. Thrombosis of vena cava inferior 1479. In Paget-Shretter's syndrome the patients complain on: A. *Edema of upper extremity B. Intermittent claudication C. Coldness of the extremity D. Pale extremity E. Presence of trophic ulcer 1480. In Paget-Shretter's syndrome the patients complain on: A. *Edema of upper extremity B. Edema of the lower extremity C. Edema of both lower extremities D. Edema of lower half of body E. Pulsation of neck veins 1481. In Paget-Shretter's syndrome the patients complain on: A. *Cyanosis of upper extremity B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity C. Varicose veins of the lower extremity D. Cyanosis of lower half of body E. Varicose veins of front abdominal wall 1482. What is the main cause of Paget-Shretter's syndrome? A. *Compression of subclavian vein in costo-clavicular space B. Compression of common iliac vein by a tumour C. Atherosclerotic lesion of arteries of upper extremities D. Atherosclerotic lesion of carotid E. Aortic aneurysm 1483. Compression of subclavian vein is a risk factor for: A. *Paget-Shretter's syndrome B. Badda-Chiari's syndrome C. Cushing's syndrome D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Morgani-Adams-Stoks syndrome 1484. Implantation of pace-maker is a risk factor for: A. *Paget-Shretter's syndrome B. Badda-Chiari's syndrome C. Cushing's syndrome D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Morgani-Adams-Stoks syndrome 1485. The mastectomy operation is a risk factor for: A. *Paget-Shretter's syndrome B. Badda-Chiari's syndrome C. Cushing's syndrome D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Morgani-Adams-Stoks syndrome 1486. What are the clinical manifestations of Paget-Shretter's syndrome? A. *Edema of upper extremity with cyanosis B. A pale hand, pulsation is absent C. Pale lower extremity, pulsation is absent D. Varicosity of the lower extremity with a trophic ulcer E. Edema of both lower extremities with cyanosis 1487. What is the main cause of the syndrome of vena cava superior? A. *Tumour of mediastinum B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis C. Deep venous thrombosis of lower extremities D. Tumour of retroperitoneal space E. Tumour of abdominal region 1488. What are the clinical manifestations of the syndrome of vena cava superior? A. *Edema of upper half of body and hands with cyanosis B. Trophic ulcer of upper extremities C. Edema of lower half of body and lower extremities with cyanosis D. Absence of pulsation of carotids E. Absence of pulsation of arteries of upper extremities 1489. What is the level of the absent pulsation in thrombosis of deep veins? A. *Preserved on all levels B. Tibial arteries C. Popliteal artery D. Femoral artery E. Aorta 1490. Which among the roentgenologic methods of diagnostics is the most informative for thrombosis of deep veins? A. *Phlebography B. Arteriography C. X-ray examination of abdomen D. X-ray examination with barium E. X-ray examination of the extremity 1491. Which among the methods of diagnostics is the most informative for thrombosis of deep veins? A. *Ultrasound examination B. Arteriography C. X-ray examination of abdomen D. X-ray examination of chest E. X-ray examination of the extremity 1492. What method is used for the diagnostics of thrombosis of deep veins? A. *Ultrasound duplex scanning B. Coagulogram C. Reovasography D. Ultrasound Doppler examination E. Arteriography 1493. What are the indications for endarterectomy: A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis C. Lerishe's syndrome D. Thrombosis of deep veins E. Varicosity 1494. What group of medicinal drugs the heparin belongs to? A. *Direct anticoagulants B. Indirect anticoagulants C. Thrombolytics D. Fibrinolytics E. Antiinflammatory drugs 1495. What group of medicinal drugs the Klexan belongs to? A. *Direct anticoagulants B. Indirect anticoagulants C. Thrombolytics D. Fibrinolytics E. Antiinflammatory drugs 1496. What group of medicinal drugs the Sincumar belongs to? A. *Indirect anticoagulants B. Direct anticoagulants C. Thrombolytics D. Fibrinolytics E. Antiinflammatory drugs 1497. What group of medicinal drugs the Fenillin belongs to? A. *Indirect anticoagulants B. Direct anticoagulants C. Thrombolytics 1498. 1499. 1500. 1501. 1502. 1503. 1504. 1505. 1506. D. Fibrinolytics E. Antiinflammatory drugs What group of medicinal drugs the Actilise belongs to? A. *Thrombolytics B. Indirect anticoagulants C. Direct anticoagulants D. Venotonics E. Antiinflammatory drugs What group of medicinal drugs the Streptokinase belongs to? A. *Thrombolytics B. Indirect anticoagulants C. Direct anticoagulants D. Venotonics E. Antiinflammatory drugs What group of medicinal drugs the Detralex belongs to? A. *Venotonics B. Thrombolytics C. Indirect anticoagulants D. Direct anticoagulants E. Antiinflammatory drugs What group of medicinal drugs the Venoplant belongs to? A. *Venotonics B. Thrombolytics C. Indirect anticoagulants D. Direct anticoagulants E. Antiinflammatory drugs What medical drugs belong to the direct anticoagulants? A. *Heparin B. Syncumarum, Fenilin C. Streptokinase, Urokinase D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin E. Diklofenak, Naklofen What medical drugs belong to the direct anticoagulants? A. *Fraxiparin, Kleksan B. Syncumarum, Fenilin C. Streptokinase, Urokinase D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin E. Diklofenak, Naklofen What medical drugs belong to the indirect anticoagulants? A. *Syncumarum, Fenilin B. Fraxiparin, Kleksan C. Streptokinase, Urokinase D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin E. Diklofenak, Naklofen What medical drugs belong to fibrinolytics? A. *Streptokinase, Urokinase B. Heparin C. Syncumarum, Fenilin D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin E. Diklofenak, Naklofen What is the dose of heparin for the treatment of thrombophlebitis? A. *5000-10000 Units each 4-6 hours B. 1000-2000 Units each 4-6 hours C. 1000-2000 Units daily 1507. 1508. 1509. 1510. 1511. 1512. 1513. 1514. 1515. D. 2500 Units every hour E. 20000-40000 Units each 12 hours What is the initial dose of Streptokinase? A. *250000 Units B. 5000 Units C. 10000 Units D. 100000 Units E. 1000000 Units What drugs are used in the overdose of heparin? A. *Protamine sulfate B. Fraxiparin, Kleksan C. Streptokinase, Urokinase D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin E. Diklofenak, Naklofen What drugs are used in the overdose of Streptokinase? A. *Aminocapronic acid, Trasylolum B. Fraxiparin, Kleksan C. Protamine sulfate D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin E. Diklofenak, Naklofen What medical drugs belong to venotonics? A. *Detralex, Flebodia B. Heparin C. Syncumarum, Fenilin D. Papaverin, Nospanum E. Diklofenak, Naklofen What are the normal measures of prothrombine index? A. *85-100 % B. 10-20 % C. 30-60 % D. 50-70 % E. 100-120 % What prothrombine index must be during the treatment of venous thrombosis? A. *50-70 % B. 10-20 % C. 30-40 % D. 85-100 % E. 100-120 % What indexes of coagulogram control the dosage of anticoagulants? A. *Prothrombine index B. The amount of thrombocytes in the blood C. Level of blood fibrinogen D. Thrombotest E. Time of recalcification What is the normal level of blood fibrinogen? A. *2-4 g/l B. 6-8 g/l C. 10-16 g/l D. 30-50 g/l E. 75-100 g/l What indexes of coagulogram control the dosage of thrombolytics? A. *Level of blood fibrinogen B. The amount of thrombocytes in the blood C. Prothrombine index 1516. 1517. 1518. 1519. 1520. 1521. 1522. 1523. 1524. D. Thrombotest E. Time of recalcification What is the norm of time of recalcification? A. *60-120 seconds B. 0.5-2 seconds C. 10-40 seconds D. 40-60 seconds E. 4-8 minutes What are the normal measures of the thrombotest? A. *IV-V degree B. I-II degree C. II-III degree D. VІ-VІІІ degree E. X-XІІ degree What is the normal amount of thrombocytes in blood? A. *180-320?109/l B. 20-40?109/l C. 40-120?109/l D. 420-650?109/l E. 600-1000?109/l What method is used for the diagnostics of deep venous thrombosis? A. *Ultrasound doppler examination B. General and biochemical analyses of blood C. Coagulogram D. Reovasography E. Arteriography What treatment is used for the deep venous thrombosis of shin? A. *Conservative treatment B. Thrombectomy C. Saphenectomy D. Autovenous by-passing E. Prosthetic graft repairing of vessel What treatment is used for ileofemoral venous thrombosis? A. *Conservative treatment B. Saphenectomy C. Thrombectomy D. Autovenous by-passing E. Prosthetic graft repairing of vessel Iliofemoral prosthetic by-passing is performed for: A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis B. Postphlebitic syndrome C. Varicosity D. Thrombosis of deep veins E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis Femoro-popliteal autovenous by-passing is performed for: A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis B. Postphlebitic syndrome C. Varicosity D. Thrombosis of deep veins E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis Bifurcation aorto-femoral prosthetic by-passing is performed for: A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis B. Postphlebitic syndrome C. Varicosity D. Thrombosis of deep veins E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis 1525. Decompression osteoperforation is performed for: A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis B. Postphlebitic syndrome C. Varicosity D. Thrombosis of deep veins E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis 1526. A sympathectomy is performed for: A. *Obliterative thrombangiitis B. Obliterative atherosclerosis C. Varicosity D. Thrombosis of deep veins E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis 1527. When is the operation possible in ileofemoral venous thrombosis? A. *Duration of disease less than 5 days B. Duration of disease 7-14 days C. Duration of disease 21-28 days D. Duration of disease of 2-3 months E. In a "cold" period 1528. What is the level of arterial pulsation absence in the thrombosis of deep veins? A. *Preserved on all levels B. Arteries of foot C. Femoral artery D. Popliteal artery E. Common carotid 1529. What method of prophylaxis of pulmonary embolism is used during the operation for ileofemoral venous thrombosis? A. *Introduction of ballon catheter to the vena cava inferior during the operation B. The elastic bandage during the operation C. Application of anticoagulants during the operation D. Application of fibrinolytics during the operation E. Introduction of ballon catheter to the vena cava superior during the operation 1530. What method of prophylaxis of pulmonary embolism is used during the operation for ileofemoral venous thrombosis? A. *Introduction of cava-filters to the vena cava inferior during the operation B. Application of anticoagulants during the operation C. Application of fibrinolytics during the operation D. The elastic bandage during the operation E. Introduction of ballon catheter to the vena cava superior during the operation 1531. When after a deep venous thrombosis do we make the diagnosis of postphlebitic syndrome? A. *In 6 months B. In 10-14 days C. In 1 month D. Through 2 months E. In 1 year 1532. What are the clinical manifestations of postphlebitic syndrome? A. *The expressed edema, secondary varicosity B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis C. Arterial ischemia D. Contracture of joints E. Paralysis 1533. What is the cause of postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Thrombosis of deep veins 1534. 1535. 1536. 1537. 1538. 1539. 1540. 1541. 1542. B. Arterial embolism C. Arterial thrombosis D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicosity The pallor of the skin is characteristic for: A. *Embolisms of the artery B. Varicosity C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Postphlebitic syndrome E. Phlegmon of the extremity A coldness of the extremity is characteristic for: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Varicosity C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Postphlebitic syndrome E. Phlegmon of the extremity What is the base of postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Valvular incompetence B. Venous occlusion C. Arterial occlusion D. Nervous damage E. Gangrene of the extremity What clinical form of postphlebitic syndrome does not exist? A. *Gangrenous B. Sclerotic C. Varicose D. Edematous E. Ulcerous What is the typical follow up of deep venous thrombosis? A. *Recanalization of blood clot with valvular incompetence B. Complete obliteration of vein C. Partial obliteration of vein D. Varicose expansion E. Arterio-venous fistula What are the clinical manifestations of postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Signs of venous insufficiency B. Signs of nervous damage C. Signs of vascular dystonia D. Signs of arterial insufficiency E. Limitation of movements of the lower extremity What medicines belong to thrombolytic medicines? A. *Fibrinolysinum, Streptokinase. B. Nicotine acid. C. Papaverin, Platyphyllin. D. Fenilin, Omephin. E. Vasaprostan What clinical sign is characteristic for a postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Edema of leg B. Absence of pulsation C. Paralysis D. Gangrene E. Absence of sensation What is the characteristic sign of the I stage of postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Transitory edema 1543. 1544. 1545. 1546. 1547. 1548. 1549. 1550. 1551. B. Permanent edema C. Hyperpigmentation D. Trophic ulcer E. Gangrene What is the characteristic sign of the II stage of postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Hyperpigmentation B. Heavy sensation C. Transitory edema D. Open trophic ulcer E. Healed trophic ulcer What is the characteristic sign of the II stage of postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Permanent edema B. Heavy sensation C. Transitory edema D. Open trophic ulcer E. Healed trophic ulcer What is the characteristic sign of the III stage of postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Trophic ulcer B. Heavy sensation C. Transitory edema D. Permanent edema E. Hyperpigmentation What clinical form of postphlebitic syndrome is characterized by absence of varicosity? A. *Sclerotic B. Varicose C. Edematous D. Ulcerous E. Necrotizing What clinical form of postphlebitic syndrome is characterized by the secondary varicosity? A. *Varicose B. Sclerotic C. Edematous D. Ulcerous E. Necrotizing What clinical form of postphlebitic syndrome is caused by a venous obstruction? A. *Edematous B. Sclerotic C. Varicose D. Ulcerous E. Necrotizing What is the physiology norm of fibrinogen in the blood serum? A. *2.2 - 4.2 g/l. B. 5.5 - 7.5 g/l. C. 5.6 - 8.0 g/l. D. 5.9 - 9.2 g/l. E. 7.8 – 5.5 g/l. What is the physiology norm of prothrombine index? A. *80 – 100 %. B. 40 – 60 %. C. 110 – 130 %. D. 15 – 45 %. E. 0 – 10 %. To the absolute contraindications for the usage of anticoagulants belongs: A. *Bleeding of any localization, hemorrhagic diateses 1552. 1553. 1554. 1555. 1556. 1557. 1558. 1559. 1560. B. Aplastic anemia C. Respiratory insufficiency D. Cardiac insufficiency E. Insufficiency of cerebral blood circulation To the activators of Fibrinolisine belong: A. *Nicotine acid, Complamine B. Fenilin, Omephin C. Gastrocepin, Venter D. Vitamins B E. Vitamins A, C. Medicines of antiaggrigant activity: A. *Reopolyglucin, Trental, aspirin, курантіл B. Omephin, Fenillin, Pelentan C. Cinarizin, Sermion, Solcoseril D. Fentalamin, Tropaphen E. Simvastatin Medicines of thrombolytic action: A. *Fibrinolysinum, Streptokinase B. Korglucon, strophanthin C. Celonid, Lantozid D. Reopolyglucin, polyhybrid E. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin The embolectomy is performed for: A. *Embolisms of the artery B. Varicosity C. Thrombosis of deep veins D. Postphlebitic syndrome E. Phlegmon of the extremity Trombintimectomy is performed for: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Embolisms of the artery D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicosity The collateral autovenous by-passing is performed for: A. *Arterial thrombosis B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Embolisms of the artery D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis E. Varicosity Methods of control of the coagulative and fibrinolytic systems of blood: A. *Coagulogram B. General blood analysis C. Determination of speed of local blood stream D. Hemogram E. Biochemical blood test In the overdosing of heparin enter: A. *1% solution of Protamini sulfate B. Cimiton, Lobeline C. Amitriptilin D. 2,5% solution of Aminasini E. Adrenalin In bleeding, caused by the indirect anticoagulants prescribed: A. *Vikasol B. Pipolphenum C. Digitoksin D. Gidrokortizon E. Petoksifilin 1561. In fibrinolytic bleeding prescribed: A. *Aminokapronovu acid B. 1 % solution of Ombeni, 0,5 % solution of hydrocortison, prednisolon C. 0,1 % solution of nicotine acid D. 5 % solution of аскорбіновоі acid E. AlprostThe 1562. What is the purpose of the usage of thrombolytic and anticoagulating therapy: A. *Lysis of blood clot, prophylaxis of distribution of blood clot B. Improvement of function of liver C. To development of collateral net D. A removal of the spasm on peripheral vessels E. Improvement of microcirculation 1563. Name the unpharmacological methods of correction of the coagulative system of blood. A. Hemodilution. B. Hemodyalisis. C. Hemosorbtion. D. A forced diuresis. E. Lymphosorbtion. 1564. Where does a small saphenous vein drain? A. *In a popliteal vein. B. In a great saphenous vein. C. In a femoral vein. D. In a general iliac vein. E. In a vena cava inferior. 1565. What method is used for the diagnostics of valvular incompetence in postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Ultrasound duplex scanning B. Coagulogram C. Reovasography D. Ultrasound doppler examination E. Arteriography 1566. What method is used for the estimation of the passability of deep veins in postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Ultrasound examination B. Coagulogram C. Reovasography D. ECG E. Arteriography 1567. What treatment is indicated for a postphlebitic syndrome? A. *Saphenectomy B. Conservative treatment C. Scelerotherapy D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation E. Saphenectomy with the subfascial ligation of perforative veins (Linton's operation) 1568. The trophic ulcer of the lower third of shin is characteristic for: A. *Postphlebitic syndrome B. Thrombosis of deep veins C. Thrombangiitis obliterans D. Lerishe's syndrome E. Embolisms of femoral artery 1569. The basic source of embols in pulmonary embolism is: A. *System of vena cava inferior B. Subclavian artery C. Left ventricle D. Femoral artery E. Abdominal part of aorta 1570. The cause of pulmonary embolism is: A. *Thrombosis of deep veins of lower extremities B. Bacterial endocarditis C. Myocardial infarction D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm E. Obliterative atherosclerosis of lower extremities 1571. To massive pulmonary embolism belongs: A. *Occlusion of basic trunk of pulmonary artery and its branches B. Embolism of lobe branches of pulmonary artery C. Embolism of segmental branches of pulmonary artery D. Embolism of lobe branches of pulmonary artery with ileofemoral vein thrombosis E. Embolism of segmental branches of pulmonary artery with subcutaneous thrombophlebitis 1572. Which among the symptoms is characteristic for pulmonary embolism? A. *Pain behind breastbone B. Regurgitation C. Intermittent claudication D. Paradoxical breathing E. Syndrome of thoracic outlet 1573. Which among the symptoms is characteristic for pulmonary embolism? A. *Dispnoe B. Regurgitation C. Intermittent claudication D. Paradoxical breathing E. Syndrome of thoracic outlet 1574. Which among the symptoms is characteristic for pulmonary embolism? A. *Shock B. Regurgitation C. Intermittent claudication D. Paradoxical breathing E. Syndrome of thoracic outlet 1575. EKG change in pulmonary embolism is characterized by: A. *The overload of right parts of heart B. The overload of left parts of heart C. Heart premature beats D. Atrial fibrillation E. By the total block of left leg of Hiss bundle 1576. A typical roentgenologic sign of pulmonary embolism is: A. *Wedge-shaped atelectasiss B. Rounded shade C. Pneumothorax D. Caverns E. "Rat tail" sign 1577. A typical roentgenologic sign of pulmonary embolism is: A. *Pleural effusion B. Rounded shade C. Pneumothorax D. Caverns E. "Rat tail" sign 1578. Which among roentgenologic signs is not characteristic for pulmonary embolism? A. *Rounded shade B. Wedge-shaped atelectasiss C. Pleural effusion D. Dilatation of right ventricle E. High standing of diaphragm dome 1579. Which among instrumental methods is the most informative for the diagnostic of pulmonary embolism? A. *Angiopneumography B. X-ray examination of chest C. Ultrasound examination D. ECG E. EchoCG 1580. Massive pulmonary embolism is characterized by the following clinic: A. *Phenomena of shock B. Infarction pneumonia C. Hemoptysis D. Pleurisy E. Asymptomatic course 1581. Which among symptoms is not characteristic for infarction pneumonia? A. *Ring-like shade B. Wedge-shaped atelectasiss C. Hemoptysis D. Pleural effusion E. Increase body t° 1582. For differentiation between pulmonary embolism and myocardial infarction is used: A. *ECG B. Ultrasound examination C. X-ray examination of chest D. Fibrogastroscopy E. Spirography 1583. Which among echocardiographic signs is not characteristic for pulmonary embolism? A. *Dilated, hypocinetic left ventricle B. Dilated, hypocinetic right ventricle C. Dilatation of proximal pulmonary arteries D. The increase of bloodflow velocity of tricuspid regurgitation >3-7 m/s E. Disturbance of bloodsource from a right ventricle 1584. The direct signs of pulmonary embolism on the angiopneumography are: A. *Defects of filling of vessels B. Dilatation of pulmonary artery trunk and its large branches C. Asymmetry of filling of vessels by a contrast substance D. The stasis of contrast E. Pleural effusion 1585. The direct signs of pulmonary embolism on the angiopneumography are: A. *«Amputation» of vessel with dilatation proximally to occlusion B. Dilatation of pulmonary artery trunk and its large branches C. Asymmetry of filling of vessels by a contrast substance D. The stasis of contrast E. Pleural effusion 1586. The direct signs of pulmonary embolism on the angiopneumography are: A. *Oligemia B. Dilatation of pulmonary artery trunk and its large branches C. Asymmetry of filling of vessels by a contrast substance D. The stasis of contrast E. Pleural effusion 1587. To the laboratory methods which confirm the pulmonary embolism belong: A. *Determination of D-dimer B. General blood analysis C. Determination of cholinesterase activity D. Determination of circulationy immune complexes E. Determination of antiphosfolipid factor 1588. For the control of anticoagulating therapy in pulmonary embolism used: A. *The partial activated thromboplastine time B. Fibrinogen of blood C. Thrombotest D. Tolerance of blood serum to heparin E. Time of recalcification 1589. The initial dose of heparin in the treatment of pulmonary embolism: A. *10-20 thousands Unites B. 2,5-5 thousands Unites C. 1-2,5 thousands Unites D. 40-60 thousands Unites E. 100 thousands Unites 1590. What index of the partial activated thromboplastine time, which confirms the efficiency of anticoagulating therapy? A. *Increase in 1,5-2 times B. Does not change C. Diminish in 1,5-2 times D. Diminish in 3-5 times E. Diminish in 10-15 times 1591. Medicine of choice of thrombolytic therapy in pulmonary embolism is: A. *Aktilise B. Heparin C. Fibrinolysin D. Fraxiparin E. Clexan 1592. What is the dose of Aktilise is used in the treatment of pulmonary embolism? A. *100 mg. B. 5 mg. C. 10 mg. D. 500 mg. E. 1000 mg. 1593. The indication for application of thrombolytic therapy is: A. *Pulmonary embolism B. Hemorrhagic shock C. Suspicion on dissection of aorta D. Severe traumas or great surgical operations within 2 weeks E. Septic endocarditis 1594. The indication for application of thrombolytic therapy is: A. *Deep vein thrombosis B. Hemorrhagic shock C. Suspicion on dissection of aorta D. Severe traumas or great surgical operations within 2 weeks E. Septic endocarditis 1595. What diseases are not contraindication for the thrombolytic therapy? A. *Acute myocardial infarction B. Hemorrhagic shock C. Suspicion on dissection of aorta D. Severe traumas or great surgical operations within 2 weeks E. Septic endocarditis 1596. What diseases are not contraindication for thrombolytic therapy? A. *Acute ileofemoral venous thrombosis B. Hemorrhagic shock C. Suspicion on dissection of aorta D. Severe traumas or great surgical operations within 2 weeks E. Septic endocarditis 1597. In relapse pulmonary embolism with a prophylactic purpose used: A. *Implantation of cava-filters B. Direct anticoagulants C. Indirect anticoagulants D. Thrombolytics E. Profundoplastiks 1598. What operation is performed in patients with pulmonary embolism? A. *Thrombectomy from a pulmonary artery B. Ligation of pulmonary artery C. Prosthetic graft repairing of pulmonary artery D. Resection of pulmonary artery E. Pneumonectomy Situational tasks 1. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, lung sounds by percussion, by auscultation crackling rales over the lower lobe of the left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of lung tissue with areas of enlightenment in the center. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Abscessing pneumonia. B. Pleural empyema. C. Acute lung abscess. D. Pyopneumothorax. E. Bronchiectatic disease. 2. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing with amphoric sound, crackling rales. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of lung tissue with enlightenment in the center with fluid level. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Acute lung abscess. B. Pleural empyema. C. Abscessing pneumonia. D. Pyopneumothorax. E. Bronchiectatic disease. 3. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 months, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing with amphoric sound. On X-ray of the chest the destruction cavity with the fibrous capsule in the projection of lower lobe of the left lung, infiltration of lung tissue is not determined. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Chronic lung abscess. B. Pleural empyema. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. C. Acute lung abscess D. Abscessing pneumonia. E. Pyopneumothorax. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing with amphoric sound. On the X-ray of chest the destruction cavity with the fluid level, with a clear thin-walled capsule in the projection of the lower lobe of the left lung. Infiltration of lung tissue is not determined. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Suppurative cyst of the lung. B. Pleural empyema. C. Acute lung abscess D. Abscessing pneumonia. E. Pyopneumothorax. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, over the left lobe a dull percussion sound, by auscultation the breathing is absent. On X-ray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts of the left lung with an oblique upper level along Damuazo's line. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Pleural empyema. B. Acute lung abscess C. Chronic lung abscess. D. Suppurative cyst of the lung. E. Pyopneumothorax. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation the breathing is absent. On X-ray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts of the left lung with a horizontal fluid level and enlightenment over it. Is visible the edge of collapsed lung. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Limited pyopneumothorax. B. Acute lung abscess C. Chronic lung abscess. D. Pleural empyema. E. Total pyopneumothorax. Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood, increased body temperature to 40°C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, with a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound, by auscultation moist rales over the left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of the left lung with multiple sites of destruction. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Gangrene of the lung. B. Pleural empyema. C. Acute lung abscess D. Abscessing pneumonia. E. Pyopneumothorax. Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood, increased body temperature to 40°C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, with a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound, by auscultation moist rales over the lower lobe of the left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of left lung tissue with a giant cavity in the lower lobe with the level of the fluid. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Gangrenous abscess of lung. B. Pleural empyema. C. Acute lung abscess D. Abscessing pneumonia. E. Gangrene of the lung. 9. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing. On X-ray of the chest paracostal fusiform shadow in the projection of the left lower lobe of the lung. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Limited empyema. B. Wide-spread pleural empyema. C. Acute lung abscess D. Chronic lung abscess. E. Pyopneumothorax. 10. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous shadow in the lower lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid with blood clots. What treatment are the best for the patient? A. *Drainage of the pleural cavity B. Operational - lung decortication C. Daily puncture D. Resorbed therapy E. Antibacterial therapy 11. In the patient, 48 years old, on the seventh day after the onset of a moderate pain in the chest, severe cough, fever to 39°C appeared the bad-smell sputum. The patient's condition remains grave, with expectoration more than 600 ml of gray-green sputum, and hectic fever. On X-ray – on the background of the heterogeneous shadow of the lower lobe of right lung revealed a cavity with a horizontal level of fluid. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Abscess of the right lung B. Gangrene of the right lung C. Acute abscess of the right lung D. Suppuration cyst of the right lung E. Suppuration tuberculous cavern 12. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the left half of the chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea, pain during inspiration. By auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse 100 beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Angina pectoris C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Left-sided pleurisy E. Pneumonia 13. The patient A., age 37, entered with complaints of cough with purulent sputum to 150 ml per day, pain in the right half of the chest, fever to 38°C. Has been ill for two weeks. The day before the entrance to the clinic during cough attack expectorated to 300 ml of purulent bad-smell sputum. On examination: a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound under the right scapula, and the weakening of vesicular breathing. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Acute lung abscess B. Acute bronchitis C. Exacerbation of chronic abscess D. Exacerbation of bronchoectatic disease E. Pleural empyema 14. Patient A., aged 42, had been treated for two months for an acute abscess of the upper lobe of right lung without improvement. The treatment: intramuscular injection of antibiotics, sulfanilamidns drugs. Remains the cough with purulent sputum to 80-100 ml per day, fever (37,6°C). What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Chronic lung abscess B. Acute abscess of the right lung C. Tuberculous cavern D. Peripheral lung cancer E. Suppurative cyst of lung 15. The patient, 78 years old, entered with complaints of pain in the left half of the chest, coughing, with daily 80 ml of mucopurulent sputum, fever to 37,2°C. The X-rays of the lower lobe of right lung revealed a cavity with irregular internal border and outside spicules with minor infiltration around. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Hollow form of lung cancer B. Chronic lung abscess C. Suppuration cyst of lung D. Fibro-cavernous tuberculosis E. Limited empyema 16. The patient has a pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by repeated bleeding., The patient is undergoing the operative treatment. What antibiotics are the most suitable for preoperative prophylaxis? A. *Cephalosporins. B. Penicillin. C. Macrolides. D. Aminoglycosides. E. Fluorohinolones. 17. The patient with bilateral hydrothorax has undergone the repeat pleural puncture of both sides. After the last puncture felt the deterioration, fever, pain in the chest. Therapeutist on the next day during pleural puncture on the right obtained the pus. What is the mechanism of acute rightside empyema? A. *Contact-aspirating. B. Lymphogenous. C. Hematogenous. D. Implantation. E. Airborne. 18. The patient has the pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What medicines are the most suitable to stop the bleeding? A. *Vitamin K. B. Anticoagulants. C. Antibiotics. D. Antiaggregants. E. Prostaglandins. 19. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What medicines are the most suitable to stop the bleeding? A. *Dicynon. B. Heparin. C. Penicillin. D. Courantil. E. Alprostan. 20. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding to 200 ml. How this bleeding is classified? A. *I degree B. 0 degree C. II degree D. III degree E. IV degree 21. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. B. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. C. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic hemothorax. D. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic subcutaneous emphysema. E. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic complicated hemothorax. 22. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. What additional examination is the most suitable? A. *Chest X-ray with contrast of the stomach B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity C. Esophagogastroscopy D. Computer tomography E. Tomography of the chest 23. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of VVI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the typical treatment of rib fracture? A. *Novocaine block B. External fixation of ribs C. Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis; D. Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure E. Thoracotomy 24. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of VVI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the treatment of pneumothorax? A. *Pleural drainage B. Pleural puncture C. Thoracotomy D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy E. Conservative treatment 25. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing, crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation - breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of VVI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is performed? A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line B. II intercostal space, scapular line C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line E. VII intercostal space, scapular line 26. The patient received chest trauma 14 days ago. Complains of a moderate pain in the right half of the chest, dyspnea, fever up to 38,5°C. Lag of the right half of the chest during breathing, narrowing of the intercostal spaces. By percussion - a shortening of the percussion sound over the right lung, by auscultation - weakening of breathing. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Right-side suppurative hemothorax. B. Right-side posttraumatic pneumonia. C. Right-side hemothorax. D. Right-side pyopneumothorax. E. Consolidated rib fractures. 27. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Mediastinal emphysema. B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. C. Posttraumatic hemothorax. D. Posttraumatic pneumonia E. Subcutaneous emphysema. 28. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema. What is the treatment of mediastinal emphysema? A. *Drainage of anterior mediastinum B. Conservative treatment C. Drainage of pleural cavity D. Novocaine block E. Pericardial puncture 29. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema. What is the main cause of mediastinal emphysema? A. *Disruptions of trachea, bronchi B. Rib fracture C. Pneumothorax D. Hemothorax E. Mediastinal tumours 30. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema. What does the mediastinal emphysema result in? A. *Cardiac tamponade B. Hemoptysis C. Pleural empyema D. Pneumothorax E. Lung atelectasis 31. Female patient, 62 years old, was got in accident. On examination was detected the region of the right half of the chest, which disengages during inspiration. What are the most appropriate therapeutic measures? A. *External fixation of a floating area B. Introduction of narcotic analgetics C. Vagosympathetic block by Vishnevsky D. Tight chest bandage E. Paravertebral blockade 32. In the patient after the accident with multiple rib fracture during the puncture of pleural cavity received the gastric content. What additional examination is the most suitable? A. *Chest X-ray with contrast of the stomach B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity C. Esophagogastroscopy D. Computer tomography E. Tomography of the chest 33. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous shadow in the lower lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid with blood clots. What treatment are the best for the patient? A. *Drainage of the pleural cavity B. Operational - lung decortication C. Daily puncture D. Resorbed therapy E. Antibacterial therapy 34. In the patient after blunt chest trauma with a sternum fracture appeared the weakness, hypotension, cyanosis of the upper half of the body, distension of the neck veins. By pleural puncture the content is absent. Pulse 120 beats.per min, rhythmic, weakened. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Cardiac tamponade B. Pulmonary embolism C. Contusion of the heart D. Acute myocardial infarction E. Coagulated hemopericardium 35. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous emphysema of the upper half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120 beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax was found out with significantly enlargement of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the first aid? A. *Drainage of the anterior mediastinum B. Puncture of the pleural cavity C. Drainage of the pleural cavity D. Thoracoscopy E. Thoracotomy 36. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous emphysema of the upper half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120 beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax was found out with significantly enlargement of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Mediastinal emphysema. B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. C. Posttraumatic hemothorax. D. Posttraumatic pneumonia E. Subcutaneous emphysema. 37. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. What is the first aid? A. *Drainage of the pleural cavity B. Intravenous infusion C. Oxygenotherapy D. Intubation E. Analgesics 38. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is performed? A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line B. II intercostal space, scapular line C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line E. VII intercostal space, scapular line 39. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in hemothorax is performed? A. *VII intercostal space, scapular line B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line C. II intercostal space, scapular line D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line 40. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What method is the most informative in the diagnostic of hemothorax? A. *Pleural puncture B. General blood analysis C. Sputum analysis D. Auscultation E. X-ray examination 41. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What test is used to determine the continuity of pleural bleeding? A. *Revilour-Greguar's test B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test C. Talman's test D. Mayo-Pratt's test E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) 42. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the left half of the chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea, pain during inspiration. By auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse 100 beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Angina pectoris C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Left-sided pleurisy E. Pneumonia 43. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Diverticulum of the esophagus B. Esophagotraheal fistula C. Esophageal cancer D. Stenosis of the esophagus E. Esophageal achalasia 44. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like chicken egg by the size and shape. What complication is probable for this disease? A. *Diverticulitis B. Obstructive jaundice C. Intestinal obstruction D. Myocardial infarction E. Lung atelectasis 45. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the typical treatment of this disease? A. *Surgical treatment B. Spasmolytics C. Analgetics D. Nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs E. Antibiotics 46. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like chicken egg by the size and shape. What operation is performed in this disease? A. *Resection of diverticulum B. Esophagomyotomy C. Esophagogastric anastomosis D. Extirpation of esophagus E. Esophageal plastics by intestine 47. To the hospital entered a man in the critical condition: acrocyanosis, dyspnea, subcutaneous emphysema on the neck and upper part of body. Complains of severe pain behind the breastbone and epigastrium. The body temperature of 38,9°C, pulse 130 beats/min, blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg. From anamnesis 6 years ago after drinking appeared the vomit, which resulted in the signatic. What is the primary diagnosis? A. *Spontaneous rupture of esophagus B. Incarceration of paraesophageal hernia C. Spontaneous pneumothorax D. Pulmonary embolism E. Perforated ulcer 48. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Achalasia of esophagus B. Peptic stenosis of the esophagus C. Esophageal cancer D. Diverticulum of the esophagus E. Sliding esophageal hernia 49. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the stomach. What stage of dysphagia relates to such manifestations? A. *II B. I C. III D. IV E. V 50. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the roentgenological sign of this disease in contrast X-ray with barium? A. *"Rat tail" sign B. Filling defects C. "Niche" sign D. "Bell" sign E. Blunt His angle 51. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the main method of diagnostic of this disease? A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow B. Pleural punctere C. Ultrasound examination D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest E. Irrigoscopy 52. On X-ray of the esophagus in the right lateral projection in the middle third on the front wall was found out the additional shadow, of round shape with smooth contours to 2 cm in diameter. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Diverticulum of the esophagus B. Achalasia of the esophagus C. Esophageal cancer D. Chemical burn of the esophagus E. Diaphragmatic hernia 53. The tool dilation of burn and peptic stricture of the esophagus has a risk of perforation with the development of purulent mediastinitis and pleural empyema. What is the least dangerous method for perforation should be applied in the first attempt of dilation of the stricture? A. *Dilatation of the stricture by balloon dilatator with a stable diameter of the cylinder. B. Bouginage under the control of esophagoscope. C. Bouginage along the metal conductor. D. The blind bouginage under local anesthesia. E. Bouginage under the control of X-ray 54. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by unchanged food, regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years. On X-ray study revealed achalasia of esophagus of the IV stage with S-shaped deformation. What is the optimal treatment? A. *Operation esophagocardiomyotomy with plastic by the stomach fundus. B. Cardiodilatation by hard probe. C. Cardiodilatation balloon probe. D. Operation esophago-fundoanastomosis by Heyrovsky. E. Resection of the cardia with esophageal anastomosis. 55. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by unchanged food, regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years. On X-ray study revealed achalasia of esophagus of the IV stage. What is the characteristic feature of the IV stage of this disease? A. *Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation. B. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent C. Asymptomatic D. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation E. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis 56. Patient 52 entered the clinic with complaints of complete obstruction of the esophagus, salivation, weakness, t-38,7°C. Dysphagia has been for 8 days, after the swallowing of piece of the meat with bone. On X-ray the barium delays at the middle third of the esophagus. On fibroesophagoscopy was found a wedged bone with hyperemia and edema of the mucous membrane, covered by fibrin. What is the optimal treatment strategy in this case? A. *Surgical treatment: thoracotomy, esophagotomy, removal of foreign body (bone), suturing of the esophagus + gastrostomy. B. Endoscopic removal of foreign body by rigid esophagoscope C. Pushing of foreign body in the stomach by bougie. D. Removal of foreign body by the Fogarty's probe E. Removal of foreign body by fiberoptic endoscope. 57. Among the methods of esophageal plastic the most physiologic and safe modern method is: A. *Isoperistaltic plastic by tube of the greater curvature of the stomach after the extirpation of the esophagus through a cervical-laparotomy access. B. Large intestine plastic in antiperistaltic position of the transplant. C. Large intestine plastic in isoperistaltic position of the transplant. D. Large intestine plastic with a skin flap. E. Large intestine plastic by ileocecal segment. 58. The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt the fever, tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of fluid in the posterior mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Acute posterior mediastinitis. B. Acute anterior mediastinitis. C. Diverticulum of the esophagus. D. Acute pleural empyema. E. Paraesophageal hernia. 59. Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone, loss of weight. Has been ill for 7 months. Last 2 weeks noticed difficult passing of solid food. On contrasting X-ray was diagnosed: filling defect of lower thoracic part of the esophagus, a "niche" sign of the lesser curvature of stomach. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Gastric ulcer B. Paraesophageal hernia C. Decompensated pyloric stenosis D. Sliding esophageal hernia E. Peptic duodenal ulcer 60. Complaints of the pain behind the breastbone, difficult passage of solid food, weight loss, dizziness. Has been ill for 3 months. Last 2 days disturbs the vomiting after fluid food, the stagnation of fluid food. On EGDS severe narrowing of the esophagus, rigidity of the walls, hyperemic mucosa without folds. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Esophageal cancer B. Sliding esophageal hernia C. Paraesophageal hernia D. Reflux esophagitis E. Varicose veins of the esophagus 61. In the patient six months ago appeared the complaints of pain behind the sternum and a strong burning sensation in the esophagus. Sometimes observed dysphagia. On X-ray examination found the presence of diverticulum of the left wall of esophagus at the level of tracheal bifurcation 3?4 cm, just below the aortic arch. The patient was not treated. What tactics of treatment should be choused? A. *Right-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy. B. Left-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy. C. Right-side thoracotomy, resection of the esophagus. D. Large intestine plastic of esophagus E. Large intestine plastic of esophagus 62. The woman aged 52 complains of pain behind the breastbone, difficult passing of solid food through esophagus, increased salivation. The doctor advised 0,1 % solution of atropine before eating. After 3 days on X-rays no pathology was revealed. The doctor should do for this patient: A. *Send to fibroesophagoscopy B. Allow the job C. Control visit after 2 months D. Treatment by spasmolytics E. Send to ECG 63. The woman, 38 years old, complains of difficulty passage of solid meal on esophagus, vomiting by undigested food, night regurgitation (sign of ,,wet pillow"), loss of weight. Has been ill for 10 years. On X-ray examination with barium the sign of "rat tail", dilation of the esophagus to 6 cm with maintained peristalsis. What stage of achalasia is there in this patient? A. *II B. I C. 0 D. III E. IV 64. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis B. Diverticulum of the esophagus C. Varicose veins of the esophagus D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome E. Crohn's disease. 65. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What roentgenological sign confirms the pathology? A. *"Bell" sign B. "Rat tail" sign C. Filling defects D. "Bird-beak" sign E. Esophageal dilatation 66. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What drugs are used for the treatment of this pathology? A. *Blockers of proton pomp B. Spasmolytics C. Adrenoblockers D. Blockers of calcium channel E. Anticoagulants 67. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What disease should be this pathology differentiated from? A. *Peptic ulcer B. Pancreatitis C. Intestinal obstruction D. Cholecystitis E. Bronchial asthma 68. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What is the main treatment of this pathology? A. *Conservative treatment B. Esophagostomy C. Esophageal plastic D. Resection of the esophagus E. Resection of the stomach 69. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What type of operation is used for treatment of this pathology? A. *Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication B. Esophagostomy C. Cruroplasty D. Resection of the esophagus E. Resection of the stomach 70. After the birth of the child appeared the signs of respiratory failure. By auscultation on the left side the breathing is absent. On X-ray expressed mediastinal shift to the right, the presence of protrusion on the left side. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Left-sided diaphragmatic hernia B. Hypoplasia of right lung C. Polycistosis of the left lung D. Relaxation of the diaphragm E. Esophageal stricture 71. The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night, heartburn, belching. Has been ill for 4 months. What research is the most appropriate? A. *X-ray contrast study in Trendelenburg's position. B. Plain chest X-ray C. Fibroesophagogastroduodenoscopy D. Plain X-ray of the abdominal cavity. E. Computer tomography 72. The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night, heartburn, belching. Has been ill for 4 months. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis B. Diverticulum of the esophagus C. Varicose veins of the esophagus D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome E. Crohn's disease. 73. What is the most wide-spread cause of the peptic stricture of esophagus associated with refluxesophagitis? A. *Sliding esophageal hernia. B. Prolonged nasogastric intubation in the esophagus. C. Short stay nasogastric intubation. D. Frequent vomiting of pregnancy. E. Achalasia of the esophagus 74. X-ray signs: the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach are characteristic for: A. *Sliding esophageal hernia. B. Paraesophageal hernia. C. Relaxation of the diaphragm. D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus. E. Achalasia of the esophagus 75. The patient has the pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, which increases after the meal. Has been ill for 6 months. For 5 days has a black chair. On X-ray examination revealed the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Sliding esophageal hernia. B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia. C. Relaxation of the diaphragm. D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus. E. Achalasia of the esophagus 76. Complaints of heaviness in the epigastric region, nagging pain after eating. When EGDS pathology identified. On X-ray examination pronounced gas bubble of the stomach is is visible the to the level III intercostal space on the left. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Relaxation of the diaphragm. B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia. C. Sliding esophageal hernia. D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus. E. Achalasia of the esophagus. 77. The patients with sliding esophageal hernia mostly complain of: A. *Heartburn, pain behind the breastbone. B. Difficult passage of food, loss of weight. C. The pain behind the breastbone, difficulty in food passage. D. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the right hypochondrium. E. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the back. 78. Complications paraesophageal hernias of esophagus: A. *Incarceration B. Malignancy. C. Esophageal stricture. D. Dysphagia. E. Reflux esophagitis. 79. In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea, vomiting. 6 months ago was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What complication arose? A. *Incarceration B. Malignancy. C. Esophageal stricture. D. Dysphagia. E. Reflex esophagitis. 80. In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea, vomiting. 6 months ago was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What type of operation is is indicated for this patient? A. *Cruroplasty B. Esophagostomy C. Resection of the esophagus D. Resection of the stomach E. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication 81. Complaints of heartburn, pain behind the breastbone, outpour of food. Has been ill for 2 months. On X-ray examination revealed the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach. Your tactics? A. *Conservative therapy. B. Bouginage of esophagus. C. Surgical intervention. D. Large-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia. E. Small-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia. 82. The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt the fever, tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of fluid in the posterior mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Acute posterior mediastinitis. B. Acute anterior mediastinitis. C. Diverticulum of the esophagus. D. Acute pleural empyema. E. Paraesophageal hernia. 83. Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone. Has been ill for 4 months. On contrasting Xray was diagnosed: the "bell" sign, the absence of gas bubble of the stomach, blunt Hiss angle. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Sliding esophageal hernia B. Paraesophageal hernia C. Gastric ulcer D. Peptic duodenal ulcer E. Decompensated pyloric stenosis 84. 5 hours ago, after the bouginage of esophageal cicatricle stricture appeared the pain behind the breastbone, a feeling of compression, subcutaneous crepitation on the neck, fever to 38,5°C. On examination the weakening of the heart tones by auscultation. On plain X-ray of chest – mediastinal emphysema, mediastinal extension of the shadows. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Acute mediastinitis B. Reflux esophagitis C. Sliding esophageal hernia D. Paraesophageal hernia E. Achalasia of the esophagus 85. A 34-year-old female with hypertension is considering to become a pregnant. Which of the following medications would be absolutely contraindicated to control her BP during pregnancy? A. Methyldopa B. Metoprolol C. Labetalol D. *Captopril E. Nifedipine 86. A 34-year-old male with isolated essential hypertension came to clinic and it was found high BP of 180/100 mm Hg after failure of behavioral modifications. What is the most appropriate next step? A. Start hydrochlorothiazide B. *Start hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril C. Repeat BP in 4 weeks D. Start amlodipine E. Start doxazozin 87. A 34-year-old male with isolated essential hypertension came to clinic and it was found high BP of 180/100 mm Hg item after failure of behavioral modifications. What is the most appropriate next step? A. Start hydrochlorothiazide B. *Start hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril C. Repeat BP in 4 weeks D. Start amlodipine E. Start doxazozin 88. A 40-year-old diabetic patient with a blood pressure (BP) of 145/90 mm Hg item and proteinuria. Which BP profile represents the best therapeutic goal for this patient? A. 160/90 B. 140/90 C. 130/85 D. *125/75 E. 140/85 89. A 40-year-old diabetic patient presents with a blood pressure (BP) of 145/90 mm Hg item and proteinuria. What is the best medication for the initial management of this patient’s hypertension? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Beta blockers C. *ACE-inhibitors / angiotensin receptor blockers D. Alpha blockers E. Diuretics 90. A 42-year-old female with chronic obsctructive pulmonary disease is found on multiple office visits to have elevated BP measurements. Which of the following medications is contraindicated? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Metoprolol C. Lisinopril D. *None of above E. All of the above 91. A 42-year-old male comes in for a routine physical examination. He is noted to have impaired glucose methabolism, and a BP of 135/85 mmHg. What is the best treatment plan for this individual? A. *Aggressive lifestyle modification B. Institute thiazide diuretic regimen C. No treatment at this time D. Initiate an ACE-inhibitor E. Initiate a beta-blocker 92. A 45-year-old male comes in for a routine physical examination. He is noted to have impaired glucose methabolism, and a BP of 140/85 mmHg. What is the best treatment plan for this individual? A. *Aggressive lifestyle modification B. Institute thiazide diuretic regimen C. No treatment at this time D. Initiate an ACE-inhibitor E. Initiate a beta-blocker 93. A 48-year-old male with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia has a hypertensive emergency. His arterial pressure is 150/100 mmHg item. Which medications would be most appropriate therapy for this patient? A. *Nitroprusside B. Enteral metoprolol C. Fenoldopam D. Intravenous nitroglycerine E. Any of the above 94. ?A 48-year-old obese male with hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes mellitus presents to the outpatient clinic for his yearly physical. He has refused medications in the past, but now is willing to consider treatment. His BP is 145/95 mmHg with a HR of 80 bpm. His laboratory data are significant for the presence of microalbuminuria. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate? A. Carvedilol B. Methyldopa C. *Lisinopril D. Chlorthalidone E. Terazozin 95. A 48-year-old obese male with hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes mellitus presents to the outpatient clinic for his yearly physical. He has refused medications in the past, but now is willing to consider treatment. His BP is 145/95 mmHg with a HR of 80 bpm. His laboratory data are significant for the presence of microalbuminuria. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate? A. Carvedilol B. Methyldopa C. *Lisinopril D. Chlorthalidone E. Terazozin 96. A 56-year-old male on hydralazine, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and metoprolol begins to develop a malar rash and arthralgias. Which of the above antihypertensive agents is known to cause drug-induced lupus? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Lisinopril C. *Hydralazine D. Metoprolol E. None of the above 97. A 53-year-old male on hydralazine, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and metoprolol begins to develop a malar rash and arthralgias. Which of the above antihypertensive agents is known to cause drug-induced lupus? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Lisinopril C. *Hydralazine D. Metoprolol E. None of the above 98. A 60-year old white man consults you with a headache. Examination data are unremarkable, except that the blood pressure is raised and subsequent measurements confirm readings of 170/106 mmHg. He is obese, smokes 15 cigarettes per day and drinks 2 pints of beer per day. His investigations reveal a cholesterol of 6 mmol/l with a normal blood sugar and electrolyte profile and normal renal function. There is no evidence of target organ damage. A. This man needs immediate treatment with antihypertensive drugs, aspirin and a statin B. *Initiate antihypertensive therapy with two-drug combination C. At this age it is far more important to control the hyperlipidaemia than the BP D. This man’s blood pressure could be wholly ascribed to his alcohol intake E. This patient can be observed and counseled on maintaining a reasonable BMI 99. A 62-year-old man with isolated essential hypertension, currently taking hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily, comes to you for his first clinic visit. He notes that his BP at home is always less than 140/80 mmHg, but in clinic it is always at least 155/95 mmHg. What is the next step? A. Increase dose of thiazide B. Addition of second antihypertensive medication C. *Do nothing as he has white coat hypertension D. Evaluate for secondary causes of hypertension E. Start metoprolol 100. A 62-year-old man with isolated essential hypertension, currently taking hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily, comes to you for his first clinic visit. He notes that his BP at home is always less than 140/80 mmHg item, but in clinic it is always at least 155/95 mmHg. What is the next step? A. Increase dose of thiazide B. Addition of second antihypertensive medication C. *Do nothing as he has white coat hypertension D. Evaluate for secondary causes of hypertension E. Start metoprolol 101. At a routine examination, an asymptomatic 46-year-old man is found to have a BP of 150/110 mmHg item, but no other abnormalities are present. What do you do next? A. Reassure the patient and repeat the physical examination in 12 months B. Initiate antihypertensive therapy C. *Obtain repeated BP recordings in your office and/or the patient’s home or work site D. Hospitalize patient for renal arteriography E. Order a 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring 102. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the antihypertensive and/or cardiac agent in question: a 45-year old female has been on diuretic, but BP remains elevated at 145/95, leading to the proposed addition of lisinopril. Which key potential adverse effect should be discussed? A. Increased triglyceride levels B. Peripheral edema C. Lupus-like syndrome D. *Cough E. Gynecomastia 103. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the antihypertensive and/or cardiac agent in question: a 58-year old male truck driver has significant hypertension, still not controlled on a diuretic plus calcium channel blocker. Clonidine is being considered as the next medication, but in this patients is concerned by sedation, sexual dysfunction. A. Increased triglyceride levels B. Cough C. Gynecomastia D. *Rebound hypertension E. Urinary retention 104. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the antihypertensive and/or cardiac agent in question: a 68-year old male with advanced chronic heart failure and BP 145/90 will have spironolactone therapy, but should be informed about possible side effect. A. Increased triglyceride levels B. Peripheral edema C. Lupus-like syndrome D. Cough E. *Gynecomastia 105. In patients with a history of stroke or TIA the preferred drug combination is: A. *ACE-inhibitor and diuretic B. Calcium-channel blocker and beta-blocker C. Beta-blocker and diuretic D. Angiotensin receptor blocker and beta blocker E. Beta- and alpha blocker 106. The initial antihypertensive medication recommended for patients who have no compelling indications or contraindications is A. ACE-inhibitor B. Calcium-channel blocker C. Diuretics D. Beta blocker E. *Any of the above 107. To reduce the patient’s cardiovascular morbidity and mortality, which therapy would you prescribe? A. Hydralazine B. Atenolol C. *Losartan D. Doxazosin E. Clonidine 108. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the patient’s antihypertensive therapy? A. Advise a low-sodium diet B. *Finish doxazosin therapy and consider an alternative agent C. Advise high dietary intake of calcium and potassium D. Increase the doxazosin to 4 mg a day E. Advise magnesium supplements 109. You see a diabetic patient presents with BP readings that are 155/95 or higher. All of the following statements about the treatment of this patient's hypertension are correct EXCEPT: A. Pharmacologic blocade of the renin-angiotensin system reduces the risk of both microvascular and macrovascular events B. Aggressive BP control reduces cardiovascular events more in diabetics than in nondiabetics C. *Calcium channel blockers show no benefit in reducing cardiovascular events D. The goal BP for this patient is <130/80 mmHg E. All the above statements are correct 110. During the operation concerning strangular impassability of bowels, which conducted under general anaesthesia of i/v with ALV, at a patient the stop of cardiac diyal-nosti happened 50 years in the moment of mesenretium streching by the surgeon. What would prevent the stop of heart in this case? A. *i/v injection atropin B. i/v injection of cardiac glycozidis C. Deepening of general anaesthesi D. Additional injection of relaxants E. Additional injection droperidol 111. Patient 30 years after a road-transport failure complaints of the acute tahypno Ob-ly: a skin is pale, cyanosi Hypodermic emphysema in the region of thorax, stomach, right side of the neck. Auscultative: breathing on the right side is not conducted; pulse – 130/min., AP – 80/60 mm.mercury., CVP – 140 mm wt., FB – 30 /min., Ht – 0,27, Hb – 90 g/l. Subsequent therapy must include above all things: A. *punction of pleura cavity. B. Urgent ALV C. Massive infusion therapy of the crystalloid solutions D. Infusion of dofamin, 2-5 mcg/cg/min E. 100% oxygen 112. Patient has BP - 80/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him: A. *120/80=1,5 B. 80+40)120=1 C. 80/120=0,67 D. 120/40=3 E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown 113. Patient N., 47 years, treated in the hospital with the diagnosis: carbuncle of right kidney. Suddenly general condition deteriorated, body temperature 39.50 C, skin cold, humid, consciousness kept, expressed choking. Breath deep, noisy, 26/min. Pulse - 110/min., SC 90/60 mm.mercury., oliguri Which complications we can think about? A. *Infectious-toxic shock B. Vascular dystonia C. Epilepsy D. Anaphylactic shock E. Orthostatic collapse 114. Patient, 40 years, with the trauma of both thighs is delivered from the scene of accident by a “passing transport”. Objectively: cyanosys, rubor of the lower half of the neck, tahypnoe, AP 60/40 mm mer st., HBA=120 /min, in lungs moist wheezes, diuresis – 20 ml/h., Nb 100 g/l. Which from the offered diagnoses most reliable? A. *Fatty embolism B. Traumatic shock C. Hemorhagic shock D. Pain shock E. Tromboembolism 115. The patient 60 years is delivered in the department of intensive therapy with a diagnosis: bite of bee, anafilactic shock.. Which medicine will be primary and most effective? A. Adrenalin B. Calcium the chloride C. Prednizolon D. Dimedrol E. Suprastin 116. The patient 25 years is hospitalized in the surgical department with a diagnosis: penetrable wound of abdominal region. Objectively: it is excited, skin covers and visible mucous shells are pale; peripheral pulse of the weak filling, frequent, AP – 110/60 mm mercury Positive symptom of ”desolation” of peripheral hypodermic vein Diuresis is lowere How to characterize this state? A. The compensated shock B. Preagonia C. Circulating shock D. Agony E. Irreversible shock 117. The patient 36 years with ulcerous of gaster in anamnesis is hospitalized in the surgical department with complaints on vomiting by "coffee-grounds", diarhea, moderately expressed thirst. Objectively: a skin is pale, covered by a death-damp, a tongue is dry, AP – 80/60 mm rt.st., HBA – 120/min., BF – 28/min., diuresis – 25 ml/h. Blood test: Era - 2,8 1012/l, Hb – 98 g/l. What will be most expedient in medical treatment: A. *solutions with colloid B. 5% solution of glucose C. Whole blood D. Red corpuscles mass E. Colloid solutions with red corpuscles mass 118. 118. Patient 48 years the second day in dpartment of intensive therapy concerning the acute front-partition heart attack of myocardium. During a review “wheezing” suddenly, nonpermanent tonic constricting of muscles is marked, pupils are extended, pulse on carotis not palpitat What doctor have to do in the first place? A. Triple Safar method B. Record of ECG C. Cardial hit in the area of heart D. Artificial respiration by the method of Silvester E. Intracardial injection of adrenalin with an atropine 119. The patient entered the department with a diagnosis: acute intestinal impassability. Complaints: insignificant thirst, dizziness at an attempt to get up from a be At a review: patient apathetical, turgor is lowered, eyeballs are soft, tongue is dry with crack Pulse – 110 min., AP – 80 /60 mm of mer item, diuresis – 25 ml /h. Electrolyte composition: Na+ - 142 mmol/l, C+ - 4 mmol/l, glucose – 6 mmol/l, urea – 7 mmol/l. What variant of infusion is most expedient during operation? A. *Transfusion of crystalloid B. Transfusion of solution of glucos C. Transfusion of albumen. D. Transfusion of native plasm E. Transfusion of poliglucin. 120. The patient, 28 years, 2 hours ago fell down from the ground floor of hous Sopor, pale, there are the plural scratches of face, the lacerated hemorhagic wounds on the left forearm. The closed break of the left shoulder and thigh. Pulse –110, Lc-10T/l, Hb – 100, AP – 90/40 mm of rt. item In the blood test: red corpuscles – 3,5 g/l. What infouziyniy serednic does not need to be used for medical treatment of shock? A. *5% solution of glucose B. Solution of crystalloids C. Solutions gelatin D. Solutions of calcium E. Solution of albumen 121. Anafilactic shock appeared at a patient. The state heavy and progressively gets wors HBA – 110 in a 1 minute, AP – 60/30 mm mercury. Prescribe medicine for the rescue of life of patient above all things? A. *Adrenalin. B. Chloride of calcium. C. Prednizolon. D. Dofamin. E. Suprastin. 122. At a patient 20 years on a background the injection of vitamin B1 suddenly there was excitation, fear of death, falling of AP to 50 mm rt.st., hard breathing. Which of medicine it is necessary to inject firstly? A. *Adrenalin B. Prednizolon C. Calcium D. Dimedrol E. Eufilin 123. At a patient 60 years with the third day after an exterpation uterus acute insufficiency of breathing developed suddenly, a skin became at first cyanotic, and then ash-colored color. Tachypnoe, cough with bloody sputum, retrosternal pain. BP – 100/70 mm. mercury, HR – 120, BR – 32 in 1 min., CVP – 300 mm wt.col. What most reliable reason of worsening of the state of patient ? A. *Tromboemboliya of pulmonary artery B. Bleeding C. Pain shock D. Hypostatic pneumonia E. Heart attack of myocardium 124. At a patient in the ward of intensive therapy you marked appearance on the monitor of fibrillation of ventricule Your first actions? A. *To conduct defibrillation three times B. To inject adrenalin C. To inject a chloride D. To begin the closed massage of heart E. To inject lidocain 125. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium best of all to warn relapsing fibrillation of ventricles with : A. cordaronum B. lidocainum C. ornidinum D. *electrocardiostimulation E. there is no right answer 126. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium in the region of partition on a 5th day after the brief episode of loss of consciousness there is reduction of frequency of pulse to 32 in a minut BP - 80/40 mm Consciousness at the level of sopor. He immediately needs : A. to put right a craniotserebral hypothermia, to enter lasics, prednisoloni, tserebrolizin B. to enter an atropine, eoufilin, to begin infouziyo of aloupenta C. *to conduct urgent cardiostimoulation D. all answers are faithful E. there is no right answer 127. At a patient, carried to a 2 year ago the heart attack of myocardium, the acute decline of cholecystyties planned cholecystectomy, signs of electric instability of myocardium . Actions of anaesthesiologist must include: A. injection of prednisoloni, lidocaini, hyperventilation, take the ECG B. *injection of dopamini, after stabilisation of BP - nitroglycerine + infusion therapy under the control CVP, conducting of neurovegetative defence, take the ECG C. injection of streptodecasol, stream infusion of reopoliglyocinum, injection of lidocainum, increase of dose of analgetics D. correctly A) and C) E. all answers are faithful 128. At a patient, that is found on medical treatment in the therapeutic department, the sudden stopping of circulation of blood happene Medical personnel begun the reanimation measure Define the most rational way of injection of adrenalin for renewal of heart abbreviations in default of vein access: A. *To enter to a 3 ml solution of adrenalin in a trache B. To enter to a 1 ml solution of adrenalin in muscl C. To enter adrenalin in muscle, multiplying a dose in 3 time D. The intracardial injection. E. Adrenalin can be not entere 129. At a patient, that is found under the permanent electrocardioscopic supervision, microwave fibrillation of myocardium and diagnosed clinical death develope It is necessary to do: A. to inject the solution of calcium in cor B. *to conduct high-voltage electric defibrillation C. to inject solution of atropine in cor D. to inject solution of adrenalin in cor E. All answers are wrong 130. At the patient operated concerning the festering peritonitis coused by perforation of gastric ulcer, in a postoperation period appeared: high temperature, frequency of breathing 35/min., AP – 70/40 mm of mer item, diuresis -20 ml/h temperature of body to 39 , leucocitosi Transfusion during 12 hours 1,8 of a 0,9% solution of chlorous sodium and 0,8 of solution of reopoliglucin did not improve general condition. Central vein pressure – 130 mm wt.st. For stabilization of hemodinamics will be optimum infusion: A. *Dopamin B. Mezaton C. Adrenalin D. Noradrenalin E. Ephedrine 131. At the ventilated patient with the edema of lungs at low pressure and septic shock intravenous infusion 7,5 mcg/kg/min dopamini will increase A. RaO2, saturation of oxygen of the mixed vein blood, consumption of oxygen B. diuresis C. *cardiac systolic volume D. right A) and B) E. faithful all answers 132. In 2 hours after renewal of cardial activity at a patient, that carried the sudden stop of heart on a background hemorhagic shock (blood lost near 2,5 l) and is found on ALV, unstable hemorhagia (AP – 80/40 – 90/60 mm of mer item, tahycardia)is marked, central vein pressure – 5 mm wt.st. It is related to: A. *By Hypovolume syndrome B. By cardia insufficiency C. By the inadequate interchange of gases D. Vasoplegia E. By the inadequate anaesthetizing 133. In a clinic a patient with the traumatic tearing of both lower extremities off at the level of knee-joints is delivere A patient is extremly inert, languid, pale, pulse 140 bmin, threadlike, AP 500. On both lower extremities there are the imposed plait Bleeding at the receipt is not present. From the words of doctor of first-aid, lost about 3 litres of blood in place of event. What principal reason of heavy of the state of Patient? A. Acute hemorrhag B. Pain shock. C. Ishemia of extremities as a result of application of tourniquet D. Fatty embolism E. acute kidney insufficiency 134. In a clinic a patient with the traumatic tearing of both lower extremities off at the level of knee-joints is delivere A patient is extremly inert, languid, pale, pulse 140 bmin, threadlike, AP 500. On both lower extremities there are the imposed plait Bleeding at the receipt is not present. From the words of doctor of first-aid, lost about 3 litres of blood in place of event. What principal reason of heavy of the state of Patient? A. *acute hemorrhag B. Pain shock. C. Ishemia of extremities as a result of application of tourniquet D. Fatty embolism E. acute kidney insufficiency 135. It is typical for: A. *Negative CVT B. Erroneous punction of artery C. Right-side pmeumothorax D. Edema of lungs E. Hypodermic emphysema 136. On a 4 day after incompatible (on a group) blood transfusion at a patient acutely reduced diouresis, anuria developed, the common state became worse acutely, arterial pressure ros At laboratory research: creatinin plasma – 680 mlmol/l, urea of plasma - 24 mmol/l. What illness and what stage of illness it follows to think about in the first place? A. Acute kidney insufficiency, anuria B. Anaphylactic shock, acute kidney insufficiency, anuria C. Hemotransfusion shock, postrenal acute kidney insufficiency, anuria D. Posthemoragic acute kidney insufficiency, anuria E. acute interstitsial nephritis, postrenal anuria 137. Patient 20 years for verification of the functional state of kidneys the X- ray examination with v/v injection of cardiotrast is conducte At the end of injection the state of patient acutely became worse, the shortness of breath, hyperemia of skin, itch appeare AP – 60/20 mm of mer item, HBA – 132/min. A similar research was conducted 3 months ago, such effects were not observe What most reliable diagnosis? A. Medicinal anafilactic shock B. Acute kidney insufficiency C. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery D. Stress on the conducted manipulation E. Heart attack miocardium 138. Patient 38 years, native plasma was poure At the end of infusion the state became worse: Patient confused, excited, cyanosys, hypersalivation. Breathing frequency 36 on 1 min., AP – 70/40 mm of mer item, whistling dry wheeze Which from the following mediceni must be injected firstly? A. *Adrenalin. B. Eufilin. C. Suprastin. D. Noradrenalin. E. Prednizolon. 139. Patient 40 years with the acute gastro - intestinal bleeding a canned blood was poured in a volume 400 ml after conducting of all tests on compatibility. After hemotransfusion the state of patient became worse, appeared head pains and pains in muscles athe temperature of body rose to 38,8 What can explaine the state of patient? A. Pyroxene reaction of middle heavy B. By development of hemotransfusion shock C. *Allergic reaction D. By development of bacterial-toxic shock E. By air embolism 140. Patient 40 years with the acute gastro - intestinal bleeding a canned blood was poured in a volume 400 ml after conducting of all tests on compatibility. After hemotransfusion the state of patient became worse, appeared head pains and pains in muscles athe temperature of body rose to 38,8 What can explaine the state of patient? A. Pirogenic reaction of middle heavy B. *By development of hemotransfusion shock C. Alergic reaction D. By development of bacterial-toxic shock E. By air embolism 141. Patient 62 years the third day of presense in department of intensive therapy concerning the acute transmural heart attack of myocardium of front-partition localization. At night woked up from a suffocating cough, feeling of fear and troubl At a review: cyanosys, FB – 30 after 1 min., HBA – 132/ min., a rhythm is correct, tones of heart are deaf, accent ІІ tone above a pulmonary artery, AP – 180/110 mm mercury. There is the loosened breathing above lungs with the far of moist wheezes in lower fate What probably became the reason of worsening of the state? A. *Edema of lungs B. Embolism of pulmonary artery C. The repeated heart attack miocardium D. Hypertensive crisis E. Attack of bronchial asthma 142. Patient L is hospitalized in gynecological department with the temperature of 39 degrees C, with complaints of pain in the bottom of stomach, vomit, diarrhea . Criminal abortion have been done 4 days befor AP 80/60, breathing is difficult, psychosomatic excitation. Symptom of Schotkin-blumberg is positiv Uterus is enlarged as on 9 weeks of pregnancy, limitedly mobile, painles Pus with blood appeare Your Diagnosis? A. *septic shock B. Perforation of uterus C. Pelvic peritonitis D. Acute appendicitis E. Acute adnexia inflammation 143. Patient N., 28 years ol 6 day after the complicated birth The clinical hematological signs of subacute disseminate intravascular coagulation syndrome developed after skin hemorrhage and uterine bleeding. The state of patient is very ba blood: Er-2,7 of T/l, Hb-78 of gm/l, CI - 0,93, L-4,7 of Gm/l, thrombocytes-88 of gm/l, time of blood cloating - 16 min, prothrombin time - 25 sec, ethanol test +, fibrinogen-1,4 gramme/l, What preparations should be prescribed ? A. *freezed plasma B. Heparinum C. Reopoliglycin D. Cryoprecipitate E. U-aminokapric acid 144. Patient N., 40 years, groom. In anamnesis there is an allergy to nonsteriidal antiinflammatory. After injection of antitetanus on a method Besredco concerning the hammered wound of right shin, through 20 mines, there was a acute weakness, labouring breath, through 10 mines, loss of consciousnes What mechanism of development of anafilactic form of illness? A. Sensitization to the albumen of horse whey B. Low quality of horse whey C. Breach of the technique of PPS injection D. Presence in anamnesis of medical allergy E. Infection of whey 145. Patient N., 40 years, groom. In anamnesis there is an allergy to nonsteroidal antyinflammatory. After injection of antytetanus on a method Besredco concerning the hammered wound of right shin, through 20 mines, there was a acute weakness, labouring breath, through 10 mines, loss of consciousnes What mechanism of development of anafilactic form of illness? A. *Sensitization to the albumen of horse whey B. Low quality of horse whey C. Breach of the technique of PPS injection D. Presence in anamnesis of medical allergy E. Infection of whey 146. Persons 48 years, patient by the heart attack of miocardium, suddenly lost consciousness, breathing and palpitation. On ECG of highwave fibrilation of ventricule Conducted defibrilation. Did not pick up normal cardial activity. What medicine needs to be entered for the rise of sensuality to defibrillation? A. *Amiodaron B. Propranolon C. Lidocain D. Strofantin E. Atropini sulfati 147. Pharmacological medicine, that diminish the (afterload) left ventricle at a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium, are not included A. nitroglycerine B. *strophantine C. nitroproussid sodium D. esmolol (brevibloc) E. nifedipinum 148. Sick 46 years treated oneself in a therapeutic department with pneumonia of lower dole of right lung. Planned antibacterial therapy - amoxiklav. After 40 min after intramuscular injection of duty dose, the patients feeled dizziness, pain behind a breastbon AT 60/40 mm mer , pulse, 120 a min., rhythmical. During examination of lungs: wheezes under both lung Temperature is 38,5 What is worsening of the condition related to? A. *Anaphylactic shock B. Infectious toxic shock C. Collapse D. Tromboembolia of pulmonary artery E. Infectious shock 149. The patient 20 years old, delivered to ambulance department on the 2nd day of illness in a grave condition: temperature of body 39°c, symptoms of intoxication are expresse On extremities, trunk, buttocks, present hemorrhagic rash as eczema with necrosis in the center. One day before cut his leg. Now has the wound in that plac In 2 hours the decline of AP is registered from 100/70 to 60/30 mm of Hg, diffused cyanosi Application of prednisolon of 120 mg and reopolyglucin did not give any effect. What complication does it follow to think about? A. acute sub renal failure B. *Septic shock C. hypovolemic shock D. Hemorragic shock E. Respirator distress syndrom of adults 150. The patient 32 years have infusion of native plasm At the end of infusion the state became worse: disorientation, cyanosys, excitation, appeared hypersalivation, tahypnoe, AP =70/40 mm mer st., in lungs – the dissipated dry wheeze What medicine must be injected firstly? A. *Adrenalin. B. Suprastin. C. Gidrocortizon. D. Dopamin. E. Eufilin. 151. To patient P., 50 years, with an unspecific ulcerous colitis with the purpose of correction of anaemia transfusion of selfgroup blood 500 ml A(ІІ) the Rh(-) was conducte A doctor went out from a chamber after conducting of necessary tests before hemotransfusion. In 20 minutes he was quickly asked to the patient. Patient without consciousnes The cyanosys of upper body part. Irregular breathing with the selection of a plenty of foamy, with the admixtures of blood, phlegm. Pulse on peripheries and arterial pressure are not determine Tones of heart are deaf, unrhythmical. An ampoule and transfusion system is empty. What complication arose up as a result of hemotransfusion? A. *Air embolism of pulmonary artery B. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery C. Edema of lungs D. Heart attack of myocardium E. Syndrome of massive hemotransfusion 152. To the patient 45 years with suspicion on holecystitis the rentgencontrast i/v is quickly injecte Tahycardiya, arterial hypotension, cyanosys, shortness of breath appeared, acute swelling of veins of neck, extension of liver, CVT to 200 mm wt.st. acute insufficiency of what part of the cardial-vascular system is observed at a patient? A. *Right ventricle of heart B. The left ventricle of heart C. Both ventricles of heart D. Vessels E. Uneffective heart 153. A man 50 years of asymptomatic mixed goiter. At the first stage, it should appoint A. *only observation B. thyroid hormones to suppress the function of cancer C. propylthiouracil D. subtotal thyroidectomy E. radioiodine 154. In patient K, aged 26, noted a relapse of hyperthyroidism after medical treatment. Your tactics. A. *Surgical treatment B. Continue medical treatment C. Outpatient D. Treatment is not required E. Is no right answer 155. 1n patients after operations on the thyroid gland have complaints about the shortness of breath, lethargy, convulsions. What is the cause of these clinical manifestations? A. *lower calcium concentration B. lower content of iodothyronine C. increasing concentrations of glucose D. increasing concentration of potassium E. no right answer 156. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the thyroid gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What additional diagnostic method to assign? A. *Thyroid gland B. Radiography of the neck C. Doppler D. Rheovasography E. EEG 157. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the thyroid gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify the diagnosis? A. *Thyroid hormones B. Total blood C. Urinalysis D. Immunogram E. Protein fraction 158. Patient D, aged 39, admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What study be done. A. *Investigation of iodine hormones in the blood serum B. EFGDS C. Is no right answer D. Rheovasography E. Doppler 159. Patient J., 57, was admitted to the surgical clinic with a diagnosis: euthyroid nodular goiter. Choose the correct treatment option. A. *resection of the thyroid gland with maximal preservation of healthy tissue and routine histological examination B. enucleation C. medication D. subtotal resection of the thyroid gland E. excision of the node with the routine histological examination 160. Patient K, aged 49, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What study be done. A. *Scanning of the thyroid gland B. EFGDS C. Rheovasography D. Doppler E. There is no correct answer 161. Patient K., aged 45, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient? A. *goiter B. acute strumitis C. sporadic goiter D. epidemic goiter E. mass thyrotoxicosis 162. Patient M, 39 years old, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What study be done. A. *Thyroid gland B. EFGDS C. Rheovasography D. Doppler E. Is no right answer 163. Patient M., aged 35, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient? A. *there is no right answer B. acute strumitis C. sporadic goiter D. epidemic goiter E. mass thyrotoxicosis 164. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive reduction of hands. Treatment. A. *the introduction of calcium chloride intravenously B. introduction Seduxen C. introduction of iodine D. infusion therapy E. introduction of calcium chloride oral 165. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive reduction of hands. What mated complication of surgery? A. *Removal of parathyroid glands B. Iodine deficiency C. Lack of thyroid tissue D. Increased thyroid hormone E. Increased parathyroid hormone 166. ?Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely diagnosis A. *Toxic goiter B. Hashimoto struma C. Acute thyroiditis D. nodular goiter E. goiter De Quervain 167. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely diagnosis A. *there is no right answer B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis C. Acute thyroiditis D. nodular goiter E. goiter De Quervain 168. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What additional diagnostic method to assign? A. *Thyroid gland B. Radiography of the neck C. Doppler D. Reovazography E. EEG 169. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify the diagnosis? A. *Total blood B. Urinalysis C. Thyroid hormones D. Protein fraction E. Immunogram 170. Patients after resection of the thyroid gland have cramps, Hvostek and Trousseau symptoms. What complication is the patient? A. *gipoparatireosis B. laryngeal nerve injury C. residual effects of thyrotoxicosis D. thyrotoxic crisis E. hypothyroidism 171. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and Trousseau. What a complication arose in a patient? A. *there is no right answer B. laryngeal nerve injury C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism D. thyrotoxic crisis E. hypothyroidism 172. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and Trousseau. What a complication is arose in a patient? A. *hypoparathyreosis B. laryngeal nerve injury C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism D. thyrotoxic crisis E. hypothyroidism 173. The patient complaints of excessive sweating, hand tremor, exophthalmos. The most likely diagnosis. A. *Strumit B. Goiter C. Tireodit D. Thyrotoxicosis E. Is no right answer 174. The patient diagnosed nodular nontoxic goiter. What operation is indicated the patient? A. *resection of the affected lobe with histological examination B. conservative treatment of thyroxine C. removal of the affected lobe, isthmus and central lymph node dissection D. enucleation site E. subtotal thyroidectomy 175. The patient diagnosed nodular nontoxic goiter. What operation is indicated the patient? A. *No right answer B. conservative treatment of thyroxine C. removal of the affected lobe, isthmus and central lymph node dissection D. enucleation site E. subtotal thyroidectomy 176. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology? A. *Exophthalmos B. Peritoneal signs C. Trophic ulcer D. Limb gangrene E. No right answer 177. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology? A. *Graefe symptom B. Peritoneal signs C. Trophic ulcer D. Limb gangrene E. No right answer 178. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology? A. *Mobius symptom B. Peritoneal signs C. Trophic ulcer D. Limb gangrene E. No right answer 179. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology? A. *Tachycardia B. Peritoneal signs C. Trophic ulcer D. Limb gangrene E. No right answer 180. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology? A. *Tremor of the upper limbs B. Peritoneal signs C. Trophic ulcer D. Limb gangrene E. No right answer 181. The patient diagnosed with an aberrant goiter. Refine the definition of aberrant goiter. A. *cancer of the thyroid gland B. metastases of thyroid cancer in the liver C. atypical location of the thyroid gland D. all true E. all wrong 182. The patient diagnosed with autoimmune thyroiditis. Which of the following symptoms characteristic of this disease? A. *increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, hypothyroidism B. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, fever C. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, hypothyroidism, fever D. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, E. thyrotoxicosis, fever 183. The patient diagnosed with nodular euthyroid goiter left lobe of the thyroid gland. What is the optimal treatment option. A. *hemistrumectomy or resection of the lobe of the thyroid gland B. excision of the node with the routine histological examination C. enucleation site D. subtotal thyroidectomy E. conservative treatment thyroidin 184. The patient lives in the area of endemic iodine. What can be used to prevent goitre? A. merkasalil B. vaccination C. iodine D. improving the social life of the population E. *iodination salt 185. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a patient? A. *Pneumathemia B. Onychomycosis C. Trophic ulcer D. Limb gangrene E. No right answer 186. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a patient? A. *Damage to the trachea B. Onychomycosis C. Trophic ulcer D. Limb gangrene E. No right answer 187. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a patient? A. *Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Onychomycosis C. Trophic ulcer D. Limb gangrene E. No right answer 188. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a patient? A. *Bleeding from the wound B. Onychomycosis C. Trophic ulcer D. Limb gangrene E. No right answer 189. The patient S., 546 years old, diagnosed with goiter II degree. What is characteristic of the III degree of increase in thyroid gland? A. *visible swallowing B. giant goiter C. determined only by palpation D. visible only when swallowing E. determined only on ultrasound 190. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the node. On scanning image identified a "cold node". Specify the most probable cause of this condition A. *node malignancy B. cystic degeneration of the node C. autoimmune D. all true E. hemorrhage site 191. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the node. What method of diagnosis is the most informative? A. *scanning with radioactive iodine B. X-ray of the neck C. Doppler D. Rheovasography E. EEG 192. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following post-operative complications can sports a patient? A. *No right answer B. Ischemia of the upper extremities C. Ischemia of lower extremities D. Ileus E. Gastric 193. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative complications may be sports in the patient? A. *Hypocalcemia B. Ischemia of the upper extremities C. Ischemia of lower extremities D. Ileus E. Gastric 194. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative complications may be sports in the patient? A. *Paresis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Ischemia of the upper extremities C. Ischemia of lower extremities D. Ileus E. Gastric 195. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative complications may be sports in the patient? A. *Thyrotoxic crisis B. Ischemia of the upper extremities C. Ischemia of lower extremities D. Ileus E. Gastric 196. The patient V., age 56, diagnosed with goiter of third degree. What is characteristic of the III degree of increase in thyroid gland? A. *visible without swallowing B. giant goiter C. determined only by palpation D. visible only when swallowing E. determined only on ultrasound 197. The patient was admitted with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What operation is indicated the patient? A. *subtotal resection of the thyroid gland B. thyroidectomy C. hemistrumectomy D. strumectomy E. no right answer 198. The patient was admitted with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What operation is indicated the patient? A. *No right answer B. thyroidectomy C. hemistrumectomy D. strumectomy E. no right answer 199. The patient was planned to study the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine-131. How much time should not use iodine and thyreostatics? A. *30 days B. 50 days C. 40 days D. 10 days E. 20 days 200. The patient was planned to study the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine-131. How much time should not use iodine and thyreostatics? A. *No right answer B. 50 days C. 40 days D. 10 days E. 20 days 201. The patient's 43 years revealed an increase in the left lobe of the thyroid gland. When scanning in this region found a hot site. Diagnosis. A. *nodular toxic goiter B. diffuse non-toxic goiter C. toxic goiter D. multinodular toxic goiter E. non-toxic nodular goiter 202. The patient's 60 years in the last 3 months has been rapidly increasing dense mass in the left lobe of the thyroid gland. Effects of hyperthyroidism is not. At thyroid scan revealed a cold junction. Preliminary diagnosis A. *thyroid cancer B. lipoma of the thyroid gland C. cyst D. metastasis of lung cancer E. thyroid cyst 203. A Patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower extremities, chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are: A. *Ultrasound examination B. Rheovasography C. Thermometry D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation E. Venogram 204. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower extremities, chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are: A. *Arteriography B. Rheovasography C. Thermometry D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation E. Venogram 205. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower extremities, chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are: A. *No right answer B. Rheovasography C. Thermometry D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation E. Venogram 206. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of more than 1000 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the patient? A. *I B. II A C. II B D. III E. IV 207. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of 300 - 400 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the patient? A. *II A B. I C. II B D. III E. IV 208. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of 200 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency is the patient? A. *II B B. I C. II A D. III E. IV 209. A patient admitted with complaints of pain at rest. What stage of chronic arterial insufficiency has the patient? A. *III B. I C. II A D. II B E. IV 210. A patient admitted with complaints of pain from intermittent claudication, and impotence. What is the diagnosis can be suspected in a patient? A. *Leriche syndrome B. Obliterating endarteritis C. Deep vein thrombosis leg D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis E. Coarctation of aorta 211. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the muscles of the buttocks and waist. What is the diagnosis can be suspected in a patient? A. *Leriche syndrome B. Obliterating endarteritis C. Deep vein thrombosis leg D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis E. Coarctation of aorta 212. At examination the patient was diagnosedthe absence pulse on femoral arteries. What is the diagnosis can be suspected in a patient? A. *Leriche syndrome B. Obliterating endarteritis C. Deep vein thrombosis leg D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis E. Coarctation of aorta 213. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis arteries of lower extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with: A. *Obliterative endarteritis B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg C. Iliac vein thrombosis D. Varicosity E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins 214. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of lower extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with: A. *Diabetic angiopathy B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg C. Iliac vein thrombosis D. Varicosity E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins 215. The patient aged 53 years admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of lower extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with: A. *Sciatica B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg C. Thrombosis of iliac vein D. Varicosity E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins 216. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to block pain? A. *Epidural block B. No-shpa C. Trental D. Rheopolyglucin E. Solcosery 217. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to block pain? A. *Paravertebral sympathetic blockade B. No shpa C. Trental D. Rheopolyglucine E. Solcoseryl 218. Patient is in hospital with diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be used: A. *Rheopoliglucin B. Seduksen C. Actovegin D. Niacin E. Papaverine 219. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: arterial occlusive disease of the lower extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be used: A. *Trental B. Seduksen C. Actovegin D. Niacin E. Papaverine 220. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To remove vasospasm should be used: A. *Papaverine B. Rheopoliglikin C. Seduksen D. Actovegin E. Niacin 221. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests: A. *Oppel B. Troyanov C. Sidorenko D. Stepanova E. Kokket 222. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests: A. *Goldflam B. Troyanov C. Sidorenko D. Stepanova E. Kokket 223. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests: A. *Panchenko B. Troyanov C. Sidorenko D. Stepanova E. Kokket 224. The patient 47 years old complained on pain in the calf muscles during walking. What is this symptom: A. *Intermittent claudication B. Troyanov C. Oppel D. Panchenko E. Kokket 225. At doppler ultrasound study in the patients revealed atherosclerotic changes in arteries. What method of diagnosis must be pursued to clarify the localization process? A. *Arteriography B. Thermometry C. Radiography of limbs D. Radiography of the chest cavity E. ECG 226. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal artery. What diseases can cause embolism? A. *Rheumatic heart disease B. Acute pancreatitis C. Acute cholecystitis D. Ulcer E. Obliterate endarteritis 227. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal artery . What is the most probable cause of embolism? A. *Myocardial infarction B. Acute pancreatitis C. Acute cholecystitis D. Ulcer E. Obliterate endarteritis 228. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the right popliteal artery . What is the most probable cause of embolism? A. *Cardiac aneurysm B. Acute pancreatitis C. Acute cholecystitis D. Ulcer E. Obliterate endarteritis 229. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the right popliteal artery . What is the most probable cause of embolism? A. *Aneurysm of femoral artery B. Acute pancreatitis C. Acute cholecystitis D. Ulcer E. Obliterate endarteritis 230. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal artery . What is the most probable cause of embolism? A. *Septic endocarditis B. Acute pancreatitis C. Acute cholecystitis D. Ulcer E. Obliterate endarteritis 231. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the left popliteal artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism? A. *Severe pain in the limbs B. Filling saphenous veins C. Trophic ulcer leg D. Varicose saphenous veins E. Reticular varicose 232. *The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism right popliteal artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism? A. *Cold extremities B. Filling saphenous veins C. Trophic ulcer leg D. Varicose saphenous veins E. Reticular varicose 233. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right popliteal artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism? A. *Acute weakness in the limbs B. Filling saphenous veins C. Trophic ulcer leg D. Varicose saphenous veins E. Reticular varicose 234. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism left popliteal artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism? A. *Pale skin limbs B. Filling saphenous veins C. Trophic ulcer leg D. Varicose saphenous veins E. Reticular varicose 235. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism, right femoral artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism? A. *The deterioration of the picture subcutaneous veins of the affected limb B. Filling saphenous veins C. Trophic ulcer leg D. Varicose saphenous veins E. Reticular varicose 236. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism? A. *Changing the surface sensitivity on the affected limb B. Filling saphenous veins C. Trophic ulcer leg D. Varicose saphenous veins E. Reticular varicose 237. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism? A. *Changing a deep sensitivity to the affected limb B. Filling saphenous veins C. Trophic ulcer leg D. Varicose saphenous veins E. Reticular varicose 238. In the patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism? A. *The disappearance of pulsation with the level of the femoral artery B. Filling saphenous veins C. Trophic ulcer leg D. Varicose saphenous veins E. Reticular varicose 239. In the patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right popliteal artery. What is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism? A. *The disappearance of pulsation with the level of the popliteal artery B. Filling saphenous veins C. Trophic ulcer leg D. Varicose saphenous veins E. Reticular varicose 240. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs both legs and lower abdomen. What are level of occlusion? A. *Bifurcation of the aorta B. Iliac arteries C. Femoral artery D. Popliteal artery E. Arteries foot 241. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the inguinal ligament. What are level of occlusion? A. *Iliac arteries B. Bifurcation of the aorta C. Femoral artery D. Popliteal artery E. Arteries foot 242. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh. What are level of occlusion? A. *Femoral artery B. Bifurcation of the aorta C. Iliac arteries D. Popliteal artery E. Arteries foot 243. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the knee joint. What are level of occlusion? A. *Popliteal artery B. Bifurcation of the aorta C. Iliac arteries D. Femoral artery E. Arteries foot 244. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the whole hand. What are level of occlusion? A. *Subclavian artery B. Axillary artery C. Brachial artery D. Ulnar artery E. Arteries hand 245. The patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the upper third of the shoulder. What are level of occlusion? A. *Axillary artery B. Subclavian artery C. Brachial artery D. Ulnar artery E. Arteries hand 246. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the middle third of the shoulder. What are level of occlusion? A. *Brachial artery B. Axillary artery C. Subclavian artery D. Ulnar artery E. Arteries hand 247. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the elbow joint. What are level of occlusion? A. *Ulnar artery B. Axillary artery C. Subclavian artery D. Brachial artery E. Arteries hand 248. A patient admitted to hospital complaining of a sharp intense pain in the limbs. This symptom is typical for A. *Embolism B. Thrombosis C. Atherosclerotic lesions D. Varicose E. Postthrombotic syndrome 249. A patient admitted to hospital complaining of pain in the limbs with a gradual increase in intensity. This symptom is typical for A. *Thrombosis B. Embolism C. Atherosclerotic lesions D. Varicose E. Postthrombotic syndrome 250. The patient admitted to hospital with a stab wound femoral artery. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Open injury B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Fire damage 251. The patient was admitted to hospital with a knife wound femoral artery. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Open injury B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Fire damage 252. The patient admitted to hospital with chopped wound in the femoral artery. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Open injury B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Fire damage 253. The patient admitted to hospital with a shattered wound in the femoral artery. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Open injury B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 254. The patient admitted to hospital with a gunshot wound in the femoral artery. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Open injury B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 255. The patient admitted to hospital with external bleeding in the femoral artery. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Fresh wounds B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 256. The patient was admitted to hospital in a state of shock and damage in the femoral artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Fresh wounds B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 257. The patient was admitted to hospital with gangrene and limb damage in the femoral artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Fresh wounds B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 258. The patient admitted to hospital pulsating hematoma and injuries to the femoral artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Complicated wounds B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 259. The patient was admitted to hospital with bruising and damage to suppuration in the femoral artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Complicated wounds B. Closed injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 260. The patient admitted to hospital with a blunt injury in the femoral artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Closed injury B. Open injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 261. The patient admitted to hospital with a compression of the femoral artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Closed injury B. Open injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 262. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to only the femoral artery. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Isolated damage B. Open injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 263. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the femoral artery and internal organs. Which type of injury is this damage? A. *Combined injuries B. Joint damage C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 264. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery in the first day after injury. To what this type of injury is damage? A. *Recent damage B. Open injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 265. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the second day after injury. To what this type of injury is damage? A. *Recent damage B. Open injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 266. The patient admitted to hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the fourth day after injury. To what this type of injury is damage? A. *Complicated injuries B. Open injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 267. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the seventh day after injury. To what this type of injury is damage? A. *Complicated injuries B. Open injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 268. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery in the second week after injury. To what this type of injury is damage? A. *Complicated injuries B. Open injury C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 269. A patient admitted to hospital with clinical symptoms of external bleeding in axillary artery. To whom this type of injury is damage? A. *Open injury B. Complicated injuries C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 270. A patient admitted to hospital with clinical symptoms of external bleeding in axillary artery. To whom this type of injury is damage? A. *Open injury B. Complicated injuries C. Mixed damage D. Combined damage E. Through damage 271. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the superficial femoral artery. Which research method can give the most accurate information? A. *Vascular ultrasound B. Thermometry C. Radiography of the lower extremity D. Radiography of abdominal E. Rheovasography 272. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the superficial femoral artery. Which research method can give the most accurate information? A. *Angioraphy B. Thermometry C. Radiography of the lower extremity D. Radiography of abdominal E. Rheovasography 273. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the femoral artery. Which research method can give the most accurate information? A. *There is no correct answer B. Thermometry C. Radiography of the lower extremity D. Radiography of abdominal E. Rheovasography 274. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins the left lower extremity. At the examination revealed only varicose saphenous veins of legs without edema. What stage of varicose veins is in a patient? A. *I B. II A C. II B D. III E. IV 275. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. At the examination revealed varicose saphenous veins of lower leg with swelling and pasty. What stage of varicose veins is in a patient? A. *II A B. I C. II B D. III E. IV 276. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. At the examination revealed varicose saphenous veins with leg edema, pasty, and induration of the skin ulcer in the lower third of the leg. What stage of varicose veins is in a patient? A. *III B. II A C. I D. II B E. IV 277. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency I degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best? A. *Elastic compression B. Surgical treatment C. Antihypertensive therapy D. Anticoagulant therapy E. Anticholesterol therapy 278. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency II degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best? A. *Surgical treatment B. Elastic compression C. Antihypertensive therapy D. Anticoagulant therapy E. Anticholesterol therapy 279. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best? A. *Surgical treatment B. Elastic compression C. Antihypertensive therapy D. Anticoagulant therapy E. Anticholesterol therapy 280. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. What drug with venotonics properties should be appoint? A. *Detralex B. Aspirin C. Pentoksifilin D. Heparin E. Warphrin 281. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties should be appoint? A. *Phlebodia B. Aspirin C. Pentoksifilin D. Heparin E. Warphrin 282. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties should be appoint? A. *Detralex B. Aspirin C. Pentoksifilin D. Heparin E. Warphrin 283. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet properties should be designated? A. *Aspirin B. Detralex C. Pentoksifilin D. Heparin E. Warphrin 284. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins, right lower extremity, chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet properties should be designated? A. *Cardimagnil B. Detralex C. Pentoksiphilin D. Heparin E. Warphrin 285. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information about the state of the venous system? A. *Vascular ultrasound B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Rheovasography D. Thermometry E. ECG 286. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information about the state of the venous system? A. *Phlebography B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Rheovasography D. Thermometry E. ECG 287. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information about the state of communicative veins? A. *Vascular ultrasound B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Rheovasography D. Thermometry E. ECG 288. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information about the state of communicative veins? A. *No right answer B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Rheovasography D. Thermometry E. ECG 289. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information about the state of the venous system? A. *Flebotonometry B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Rheovasography D. Thermometry E. ECG 290. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency of Article III. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information about the state of the venous system? A. *Functional Tests B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Rheovasography D. Thermometry E. ECG 291. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic venous insufficiency III drgree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease? A. *Congenital arteriovenous fistula B. Diabetic angiopathy C. Atherosclerosis obliterans D. Obliterative endarteritis E. Raynaud's disease 292. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease? A. *Obtained arteriovenous fistula B. Diabetic angiopathy C. Atherosclerosis obliterans D. Obliterative endarteritis E. Raynaud's disease 293. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease? A. *Venous angiodysplasias B. Diabetic angiopathy C. Atherosclerosis obliterans D. Obliterative endarteritis E. Raynaud's disease 294. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease? A. *No right answer B. Diabetic angiopathy C. Atherosclerosis obliterans D. Obliterative endarteritis E. Raynaud's disease 295. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency II drgree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment? A. *Obstruction of deep veins B. Chronic bronchitis C. Past history of pneumonia D. Past history of angina E. Cholelithiasis 296. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment? A. *Angina B. Chronic bronchitis C. Past history of pneumonia D. Past history of angina E. Cholelithiasis 297. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic venous insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment? A. *Heart failure B. Chronic bronchitis C. Past history of pneumonia D. Past history of angina 298. The patient complains on burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand of progress varicose veins in the leg. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient? A. *Thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Obliterating atherosclerosis D. Occlusive disease E. Diabetic angiopathy 299. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand of progress varicose veins in the leg with the transition to the lower third of the thigh. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient? A. *Ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Obliterating atherosclerosis D. Occlusive disease E. Diabetic angiopathy 300. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand of progress varicose veins in the leg with the transition to the lower and middle third of the thigh. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient? A. *Ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Obliterating atherosclerosis D. Occlusive disease E. Diabetic angiopathy 301. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand of progress varicose veins on the back of the tibia. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient? A. *Small saphenous vein thrombophlebitis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Obliterating atherosclerosis D. Occlusive disease E. Diabetic angiopathy 302. The patient complains on frequent thrombophlebitis in the zone of varicose great saphenous vein. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. *Migrating thrombophlebitis B. Ascending thrombophlebitis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Postthrombotic syndrome E. Erysipelas 303. The patient complains on frequent thrombophlebitis in the zone of varicose great saphenous vein. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. *No right answer B. Ascending thrombophlebitis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Postthrombotic syndrome E. Erysipelas 304. 304. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. Acute ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Tactics? A. *Surgical treatment B. Conservative treatment C. Physiotherapy D. Sanatorium treatment E. Treatment is not required 305. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose saphenous veins left lower extremity. Acute ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Tactics? A. *No right answer B. Conservative treatment C. Physiotherapy D. Sanatorium treatment E. Treatment is not required 306. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Which of the following drugs should be appoint after surgery? A. *Ciprinol B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D. Atenolol E. Vasilip 307. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Which of the following drugs should appoint after surgery? A. *Dikloberl B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D. Atenolol E. Vasilip 308. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Which of the following drugs should appoint after surgery? A. *Detralex B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D. Atenolol E. Vasilip 309. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. How long a patient should be advised to use elastic compression? A. *3 months. B. 1 month. C. 1 year D. 6 months. E. 2 weeks 310. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. How long a patient should be advised to use elastic compression? A. *There is no correct answer. B. 1 month. C. 1 year D. 6 months. E. 2 weeks 311. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements. What is most likely diagnosis? A. *Thrombosis of the popliteal vein B. Thrombosis of the femoral vein C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava E. Vein thrombosis aksilyarnoy 312. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis? A. *Vascular ultrasound B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen D. Radiography of the chest cavity E. ECG 313. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis? A. *Phlebography B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen D. Radiography of the chest cavity E. ECG 314. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint. What is most likely diagnosis? A. *Thrombosis of superficial femoral vein B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein D. Thrombosis of the vena cava inferior E. Thrombosis Axillary vein 315. The patient complains on pain in the right leg hip, increases with movements in the foot and the knee joint. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis? A. *Vascular ultrasound B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen D. Radiography of the chest cavity E. ECG 316. The patient complains on pain in the right leg hip, increases with movements in the foot and the knee joint. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis? A. *Phlebography B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen D. Radiography of the chest cavity E. ECG 317. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What is most likely diagnosis? A. *Thrombosis of common femoral vein B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava E. Thrombosis Axyllary vein 318. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis? A. *Phlebography B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen D. Radiography of the chest cavity E. ECG 319. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis? A. *Vascular ultrasound B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen D. Radiography of the chest cavity E. ECG 320. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. Swelling of limbs throughout and on the buttocks What is most likely diagnosis? A. *Thrombosis of the iliac-femoral segment B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava E. Thrombosis Axyllary vein 321. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. Swelling of limbs throughout and on the buttocks. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis? A. *Vascular ultrasound B. Radiography of the affected limb C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen D. Radiography of the chest cavity E. ECG 322. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal pain. What complication can be suspected in a patient? A. *Pulmonary embolism B. Superficial thrombophlebitis C. Ulcer D. Pharyngitis E. Pleurisy 323. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal pain. What method diagnosis should be used to refine the diagnosis? A. *ECG B. Reovazography C. Densitometry D. Ultrasound of internal organs E. Ultrasound vascular limb 324. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, pain with localized behind the breastbone, a feeling of fear. What complication can be suspected in a patient? A. *Pulmonary embolism B. Superficial thrombophlebitis C. Ulcer D. Pharyngitis E. Pleurisy 325. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal pain. What method diagnosis should be used to refine the diagnosis? A. *Radiography of the chest B. Reovazogrfiya C. Densitometry D. Ultrasound of internal organs E. Ultrasound vascular limb 326. The patient suddenly appeared retrosternal pain, dyspnea, collapse with increased sweating, and a sharp V neck veins. Which version of PE is in this patient? A. *Acute course B. Subacute course C. Recidivism during D. Mixed E. Combined 327. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis? A. *Study of blood coagulation B. Complete blood C. Urinalysis D. Determine the level of uric acid E. Confirmation is not required 328. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis? A. *ECG B. Complete blood C. Urinalysis D. Determine the level of uric acid E. Confirmation is not required 329. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis? A. *Radiography of the chest cavity B. Complete blood C. Urinalysis D. Determine the level of uric acid E. Confirmation is not required 330. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis? A. *Angiopulmonography B. Complete blood C. Urinalysis D. Determine the level of uric acid E. Confirmation is not required 331. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis? A. *Lung scintigraphy B. Complete blood C. Urinalysis D. Determine the level of uric acid E. Confirmation is not required 332. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is required to clarify the diagnosis? A. *Study of blood coagulation B. Complete blood C. Urinalysis D. Determine the level of uric acid E. Echocardiography 333. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *The rise of the dome diaphragm B. Pulmonary fibrosis root C. Availability Calcinates D. Increased vascular pattern E. No right answer 334. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Pleural effusion in the sinuses B. Pulmonary fibrosis root C. Availability Calcinates D. Increased vascular pattern E. No right answer 335. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *The wedge-shaped shadow atelectases B. Pulmonary fibrosis root C. Availability Calcinates D. Increased vascular pattern E. No right answer 336. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Breaking vessels near the root of the lungs B. Pulmonary fibrosis root C. Availability Calcinates D. Increased vascular pattern E. No right answer 337. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Hyperperfusion of the contralateral lung B. Pulmonary fibrosis root C. Availability Calcinates D. Increased vascular pattern E. No right answer 338. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Dilation of the right ventricle B. Pulmonary fibrosis root C. Availability Calcinates D. Increased vascular pattern E. No right answer 339. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Advanced, hypokinetic right ventricle B. Normal right ventricle C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken E. No right answer 340. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Increased ratio of right ventricle / left ventricle B. Normal right ventricle C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken E. No right answer 341. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Dilation of proximal pulmonary arteries B. Normal right ventricle C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken E. No right answer 342. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Increasing the speed of blood tricuspid regurgitation> 3.7 m / s B. Normal right ventricle C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken E. No right answer 343. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Violation of blood flow from the right ventricle B. Normal right ventricle C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken E. No right answer 344. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms indicate pulmonary embolism? A. *Advanced vena cava inferior, which has persisted for inspiration B. Normal right ventricle C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken E. No right answer 345. Patients with suspected pulmonary embolism made angiopulmonography. Which of the following symptoms is direct? A. *Vascular filling defects B. Asymmetry of vascular contrast material filling C. Slow progress or stasis of contrast D. Increased pulmonary artery trunk and its major branches E. No right answer