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MODULE 2. THORACIC, CARDIOVASCULAR AND ENDOCRINE SURGERY.
Text test questions
1. What is the abscessing pneumonia characterized by?
A. *Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
B. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity,
filled by pus
C. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent
pulmonary parenchyma
D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined
demarcation
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
2. What is the lung abscess characterized by?
A. *Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity,
filled by pus
B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
C. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent
pulmonary parenchyma
D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined
demarcation
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
3. What is the lung gangrenous abscess characterized by?
A. *Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent
pulmonary parenchyma
B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
C. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity,
filled by pus
D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined
demarcation
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
4. What is the lung gangrene characterized by?
A. *Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to defined
demarcation
B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
C. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity,
filled by pus
D. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent
pulmonary parenchyma
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
5. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs are called:
A. *Abscessing pneumonia
B. Lung abscess
C. Lung gangrenous abscess
D. Lung gangrene
E. Bronchoectatic disease
6. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity, filled by
pus is called:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Abscessing pneumonia
C. Lung gangrenous abscess
D. Lung gangrene
E. Bronchoectatic disease
7. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent
pulmonary parenchyma is called:
A. *Lung gangrenous abscess
B. Lung abscess
C. Abscessing pneumonia
D. Lung gangrene
E. Bronchoectatic disease
8. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis beyond the lobe without the tendency to defined
demarcation is called:
A. *Lung gangrene
B. Lung gangrenous abscess
C. Lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia
E. Bronchoectatic disease
9. What type of the lung gangrene is considered to be limited?
A. *The lesion within 1 lobe
B. The lesion within 1 segment
C. The total lesion of 1 lung
D. The lesion of 2 lungs
E. The lesion of lungs and pleura
10. What is the I stage of lung abscess?
A. *Necrotic pneumonia
B. Asymptomatic
C. Destruction and rejection
D. Cleaning and cicatrization
E. Gangrenous
11. What is the II stage of lung abscess?
A. *Destruction and rejection
B. Asymptomatic
C. Necrotic pneumonia
D. Cleaning and cicatrization
E. Gangrenous
12. What is the III stage of lung abscess?
A. *Cleaning and cicatrization
B. Asymptomatic
C. Necrotic pneumonia
D. Destruction and rejection
E. Gangrenous
13. What stage of lung abscess correlates with the necrotic pneumonia?
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
14. What stage of lung abscess correlates with the destruction and rejection?
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. V
E. IV
15. What stage of lung abscess correlates with the cleaning and cicatrisation?
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
16. What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. *Disturbances of bronchial permeability with the development of atelectasis
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
17. What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. *Infection in a pulmonary tissue
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
18. What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. *Regional disturbances of pulmonary blood supply with a further necrosis of
parenchyma
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
19. What acute complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Pulmonary bleeding
B. Emphysema
C. Rib fracture
D. Malignancy
E. Esophageal bleeding
20. What acute complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Pyopneumothorax
B. Rib fracture
C. Emphysema
D. Malignancy
E. Esophageal bleeding
21. What complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Esophageal bleeding
C. Rib fracture
D. Emphysema
E. Malignancy
22. What complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Sepsis
B. Esophageal bleeding
C. Rib fracture
D. Emphysema
E. Malignancy
23. What complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. *Bronchogenic dissemination
B. Esophageal bleeding
C. Rib fracture
D. Emphysema
E. Malignancy
24. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Chest pain
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
25. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Dyspnea
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
26. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Fever to 39-40°С
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
27. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Troubling cough
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
28. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Intoxication
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
29. For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. *Troubling cough with foul-smelling sputum
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
30. The fever to 39-40°С is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
31. The chest pain is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
32. The intoxication is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
33. The troubling cough with foul-smelling sputum is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
34. What is revealed in acute lung abscess by percussion?
A. *Blunted sound
B. Bandbox sound
C. Tympanic sound
D. Clear sound
E. Pulmonary sound
35. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
36. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Pneumonia
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
37. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Lung gangrene
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
38. What is revealed in the I stage of acute lung abscess by auscultation?
A. *Bronchial breathing with moist rales
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Harsh breathing with dry rales
E. The breathing isn't auscultated
39. What is revealed in the II stage (after draining) of acute lung abscess by auscultation?
A. *Amphoric breathing with moist rales
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
D. Harsh breathing with dry rales
E. The breathing isn't auscultated
40. What is revealed in the I stage of acute lung abscess by X-ray?
A. *Rounded shadow with irregular contour
B. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
C. Expressed fibrosis
D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
41. What is revealed in the II stage (after draining) of acute lung abscess by X-ray?
A. *Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Expressed fibrosis
D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
42. What is revealed in the III stage of acute lung abscess by X-ray?
A. *Expressed fibrosis
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
43. What is revealed in lung gangrene by X-ray?
A. *Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Expressed fibrosis
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
44. What is revealed in chronic lung abscess by X-ray?
A. *One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Expressed fibrosis
E. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
45. The rounded shadow with irregular contour on X-ray is typical for:
A. *I stage of acute lung abscess
B. II stage of acute lung abscess
C. III stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
46. The rounded cavity with air-fluid level on X-ray is typical for:
A. *II stage of acute lung abscess
B. I stage of acute lung abscess
C. III stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
47. The expressed fibrosis on X-ray is typical for:
A. *III stage of acute lung abscess
B. II stage of acute lung abscess
C. I stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
48. The intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities with sequesters and fluid
levels on X-ray is typical for:
A. *Lung gangrene
B. III stage of acute lung abscess
C. II stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
49. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath on X-ray is typical for:
A. *Chronic lung abscess
B. Lung gangrene
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
50. When the lung abscess is considered to be chronic?
A. *In 6-8 weeks after the onset
B. In 10 days after the onset
C. In 3-4 weeks after the onset
D. In 6-8 months after the onset
E. In 1 year after the onset
51. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for acute lung abscess before draining?
A. *Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications, excentric destruction and regular edge
D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis
(corona maligna)
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis,
petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
52. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for lung cyst?
A. *Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
B. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
C. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications, excentric destruction and regular edge
D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis
(corona maligna)
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis,
petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
53. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tuberculoma?
A. *Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis
(corona maligna)
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis,
petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
54. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for peripheral lung cancer?
A. *Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis
(corona maligna)
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis,
petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
55. What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tubercular cavern?
A. *Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis,
petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
E. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis
(corona maligna)
56. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact pulmonary tissue
on X-ray is typical for:
A. *Lung cyst
B. Tuberculoma
C. Peripheral lung cancer
D. Tubercular cavern
E. Lung emphysema
57. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge on X-ray is typical for:
A. *Tuberculoma
B. Lung cyst
C. Peripheral lung cancer
D. Tubercular cavern
E. Lung emphysema
58. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of lymphangitis (corona
maligna) on X-ray is typical for:
A. *Peripheral lung cancer
B. Tuberculoma
C. Lung cyst
D. Tubercular cavern
E. Lung emphysema
59. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with fibrosis,
petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis on X-ray is typical for:
A. *Tubercular cavern
B. Peripheral lung cancer
C. Tuberculoma
D. Lung cyst
E. Lung emphysema
60. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by prompt positive clinical,
roentgenological and laboratory dynamics and recovery after the adequate treatment regards to
the:
A. *Favorable course
B. Non-progressive course
C. Progressing course
D. Incapsulated process
E. Complicated course
61. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by transforming of the process into
the chronic form due to poor drainage of the suppurative focus and permanent purulent
intoxication regards to the:
A. *Non-progressive course
B. Favorable course
C. Progressing course
D. Incapsulated process
E. Complicated course
62. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by expansion of the zone of
necrosis and destruction with transforming in gangrene regards to the:
A. *Progressing course
B. Non-progressive course
C. Favorable course
D. Incapsulated process
E. Complicated course
63. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by the partial or complete
obstruction of the draining bronchus combined with satisfactory resistance of the organism
regards to the:
A. *Incapsulated process
B. Progressing course
C. Non-progressive course
D. Favorable course
E. Complicated course
64. The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by different kinds of
complications regards to the:
A. *Complicated course
B. Incapsulated process
C. Progressing course
D. Non-progressive course
E. Favorable course
65. What disease doesn't result in pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Pleurisy
B. Lung gangrene and abscess
C. Lung cancer
D. Tuberculosis
E. Bronchiectatic disease
66. What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as I degree?
A. *Less than 300 ml
B. 300-500 ml
C. 500-700 ml
D. 700-1000 ml
E. More than 1500 ml
67. What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as II degree?
A. *500-700 ml
B. 50-100 ml
C. 100-300 ml
D. 700-1000 ml
E. More than 1500 ml
68. What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as III degree?
A. *More than 700 ml
B. 50-100 ml
C. 100-300 ml
D. 300-500 ml
E. 500-700 ml
69. The pulmonary hemorrhage less than 300 ml is classified as:
A. *I degree
B. 0 degree
C. II degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
70. The pulmonary hemorrhage within 500-700 ml is classified as:
A. *II degree
B. I degree
C. 0 degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
71. The pulmonary hemorrhage more than 700 ml is classified as:
A. *III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
72. The coughing out of the blooddy sputum without hemodynamic disturbances are characteristic
for such degree of pulmonary bleeding:
A. *I degree
B. III degree
C. II degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
73. The decrease of arterial pressure on 20-30 mm Hg is characteristic for such degree of
pulmonary bleeding:
A. *II degree
B. I degree
C. III degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
74. The amount of hemoglobin within 60-80 g/l is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary
bleeding:
A. *II degree
B. I degree
C. III degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
75. The tachycardia to 100 beats/min is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding:
A. *II degree
B. I degree
C. III degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
76. The decrease of arterial pressure to 40-60 mm Hg is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary
bleeding:
A. *III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
77. The rapid (more than 100-120 beats/min), small, thread pulse is characteristic for such degree of
pulmonary bleeding:
A. *III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
78. The amount of hemoglobin less than 50-60 g/l is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary
bleeding:
A. *III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
79. What is the main method of lung abscess sanation?
A. *Microtracheostomy
B. Transpleural
C. Transesophageal
D. Endovascular
E. Thoracotomy
80. What is the main treatment of noncomplicated acute lung abscess?
A. *Conservative treatment
B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Pneumonectomy
E. Pleural puncture
81. What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics?
A. *Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
B. Euphyllin, No-spa
C. Vasaprostan, Alprostan
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
82. What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics?
A. *Tebris, Ciprinol
B. Dimedrol, Suprastin
C. Vasaprostan, Alprostan
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
83. What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics?
A. *Zanocin
B. Naclofen
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotine acid
E. Omeprasol
84. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Aminocapronic acid
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
85. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Calcium chloridi
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
86. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Dicinon
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
87. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Vitamin K
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
88. What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. *Benzohexonium
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
89. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. *Pulmonary bleeding of ІІ- ІІІ degree
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
90. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. *Progression of the process despite appropriate therapy
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
91. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. *Tense pyopneumothorax, which is failed to liquidate by the draining of pleural space
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
92. What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. *Impossibility to rule out the suspicion on a malignant tumour
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
93. What operation is performed in complicated acute lung abscess?
A. *Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
B. Draining of a pleural space
C. Transthoracic drainage of the abscess
D. Bronchial plastics
E. Transplantation of lungs
94. What is the main treatment of chronic lung abscess?
A. *Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
B. Draining of a pleural space
C. Transthoracic drainage of the abscess
D. Transplantation of lungs
E. Conservative treatment
95. The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Chronic lung abscess
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
96. The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Complicated lung abscess
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
97. The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Lung gangrene
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
98. The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Lung cancer
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
99. The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. *Tuberculosis cavern
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
What is the cause of pleural empyema?
A. *Destructive processes of lungs
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pleural empyema?
A. *Abscesses of abdominal cavity
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pleural empyema?
A. *Open and closed damages of chest
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pleural empyema?
A. *Operative approaches on thoracic organs
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What sign is not typical for pleural empyema?
A. *Hemoptysis
B. Pain
C. Dyspnea
D. Cough
E. Intoxication
For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical:
A. *Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical:
A. *Dyspnea
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical:
A. *Cough with sputum
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical:
A. *Intoxication
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
109.
What is revealed in pleural empyema by percussion?
A. *Blunted sound
B. Clear sound
C. Bandbox sound
D. Metallic ringing
E. Tympanic sound
110. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
111. The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Pleurisy
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
112. What is revealed in pleural empyema by auscultation?
A. *The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
113. The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for:
A. *Pleurisy
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Pneumonia
114. The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for:
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Pneumonia
115. What is revealed in wide-spread pleural empyema by X-ray?
A. *Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
E. Lung atelectasis
116. What is the most informative in differential diagnostic of pleural empyema with
pleuropneumonia?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. X-ray examination
C. Auscultation
D. Clinical manifestation
E. Sputum analysis
117. What is the most informative in the diagnostic of pleural empyema?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Auscultation
D. Clinical manifestation
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
E. Sputum analysis
The swelled soft tissues of supraclavicular region are typical for the:
A. *Apical empyema
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Paramediastinal empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
The restricted thoracic excursion with severe chest pain are typical for the:
A. *Paracostal empyema
B. Apical empyema
C. Paramediastinal empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
The heart pain is typical for the:
A. *Paramediastinal empyema
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Apical empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
The pain in subcostal area, which increases at respiration is typical for the:
A. *Paramediastinal empyema
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Apical empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
What is the typical method of treatment of focal empyema?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
What is the typical method of treatment of spread empyema?
A. *Drainage of pleural space
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
Where is the drainage of pleural space in spread empyema performed?
A. *VII intercostal space, scapular line
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
What is the typical method of treatment of chronic empyema?
A. *Pleurectomy, decortication of lung
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
The pleurectomy is indicated for:
A. *Chronic empyema
B. Complicated lung abscess
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary hypertension
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E. Lung emphysema
The decortication of lung is indicated for:
A. *Chronic empyema
B. Complicated lung abscess
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung emphysema
What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Lung abscess
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Lung gangrene
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Suppurative cyst of lung
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Abscessing pneumonia
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Subphrenic abscess
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Chest trauma
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Bronchiectatic disease
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
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E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Dyspnea
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Cough with sputum
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Intoxication
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. *Hectic fever
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by percussion?
A. *Blunt sound over the exudate and bandbox sound over the region of collapsed lung
B. Pulmonary sound
C. Bandbox sound over the whole lung
D. Blunted sound over the whole lung
E. Metallic ringing
What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by auscultation?
A. *The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by X-ray?
A. *Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
E. Lung atelectasis
What is the typical method of treatment of restricted pyopneumothorax?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
What is the typical method of treatment of pyopneumothorax?
A. *Drainage of pleural space
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
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E. Conservative treatment
Where is performed the drainage of pleural space in pyopneumothorax?
A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line and VII intercostal space, scapular line
simultaneously
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
What is the early complication of chest trauma?
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Posttraumatic pneumonia
C. Posttraumatic pleurisy
D. Lung abscess
E. Pleural empyema
What is the early complication of chest trauma?
A. *Hemothorax
B. Lung abscess
C. Pleural empyema
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Posttraumatic pleurisy
What is the early complication of chest trauma?
A. *Traumatic shock
B. Lung abscess
C. Pleural empyema
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Posttraumatic pleurisy
What is the late complication of chest trauma?
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Traumatic shock, asphyxia
What is the late complication of chest trauma?
A. *Posttraumatic pneumonia
B. Pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Traumatic shock, asphyxia
What is the chief clinical manifestation of noncomplicated rib fracture?
A. *Pain
B. Dyspnea
C. Hemoptysis
D. Shock
E. Vomiting
What is revealed in noncomplicated rib fracture by auscultation?
A. *Diminished vesicular breathing
B. The breathing isn't auscultated
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
What kind of X-ray picture is typical for noncomplicated rib fracture?
A. *Break in continuity of bone fragments of ribs
B. Exudate in pleural space
C. Collapse of the lung
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D. Lung athelectasis
E. Heterogeneous lung shadow with destruction
What is the chief clinical manifestation of floating rib fracture?
A. *Shock
B. Pain
C. Dyspnea
D. Hemoptysis
E. Vomiting
What is the chief objective sign of floating rib fracture?
A. *Paradoxical respiratory movements of chest
B. Crepitation of ribs
C. Hematoma of the chest wall
D. Hemoptysis
E. Subcutaneous emphysema
What is revealed in floating rib fracture by auscultation?
A. *Diminished vesicular breathing
B. The breathing isn't auscultated
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
What kind of X-ray picture is typical for floating rib fracture?
A. *Multiple rib fracture with deformity of the chest
B. Lung emphysema
C. Spheric shadow of the lung
D. Lung athelectasis
E. Heterogeneous lung shadow with destruction
What is the typical treatment of noncomplicated rib fracture?
A. *Novocaine block
B. External fixation of ribs
C. Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis;
D. Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure
E. Thoracotomy
What is the first aid of floating rib fracture?
A. *Fixation of floating segment
B. Analgesics
C. Spasmolytics
D. Hemostatic drugs
E. Antibiotics
What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Skeletal extraction
B. Pleural puncture
C. Pneumonectomy
D. Resection of lung
E. Decortication of lung
What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis
B. Pleural puncture
C. Pneumonectomy
D. Resection of lung
E. Decortication of lung
What is the main treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure
B. Pleural puncture
C. Pneumonectomy
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D. Resection of lung
E. Decortication of lung
What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Vagosympathetic block
B. Paranephral block
C. Spinal block
D. Epidural anesthesia
E. Lung root dlock
What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Alcohol - novocaine block of the site of fracture
B. Paranephral block
C. Spinal block
D. Epidural anesthesia
E. Lung root dlock
What type of Novocaine block is used for the treatment of floating rib fracture?
A. *Paravertebral block
B. Paranephral block
C. Spinal block
D. Epidural anesthesia
E. Lung root dlock
Partial pneumothorax means:
A. *Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
E. Total collapse of lung
Subtotal pneumothorax means:
A. *Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
E. Total collapse of lung
Total pneumothorax means:
A. *Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
E. Collapse of lung to 1/2 of its volume
The collapse of lung in pneumothorax from 1/3 to 2/3 of its volume is called:
A. *Subtotal pneumothorax
B. Partial pneumothorax
C. Total pneumothorax
D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
The collapse of lung in pneumothorax less than 1/3 of its volume is called:
A. *Partial pneumothorax
B. Subtotal pneumothorax
C. Total pneumothorax
D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
The collapse of lung in pneumothorax more than 2/3 of its volume is called:
A. *Total pneumothorax
B. Partial pneumothorax
C. Subtotal pneumothorax
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D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
What is the most dangerous pneumothorax?
A. *Valvular
B. Subtotal closed
C. Total closed
D. Subtotal open
E. Total open
What is the chief clinical manifestation of pneumothorax?
A. *Dyspnea
B. Vomiting
C. Hemoptysis
D. Shock
E. Heart failure
What is the chief manifestation of valvular pneumothorax?
A. *Shock
B. Vomiting
C. Melena
D. Hemoptysis
E. Heart failure
What is the chief clinical manifestation of pneumothorax?
A. *Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Hemoptysis
D. Melena
E. Heart failure
What is revealed in pneumothorax by percussion?
A. *Bandbox sound over the whole lung
B. Pulmonary sound
C. Blunted sound over the whole lung
D. Metallic ringing
E. Blunt sound over the region of collapsed lung
The bandbox sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Lung gangrene
C. Pneumonia
D. Pleural empyema
E. Lung abscess
What is revealed in pneumothorax by auscultation?
A. *The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
The absence of breathing sound by auscultation is typical for:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
What is revealed in pneumothorax by X-ray?
A. *Lung collapse
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
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D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
The lung collapse by X-ray is typical for:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
The lung collapse by X-ray is typical for:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Lung cancer
C. Pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis
E. Lung empyema
What is the treatment of partial pneumothorax?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. Pleural drainage
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
What is the treatment of subtotal and total pneumothorax?
A. *Pleural drainage
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of:
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of:
A. *Pyopneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of:
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
What is the first aid in closed pneumothorax?
A. *It doesn't require first aid measures
B. Pleural drainage
C. Compression bandage with closure of the wound
D. Artificial respiration
E. Intubation
What is the first aid in open pneumothorax?
A. *Compression bandage with closure of the wound
B. It doesn't require first aid measures
C. Pleural drainage
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of:
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D. Artificial respiration
E. Intubation
What is the first aid in valvular pneumothorax?
A. *Pleural drainage (to transform into open)
B. It doesn't require first aid measures
C. Compression bandage with closure of the wound
D. Artificial respiration
E. Intubation
Where the drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is performed?
A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
The pleural drainage in II intercostal space along midclavicular line is used for the treatment
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Pleural empyema
C. Pneumonia
D. Pleurisy
E. Hemothorax
The pleural drainage in VII intercostal space along scapular line is used for the treatment of:
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Lung emphyzema
What is the indication for operative treatment of pneumothorax?
A. *Valvular
B. Subtotal closed
C. Total closed
D. Subtotal open
E. Total open
The small hemothorax means:
A. *Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood
The moderate hemothorax means:
A. *Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood
The great hemothorax means:
A. *Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood
The total hemothorax means:
A. *Loss more than 40 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss of 20-30 % of volume of circulating blood
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C. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss of 30-40 % of volume of circulating blood
The bloodloss to 10 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. *Small hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The bloodloss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. *Moderate hemothorax
B. Small hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The bloodloss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. *Great hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Small hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The bloodloss more than 40 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. *Total hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Small hemothorax
D. Great hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
What is the chief clinical manifestation of hemothorax?
A. *Clinic of internal bleeding
B. Pain
C. Vomiting
D. Hemoptysis
E. Intoxication
What is revealed in hemothorax by percussion?
A. *Blunted sound
B. Clear sound
C. Bandbox sound
D. Tympanic sound
E. Metallic ringing
The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. *Hemothorax
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for:
A. *Hemothorax
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Lung abscess
E. Pneumonia
What is revealed in hemothorax by auscultation?
A. *The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
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C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
What is revealed in hemothorax by X-ray?
A. *Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
D. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in small hemothorax?
A. *Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
B. Up to scapular angle
C. Up to ІІІ rib
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in moderate hemothorax?
A. *Up to scapular angle
B. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
C. Up to ІІІ rib
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in great hemothorax?
A. *Up to ІІІ rib
B. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
C. Up to scapular angle
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in total hemothorax?
A. *Complete shadow of a pleural space
B. Up to scapular angle
C. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
D. Up to ІІІ rib
E. The shadow is absent
The X-ray shadow in hemothorax observed only in the region of sinus relates to:
A. *Small hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The X-ray shadow in hemothorax up to scapular angle relates to:
A. *Moderate hemothorax
B. Small hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The X-ray shadow in hemothorax up to III rib relates to:
A. *Great hemothorax
B. Small hemothorax
C. Moderate hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
The complete X-ray shadow of a pleural space in hemothorax relates to:
A. *Total hemothorax
B. Small hemothorax
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C. Moderate hemothorax
D. Great hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
What method is the most informative in differential diagnostic of hemothorax with pleurisy?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. Clinical manifestation
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
What method is the most informative in the diagnostic of hemothorax?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
What is the sign of continuity of pleural bleeding?
A. *The property of pleural blood to form the clot
B. Data of general blood analysis
C. Data of biochemical blood analysis
D. Data of coagulogram
E. Clinical manifestation
What test is used to determine the continuity of pleural bleeding?
A. *Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
The Revilour-Greguar's test is used in the diagnostics of:
A. *Pleural bleeding
B. Lung abscess
C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Deep vein thrombosis
The property of pleural blood to form the clot is called:
A. *Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
What sign shows that the pleural bleeding is stopped?
A. *The pleural blood doesn't form the clot
B. Data of general blood analysis
C. Data of biochemical blood analysis
D. Data of coagulogram
E. Clinical manifestation
What does the clotted hemothorax result in?
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Dyspnea
C. Hemoptysis
D. Obliteration of pleural space
E. Cardiac tamponade
What kind of hemothorax is treated by pleural aspiration?
A. *Small
B. Great
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C. Total
D. Clotted
E. Continuing hemothorax
What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax?
A. *Aminocapronic acid
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax?
A. *Calcium chloridi
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax?
A. *Dicinon
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicine used for the treatment of hemothorax?
A. *Vitamin K
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What pathology is the indication for operative treatment?
A. *Great and total hemothorax
B. Noncomplicated rib fracture
C. Closed partial pneumothorax
D. Closed total pneumothorax
E. Subcutaneous emphysema
What pathology is the indication for operative treatment?
A. *Clotted hemothorax
B. Noncomplicated rib fracture
C. Subcutaneous emphysema
D. Closed partial pneumothorax
E. Closed total pneumothorax
What pathology is the indication for operative treatment?
A. *Continuing hemothorax
B. Closed partial pneumothorax
C. Closed total pneumothorax
D. Noncomplicated rib fracture
E. Subcutaneous emphysema
What is the main cause of mediastinal emphysema?
A. *Disruptions of trachea, bronchi
B. Rib fracture
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
E. Mediastinal tumours
What does the mediastinal emphysema result in?
A. *Cardiac tamponade
B. Hemoptysis
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C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung atelectasis
What is the treatment of mediastinal emphysema?
A. *Drainage of anterior mediastinum
B. Conservative treatment
C. Drainage of pleural cavity
D. Novocaine block
E. Pericardial puncture
Where is located the first anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
B. The site of crossing with left bronchus
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
Where is located the second anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of crossing with left bronchus
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
Where is located the third anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of passing through diaphragm
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of crossing with left bronchus
E. The site of cardia
Where is located the first physiological narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of crossing with aorta
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with left bronchus
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
Where is located the second physiological narrowing of esophagus?
A. *The site of cardia
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of crossing with left bronchus
E. The site of passing through diaphragm
The site of pharyngoesophageal junction is:
A. *The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
The site of crossing with left bronchus is:
A. *The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
The site of passing through diaphragm is:
A. *The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
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C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
The site of crossing with aorta is:
A. *The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
The site of cardia is:
A. *The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
What is the mechanism of formation of pulsion diverticula?
A. *Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
B. Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
What is the mechanism of formation of traction diverticula?
A. *Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
B. Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
What sign is not typical for Zenker's diverticula?
A. *Dyspnea
B. Salivation
C. Cervical dysphagia
D. Difficult swallowing
E. Cough
Zenker's diverticulum is:
A. *Pharyngoesophageal diverticulum
B. Bifurcational diverticulum
C. Epiphrenic diverticulum
D. Paraaortal diverticulum
E. Multiple diverticula
What is the main objective manifestation of Zenker's diverticula?
A. *Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
E. Lung atelectasis
What can bifurcational diverticula result in?
A. *Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
E. Coarctation of aorta
What is the main objective manifestation of epiphrenal diverticula?
A. *Signs of achalasia
B. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
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C. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
E. Lung atelectasis
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Salivation
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Cervical dysphagia
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Difficult swallowing
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Compressible mass in the neck
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Gurgling sound while eating
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *Foul-smell from the mouth
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. *The sign "of a wet pillow"
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal diverticula?
A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal diverticula?
A. *Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Pleural punctere
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C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula?
A. *Bleeding
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula?
A. *Perforation into pleural space
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Pancreatitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Intestinal obstruction
What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula?
A. *Diverticulitis
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula?
A. *Malignancy
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
What disease should be the diverticulitis differentiated from?
A. *Angina pectoris
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What is the typical treatment of complicated Zenker's diverticula?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Spasmolytics
C. Analgetics
D. Nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs
E. Antibiotics
What is the indication for conservative treatment of bifurcational diverticula?
A. *Asymptomatic course
B. Frequently recurrent diverticulites
C. Perforation
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula
E. Suspicion on malignancy
What operation is performed in esophageal diverticula?
A. *Resection of diverticulum
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Esophagogastric anastomosis
D. Extirpation of esophagus
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
What surgical access should be applied for Zenker's diverticula?
A. *Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
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C. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
What surgical access should be applied for bifurcational diverticula?
A. *Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
What surgical access should be applied for epiphrenal diverticula?
A. *Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
What is the characteristic feature of achalasia of the cardia?
A. *Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax
B. Spasm of the lower esophageal sphincter
C. Cicatrical changes after the burn
D. Anorexia
E. Esophageal gaping
The failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax is called:
A. *Achalasia
B. Chalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
What is the cause of achalasia?
A. *Disturbance of innervation of esophagus
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
What is the cause of achalasia?
A. *Psycho-emotional trauma
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
What is the cause of achalasia?
A. *Influence of vegetotrophic substances on muscular fibers
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
Who mostly suffer from achalasia?
A. *Young women
B. Young men
C. Old men
D. Old women
E. Both old men and women
What is the characteristic feature of the I stage of achalasia?
A. *Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
B. Asymptomatic
C. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
D. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
280. What is the characteristic feature of the II stage of achalasia?
A. *Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
D. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
281. What is the characteristic feature of the III stage of achalasia?
A. *Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
B. Asymptomatic
C. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
D. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
282. What is the characteristic feature of the IV stage of achalasia?
A. *Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
B. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
C. Asymptomatic
D. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
E. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
283. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation relates to such stage of achalasia:
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
284. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis relates to
such stage of achalasia:
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
285. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation with absent peristalsis relates to such
stage of achalasia:
A. *III
B. I
C. II
D. IV
E. V
286. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation relates to such stage of
achalasia:
A. *IV
B. I
C. II
D. III
E. V
287. For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Dysphagia
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
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For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Regurgitation
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Splashing sounds and gurgling
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Nocturnal cough
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Pain and sense of tightness in the chest
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. *Loss of weight
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
What does dysphagia mean?
A. *Disturbances of swallowing
B. Pain behind breastbone
C. Absence of appetite
D. Esophageal vomiting
E. Vomiting with blood
What is the I stage of dysphagia?
A. *Disturbances of solid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
D. Disturbances of liquid food passage
E. No passage of food
What is the II stage of dysphagia?
A. *Disturbances of semisolid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of liquid food passage
E. No passage of food
What is the III stage of dysphagia?
A. *Disturbances of liquid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
E. No passage of food
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What is the IV stage of dysphagia?
A. *No passage of food
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
E. Disturbances of liquid food passage
Disturbances of solid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
Disturbances of semisolid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
Disturbances of liquid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
No passage of any food relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. *IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
What is the roentgenological sign of achalasia?
A. *"Rat tail" sign
B. Filling defects
C. "Niche" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
What is the roentgenological sign of esophageal cancer?
A. *Filling defects
B. "Rat tail" sign
C. "Bird-beak" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
"Rat tail" is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
"Bird-beak" is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
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What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal achalasia?
A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal achalasia?
A. *Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
What is the main treatment of the I stage of achalasia?
A. *Diet, conservative treatment
B. Cardiodilatation
C. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
What is the main treatment of the II stage of achalasia?
A. *Cardiodilatation
B. Diet, conservative treatment
C. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
What is the main treatment of the III stage of achalasia?
A. *Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
B. Diet, conservative treatment
C. Cardiodilatation
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
What is the main treatment of the IV stage of achalasia?
A. *Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
B. Diet, conservative treatment
C. Cardiodilatation
D. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
Diet, conservative treatment is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
Cardiodilatation is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
Esophagomyotomy is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
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Heller's operation is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
Esophagogastroanastomosis is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
Helerovsky's operation is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. *IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
Helerovsky's operation is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal ulcer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Esophagogastroanastomosis is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal ulcer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Heller's operation is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Esophagogastroanastomosis is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal ulcer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Esophagomyotomy is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Cardiodilatation is used for the treatment of:
A. *Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
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Heller's operation is:
A. *Esophagomyotomy
B. Resection of the stomach
C. Cardiodilatation
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
Helerovsky's operation is:
A. *Esophagogastroanastomosis
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Resection of the stomach
D. Cardiodilatation
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
Esophagogastroanastomosis is:
A. *Helerovsky's operation
B. Heller's operation
C. Bilroth's operation
D. Cocher's operation
E. Lerishe's operation
Esophagomyotomy is:
A. *Heller's operation
B. Helerovsky's operation
C. Bilroth's operation
D. Cocher's operation
E. Lerishe's operation
What is the most often cause of cicatrical esophageal stricture?
A. *Chemical burns
B. Thermal burns
C. Radial burns
D. Esophagitis
E. Peptic ulcers
What is the I stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. *Stage of acute esophagitis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of chronic esophagitis
D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
E. Stage of late complications
What is the II stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. *Stage of chronic esophagitis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
E. Stage of late complications
What is the III stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. *Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of chronic esophagitis
E. Stage of late complications
What is the IV stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. *Stage of late complications
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of chronic esophagitis
E. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
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What is the I degree of esophageal burns?
A. *Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
B. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
334. What is the II degree of esophageal burns?
A. *The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
335. What is the III degree of esophageal burns?
A. *The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
336. What is the IV degree of esophageal burns?
A. *The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
D. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
E. Asymptomatic
337. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus relates to such degree of
esophageal burns:
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
338. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus relates to such degree of
esophageal burns:
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
339. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus relates to such degree of esophageal burns:
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
340. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs relates to such
degree of esophageal burns:
A. *IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
341. How long has been the risk of esophageal bleeding after the burn?
A. *1-2 months
B. 2-3 days
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C. 10-20 days
D. 1-2 years
E. 2 years and more
How long is formed the esophageal stricture after the burn?
A. *1-2 years
B. 2-3 days
C. 10-20 days
D. 1-2 months
E. 2 years and more
What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of mild degree?
A. *Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis
B. Filling defects without peristalsis
C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium
D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis
E. Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis
What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of moderate degree?
A. *Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis
B. Filling defects without peristalsis
C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium
D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis
E. Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis
What is the main clinical manifestation of the esophageal burn of severe degree?
A. *Clinic of shock
B. Clinic of reflux-esophagitis
C. Clinic of acute abdomen
D. Clinic of hepatic insufficiency
E. Clinic of respiratory insufficiency
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal stricture?
A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. General blood analysis
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
What solution is used for washing out of acid esophageal burn?
A. *Sodium hydrocarbonatis solution
B. Antiseptic solution
C. Antibiotic solution
D. Glucose solution
E. Vinegar solution
What solution is used for washing out of alkaline esophageal burn?
A. *Vinegar solution
B. Antiseptic solution
C. Antibiotic solution
D. Glucose solution
E. Sodium hydrocarbonatis solution
What is the main prophylaxis of esophageal stricture after the chemical burn?
A. *Esophageal bougienage
B. Spasmolytics
C. Parenteral feeding
D. Pneumocompression
E. Gastrostomy
What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Disturbances of epiglottic valve
B. Esophageal diverticulum
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C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Pyloric stenosis
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Esophageal sticture
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. *Mediastinitis
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for acute stage of esophageal burn?
A. *Shock
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What complication is typical for acute stage of esophageal burn?
A. *Renal insufficiency
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
What kind of operation is performed for liquidation of esophageal stricture?
A. *Esophageal plastic
B. Esophagostomy
C. Gastrostomy
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
What kind of esophageal plastic doesn't exist?
A. *Retroperitoneal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Retrosternal
D. Intrapleural
E. Mediastinal
What organ is used for esophageal plastic?
A. *Large intestine
B. Part of vein
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C. Prosthetic graft
D. Xsenotransplantat
E. Lyophilized esophagus
What is the predominant manifestations of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Reflux-esophagitis
B. Achalasia
C. Dysphagia
D. Cardiospasm
E. Pylorostenosis
What is the chief clinical manifestations of reflux-esophagitis?
A. *Heartburn
B. Achalasia
C. Dysphagia
D. Vomiting
E. Coughing
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Pain behind breastbone
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Heartburn
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Belching by air
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Regurgitation
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *The sign of "lacing shoes"
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Nausea and vomiting
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
For the clinical manifestation of sliding diaphragmatic hernia is typical:
A. *Dysphagia
B. Dyspnea
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C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
What is the roentgenological sign of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Blunt His angle
B. Filling defects
C. "Rat tail" sign
D. "Bird-beak" sign
E. Esophageal dilatation
What is the roentgenological sign of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Lack of air bubble of the stomach
B. Esophageal dilatation
C. Filling defects
D. "Rat tail" sign
E. "Bird-beak" sign
What is the roentgenological sign of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *"Bell" sign
B. "Rat tail" sign
C. Filling defects
D. "Bird-beak" sign
E. Esophageal dilatation
"Bell"-sign is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Lack of air bubble of the stomach is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
Blunt His angle is the X-ray sign of:
A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
What is the typical clinic of paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Asymptomatic
B. Achalasia
C. Dysphagia
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What is the most often complication of paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Strangulation
B. Bleeding
C. Dysphagia
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What is the most often complication of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Bleeding
B. Strangulation
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C. Dysphagia
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What is the most often complication of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Peptic stricture of esophagus
B. Strangulation
C. Dysphagia
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What is the most often complication of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Malignancy
B. Strangulation
C. Dysphagia
D. Pylorostenosis
E. Reflux-esophagitis
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Blockers of proton pomp
B. Spasmolytics
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *H2-histamin blockers
B. Spasmolytics
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Omeprasol, Nexium
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Lansa, Ultop
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Esomeprasol, Omez
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs are used for suppression of gastric secretion?
A. *Quamatel, Ranitidin
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs belong to blockers of proton pomp?
A. *Esomeprasol, Omez
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
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C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs belong to blockers of proton pomp?
A. *Lansa, Ultop
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs belong to blockers of proton pomp?
A. *Omeprasol, Nexium
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
What drugs belong to H2-histamin blockers?
A. *Quamatel, Ranitidin
B. Ceftriaxon, Ciprinol
C. Euphyllin, No-spa
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
Quamatel, Ranitidin belong to:
A. *H2-histamin blockers
B. Blockers of proton pomp
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
Omeprasol, Nexium belong to:
A. *Blockers of proton pomp
B. H2-histamin blockers
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
Lansa, Ultop belong to:
A. *Blockers of proton pomp
B. H2-histamin blockers
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Angina pectoris
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Peptic ulcer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Lung atelectasis
B. Pancreatitis
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C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Pleurisy
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Pneumonia
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the sliding diaphragmatic hernia differentiated from?
A. *Hypochromic anemia
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What is the main treatment of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Conservative treatment
B. Esophagostomy
C. Esophageal plastic
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
What is the main treatment of sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
B. Esophagostomy
C. Esophageal plastic
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
What type of operation is used for paraesophageal diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Cruroplasty
B. Esophagostomy
C. Resection of the esophagus
D. Resection of the stomach
E. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
What type of operation is used for sliding diaphragmatic hernia?
A. *Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
B. Esophagostomy
C. Cruroplasty
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication is used for the treatment of:
A. *Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
B. Esophageal achalasia
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Esophageal diverticulum
E. Pilorostenosis
Nissen's fundoplication is used for prevention of:
A. *Reflux-esophagitis
B. Intestinal obstruction
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C. Esophageal cancer
D. Esophageal diverticulum
E. Pilorostenosis
For prevention of reflux-esophagitis is used:
A. *Nissen's fundoplication
B. Helerovsky's operation
C. Heller's operation
D. Cocher's operation
E. Lerishe's operation
What is the roentgenological sign of diaphragmatic relaxation?
A. *High standing of diaphragmatic dome
B. Filling defect
C. "Rat tail" sign
D. Sign of "nishe"
E. Pneumoperitoneum
What is the X-ray sign of diaphragmatic relaxation?
A. *Restriction of diaphragmatic excursion
B. Filling defect
C. "Rat tail" sign
D. Sign of "nishe"
E. Pneumoperitoneum
What is the X-ray sign of diaphragmatic relaxation?
A. *Inflection of abdominal part of esophagus
B. Filling defect
C. "Rat tail" sign
D. Sign of "nishe"
E. Pneumoperitoneum
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Diaphragmatic elevation
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Pneumothorax
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Pyopneumothorax
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Pleurisy
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Diaphragmatic hernia
B. Pancreatitis
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C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What disease should be the diaphragmatic relaxation differentiated from?
A. *Esophageal cancer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
What operation is performed for diaphragmatic relaxation?
A. *Phrenoplasty
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Cruroplasty
D. Cruroplasty with Nissen’s fundoplication
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
Phrenoplasty is used for the treatment of:
A. *Diaphragmatic relaxation
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal diverticulum
E. Pilorostenosis
What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Perforation of esophagus
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Chemical burns of esophagus
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Injuries of trachea
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Injuries of bronchi
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. F. *Hectic temperature
B. G. Vomiting
C. H. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. J. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Dyspnea
B. Vomiting
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C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Profuse sweating
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Dysphagia
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Constant cough
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Hoarseness
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
For the clinical manifestation of acute mediastinitis is typical:
A. *Change of cardiac rhythm
B. Vomiting
C. Retention of stool and gases
D. Portal hypertension
E. Obstructive jaundice
The fever to 39-40°С is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The dyspnea is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The chest pain is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The severe intoxication is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
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C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The dysphagia is typical for:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
What is the roentgenological sign of acute mediastinitis?
A. *Widening of mediastinum, shadowing of its anterior
B. Filling defect
C. The sign of "bell"
D. Lack of air bubble of the stomach
E. High standing of diaphragmatic dome
What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis?
A. *Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
C. Intensifying of pain during vertebral pressing
D. Intensifying of pain at swallowing
E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins
What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis?
A. *Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
C. Intensifying of pain at swallowing
D. Swelling above clavicle
E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins
What sign is typical for anterior mediastinitis?
A. *Signs of compression of superior vena cava
B. Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
C. Intensifying of pain at swallowing
D. Swelling above clavicle
E. Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins
What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis?
A. *Throbbing chest pain with irradiation in interscapular region
B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa
E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava
What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis?
A. *Intensifying of pain during vertebral pressing
B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa
E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava
What sign is typical for posterior mediastinitis?
A. *Sign of compression of azygos and hemiazygos veins
B. Intensifying of pain during percussion of breast bone
C. Intensifying of pain when head is unbent back
D. Occurrence of swelling in the region of jugular fossa
E. Signs of compression of superior vena cava
What disease should be the acute mediastinitis differentiated from?
A. *Pyopneumothorax
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Esophageal achalasia
441. What disease should be the acute mediastinitis differentiated from?
A. *Acute pneumonia
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Esophageal achalasia
442. What disease should be the acute mediastinitis differentiated from?
A. *Pleural empyema
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Esophageal achalasia
443. What disease should be the acute mediastinitis differentiated from?
A. *Exsudative pericarditis
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Esophageal achalasia
444. What operation is performed for acute mediastinitis?
A. *Mediastinotomy
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Thoracotomy
D. Laparotomy
E. Phrenoplasty
445. Mediastinotomy is used for the treatment of:
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal diverticulum
E. Pilorostenosis
446. Which of the following statements about microalbuminuria is true?
A. To be of clinical value, microalbuminuria must be measured in a time 12- to 24-hour
B. *Microalbuminuria is a cardiovascular risk factor that is independent of traditional
Framingham risk factors
C. Microalbuminuria is a predictor of risk only in patients with diabetes
D. Microalbuminuria is present when the “spot” urine albumin-to-creatinine ration is >500
mg/l
E. All of the above statements are correct
447. All of the following are associated with hyperviscosity in the setting of Eisenmenger's
syndrome exept:
A. *Coronary artery ectasia
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Visual disturbances
D. Paresthesias
E. Thrombosis and bleeding
448. All of the following physical examination findings are usually associated with ostium
Secondary exept:
A. Precordial heave
B. Fixed split S2
C. *Lateral and inferior displacement of the apex beat
D. Soft systolic ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space
E. Normal S1
All of the following statements regarding patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) are true exept:
A. *The majority of cases close spontaneously after infancy
B. There is a higher incidence in mothers who acquired rubella during pregnancy
C. A decrease in the duration and intensity of the murmur has a poor prognostic implication
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy precedes RV hypertrophy
E. If it is uncorrected, approximately one third of patients die by the age of 40 years
450. Congenital MR is commonly encountered in all of the following conditions exept:
A. *Cor triatriatum
B. Ostium primum ASD
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Congenitally corrected TGA
E. Subaortic stenosis
451. Coronary sinus ASD is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. Cleft mitral valve
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. *Left superior vena cava
452. Each of the following statements regarding splitting of the second heart sound is true exept:
A. Severe pulmonic valvular stenosis is associated with a softened P2
B. Delayed closure of the pulmonic valve with inspiration contributes to physiologic
splitting of S2
C. Fixed splitting of S2 is the auscultatory hallmark of an ostium Secondary atrial septal
defect
D. Paradoxical splitting of S2 is expected in patients with a right ventricular electronically
paced rhythm
E. *Right bundle branch block is associated with paradoxical splitting of S2
453. In which of the following cases is surgical correction recommended?
A. Asymptomatic small VSD to decrease risk of endocarditis
B. PDA with severe pulmonary hypertension
C. *Asymptomatic subaortic stenosis with severe aortic valve insufficiency
D. Coarctation of the aorta with a transcoarctation gradient of 20 mmHg item
E. Small ASD to prevent paradoxical embolization
454. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings:
wide pulse pressure, prominent LV impulse, and a continuous machinery murmur enveloping
S2
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. *Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
455. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings:
prominent central PAs (possible calcifications) and peripheral PA prunning?
A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
456. Which lifestyle change has been shown to produce the biggest reduction in systolic blood
pressure?
A. *10-kg weight loss
B. Dietary sodium reduction
C. Moderation of alcohol consumption
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D. Change to a vegetarian diet
E. Magnesium supplement
457. Which of the following syndromes is associated with pumonary arterio-venous fistula?
A. Williams syndrome
B. *Weber-Osler-Rendu syndrome
C. Bland-Garland-White syndrome
D. Kartagener's syndrome
E. Crouzon's syndrome
458. A 30-year-old man with Eisenmenger's syndrome and irreversible pulmonary hypertension
caysed by untreated VSD is at risk for developing symptoms and signs of hyperviscosity. All of
the following are associated with hyperviscosity syndrome exept
A. *Coronary artery ectasia
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Visual disturbances
D. Paresthesias
E. Thrombosis and bleeding
459. A 34-year-old female with hypertension is considering becoming pregnant. Which of the
following medications would be absolutely CONTRAINDICATED to control her BP during
pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. Metoprolol
C. Labetalol
D. *Captopril
E. Nifidipine
460. A 48-year-old male with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presents to the
ER with hypertensive emergency. His mean arterial pressure is 150 mmHg. Which medications
would be most appropriate therapy for this patient?
A. *Nitroprusside
B. Enteral metoprolol
C. Fenoldopam
D. Intravenous nitroglycerine
E. Any of the above
461. A young hypertensive patient has serum potassium 2.8 mEq/l and increased aldosterone
level with decreased plasma renin activity. The diagnosis is:
A. Renal artery stenosis
B. Ectopic ACTH syndrome
C. *Conn syndrome
D. Liddle syndrome
E. Cushing syndrome
462. All of the following are characteristic findings of ostium primum atrial septal defect (ASD)
exept:
A. Precordial heave
B. Fixed split S2
C. *Right axis deviation
D. Systolic ejection murmur
E. Prominent pulmonary vascular markings on CXR
463. All of the following are indications for surgical closure of an ASD exept:
A. Significant symptoms in a 65-year-old
B. RV dysfunction
C. *Pulmonary vascular resistance >15
D. An asymptomatic 20-year-old with a Qp/Qs of 1,7 with no pulmonary hypertension
E. RV enlargement
464. All of the following are risk factors for hypertension, exept
A. Increased body weight
B. Family history of hypertension
C. Excessive intake of sodium
D. *Regular use of one glass of wine per month
E. Cigarette smoking
465. All of the following characteristics are typical of hypertensive crisis exept:
A. Diastolic BP >120 mmHg
B. Retinal hemorrhages
C. *Constriction of cerebral arterioles with decreased vascular permeability
D. Proteinuria
E. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
466. ?All of the following findings are suggestive of LVH except:
A. S in V1 + R in V5 or V6 > 35 mm
B. R in aVL > 11 mm
C. R in aVF > 20 mm
D. R in I + S in III > 25 mm
E. *R in aVR > 8 mm
467. All of the following findings are suggestive of RVH except:
A. R in V1=7 mm (15 mm with RBBB)
B. R in V1 + S in V5 or V6 > 10 mm
C. R < S in V6
D. R or R’ in V1
E. *S in V3 + R in aVL > 28 mm (20 mm for women)
468. All of the following statements concerning hypertension are true, exept
A. In a western adult population the prevalence of hypertension exceeds 20%
B. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease
C. The pathophysiology of hypertension differs in black adults compared to South Asians
and Europeans
D. *People of African descent commonly have a high renin type hypertension
E. An increase in potassium intake may significantly reduce blood pressure in hypertensive
patients
469. All of the following statements concerning target organ damage are true exept
A. Microalbuminuria is a sensitive marker of hypertension-induced renal damage
B. *An increase in serum creatinine when antihypertensive therapy is intensified is a sign
of progressive renal deterioration
C. Electrocardiography should be part of all routine assessment of subjects with high BP
D. Echocardiography is much more sensitive than electrocardiography in diagnosing left
ventricular hypertrophy
E. Grades 1 and 2 arteriolar retinal changes do not have a significant prognostic value
470. All of the following statements regarding Ebstein's anomaly are true exept
A. An ASD or PFO is present in up to 80% of patients
B. The cardinal feature is an apically displaced tricuspid valve resulting in atrialization of
ventricular tissue
C. WPW syndrome is common in these patients and multiple tracts can exist
D. *A bicuspid aortic valve is commonly present
E. A "sail sound" is a common finding on physical examination
471. All of the following statements regarding the effects of maneuvers on the auscultation of
cardiac murmurs are true exept:
A. In patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), the diastolic phase of the murmur is intensified by
isometric handgrip
B. *The murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy becomes softer with standing
or during a Valsalva strain maneuver
C. The murmur of a ventricular septal defect (VSD) increases with isometric handgrip
D. Sudden squatting or isometric handgrip increases the diastolic murmur of aortic
regurgitation
E. The mid-diastolic and presystolic murmurs of mitral stenosis become louder with
exercise
472. Bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis is indicated in all adults who have the following
congenital heart disease exept:
A. VSD
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. *Secondary ASD
D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
E. PDA
473. Besides pulmonary valve stenosis, which of the following is the most common associated
cardiac defect present in patients with PA stenosis?
A. *VSD
B. ASD
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. PDA
E. Bicuspid aortic valve
474. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination
fingings: wide pulse pressure, prominent LV impulse, and a continuous machinery murmur
enveloping S2:
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. *Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
475. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination
fingings: weak or delayed femoral pulses, harsh systolic murmur in the back, and a systolic
ejection click in the aortic area
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. *Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
476. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination
fingings: RV lift with a loud systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border, with a single
S2
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. *Tetralogy of Fallot
477. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination
fingings: loud S1, holosystolic murmur in left sternal border, systolic ejection click, and
hepatomegaly
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. *Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
478. Choose the adult congenital disorder corresponding to the following physical examination
fingings: cyanosis, digital clubbing, loud P2, and a variable Graham-Steel murmur
A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
Choose the case in which surgical correction is recommended?
A. Asymptomatic small VSD to decrease risk of endocarditis
B. PDA with severe pulmonary hypertension
C. *Asymptomatic subaortic stenosis with severe aortic valve insufficiency
D. Coarctation of the aorta with a transcoarctation gradient of 20 mmHg
E. Small ASD to prevent paradoxical embolization
480. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings:
posterior rib notching and a "reverse E" or "3" sign
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. *Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
481. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings:
pulmonary plethora, prominent ascending aorta, proximal PA dilatation, and opacity at the
confluence of the aortic knob and descending aorta
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. *PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
482. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings:
marked cardiomegaly, severe right atrial enlargement, and normal lung fields
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. *Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
483. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings:
prominent central PAs (possible calcifications) and peripheral PA prunning?
A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
484. Choose the congenital disorder compatible with the following chest radiography findings:
right aortic arch, RV enlargement, and a "boot-shaped" heart?
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. *Tetralogy of Fallot
485. Each of the following statements regarding the effects of maneuvers on the auscultation of
cardiac murmurs is true exept:
A. Ductus arteriosus (PDA), the diastolic phase of the murmur is intensified by isometric
handgrip
B. *The murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy becomes softer with standing
or during a Valsalva strain maneuver
C. The murmur of a ventricular septal defect (VSD) increases with isometric handgrip
D. Sudden squatting or isometric handgrip increases the diastolic murmur of aortic
regurgitation
E. The mid-diastolic and presystolic murmurs of mitral stenosis become louder with
exercise
479.
486.
If there is suspicion of phaeochromocytoma, the first line drug is:
A. Sodium-nitroprusside
B. Nifedipine
C. *Phentolamine
D. Verapamil
E. Enalapril
487. In patients of African descent the drug of choice for initial treatment of hypertension is:
A. Verapamil
B. Atenolol
C. Perindopril
D. *Hydrochlorothiazide
E. Amlodipine
488. In the elderly with systolic hypertension antihypertensive therapy should be initiated if SBP
A. 120 mmHg
B. 130 mmHg
C. 140 mmHg
D. *160 mmHg
E. 170 mmHg
489. Infective endocarditis prophylaxis is indicated in all adults who have the following
congenital heart disease exept:
A. VSD
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. *Secondary ASD
D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
E. PDA
490. Noonan's syndrome is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. Cleft mitral valve
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. Persistent left superior vena cava
491. Of the following pairs, choose one which is incorrectly matched with the indication for
therapy in hypertension?
A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy
B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease
C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris
D. Diuretics – heart failure
E. *Loop diuretic – gout
492. Of the following syndromes, which one is associated with pumonary arterio-venous fistula?
A. Williams syndrome
B. *Weber-Osler-Rendu syndrome
C. Bland-Garland-White syndrome
D. Kartagener's syndrome
E. Crouzon's syndrome
493. Optimal blood pressure (BP) is defined as a BP level of
A. *120/80 mmHg
B. 130/80 mmHg
C. 140/90 mmHg
D. 160/100 mmHg
E. 125/80 mmHg
494. Ostium primum ASD is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. *Cleft mitral valve
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. Persistent left superior vena cava
495. Physicians should diagnose isolated office hypertension (so-called “white-coat
hypertension”) whenever office BP is ?140/90 mmHg at several visits, while 24-h ambulatory
BP is
A. 160/100 mmHg
B. 140/90 mmHg
C. 130/85 mmHg
D. *125/80 mmHg
E. 120/70 mmHg
496. Renin-dependent hypertension includes:
A. Primary hyperaldosteronism
B. Essential hypertension
C. *Renovascular hypertension
D. Pheochromocytoma
E. Cushing syndrome
497. Sinus venosus ASD is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. Cleft mitral valve
D. *Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. Persistent left superior vena cava
498. Target organs in hypertension include all of the following exept
A. Brain and eyes
B. Heart
C. Kidneys
D. Peripheral arteries
E. *Liver
499. Tetralogy of Fallot includes all of the following lesions exept
A. A ventricular septal defect
B. An overriding aorta
C. *An atrial septal defect
D. Right ventricular outflow obstruction
E. Right ventricular hypertrophy
500. The best medication for the treatment of isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly:
A. ACE-inhibitor and diuretic
B. *Dihydropiridine calcium-channel blocker and diuretic
C. Beta-blocker and diuretic
D. Non-dihydropiridine calcium-channel blocker and diuretic
E. Beta- and alpha blocker
501. The congenital mitral regurgitation is commonly encountered in all of the following
conditions exept:
A. *Cor triatriatum
B. Ostium primum ASD
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Congenitally corrected TGA
E. Subaortic stenosis
502. The coronary sinus ASD is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. Cleft mitral valve
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. *Persistent left superior vena cava
503. The following cardiovascular malformations are all associated with congenital rubella exept:
A. PDA
B. PA stenosis
C. *Ebstein's anomaly
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
E. Coarctation of the aorta
504. The following drug combinations are effective to treat hypertension exept
A. Diuretics + beta-blockers
B. Beta-blockers + dihydropiridine calcium channel blockers
C. Diuretics + ACE-inhibitors/ARB
D. ACE-inhibitors/ARB + calcium channel blockers
E. *Beta-blockers + ACE-inhibitors/ARB
505. The following medications can be used in pregnancy exept
A. Methyldopa
B. Labetalol
C. *ACE-inhibitor / ARB
D. Hydralazine
E. Nifidipine
506. The following statements regarding patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) are true exept:
A. *The majority of cases close spontaneously after infancy
B. There is a higher incidence in mothers who acquired rubella during pregnancy
C. A decrease in the duration and intensity of the murmur has a poor prognostic implication
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy precedes RV hypertrophy
E. If it is uncorrected, approximately one third of patients die by the age of 40 years
507. The Noonan's syndrome is commonly associated with:
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. Cleft mitral valve
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. Persistent left superior vena cava
508. The ostium primum ASD is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. *Cleft mitral valve
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. Persistent left superior vena cava
509. The ostium Secondary ASD is usually associated with the following physical examination
findings exept:
A. Precordial heave
B. Fixed split S2
C. *Lateral and inferior displacement of the apex beat
D. Soft systolic ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space
E. Normal S1
510. The proportion of essential (primary) hypertension among all hypertension causes is as high
as
A. 25-30%
B. 40-45%
C. 60-65%
D. 70-75%
E. *90-95%
511. The sinus venosus ASD is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. Cleft mitral valve
D. *Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. Persistent left superior vena cava
The timing of an "innocent" murmur is usually:
A. Early systolic
B. Presystolic
C. *Midsystolic
D. Holosystolic
E. Early diastolic
513. The Williams syndrome is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. Cleft mitral valve
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. Persistent left superior vena cava
514. Thiazide diuretics can contribute to each of the following metabolic effects exept:
A. Hypomagnesemia
B. *Hypouricemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypercholesterolemia
E. Hyponatremia
515. What is the correct feature of the hypertensive urgency?
A. It is always a life-threatening situation
B. Patient must be hospitalized
C. *Patients can be managed as outpatients
D. Therapy should not be given orally
E. None of the above
516. What is the most common coexisting congenital anomaly in patients with coarctation of the
aorta?
A. Cleft mitral valve
B. *Bicuspid aortic valve
C. Ebstein's anomaly
D. VSD
E. PDA
517. When present, each of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S2 exept:
A. Opening snap
B. Third heart sound
C. *Ejection clic
D. Tumor plop
E. Pericardial knock
518. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings:
cyanosis, digital clubbing, loud P2, and a variable Graham-Steel murmur
A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
519. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings:
RV lift with a loud systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border, with a single S2
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. *Tetralogy of Fallot
520. Which BP profile below identifies the patient with the highest risk for development of
cardiovascular complications?
512.
A. 160/90 mmHg
B. *160/65 mmHg
C. 140/100 mmHg
D. 130/90 mmHg
E. 120/70 mmHg
521. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy?
A. Surgically corrected transposition of great arteries (TGA)
B. Congenitally corrected TGA
C. Ebstein's anomaly
D. *Eisenmenger's syndrome
E. Status post Fontan operation
522. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings:
pulmonary plethora, prominent ascending aorta, proximal PA dilatation, and opacity at the
confluence of the aortic knob and descending aorta
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. *PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
523. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings:
posterior rib notching and a "reverse E" or "3" sign
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. *Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
524. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: right
aortic arch, RV enlargement, and a "boot-shaped" heart?
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. *Tetralogy of Fallot
525. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings:
marked cardiomegaly, severe right atrial enlargement, and normal lung fields
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. *Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
526. Which lifestyle change has been shown to produce the biggest reduction in systolic blood
pressure?
A. *10-kg weight loss
B. Dietary sodium reduction
C. Moderation of alcohol consumption
D. Change to a vegetarian diet
E. Magnesium supplement
527. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic findings of ostium primum atrial septal
defect (ASD)?
A. Precordial heave
B. Fixed split S2
C. *Right axis deviation
D. Systolic ejection murmur
E. Prominent pulmonary vascular markings on CXR
528. Which of the adult congenital disorders corresponds to the following physical examination
fingings: weak or delayed femoral pulses, harsh systolic murmur in the back, and a systolic
ejection click in the aortic area
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. *Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
529. Which of the adult congenital disorders corresponds to the following physical examination
fingings: loud S1, holosystolic murmur in left sternal border, systolic ejection click, and
hepatomegaly
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. *Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
530. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication
for therapy?
A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy
B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease
C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris
D. *Hydrochlorthiazide – diabetes mellitus
E. Loop diuretic – heart failure
531. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication
for therapy?
A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy
B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease
C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris
D. Diuretics – heart failure
E. *Loop diuretic – gout
532. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication
for therapy?
A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy
B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease
C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris
D. *Hydrochlorthiazide – diabetes mellitus
E. Loop diuretic – heart failure
533. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is a known cause of autoimmune hemolytic
anemia?
A. Metoprolol
B. *Methyldopa
C. Captopril
D. Losartan
E. Monoxidine
534. Which of the following cardiovascular malformations is NOT associated with congenital
rubella?
A. PDA
B. PA stenosis
C. *Ebstein's anomaly
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
E. Coarctation of the aorta
535. Which of the following diagnostic studies is most likely to demonstrate the cause of the
headaches?
A. MRI of the head
B. MRI of the kidney
C. *MRI of the thorax
D. 24-h urinary 5-HIAA
E. 24-h urinary free cortisol
536. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy?
A. Surgically corrected transposition of great arteries (TGA)
B. Congenitally corrected TGA
C. Ebstein's anomaly
D. *Eisenmenger's syndrome
E. Status post Fontan operation
537. Which of the following is NOT an indication for surgical closure of an ASD?
A. Significant symptoms in a 65-year-old
B. RV dysfunction
C. *Pulmonary vascular resistance >15 Wood units that does not diminish with vasodilators
D. An asymptomatic 20-year-old with a Qp/Qs of 1,7 with no pulmonary hypertension
E. RV enlargement
538. Which of the following is the most common associated cardiac defect present in patients
with pulmonary stenosis?
A. *VSD
B. ASD
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. PDA
E. Bicuspid aortic valve
539. Which of the following pairs of medical conditions and antihypertensive medications would
be incorrect to use in a patient with essential hypertension?
A. Beta-blocker and a history of myocardial infarction
B. Alpha-blocker and prostatic hypertrophy
C. *Thiazide diuretic and gout
D. Amlodipine and heart failure
E. ACE-inhibitor and diabetes mellitus
540. Which of the following pairs of medical conditions and antihypertensive medications would
be incorrect to use in a patient with essential hypertension?
A. Beta-blocker and a history of myocardial infarction
B. Alpha-blocker and prostatic hypertrophy
C. *Thiazide diuretic and gout
D. Amlodipine and heart failure
E. ACE-inhibitor and diabetes mellitus
541. Which of the following statements regarding antihypertensive agents and atrial fibrillation
(AF) is true?
A. *Losartan has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than atenolol
B. Valsartan has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than amlodipine
C. Atenolol has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than captopril
D. Nifedipine has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than diltiazem
E. All of the above are false
542. Which of the following statements regarding Ebstein's anomaly is NOT correct?
A. An ASD or PFO is present in up to 80% of patients
B. The cardinal feature is an apically displaced tricuspid valve resulting in atrialization of
ventricular tissue
C. WPW syndrome is common in these patients and multiple tracts can exist
D. *A bicuspid aortic valve is commonly present
E. A "sail sound" is a common finding on physical examination
543. Which of the following statements regarding prevention of stroke is correct?
A. Treatment of systolic hypertension does not decrease the risk of stroke in patients older
than age 60
B. Hypertension should not be a target of secondary prevention after an ischemic stroke
because elevated BP is desirable to maintain adequate cerebral perfusion
C. *Treatment with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors reduces the risk of recurrent stroke
D. The combination of aspirin and clopidogrel is superior to aspirin alone for prevention of
recurrent stroke
E. None of the above
544. Which of the following syndromes and cardiac anomalies are incorrectly matched?
A. Trisomy 21 – atrioventricular canal defects
B. Noonan syndrome – pulmonic stenosis
C. Holt-Oram syndrome – atrial septal defects
D. Marfan syndrome – mitral valve prolapse
E. *Williams syndrome – ventricular septal defects
545. Which of these statements is true regarding renin-angiotensin system-blocking agents?
A. Less effective when combined with a diuretic than when used alone
B. More effective in patients of African descent than in white patients
C. *Preserve kidney function in addition to lowering blood pressure
D. Are the first-line antihypertensive medications in pregnancy
E. All of the above
546. Which of these statements is true regarding renin-angiotensin system-blocking agents?
A. Less effective when combined with a diuretic than when used alone
B. More effective in patients of African descent than in white patients
C. *Preserve kidney function in addition to lowering blood pressure
D. Are the first-line antihypertensive medications in pregnancy
E. All of the above
547. Which parameter of arterial blood pressure (BP) yields the best prognostic information in
patients at risk for cardiovascular disease?
A. Systolic BP
B. Diastolic BP
C. Mean arterial BP
D. *Pulse pressure
E. None
548. Williams syndrome is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. Cleft mitral valve
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. Persistent left superior vena cava
549. Thiazide diuretics can contribute to each of the following metabolic effects exept:
A. Hypomagnesemia
B. *Hypouricemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypercholesterolemia
E. Hyponatremia
550. What is the correct feature of the hypertensive urgency?
A. It is always a life-threatening situation
B. Patient must be hospitalized
C. *Patients can be managed as outpatients
D. Therapy should not be given orally
E. None of the above
551. What is the most common coexisting congenital anomaly in patients with coarctation of the
aorta?
A. Cleft mitral valve
B. *Bicuspid aortic valve
C. Ebstein's anomaly
D. VSD
E. PDA
552. When present, each of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S2 exept:
A. Opening snap
B. Third heart sound
C. *Ejection clic
D. Tumor plop
E. Pericardial knock
553. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings:
cyanosis, digital clubbing, loud P2, and a variable Graham-Steel murmur
A. *Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
554. Which adult congenital disorder corresponds to the following physical examination fingings:
RV lift with a loud systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border, with a single S2
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. *Tetralogy of Fallot
555. Which BP profile below identifies the patient with the highest risk for development of
cardiovascular complications?
A. 160/90 mmHg
B. *160/65 mmHg
C. 140/100 mmHg
D. 130/90 mmHg
E. 120/70 mmHg
556. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy?
A. Surgically corrected transposition of great arteries (TGA)
B. Congenitally corrected TGA
C. Ebstein's anomaly
D. *Eisenmenger's syndrome
E. Status post Fontan operation
557. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings:
pulmonary plethora, prominent ascending aorta, proximal PA dilatation, and opacity at the
confluence of the aortic knob and descending aorta
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. *PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
558. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings:
posterior rib notching and a "reverse E" or "3" sign
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. *Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
559. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings: right
aortic arch, RV enlargement, and a "boot-shaped" heart?
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. *Tetralogy of Fallot
560. Which congenital disorder corresponds with the following chest radiography findings:
marked cardiomegaly, severe right atrial enlargement, and normal lung fields
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. *Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
561. Which lifestyle change has been shown to produce the biggest reduction in systolic blood
pressure?
A. *10-kg weight loss
B. Dietary sodium reduction
C. Moderation of alcohol consumption
D. Change to a vegetarian diet
E. Magnesium supplement
562. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic findings of ostium primum atrial septal
defect (ASD)?
A. Precordial heave
B. Fixed split S2
C. *Right axis deviation
D. Systolic ejection murmur
E. Prominent pulmonary vascular markings on CXR
563. Which of the adult congenital disorders corresponds to the following physical examination
fingings: weak or delayed femoral pulses, harsh systolic murmur in the back, and a systolic
ejection click in the aortic area
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. *Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
564. Which of the adult congenital disorders corresponds to the following physical examination
fingings: loud S1, holosystolic murmur in left sternal border, systolic ejection click, and
hepatomegaly
A. Eisenmenger's syndrome
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. PDA
D. *Ebstein's anomaly
E. Tetralogy of Fallot
565. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication
for therapy?
A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy
B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease
C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris
D. *Hydrochlorthiazide – diabetes mellitus
E. Loop diuretic – heart failure
566. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication
for therapy?
A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy
B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease
C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris
D. Diuretics – heart failure
E. *Loop diuretic – gout
567. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is incorrectly matched with the indication
for therapy?
A. ACE inhibitor – diabetic nephropathy
B. Beta-blocker – coronary artery disease
C. Calcium channel blocker – angina pectoris
D. *Hydrochlorthiazide – diabetes mellitus
E. Loop diuretic – heart failure
568. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is a known cause of autoimmune hemolytic
anemia?
A. Metoprolol
B. *Methyldopa
C. Captopril
D. Losartan
E. Monoxidine
569. Which of the following cardiovascular malformations is NOT associated with congenital
rubella?
A. PDA
B. PA stenosis
C. *Ebstein's anomaly
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
E. Coarctation of the aorta
570. Which of the following diagnostic studies is most likely to demonstrate the cause of the
headaches?
A. MRI of the head
B. MRI of the kidney
C. *MRI of the thorax
D. 24-h urinary 5-HIAA
E. 24-h urinary free cortisol
571. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy?
A. Surgically corrected transposition of great arteries (TGA)
B. Congenitally corrected TGA
C. Ebstein's anomaly
D. *Eisenmenger's syndrome
E. Status post Fontan operation
572. Which of the following is NOT an indication for surgical closure of an ASD?
A. Significant symptoms in a 65-year-old
B. RV dysfunction
C. *Pulmonary vascular resistance >15 Wood units that does not diminish with vasodilators
D. An asymptomatic 20-year-old with a Qp/Qs of 1,7 with no pulmonary hypertension
E. RV enlargement
573. Which of the following is the most common associated cardiac defect present in patients
with pulmonary stenosis?
A. *VSD
B. ASD
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. PDA
E. Bicuspid aortic valve
574. Which of the following pairs of medical conditions and antihypertensive medications would
be incorrect to use in a patient with essential hypertension?
A. Beta-blocker and a history of myocardial infarction
B. Alpha-blocker and prostatic hypertrophy
C. *Thiazide diuretic and gout
D. Amlodipine and heart failure
E. ACE-inhibitor and diabetes mellitus
575. Which of the following pairs of medical conditions and antihypertensive medications would
be incorrect to use in a patient with essential hypertension?
A. Beta-blocker and a history of myocardial infarction
B. Alpha-blocker and prostatic hypertrophy
C. *Thiazide diuretic and gout
D. Amlodipine and heart failure
E. ACE-inhibitor and diabetes mellitus
576. Which of the following statements regarding antihypertensive agents and atrial fibrillation
(AF) is true?
A. *Losartan has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than atenolol
B. Valsartan has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than amlodipine
C. Atenolol has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than captopril
D. Nifedipine has been shown to decrease new-onset AF more effectively than diltiazem
E. All of the above are false
577. Which of the following statements regarding Ebstein's anomaly is NOT correct?
A. An ASD or PFO is present in up to 80% of patients
B. The cardinal feature is an apically displaced tricuspid valve resulting in atrialization of
ventricular tissue
C. WPW syndrome is common in these patients and multiple tracts can exist
D. *A bicuspid aortic valve is commonly present
E. A "sail sound" is a common finding on physical examination
578. Which of the following statements regarding prevention of stroke is correct?
A. Treatment of systolic hypertension does not decrease the risk of stroke in patients older
than age 60
B. Hypertension should not be a target of secondary prevention after an ischemic stroke
because elevated BP is desirable to maintain adequate cerebral perfusion
C. *Treatment with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors reduces the risk of recurrent stroke
D. The combination of aspirin and clopidogrel is superior to aspirin alone for prevention of
recurrent stroke
E. None of the above
579. Which of the following syndromes and cardiac anomalies are incorrectly matched?
A. Trisomy 21 – atrioventricular canal defects
B. Noonan syndrome – pulmonic stenosis
C. Holt-Oram syndrome – atrial septal defects
D. Marfan syndrome – mitral valve prolapse
E. *Williams syndrome – ventricular septal defects
580. Which of these statements is true regarding renin-angiotensin system-blocking agents?
A. Less effective when combined with a diuretic than when used alone
B. More effective in patients of African descent than in white patients
C. *Preserve kidney function in addition to lowering blood pressure
D. Are the first-line antihypertensive medications in pregnancy
E. All of the above
581. Which of these statements is true regarding renin-angiotensin system-blocking agents?
A. Less effective when combined with a diuretic than when used alone
B. More effective in patients of African descent than in white patients
C. *Preserve kidney function in addition to lowering blood pressure
D. Are the first-line antihypertensive medications in pregnancy
E. All of the above
582. Which parameter of arterial blood pressure (BP) yields the best prognostic information in
patients at risk for cardiovascular disease?
A. Systolic BP
B. Diastolic BP
C. Mean arterial BP
D. *Pulse pressure
583.
584.
585.
586.
587.
588.
589.
590.
591.
E. None
Williams syndrome is commonly associated with...
A. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. *Supravalvular pulmonic stenosis
C. Cleft mitral valve
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
E. Persistent left superior vena cava
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Idiopathic degenerative fibrotic infiltration
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Amyloidosis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Arteritis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Cardiomyopathies
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Collagen vascular disease
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Diphtheria
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Familial sinoatrial node disorders
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Fatty replacement
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
592.
593.
594.
595.
596.
597.
598.
599.
600.
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Friedreich's ataxia
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Hemochromatosis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Myocardial infarction
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Muscular dystrophy
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Myocarditis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Pericarditis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Rheumatic fever
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Sarcoidosis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Hyperkalemia
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
601.
602.
603.
604.
605.
606.
607.
608.
609.
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Digitalis intake
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Calcium channel blockers intake
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Beta blockers intake
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Sympatholytic agents intake
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Antiarrhythmics intake
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of sick sinus syndrome is:
A. *Sinoatrial nodal artery deficiency intake
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Dementia
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Lethargy
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Nocturnal wakefulness
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
610.
611.
612.
613.
614.
615.
616.
617.
618.
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Lightheadedness
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Syncope or pre-syncope
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Angina pectoris
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Arterial thromboemboli
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Cerebrovascular accident
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Congestive heart failure
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Dementia
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Palpitations
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
For the clinical manifestation of sick sinus syndrome is typical:
A. *Dizziness
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
619.
620.
621.
622.
623.
624.
625.
626.
627.
E. Profuse vomiting
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Profuse vomiting
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Regurgitation
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Melena
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Defans of abdominal wall
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Wooden abdomen
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Pneumoperitoneum
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Vomiting by bile
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Exophthalmus
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Pain in epigastric region
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
628.
629.
630.
631.
632.
633.
634.
635.
636.
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Pain in right iliac region
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Retention of stool and gases
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Dysphagia
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Leriche's syndrome
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Trophic ulcers on foot
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Toes gangrene
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Muscular contracture of limbs
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Cough with blood sputum
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
637.
638.
639.
640.
641.
642.
643.
644.
645.
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Signs of hypothyroidism
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Signs of hyperthyroidism
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
What clinical sign is not typical for sick sinus syndrome:
A. *Upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
B. Nocturnal wakefulness
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Palpitations
To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs:
A. *Sinus bradycardia
B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial flutter
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. Atrial tachycardia
To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs:
A. *Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape
B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial flutter
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. Atrial tachycardia
To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs:
A. *Sinoatrial exit block
B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial flutter
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. Atrial tachycardia
To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs:
A. *Ectopic atrial bradycardia
B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial flutter
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. Atrial tachycardia
To supraventricular bradyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs:
A. *Atrial fibrillation with slow ventricular response
B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial flutter
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. Atrial tachycardia
To supraventricular tachyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs:
A. *Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape
D. Sinoatrial exit block
E. Ectopic atrial bradycardia
To supraventricular tachyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs:
A. *Atrial flutter
B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape
D. Sinoatrial exit block
E. Ectopic atrial bradycardia
647. To supraventricular tachyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs:
A. *Atrial fibrillation
B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape
D. Sinoatrial exit block
E. Ectopic atrial bradycardia
648. To supraventricular tachyarrhythmia in sick sinus syndrome belongs:
A. *Atrial tachycardia
B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Sinus arrest with or without junctional escape
D. Sinoatrial exit block
E. Ectopic atrial bradycardia
649. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent sinus
pauses that produce symptoms belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
650. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy, with
heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented belongs to the
such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *IIa
B. I
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
651. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than 30
bpm while awake belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *IIb
B. IIa
C. I
D. III
E. IV
652. Sick sinus syndrome in asymptomatic patients, including those in whom substantial sinus
bradycardia (heart rate less than 40 bpm) is a consequence of long-term drug treatment belongs
to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *III
B. IIb
C. IIa
D. I
E. IV
653. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug therapy
belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *III
B. IIb
C. IIa
646.
D. I
E. IV
654. Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are clearly
documented as not associated with a slow heart rate belongs to the such class for permanent
pacemaker implantation:
A. *III
B. IIb
C. IIa
D. I
E. IV
655. To the class I as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus
syndrome belong:
A. *Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent
sinus pauses that produce symptoms
B. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy,
with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented
C. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than
30 bpm while awake
D. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug therapy
E. Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are
clearly documented as not associated with a slow heart rate
656. To the class IIa as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus
syndrome belong:
A. *Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy,
with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented
B. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent
sinus pauses that produce symptoms
C. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than
30 bpm while awake
D. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug therapy
E. Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are
clearly documented as not associated with a slow heart rate
657. To the class IIb as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus
syndrome belong:
A. *Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less
than 30 bpm while awake
B. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent
sinus pauses that produce symptoms
C. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy,
with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented
D. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug therapy
E. Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are
clearly documented as not associated with a slow heart rate
658. To the class III as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus
syndrome belong:
A. *Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic bradycardia caused by nonessential drug
therapy
B. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent
sinus pauses that produce symptoms
C. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy,
with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented
D. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than
30 bpm while awake
E. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic tachycardia
659. To the class III as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus
syndrome belong:
A. *Sick sinus syndrome in patients with symptoms suggestive of bradycardia that are
clearly documented as not associated with a slow heart rate
B. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than
30 bpm while awake
C. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent
sinus pauses that produce symptoms
D. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy,
with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented
E. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic tachycardia
660. To the class III as the indications for permanent pacemaker implantation in sick sinus
syndrome belong:
A. *Sick sinus syndrome in asymptomatic patients, including those in whom substantial
sinus bradycardia (heart rate less than 40 bpm) is a consequence of long-term drug
treatment
B. Sick sinus syndrome in minimally symptomatic patients with chronic heart rate less than
30 bpm while awake
C. Sick sinus syndrome with documented symptomatic bradycardia, including frequent
sinus pauses that produce symptoms
D. Sick sinus syndrome occurring spontaneously or as a result of necessary drug therapy,
with heart rate less than 40 bpm when a clear association has not been documented
E. Sick sinus syndrome with symptomatic tachycardia
661. One of the causes of AV-block of the I degree is:
A. *Professional sport
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
662. One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Myocardial infarction
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
663. One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Angina pectoris
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
664. One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Viral myocarditis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
665. One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Rheumatic fever
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
666. One of the causes of AV-block is:
667.
668.
669.
670.
671.
672.
673.
674.
675.
A. *Infectious mononucleosis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Sarcoidosis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Amyloidosis
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Malignant tumours
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Beta blockers intake
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Calcium channel blockers intake
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Digitalis intake
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Leva's disease
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
One of the causes of AV-block is:
A. *Lenegra's disease
B. Ulcerative diseases of stomach and duodenum
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Parkinson's disease
Leva's disease is:
676.
677.
678.
679.
680.
681.
682.
A. *Idiopathic heart stroma sclerosis
B. Idiopathic conducting system sclerosis
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Sarcoidosis
Lenegra's disease is:
A. *Idiopathic conducting system sclerosis
B. Idiopathic heart stroma sclerosis
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Sarcoidosis
Idiopathic conducting system sclerosis is:
A. *Lenegra's disease
B. Leva's disease
C. Parkinson's disease
D. Mobitz disease
E. Wenckebach disease
First-degree AV block is characterized by:
A. *Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
B. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
Mobitz I second-degree AV block is characterized by:
A. *Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
B. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
Wenckebach block is characterized by:
A. *Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
B. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
Mobitz II second-degree AV block is characterized by:
A. *Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
B. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
C. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
Third-degree AV block is characterized by:
A. *No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
B. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
C. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
D. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
683. AV dissociation is characterized by:
A. *Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
B. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
D. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
E. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
684. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s is:
A. *First-degree AV block
B. Mobitz I second-degree AV block
C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
D. Third-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
685. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause is:
A. *Mobitz I second-degree AV block
B. First-degree AV block
C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
D. Third-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
686. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause is:
A. *Wenckebach AV block
B. First-degree AV block
C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
D. Third-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
687. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles is:
A. *Mobitz II second-degree AV block
B. Mobitz I second-degree AV block
C. First-degree AV block
D. Third-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
688. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles is:
A. *Third-degree AV block
B. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
C. Mobitz I second-degree AV block
D. First-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
689. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers
is:
A. *AV dissociation
B. Third-degree AV block
690.
691.
692.
693.
694.
695.
696.
697.
698.
C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
D. Mobitz I second-degree AV block
E. First-degree AV block
First-degree AV block is characterized by:
A. *Slowed AV conduction
B. Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles
C. Complete failure of AV conduction
D. Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles
E. Paroxysmal tachycardia
Second-degree AV block is characterized by:
A. *Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles
B. Slowed AV conduction
C. Complete failure of AV conduction
D. Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles
E. Paroxysmal tachycardia
Third-degree AV block is characterized by:
A. *Complete failure of AV conduction
B. Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles
C. Slowed AV conduction
D. Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles
E. Paroxysmal tachycardia
AV dissociation is characterized by:
A. *Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles
B. Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles
C. Slowed AV conduction
D. Complete failure of AV conduction
E. Paroxysmal tachycardia
Slowed AV conduction is typical for:
A. *First-degree AV block
B. Second-degree AV block
C. Third-degree AV block
D. AV dissociation
E. Paroxysmal tachycardia
Partial conduction of supraventricular impulses to the ventricles is typical for:
A. *Second-degree AV block
B. First-degree AV block
C. Third-degree AV block
D. AV dissociation
E. Paroxysmal tachycardia
Complete failure of AV conduction is typical for:
A. *Third-degree AV block
B. First-degree AV block
C. Second-degree AV block
D. AV dissociation
E. Paroxysmal tachycardia
Independent impulses from atriums and ventricles is typical for:
A. *AV dissociation
B. Third-degree AV block
C. First-degree AV block
D. Second-degree AV block
E. Paroxysmal tachycardia
No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles is:
A. *Third-degree AV block
B. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
699.
700.
701.
702.
703.
704.
C. Mobitz I second-degree AV block
D. First-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
ECG changes of the first-degree AV block are characterized by:
A. *Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
B. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
ECG changes of the Mobitz I second-degree AV block are characterized by:
A. *Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
B. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
ECG changes of the Mobitz II second-degree AV block are characterized by:
A. *Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
B. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
C. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
D. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
ECG changes of the third-degree AV block are characterized by:
A. *No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
B. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
C. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
D. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
E. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
ECG changes of the AV dissociation are characterized by:
A. *Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different
pacemakers
B. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles
C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
D. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause
E. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
Prolongation of the PR interval more than 0.20 s is the ECG sign of:
A. *First-degree AV block
B. Mobitz I second-degree AV block
C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
D. Third-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
705. Progressive prolongation of the PR interval with the subsequent occurrence of a single
nonconducted P wave that results in a pause is the ECG sign of:
A. *Mobitz I second-degree AV block
B. First-degree AV block
C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
D. Third-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
706. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles is the ECG sign of:
A. *Mobitz II second-degree AV block
B. Mobitz I second-degree AV block
C. First-degree AV block
D. Third-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
707. No supraventricular impulses are conducted to the ventricles is the ECG sign of:
A. *Third-degree AV block
B. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
C. Mobitz I second-degree AV block
D. First-degree AV block
E. AV dissociation
708. Rhythm identified by atrial and ventricular activation occurring from different pacemakers is
the ECG sign of:
A. *AV dissociation
B. Third-degree AV block
C. Mobitz II second-degree AV block
D. Mobitz I second-degree AV block
E. First-degree AV block
709. For the clinical manifestation of third-degree AV block is typical:
A. *Dizziness
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
710. For the clinical manifestation of third-degree AV block is typical:
A. *Lightheadedness
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
711. For the clinical manifestation of third-degree AV block is typical:
A. *Syncope or pre-syncope
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
712. For the clinical manifestation of third-degree AV block is typical:
A. *Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome
B. Exophthalmus
C. Weight loss
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. Profuse vomiting
713. For the clinical manifestation of first-degree AV block is typical:
A. *Asymptomatic course
B. Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Lightheadedness
E. Dizziness
714. For the clinical manifestation of second-degree AV block is typical:
A. *Asymptomatic course
B. Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome
C. Syncope or pre-syncope
D. Lightheadedness
E. Dizziness
715. Syncope or pre-syncope syndrome in AV block is called:
A. *Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome
B. Leriche's syndrome
C. Mobitz syndrome
D. Wenckebach syndrome
E. Leva's disease
716. Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome is
A. *Syncope or pre-syncope syndrome in AV block
B. Prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG more than 0.20 s
C. Constant PR interval followed by sudden failure of a P wave to be conducted to the
ventricles
D. Lightheadedness in AV block
E. Association of AV block with myocardial infarction
717. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with bradycardia and symptoms
presumed to be due to AV block belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker
implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
718. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with arrhythmias and other medical
conditions that require drugs that result in symptomatic bradycardia belongs to the such class for
permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
719. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with documented periods of
asystole 3.0 seconds belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
720. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with documented any escape rate
<40 beats per minute (bpm) in awake, symptom-free patients belongs to the such class for
permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
721. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level after catheter ablation of the AV junction
belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
722. Postoperative third-degree AV block at any anatomic level that is not expected to resolve
belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
723. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with myotonic muscular dystrophy
belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
724. Third-degree AV block at any anatomic level associated with Erb's dystrophy (limb-girdle
dystrophy) belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
725. Second-degree AV block regardless of type or site of block, with associated symptomatic
bradycardia belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *I
B. IIa
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
726. Asymptomatic third-degree AV block at any anatomic site with average awake ventricular
rates of 40 bpm or faster belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *IIa
B. I
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
727. Asymptomatic type II second-degree AV block belongs to the such class for permanent
pacemaker implantation:
A. *IIa
B. I
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
728. Asymptomatic type I second-degree AV block at intra- or infra-His levels found incidentally
at electrophysiological study for other indications belongs to the such class for permanent
pacemaker implantation:
A. *IIa
B. I
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
729. First-degree AV block with symptoms suggestive of pacemaker syndrome and documented
alleviation of symptoms with temporary AV pacing belongs to the such class for permanent
pacemaker implantation:
A. *IIa
B. I
C. IIb
D. III
E. IV
730. Marked first-degree AV block (>0.30 second) in patients with LV dysfunction and
symptoms of congestive heart failure in whom a shorter AV interval results in hemodynamic
improvement belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *IIb
B. IIa
C. I
D. III
E. IV
731. Asymptomatic first-degree AV block belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker
implantation:
A. *III
B. IIb
C. IIa
D. I
E. IV
732. Asymptomatic type I second-degree AV block at the supra-His (AV node) level belongs to
the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *III
B. IIb
C. IIa
D. I
E. IV
733. AV block which expected to resolve and unlikely to recur (eg, drug toxicity, Lyme disease)
belongs to the such class for permanent pacemaker implantation:
A. *III
B. IIb
C. IIa
D. I
E. IV
734. A main direct danger for a patient with acute bleeding is
A. deficit of hemoglobin
B. *Hypovolemia
C. Hypoproteinemia
D. coagoulopatia
E. deficit of fibrinogen
735. A most important for the life of patient through possible transformation in ventricles
fibrillation is presented by arrhythmia
A. ventricle premature beats more than 20 in a minute
B. *ventricle tachycardia
C. arrhythmias, that unite with lengthening of intraventricular conductivity blockade of the
left leg of bunch of Giss
D. arrhythmia
E. all answers are correct
736. At a patient with concomitant cardiac insufficiency acutely the expressed anemia. Which
from offered remedies for transfusion prevails?
A. *erithromass
B. fresh blood
C. frozen plasma
D. there are all wrong answers
E. all answers are faithful
737. Endotracheally it is possible to enter the following drugs, except for:
A. noradrenalin
B. adrenalin
C. lidocain
D. atropine
E. *oxybutirat
738. A complete atrioventricular block is characterised
A. by absence of conducting of impulses from an autriums to ventricles
B. by a idioventricoular rhythm
C. by the attacks Morgani - Adams - Stocs
D. all answers are faithful
E. *all answers are right
739. A doctor decided to perform the defibrillation to patient with arrhythmia, using a
synchronizer. The digit of defibrillator must be synchronized:
A. *with wave Q
B. with the descending phase of R
C. by an T
D. consideration of phase of ECG-complex not important
E. there is no right answer
740. A leading symptom for the diagnosis of stop of circulation of blood is:
A. wide pupils, that are irresponsive on light
B. absence of consciousness
C. absence of breathing
D. *absence of pulse on a carotid
E. cyanosis
741. At anafilactic shock obligatory medicine are:
A. *providing of permeability of respiratory tracts and adequate
B. imobilisation extremities
C. infousion therapy
D. analgesia
E. injection of vazopresors
742. At development of signs of toxic action of digoxinum medical treatment includes
intravenous injection of
A. verapamilum
B. *lidocainum
C. calcium chloride
D. all answers are wrong
E. faithful all answers
743. At which types of arrhythmia intravenous injection of potassium is effective?
A. Ventricular tahycardia
B. Nodular tahycardia
C. Ventricular extrasystolia
D. Supraventricular arrhythmia
E. *At all of indicated types of arrhythmia
744. Cardiotoxic properties of hypercalciemia is taken off by application:
A. Adrenalin
B. Coffeinum
C. Ephedrine
D. *Molar solution of lactat natrium
E. 10 % solution of glucose
745. Cardiotoxicity action of hypocalciumemia treated by application:
A. adrenalin
B. ephedrine
C. *preparations of calcium
D. a 10% solution of glucose
E. corticosteroid
746. For the hypovolemia is not typical:
A. reduction of volume of circulatory blood
B. decline of BP, tachycardia
C. reduction of shock volume and cardiac troop landing
D. *rise of CVP
E. decline of pressure of filling of the left ventricle
747. For the prophylaxis of carcinogenic shock it does not use at the acute heart attack follow
A. beta-adrenoblocers
B. anaesthetizing, sedation
C. inhalation O2
D. beta-adrenostimulators
E. *all answers are not complete
748. Hypotension at anaphylactic shock develops as a result of
A. *increase of permeability of vessels and loss of volume of intravascular liquid
B. losses of likable tone
C. free prostaglandin
D. bradicardia
E. all are right
749. In the case of tamponade of heart is not observed
A. rise of central vein pressure
B. *noise of systole
C. cyanosis
D. paradoxical pulse
E. rise of pulmonary capillary pressure
750. In the origin of hyperdynamic type of circulation of blood at patients with a sepsis, acute
bleeding the following reactions take part:
A. acute tamponade of heart
B. shunting of circulation
C. *violations of microcirculation, disorders of tissue exchange and accumulations of
vasoactive metabolities
D. faithful all answers
E. there is no right answer
751. Intravenous injection of morphine at the carcinogenic edema of lungs can be attained the
following positive effects:
A. increase of irritating of myocardium
B. decline of retroactive power of myocardium
C. spasm of coronal vessels
D. *faithful all answers
E. right all answers
752. Lengthening of interval P-Q more than 0,2 sec is observed at:
A. Fibrillation of auricles
B. Sine bradycardia
C. Alternuous pulse
D. *AV block 1
E. Bigemenia
753.
Medical treatment of anaphylactic shock includes first time the use of
A. *adrenalin
B. antihistaminic preparations
C. neuroplegic
D. All answers are wrong
E. faithful all answers
754. Properties of blood reology are fixed:
A. By viscidity of blood
B. By physical and chemical stability of suspenzion of uniform elements
C. By the state of vessels wall
D. *All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
755. Signs of local myocarditis recovering are represented best of all by the changes of wave
A. P
B. Q
C. T
D. *R
E. S
756. Stretched neck veins in standing position are observed at
A. tamponade of heart
B. tense pneumothorax
C. to pulmonary embolism
D. *faithful all answers
E. all answers are wrong
757. The acute carcinogenic edema of lungs is conditioned most of all:
A. by the rise of hydrostatical pressure in pulmonary capillaries
B. by the promoted pulmonary capillary permeability
C. *by insufficiency of the left ventricle
D. faithful all answers
E. All answers are wrong
758. The basic sign of heart death is:
A. agonal complexes
B. mechanical asistolia with saving of electric systole
C. electric asistolia during 30 min, not looking on cordial - pulmonary reanimation and
proper medical therapy
D. *isoelectric line on ECG during 15 min
E. all answers are faithful
759. The dosage of bicarbonate of sodium in case of stopping of heart makes:
A. the first injection 1 mmol/Kg
B. the first injection 2 mmol/Kg
C. the repeated injections 0.5 meq/cg every 10 mines
D. *approximately 100 ml for each min of clinical death
E. faithful all answers
760. The forcing function of heart is supported in case:
A. At wrong situation of electrodes
B. At inadequate ventilation of lungs
C. acidosis
D. When the previous massage of heart was uneffective
E. *All answers are right
761. The injection of the following medicines may prevent the attack of paroxysmal tahycardia,
except of :
A. *Isoproterenol
B. Mezatonum
C. Digitalis and hinidinum
D. Metocsaminum
E. Morphynum
762. The most expressed positive inotropic effect at cardiogenic shock is observed at injection of:
A. noradrenalinum
B. *dopaminum
C. digocsinum
D. isadrinum
E. ephedrinum
763. The most frequent reason of embolism is:
A. Trauma
B. Cardial insufficiency
C. Aneurism
D. Atherosclerosis
E. *Fibrillation of atrium
764. The most important ECG-sign of subendocardial myocardial ischemia is:
A. *rise of segment S-T higher to the isoline line more than on 2 mm
B. decline of segment S-T below to the isoline line more than on 2 mm
C. inversion of T
D. there are all wrong answers
E. all answers are faithful
765. The permission to use lidocainum in the process of cardiac-pulmonary reanimation are:
A. *fibrillation of ventricles
B. electro mechanics dissociation
C. fibrillation of atriums
D. right all answers
E. wrong all answers
766. The satisfactory oxygen capacity of blood is provided by hematocrit, not below
A. 20-25%
B. *30%
C. 35%
D. 40%
E. 45%
767. To arrhythmias, which are accompanied by acute cardiac insufficiency, belong:
A. fibrillation of ventricles
B. complete atrioventricullar block
C. high-frequency trembling of atriums
D. faithful all answers
E. *right all answers
768. To medicines which have most vasodilatational and lowering postload, belong:
A. nitrates
B. *ganglioblocers
C. nitroprousid
D. morfin
E. faithful all answers
769. What medicine is used for medical treatment of atrio-ventricular block III?
A. Lidocain
B. Inderal
C. Novocainamid
D. *Isuprel
E. There is no right answer
770. What must be applied from following during haemotransfusion for saving of blood
properties, that take part in coagulation?
A. Warmed-up blood
B. Calcium
771.
772.
773.
774.
775.
776.
777.
778.
779.
C. Oxygen
D. Blood of two-week remoteness
E. *Fresh blood
What type of hypoxia changes greatly oxygen saturation of arterial blood ?
A. Circulatory
B. Anemic
C. *Hypoxic
D. Tissue
E. There is no right answer
At medical treatment of paroxysmal tachycardia it is not prescribed to apply
A. antagonists of beta-adrenoreceptors
B. electric cardioversia
C. pressure on a carotid sine
D. lidocain
E. *atropin
Characteristic signs for different types of shocks are:
A. Oppression of consciousness
B. *Lowering of arterial pressure
C. Lowering of shock index Algovera
D. Lowering TSVD
E. Oppression of breathing
Choose the most optimum therapy of anaphylactic shock
A. *Adrenalin, polyglucin, prednisolone IV
B. Dimedrol, prednisolon, cordiaminum, - IV
C. Atropin, pipolphenum, prednisolon, - IV
D. Polyhlukin, calcium chloride, hydrocortyson, - IV
E. Antihistaminic orally
Deep wave Q may be the sign of
A. MI
B. Ischemia of myocardium
C. Hypokaliemia
D. Hyperpotassiumemia
E. *All answers are wrong
Deep wave Q may be the sign of
A. Necrosis of myocardium
B. Ischemia of myocardium
C. Hypokaliemia
D. Hyperpotassiumemia
E. *All answers are wrong
Electrocardiostymulation is not prescribed at:
A. to the complete atrioventricular block
B. syndrome of weakness of sine knot with the attacks Morgani-Adams-Stocs
C. ciliary arrhythmia with rare contraction of ventricles
D. *bradiarhythmia, by the caused intoxication by cardiac glucoside
E. all answers are faithful
For cardiogenic shock is not characteristic:
A. *Decreasing of central venous pressure
B. Stagnation in the small circle of blood
C. Low BP
D. Diminishing of arteriotony
E. Decline of diuresis
For treatment of pulmonary edema of cardiac origin the doctor should prescribe
A. *Narcotic analgetic
B. Solution of euphyllinum
780.
781.
of:
C. Diuretic - MANNITOL
D. Diuretic - veroshpiron
E. Calcium chloride
Heparin behaves to the group;
A. *Enkefalins
B. Endorfins
C. Eucasinoids
D. A superoxyde anion
E. There is no right answer
High vein pressure, hypotension and acute circulation insufficiency are observed in the case
A. tense pneumathorax
B. embolisms of pulmonary artery
C. to vein air embolism
D. wrong all answers
E. *right all answers
782. Hypovolaemic shock is determined in:
A. *Reduction of body weight
B. By the decline of hemokoncentrative indexes
C. By paresis of peripheral vessels
D. By hypoglycemia
E. By growth of central venous pressure
783. Medical treatment of patient with acute left side ventricular insufficiency includes
A. ALV at the permanent promoted pressure
B. infusion of nitroglycerinum
C. ingibitor of phosphodiesterase, furosemide
D. all answers are faithful
E. *All answers are wrong
784. Medicine of choice at paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is:
A. digoxin
B. lidocain
C. *isoptin
D. novocainamid
E. polarized mixture
785. Removing a pain syndrome at the urgent call concerning the acute heart attack of
myocardium is possible simpler than all:
A. *by injection of narcotic and unnarcotic analgetic
B. epidural analgesia
C. by inhalation of nitrous oxide, xenon with O2(1:1)
D. there is no right answer
E. all answers are faithful
786. The depression of ST segment means
A. Hypoxia of myocardium
B. Hypokaliemia
C. Hyperpotassiumemia
D. *Necrosis of myocardium
E. All answers are wrong
787. The depression of T wave may mean
A. Hypoxia of myocardium
B. Fibrillation of atriums
C. *Hyperpotassiumemia
D. Necrosis of myocardium
E. All answers are wrong
788. The depression of T wave means
789.
790.
791.
792.
793.
794.
795.
796.
797.
A. Hypoxia of myocardium
B. Hypokaliemia
C. *Hyperpotassiumemia
D. Necrosis of myocardium
E. All answers are wrong
The elevation of ST segment means
A. *Hypoxia of myocardium
B. Hypokaliemia
C. Hyperpotassiumemia
D. Necrosis of myocardium
E. All answers are wrong
The insufficiency of left ventricle can be caused :
A. *by insufficient flow of blood to the heart
B. by the overload volume of blood
C. by the decline of refractive power of myocardium
D. wrong all answers
E. faithful all answers
The main EGC sign of transmural MI is
A. Elevation of T wave
B. Depression of ST segment
C. *Pathological QS wave
D. Pathological S wave
E. All answers are wrong
The most important sign of acute heart attack of myocardium during anesthesia are:
A. Hypotensia
B. *changes of ECG, arrhythmia
C. increase of pulse pressure
D. All answers are wrong
E. All answers are right
The stop of heart during asynchronous defibrillation is linked
A. with direct damaging of myocardium
B. with the hit of impulse on the P wave of ECG
C. with the hit of impulse on ascending part of T wave
D. *with the hit of impulse on descending part of T wave
E. all answers are faithful
What assertion is incorrect for traumatic shock?
A. *Sharp decreases of shock index
B. A syndrome of low cardiac ejection
C. Centralization of circulation of blood develops
D. CVP goes down
E. Disturbances of coagulation
?What remedy does dilate veins?
A. *Nitroglicerin
B. Analgin
C. Strophantine
D. Dopamine
E. Anaprilin
What remedy does not dilate veins?
A. Nitrosorbid
B. Analgin
C. Strophantine
D. *Dopamine
E. Anaprilin
Which of medicines are most contra-indicated at ventricular tahycardia
A. Lidocain
B. Propranolol
C. Novocainamid
D. *Isuprel
E. Metaraminol
798. Which of the following changes on ECG is typical for hypercaliemia?
A. fibrillation of ventricules
B. fibrillation of auricles
C. *High and narrow wave T
D. Decline of indent T and appearance of indent V
E. Decline of segment S-T
799. You can use for treatment of ischemic heart disease
A. *Nitrates
B. Stabisol
C. Manitol
D. Arduan
E. All answers are wrong
800. You will use for treatment of ischemic heart disease
A. Sustac
B. Stabisol
C. Manitol
D. Arduan
E. *All answers are wrong
801. You will use for treatment of ischemic heart disease
A. *Nitrong
B. Stabisol
C. Manitol
D. Arduan
E. All answers are wrong
802. What is the endemic goiter characterized by?
A. *Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in environment
B. Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions
C. Goiter lesion of both lobes
D. Goiter of atypical localization
E. Goiter with changed function
803. What is the sporadic goiter characterized by?
A. *Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions
B. Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in environment
C. Goiter lesion of both lobes
D. Goiter of atypical localization
E. Goiter with changed function
804. Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in environment is
called:
A. *Endemic goiter
B. Sporadic goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Myxedema
E. Atypical goiter
805. Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions is called:
A. *Sporadic goiter
B. Endemic goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Myxedema
E. Atypical goiter
806.
What is the 0 degree of goiter?
A. *The thyroid gland is not palpated;
B. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
C. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck;
807. What is the I degree of goiter?
A. *The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
B. The thyroid gland is not palpated;
C. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck;
808. What is the II degree of goiter?
A. *Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
B. The thyroid gland is not palpated;
C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck;
809. What is the III degree of goiter?
A. *The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
B. The thyroid gland is not palpated;
C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck;
810. What is the IV degree of goiter?
A. *The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck;
B. The enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major sizes)
C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
E. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
811. What is the IV degree of goiter?
A. *The enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major sizes)
B. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck;
C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
E. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
812. What is the degree of goiter when the thyroid gland is not palpated?
A. *0
B. II
C. I
D. III
E. IV
813. What is the degree of goiter when the isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing
and could be palpated?
A. *I
B. V
C. II
D. III
E. IV
814. What is the degree of goiter when entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be
palpated?
A. *I
B. II
C. V
D. III
E. IV
815. What is the degree of goiter when the enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of
neck ("a thick neck")?
A. *III
B. I
C. V
D. II
E. IV
816. What is the degree of goiter when the gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms
neck?
A. *IV
B. III
C. I
D. V
E. II
817. What is the degree of goiter when the enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major
sizes)?
A. *V
B. IV
C. III
D. I
E. II
818. What is the predominant factor which causes the goiter?
A. *Lack of iodine
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Suprarenal insufficiency
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Lack of vitamin C
819. What is the contributing factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. *Excessive calcium, deficiency of bromine in environment
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Suprarenal insufficiency
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Lack of vitamin C
820. What is the contributing factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. *Lack of cobalt, and zinc
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Suprarenal insufficiency
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Lack of vitamin C
821. Goiter which localized on the back of the tongue is called:
A. *Ectopic goiter
B. Aberrant goiter
C. Typical
D. Presternal
E. Retrosternal
822. Intrathoracic localization of goiter is called:
A. *Ectopic goiter
B. Aberrant goiter
C. Typical
D. Presternal
E. Retrosternal
823. The goiter of additional gland is called:
824.
825.
826.
827.
828.
829.
830.
831.
832.
A. *Aberrant goiter
B. Ectopic goiter
C. Typical
D. Presternal
E. Retrosternal
Ectopic goiter is:
A. *Dislocation of the goiter
B. The goiter of additional gland
C. The goiter with increased function
D. The goiter with decreased function
E. The goiter with normal function
Aberrant goiter is:
A. *The goiter of additional gland
B. Dislocation of the goiter
C. The goiter with increased function
D. The goiter with decreased function
E. The goiter with normal function
What complication is characteristic for the goiter?
A. *Strumitis
B. Laringospasm
C. Pneumothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Atypical goiter
What complication is characteristic for the goiter?
A. *Hemorrhage into the gland
B. Laringospasm
C. Pneumothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Atypical goiter
What complication is characteristic for the goiter?
A. *Malignancy
B. Laringospasm
C. Pneumothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Atypical goiter
What complication is characteristic for the goiter?
A. *Asphyxia
B. Laringospasm
C. Pneumothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Atypical goiter
In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Neck deformity
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Difficult breathing
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
833.
834.
835.
836.
837.
838.
839.
840.
841.
A. *Difficult swallowing
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Sudden attacks of cough
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
For the clinical manifestation of retrosternal is typical:
A. *Dyspnea
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
For the clinical manifestation of retrosternal is typical:
A. *Hoarseness
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
For the clinical manifestation of retrosternal is typical:
A. *Distended veins of neck
B. Sleepiness,
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
The neck deformity is a clinical manifestation plaint of the patient with:
A. *Euthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Esophageal achalasia
E. Empyema
The difficult breathing is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Euthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Esophageal achalasia
E. Gastric ulcer
The difficult swallowing is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Euthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Empyema
In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Sleepiness
B. Difficult breathing
C. Neck deformity
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
842.
843.
844.
845.
846.
847.
848.
849.
850.
A. *General weakness
B. Difficult breathing
C. Neck deformity
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Malaise
B. Difficult breathing
C. Neck deformity
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Hypomnesia
B. Difficult breathing
C. Neck deformity
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Dry skin
B. Difficult breathing
C. Neck deformity
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Constipations
B. Difficult breathing
C. Neck deformity
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Leg edemas
B. Difficult breathing
C. Neck deformity
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
The sleepiness is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The general weakness is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The malaise is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The hypomnesia is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
851.
852.
853.
854.
855.
856.
857.
858.
859.
A. *Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The dry skin is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The edemas is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The constipation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Excessive sweating
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Irritability
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Heartbeat
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Tremor of arms
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Sleeplessness
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
860.
861.
862.
863.
864.
865.
866.
867.
868.
A. *Feeling of fever
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Loss of weight
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
The irritability is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The heartbeat is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The excessive sweating is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The tremor of arms is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The feeling of fever is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The loss of weight is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
What is the main treatment of noncomplicated goiter?
A. *Conservative treatment
B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Thyroidectomy
E. Hemithyroidectomy
What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter?
869.
870.
871.
872.
873.
874.
875.
876.
877.
A. *Inorganic iodine
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter?
A. *Thyroidine
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter?
A. *Thyroxine
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter?
A. *Triiodothyronine
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. *Nodular goiter
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. *Mixed forms of goiter
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. *The sings of neck compression by goiter
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. *The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. *The goiter with suspicion on malignancy
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
878.
879.
880.
881.
882.
883.
884.
885.
886.
A. *The goiter of additional thyroid glands
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. *The aberrant goiter
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. *The intrathoracic goiter
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. *The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. *The complicated goiter
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
What is the indication for the conservative treatment of the goiter?
A. *The goiter of I degree
B. The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland
C. The aberrant goiter
D. The goiter of IV degree
E. The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism
What is the indication for the conservative treatment of the goiter?
A. *The goiter of II degree
B. The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland
C. The aberrant goiter
D. The goiter of IV degree
E. The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism
What operation is performed in endemic goiter?
A. *Subfascial resection of thyroid gland
B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Thyroidectomy
E. Hemithyroidectomy
Diffuse goiter with hyperthyroidism is called:
A. *Grave's disease
B. Hashimoto disease
C. De Kerven disease
D. Riedel's disease
E. Raynaud's disease
Diffuse goiter with hyperthyroidism is called:
A. *Basedow's disease
B. Hashimoto disease
C. De Kerven disease
D. Riedel's disease
E. Raynaud's disease
887. Basedow's disease is:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Wooden thyroiditis
C. Purulent thyroiditis
D. Autoimmune thyroiditis
E. Mixedema
888. Grave's disease is:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Wooden thyroiditis
C. Purulent thyroiditis
D. Autoimmune thyroiditis
E. Mixedema
889. What is the cause of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Autoimmune disturbances
B. Atherosclerotic changes
C. Calcium metabolism disturbances
D. Renal insufficiency
E. Pulmonary emphysema
890. What belongs to the I stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
B. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
C. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
E. Asymptomatic course
891. What belongs to the II stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
B. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
C. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
E. Asymptomatic course
892. What belongs to the III stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
B. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
C. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
E. Asymptomatic course
893. What belongs to the IV stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
B. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
C. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
D. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
E. Asymptomatic course
894. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the onset of the disease, slight enlargement of
thyroid gland?
A. *I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. 0
895. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the marked sings of thyrotoxicosis and
noticeably enlarged thyroid?
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. 0
896. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the thyrotoxic lesion of viscera?
A. *III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. 0
897. What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the nonreversible dystrophy of organs and
systems?
A. *IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. 0
898. What is the I stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Neurotic
B. Neurohormonal
C. Visceropathic
D. Cachectic
E. Asymptomatic
899. What is the II stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Neurohormonal
B. Neurotic
C. Visceropathic
D. Cachectic
E. Asymptomatic
900. What is the III stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Visceropathic
B. Neurohormonal
C. Neurotic
D. Cachectic
E. Asymptomatic
901. What is the IV stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Cachectic
B. Visceropathic
C. Neurohormonal
D. Neurotic
E. Asymptomatic
902. In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Excessive sweating
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
903. In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Irritability
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
904.
905.
906.
907.
908.
909.
910.
911.
912.
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Heartbeat
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Tremor of arms
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Sleeplessness
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Feeling of fever
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Loss of weight
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Palpitation
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Exophthalmos
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. *Tremor
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
The palpitation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
913.
914.
915.
916.
917.
918.
919.
920.
921.
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The palpitation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The exophthalmos is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The tremor is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The heartbeat is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The excessive sweating is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The tremor of arms is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The feeling of fever is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The loss of weight is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
For the laboratory disturbances of Basedow's disease is typical:
A. *Increased level of triiodothyronine
B. Decreased level of triiodothyronine
C. Increased level of hlucocorticoids
922.
923.
924.
925.
926.
927.
928.
929.
930.
D. Decreased level of hlucocorticoids
E. Decreased level of insuline
For the laboratory disturbances of Basedow's disease is typical:
A. *Increased level of thyroxine
B. Decreased level of triiodothyronine
C. Increased level of hlucocorticoids
D. Decreased level of hlucocorticoids
E. Decreased level of insuline
For the laboratory disturbances of thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. *Increased level of protein metabolism
B. Decreased level of carbohydrate metabolism
C. Decreased level of lipid metabolism
D. Decreased level of protein metabolism
E. Decreased level of all kinds of metabolism
For the laboratory disturbances of thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. *Increased level of carbohydrate metabolism
B. Decreased level of carbohydrate metabolism
C. Decreased level of lipid metabolism
D. Decreased level of protein metabolism
E. Decreased level of all kinds of metabolism
For the laboratory disturbances of thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. *Increased level of lipid metabolism
B. Decreased level of carbohydrate metabolism
C. Decreased level of lipid metabolism
D. Decreased level of protein metabolism
E. Decreased level of all kinds of metabolism
The increased level of protein metabolism is typical for:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The increased level of lipid metabolism is typical for:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The increased level of carbohydrate metabolism is typical for:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The Graefe's sign is typical for:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
The Stellwag's sign is typical for:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
931. The Mebius' sign is typical for:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
932. The Dalrymple's sign is typical for:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
933. The Kocher's sign is typical for:
A. *Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
934. The Graefe's sign is:
A. *The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
B. Infrequent winking
C. A weakness of convergence
D. Wide palpebral fissure
E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
935. The Mebius' sign is:
A. *A weakness of convergence
B. Infrequent winking
C. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
D. Wide palpebral fissure
E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
936. The Stellwag's sign is:
A. *Infrequent winking
B. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
C. A weakness of convergence
D. Wide palpebral fissure
E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
937. The Dalrymple's sign is:
A. *Wide palpebral fissure
B. Infrequent winking
C. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
D. A weakness of convergence
E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
938. The Kocher's sign is:
A. *Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
B. Wide palpebral fissure
C. Infrequent winking
D. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
E. A weakness of convergence
939. How is the sign, which is characterized by the upper lid lag when the patient looks
downward named by author?
A. *Graefe's sign
B. Mebius' sign
C. Stellwag's sign
D. Dalrymple's sign
E. Kocher's sign
940. How is the sign, which is characterized by infrequent winking named by author?
A. *Stellwag's sign
B. Graefe's sign
C. Mebius' sign
D. Dalrymple's sign
E. Kocher's sign
941. How is the sign, which is characterized by a weakness of convergence named by author?
A. *Mebius' sign
B. Stellwag's sign
C. Graefe's sign
D. Dalrymple's sign
E. Kocher's sign
942. How is the sign, which is characterized by a wide palpebral fissure named by author?
A. *Dalrymple's sign
B. Mebius' sign
C. Stellwag's sign
D. Graefe's sign
E. Kocher's sign
943. How is the sign, which is characterized by retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of
view named by author?
A. *Kocher's sign
B. Dalrymple's sign
C. Mebius' sign
D. Stellwag's sign
E. Graefe's sign
944. For the thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. *Graefe's sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign
945. For the thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. *Mebius' sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign
946. For thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. *Stellwag's sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign
947. For the thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. *Dalrymple's sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign
948. For the thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. *Kocher's sign
949.
950.
951.
952.
953.
954.
955.
956.
957.
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a mild?
A. *Pulse rate less than 100 beat/min
B. Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min
C. Pulse rate 120-140 beat/min
D. Pulse rate 140-160 beat/min
E. Pulse rate more than 160 beat/min
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a moderate?
A. *Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min
B. Pulse rate less than 100 beat/min
C. Pulse rate 120-140 beat/min
D. Pulse rate 140-160 beat/min
E. Pulse rate more than 160 beat/min
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as severe?
A. *Pulse rate more than 120 beat/min
B. Pulse rate less than 40 beat/min
C. Pulse rate 40-80 beat/min
D. Pulse rate 80-100 beat/min
E. Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a mild?
A. *Loss weight less than 3-5 kg
B. Loss weight 5-8 kg
C. Loss weight 8-10 kg
D. Loss weight 10-15 kg
E. Loss weight exceeds 15 kg
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a moderate?
A. *Loss weight 5-10 kg
B. Exceed of weight more than 1-2 kg
C. Exceed of weight more than 3-5 kg
D. Loss weight 10-15 kg
E. Loss weight exceeds 15 kg
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as severe?
A. *Loss weight exceeds 10 kg
B. Loss weight less than 1-2 kg
C. Loss weight 2-3 kg
D. Exceed of weight more than 1-2 kg
E. Exceed of weight more than 3-5 kg
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a mild?
A. *Increase of basal metabolism to 30 %
B. Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %
C. Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 %
D. Decrease of basal metabolism to 30 %
E. Decrease of basal metabolism more than 50 %
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a moderate?
A. *Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %
B. Increase of basal metabolism to 30 %
C. Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 %
D. Decrease of basal metabolism to 30 %
E. Decrease of basal metabolism more than 50 %
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as severe?
A. *Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 %
958.
959.
960.
%?
961.
962.
963.
964.
965.
966.
B. Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %
C. Increase of basal metabolism to 30 %
D. Decrease of basal metabolism to 30 %
E. Decrease of basal metabolism more than 50 %
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %?
A. *Moderate
B. Mild
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism to 30 %?
A. *Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism more than 50
A. *Severe
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight less than 3-5 kg?
A. *Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight 5-10 kg?
A. *Moderate
B. Mild
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight more than 10 kg?
A. *Severe
B. Moderate
C. Mild
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Thyroid hormone concentration
B. General blood analysis
C. X-ray examination with barium
D. Coagulogram
E. X-ray examination of the neck
What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Serum iodine-binding globulin concentration
B. General blood analysis
C. X-ray examination with barium
D. Coagulogram
E. X-ray examination of the neck
What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis?
967.
968.
969.
970.
971.
972.
973.
974.
975.
A. *Serum thyroidstimulating hormone of hypophysis
B. General blood analysis
C. X-ray examination with barium
D. Coagulogram
E. X-ray examination of the neck
What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Serum thyroidstimulating antibodies
B. General blood analysis
C. X-ray examination with barium
D. Coagulogram
E. X-ray examination of the neck
What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis?
A. *Detecting of basal metabolism
B. General blood analysis
C. X-ray examination with barium
D. Coagulogram
E. X-ray examination of the neck
What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with?
A. *Rheumatic disease
B. Obesity
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Achalasia
What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with?
A. *Chroniosepsis
B. Obesity
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Achalasia
What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with?
A. *Diencephalic lesions
B. Obesity
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Achalasia
What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with?
A. *Thyroid cancer
B. Obesity
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Achalasia
What diseases should be the thyrotoxicosis differentiated with?
A. *Encephalitis
B. Obesity
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Achalasia
What medicines belong to thyrostatic agents?
A. *Mercasolil
B. Euphyllin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotine acid
E. Detrlex
What medicines belong to thyrostatic agents?
976.
977.
978.
979.
980.
981.
982.
983.
984.
A. *Lithium carbonate
B. Euphyllin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotine acid
E. Detrlex
What group of medicines does Mercasolil belong to?
A. *Thyrostatic agents
B. Antibiotics
C. Anticoagulants
D. Antiaggregants
E. Vitamines
What group of medicines does Lithium carbonate belong to?
A. *Thyrostatic agents
B. Antibiotics
C. Anticoagulants
D. Antiaggregants
E. Vitamines
The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for:
A. *Thyrotoxocosis
B. Obesity
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Achalasia
The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for:
A. *Severe forms of thyrotoxicosis
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Goiter with hypothyroidism
The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for:
A. *Goiter of IV-V degree
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Goiter with hypothyroidism
The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for:
A. *Nodular transformation of toxic goiter
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Goiter with hypothyroidism
Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is:
A. *Thyroid storm
B. Cretinism
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is:
A. *The damage of laryngeal nerve
B. Cretinism
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is:
A. *Asphyxia
B. Cretinism
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
985. Among the complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is:
A. *Air embolism
B. Cretinism
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
986. Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is:
A. *Parathyroid tetany
B. Cretinism
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
987. Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is:
A. *Bleeding
B. Cretinism
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
988. The development of excitement, up to psychosis and coma in early postoperative period
after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of:
A. *Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Air embolism
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
989. The development of tachycardia (pulse rate – 150-200 per minute) in early postoperative
period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of:
A. *Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Parathyroid tetany
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
990. The development of complete arrhythmia in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery
is the manifestation of:
A. *Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
991. The development of fever to 40°С in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
A. *Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
992. The development of hyperemia of the face, neck, limbs in early postoperative period after
thyroid surgery is the manifestation of:
A. *Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
993. The development of extremely sweating, diarrhea in early postoperative period after thyroid
surgery is the manifestation of:
A. *Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Parathyroid tetany
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
994. The development of hoarseness in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
A. *The damage of laryngeal nerve
B. Thyroid storm
C. Parathyroid tetany
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
995. The development of aphonia in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
A. *The damage of laryngeal nerve
B. Thyroid storm
C. Parathyroid tetany
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
996. The development of cramps in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
A. *Parathyroid tetany
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Thyroid storm
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
997. For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical:
A. *Excitement, up to psychosis and coma
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
998. For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical:
A. *Tachycardia (pulse rate – 150-200 per minute)
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
999. For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical:
A. *Complete arrhythmia
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
1000. For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical:
A. *Fever to 40°С
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
1001.
1002.
1003.
1004.
1005.
1006.
1007.
1008.
1009.
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical:
A. *Hyperemia of the face, neck, limbs
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical:
A. *Extremely sweating
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical:
A. *Diarrhea
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
For the clinical manifestation of the damage of laryngeal nerve is typical:
A. *Hoarseness
B. Diarrhea
C. Cramps
D. Fever to 40°С
E. Anemia
For the clinical manifestation of the damage of laryngeal nerve is typical:
A. *Aphonia
B. Diarrhea
C. Cramps
D. Fever to 40°С
E. Anemia
For the clinical manifestation of the parathyroid tetany is typical:
A. *Cramps
B. Aphonia
C. Diarrhea
D. Fever to 40°С
E. Anemia
The purulent thyroiditis is a:
A. *De Kerven thyroiditis
B. Hashimoto's goiter
C. Riedel's goiter
D. Grave's disease
E. Basedow's disease
The autoimmune thyroiditis is a:
A. *Hashimoto's goiter
B. De Kerven thyroiditis
C. Riedel's goiter
D. Grave's disease
E. Basedow's disease
The fibrous thyroiditis is a:
A. *Riedel's goiter
B. Hashimoto's goiter
C. De Kerven thyroiditis
1010.
1011.
1012.
1013.
1014.
1015.
1016.
1017.
1018.
D. Grave's disease
E. Basedow's disease
The "woody" goiter is a:
A. *Riedel's goiter
B. Hashimoto's goiter
C. De Kerven thyroiditis
D. Grave's disease
E. Basedow's disease
The Riedel's goiter is a:
A. *"Woody" goiter
B. Autoimmune thyroiditis
C. Purulent thyroiditis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Nodular goiter
The Riedel's goiter is a:
A. *Fibrous thyroiditis
B. Autoimmune thyroiditis
C. Purulent thyroiditis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Nodular goiter
The Hashimoto's goiter is a:
A. *Autoimmune thyroiditis
B. Fibrous thyroiditis
C. Purulent thyroiditis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Nodular goiter
The De Kerven thyroiditis is a:
A. *Purulent thyroiditis
B. Autoimmune thyroiditis
C. Fibrous thyroiditis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Nodular goiter
The treatment of de Kerven thyroiditis is a:
A. *Drainage of suppurative focus
B. Glycocorticoids
C. Radioactive iodine
D. Resection of thyroid gland
E. Mercasolil
The treatment of Hashimoto's goiter is a:
A. *Glycocorticoids
B. Drainage of suppurative focus
C. Radioactive iodine
D. Resection of thyroid gland
E. Mercasolil
The treatment of Hashimoto's goiter is a:
A. *Thyroidectomy
B. Drainage of suppurative focus
C. Radioactive iodine
D. Resection of thyroid gland
E. Mercasolil
The treatment of Riedel's goiter is a:
A. *Thyroidectomy
B. Drainage of suppurative focus
C. Radioactive iodine
D. Resection of thyroid gland
E. Mercasolil
1019. What vessels are usually affected by atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Aorta and arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Microcirculatory bed
D. Superficial veins
E. Deep veins
1020. What is the morphological basis of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *The accumulation of lipids in the intima
B. Thrombosis
C. Inflammatory process
D. Embolism
E. Aneurysm
1021. What is the main cause of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Hypercholesterolemia, dyslipoproteinemia
B. Infection
C. Trauma
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
1022. What does applies to the first stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification
by Fontane?
A. *Full compensation
B. Asymptomatic ran
C. Functional circulatory insufficiency
D. Limb ischemia at rest
E. Destruction of tissue
1023. What does belongs to the second stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the
classification by Fontane?
A. *Functional circulatory insufficiency
B. Asymptomatic ran
C. Full compensation
D. Limb ischemia at rest
E. Destruction of tissue
1024. What does belongs to the third stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the classification
by Fontane?
A. *Limb ischemia at rest
B. Asymptomatic ran
C. Full compensation
D. Functional circulatory insufficiency
E. Destruction of tissue
1025. What does belongs to the fourth stage of atherosclerotic lesions according to the
classification by Fontane?
A. *Destruction of tissue
B. Asymptomatic ran
C. Full compensation
D. Functional circulatory insufficiency
E. Limb ischemia at rest
1026. What is the most typical feature of the first stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Cooling of the lower extremities
B. Fever
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
1027. What is the most typical sign of the second stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
1028. What is the most typical feature of the third stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Pain at rest
B. Fever
C. Cooling of the lower extremities
D. Intermittent claudication
E. Gangrene
1029. What is the most typical feature of the fourth stage of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Gangrene
B. Pain at rest
C. Fever
D. Cooling of the lower extremities
E. Intermittent claudication
1030. What is characterized by intermittent claudication?
A. *Pain in the muscles of his legs when walking, which disappears after rest
B. Ischialgia, lumbago
C. Constant pain in the joints
D. Pain along the superficial veins
E. Edema of lower extremities
1031. Intermittent claudication is characterized by:
A. *Pain in the lower extremities
B. Heartache
C. Arthralgia
D. Dizziness
E. Edema of lower extremities
1032. Intermittent claudication is characterized for:
A. *Atherosclerosis of the lower extremities
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Varicose
E. Cholecystitis
1033. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic intermittent claudication up to 1000
meters?
A. *II
B. ІІА
C. ІІB
D. III
E. IV
1034. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic intermittent claudication before 500
meters?
A. *ІІА
B. I
C. III
D. ІІB
E. IV
1035. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions characteristic of intermittent claudication before 200
meters?
A. *ІІB
B. I
C. ІІА
D. IV
E. III
1036. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic of intermittent claudication 25-50
meters?
A. *III
B. I
C. ІІА
D. IV
E. ІІB
1037. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic the pain at rest?
A. *III
B. I
C. ІІА
D. IV
E. ІІB
1038. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions characteristic dry trophic ulcer?
A. *III
B. I
C. ІІА
D. IV
E. ІІB
1039. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic the necrosis and gangrene?
A. *IV
B. III
C. I
D. ІІА
E. II B
1040. What is the main cause of limb swelling in patients with atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Permanent seating position to relieve pain
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Infection, abscess
D. Arterial thrombosis
E. Heart failure
1041. Where is the most frequent location of venous ulcers with obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. *At the tip of the toes
B. In the lower third of the lower extremities
C. In the upper third of the lower extremities
D. On the back of the knee
E. At the hip
1042. Leriche syndrome is:
A. *Occlusion the bifurcation of abdominal aorta
B. Stenosis the brachiocephalic trunk
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Stenosis of the abdominal trunk
E. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
1043. Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. *Atherosclerotic lesions
B. Obliterative endarteritis
C. Varicose
D. Phlebemphraxis
E. Lymphedema
1044. Leriche is characterized by:
A. *Atherosclerotic lesions
1045.
1046.
1047.
1048.
1049.
1050.
1051.
1052.
1053.
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Ileus
E. Appendicular infiltrate
For Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Angina
C. Dizziness
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
For Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. *The absence of pulsations in the lower extremities
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Ascites
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
For Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. *Hypercholesterolemia
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Increased blood amylase
D. Leukocytosis
E. Anemia
For Leriche syndrome is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. *Occlusion of the terminal aorta
B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava
C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Dysplasia arteries
E. Dysplasia veins
For Leriche syndrome is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. *Occlusion of the terminal aorta
B. Cloiber’s bowls
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. The symptom of "niche"
E. Detelectasis
At Leriche syndrome patient has complains on:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Pain in the heart
C. Oedema of lower extremities
D. Extension of saphenous veins
E. Dizziness
At Leriche syndrome patient has complains on:
A. *Melosalgia
B. Pain in the heart
C. Pain during urination
D. Tenesmus
E. Pain in the epigastric area
At what level is absent arterial pulsation at the Leriche syndrome?
A. *Femoral artery
B. Posterior tibial artery
C. Dorsal artery of foot
D. Popliteal artery
E. Common carotid artery
What complication is caused by atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Acute arterial thrombosis
B. Arteriorrhexis
C. Acute venous thrombosis
D. Phlegmon
E. Superficial thrombophlebitis
1054. What complication is caused by atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Aneurysm
B. Arteriorrhexis
C. Acute venous thrombosis
D. Phlegmon
E. Superficial thrombophlebitis
1055. Which clinical sign is typical for abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. *Systolic noise over a pulsating formation in the abdominal cavity
B. Abdominal pain
C. Leukopenia
D. Diarrhea
E. Tension of abdominal wall
1056. Which clinical sign is typical for the rupture abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. *Hemorrhagic shock
B. Leukopenia
C. Systolic noise over a pulsating formation in the abdominal cavity
D. Diarrhea
E. Tension of abdominal wall
1057. Which clinical sign is typical bundle abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. *They expressed the pain radiating to the loin
B. Pukes bile
C. Systolic noise over the formation of a pulsating abdominal
D. Diarrhea
E. Voltage anterior abdominal wall
1058. What is the treatment of uncomplicated aortic aneurysm?
A. *Aortic prosthesis
B. Saphenectomy
C. Conservative treatment
D. Ligation of the aorta
E. Profundoplastic
1059. What is the treatment gap abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. *Endovascular prostheses
B. Saphenectomy
C. Conservative treatment
D. Ligation of the aorta
E. Profundoplastic
1060. Which of the instrumental methods of investigation is the most informative at obliterating
atherosclerosis?
A. *Ultrasound
B. ECG
C. Spirography
D. Urography
E. Target biopsy
1061. In obliterating atherosclerosis determined by:
A. *Lenel-Lavestin’s symptom
B. Homan’s symptom
C. Ortner’s symptom
D. Rovzing’s symptom
E. Babinski symptom
1062. The pulsation of the femoral artery is determined by:
1063.
1064.
1065.
1066.
1067.
1068.
1069.
1070.
1071.
A. *By the middle of the inguinal ligament;
B. By the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
C. By the mid-popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
D. Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
The pulsation of the abdominal aorta is determined by:
A. *On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
B. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
C. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
D. Between lowback edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
The pulsation of the popliteal artery is defined:
A. *On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
B. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
C. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
D. Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
The pulsation of the posterior tibial artery is determined by:
A. *Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
B. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
C. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
D. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
Ripple dorsal artery of foot is determined by:
A. *Between I and II metatarsals.
B. Between lowback edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
C. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
D. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
E. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
What kind of ankle pressure is characterize the critical ischemia?
A. *Less than 50 mm Hg.
B. Less than 140 mm Hg.
C. Less than 70 mm Hg.
D. Less than 90 mm Hg.
E. Less than 110 mm Hg.
What kind of ankle pressure is characterized the II stage of the chronic ischemia?
A. *Less than 90 mm Hg.
B. Less than 50 mm Hg.
C. Less than 140 mm Hg.
D. Less than 70 mm Hg.
E. Less than 110 mm Hg.
What kind of ankle index corresponds to II stage of the chronic ischemia?
A. *Less than 0,9.
B. Less than 0,5.
C. 1,0.
D. More than 1,0.
E. More than 1,5.
What kind of ankle index corresponds to III stage of the chronic ischemia?
A. *Less than 0,5.
B. Less than 0,9.
C. 1,0.
D. More than 1,0.
E. More than 1,5.
Which of the X-ray methods is the most informative at obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. *Arteriography
B. Abdominal radiography
C. Chest radiography
D. Radiography limb
E. Phlebography
1072. For atherosclerotic lesions at arteriography is characterized by:
A. *Segmental occlusion of the arteries
B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava
C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Dysplasia arteries
E. Diffuse stenosis of small arteries
1073. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and endarteritis obliterans?
A. *The level of arterial pulsation
B. Pain syndrome
C. Trophic ulcers
D. Changes in coagulation
E. Skin color
1074. What method of research is the most informative in the differential diagnosis between
atherosclerosis and endarteritis obliterans?
A. *Angiography
B. ECG
C. Biochemical analysis of blood
D. Complete blood
E. Target biopsy
1075. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and lumbosacral radiculitis?
A. *Arterial pulsation in the lower extremities
B. Pain syndrome of the lower extremities
C. The color of the skin of the lower extremities
D. Cold extremities
E. Paresthesias of lower extremities
1076. At what level is no ripple at lumbosacral radiculitis?
A. *Stored at all levels of
B. Calf arteries
C. Popliteal artery
D. Femoral artery
E. Aorta
1077. Which method to study is the most informative in the differential diagnosis between
atherosclerosis and diabetic angiopathy?
A. *Biochemical analysis of blood
B. Complete blood
C. Koagulograme
D. Imunogramma
E. Urinalysis
1078. Which clinical sign is not typical for diabetic angiopathy?
A. *No pulsation of femoral artery
B. Necrosis of the fingers on the lower extremity
C. Trophic ulcers on the foot
D. Phlegmon of the foot
E. Paresthesias
1079. What are the indications for conservative therapy of obliterative atherosclerosis?
A. *I-II stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
B. Not shown at all
C. III-IV stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
D. Leriche syndrome
E. Arterial thrombosis
1080. Which drugs has affect on atherogenesis?
A. *Cholestyramine
B. Trental
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Aspirin
1081. Which drug does belongs to antiaggregants?
A. *Pentoksiphilin
B. Cholestyramine
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Papaverine
1082. What are the indications for surgical arterial reconstruction?
A. *II-III stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
B. No evidence
C. I-II stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
D. Gangrene of the lower extremity
E. Phlegmon of the lower extremity
1083. Which operation is performed with Leriche syndrome?
A. *Aorto-femoral bypass
B. Lumbar sympathectomy
C. Intimectomy
D. Resection of the arteries
E. Artery ligation
1084. Which operation is performed at Leriche syndrome?
A. *Right answer is absent
B. Bypass thick intestinal anastomosis
C. Gastrectomy
D. Cholecystectomy
E. Saphenectomy
1085. What are the indications for endarterectomy:
A. *Isolated segmental occlusion of the artery
B. Leriche syndrome
C. Multi-storey artery occlusion
D. Calcinosis artery
E. Occlusive disease
1086. What is the most common operation at atherosclerotic occlusion of the femoral artery?
A. *Autogenous vein bypass
B. Lumbar sympathectomy
C. Intimectomy
D. Resection of the arteries
E. Artery ligation
1087. What is the localization of arterial occlusion requires prophundoplastic?
A. *Bifurcation of the common femoral artery
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Bifurcation of common iliac artery
D. Trifurcation popliteal artery
E. Bifurcation carotid artery
1088. What is the complication of arterial reconstruction does not require repeated surgical
intervention?
A. *Deep vein thrombosis
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Arterial bleeding
1089.
1090.
1091.
1092.
1093.
1094.
1095.
1096.
1097.
D. Injection of synthetic graft
E. The increase in lower limb ischemia
What are indication to amputation at obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. *Gangrene of the lower extremity
B. Leriche
C. I-II stage of ischemia
D. II-III stage of ischemia
E. Arterial bleeding
Which artery are usually affects occlusive endarteritis?
A. *Calf arteries
B. Aorta
C. Iliac arteries
D. Femoral artery
E. Deep femoral artery
What factors play a very significant role in pathogenesis the obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Chronic intoxication
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Triglitseridemia
D. Vascular injury
E. Thrombophlebitis
What is the morphological basis of obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Intimal hyperplasia
B. Atheroma
C. Embolism
D. Aneurysm
E. Arteriovenous fistula
What is the fourth stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. *Ulcer-necrotic
B. Asymptomatic
C. Coronary
D. Trophic changes
E. Gangrenous
What is the main feature of obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Muscle contraction
C. Fever
D. Arthritic pain
E. Ishalgia
What is the cause of intermittent claudication?
A. *Muscle ischemia
B. Trauma
C. Ishalgia
D. Muscle contraction
E. Arthritic pain
The most typical localization of intermittent claudication at occlusive disease is?
A. *Foot
B. Stifle
C. Hip
D. Hip
E. Stomach
Cooling stop is characteristic:
A. *Surface thrombophlebitis
B. Deep thrombophlebitis
C. Obliterative endarteritis
1098.
1099.
1100.
1101.
1102.
1103.
1104.
1105.
1106.
D. Lymphostasis
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Blanching of the skin foot is characteristic:
A. *Obliterative endarteritis
B. Deep thrombophlebitis
C. Surface thrombophlebitis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon of the foot
What is the typical location the venous ulcers at occlusive disease?
A. *At fingertips
B. In the lower third of the lower extremities
C. In the upper third of the lower extremities
D. On the back of the knee
E. At the hip
What is the typical sign for the I stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. *Cooling of the lower extremities
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Fever
D. Pain at rest
E. Gangrene
What is the typical sign for II stage the obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Fever
C. Cooling of the lower extremities
D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
What is the typical sign for the III stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. *Pain at rest
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Intermittent claudication
E. Gangrene
What is the typical sign for the IV stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. *Gangrene
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Pain at rest
E. Intermittent claudication
What is the most frequent complication the obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Arterial thrombosis and gangrene of the extremities
B. Bleeding
C. Blindness
D. Chylorrhea
E. Aneurysm
What is the main goal of therapy at obliterating endarteritis?
A. *Renewal or improvement of capillary circulation
B. Resumption pass vein
C. Resumption of the entrance of lymph
D. Resumption pass arteries
E. Improving the innervation of the lower extremity
For obliterative endarteritis is characterized by:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Angina
C. Dizziness
1107.
1108.
1109.
1110.
1111.
1112.
1113.
1114.
1115.
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
For obliterative endarteritis is characterized by:
A. *The pulse absent on the feet
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Ascites
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
For obliterative endarteritis is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. *Diffuse stenosis of small arteries
B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava
C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Arteries dysplasia
E. Veins dysplasia
For obliterative endarteritis is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. *No right answer
B. Bowls Kloiber
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. The symptom of "niche"
E. Detelectasis
At occlusive disease patient complains on:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Pain in the heart
C. Oedema of lower extremities
D. Extension of saphenous veins
E. Dizziness
At obliterating endarteritis patient complains of:
A. *Melosalgia
B. Pain in the heart
C. Pain during urination
D. Tenesmus
E. Pain in the epigastric area
At what level is absent arterial pulsation at obliterative endarteritis ?
A. *Arteries foot
B. Femoral artery
C. Popliteal artery
D. Common carotid artery
E. Abdominal aorta
Which group of drugs are pentoxifyllinum?
A. *Antiagrigant
B. Antispasmodic
C. Antihistamines
D. Stimulants metabolism
E. Narcotic analgesics
Which group of drugs are vasaprostan?
A. *Prostaglandins
B. Antiagrigant
C. Antispasmodic
D. Antihistamines
E. Stimulants metabolism
Which operation is performed at obliterative endarteritis ?
A. *Lumbar sympathectomy
B. Intimectomy
C. Bypass grafting
D. Resection of the arteries
E. Artery ligation
1116. Which factor is the leader in the development of atherosclerosis?
A. *Dyslipoproteinemia.
B. Diabetes.
C. Suprarenalism.
D. Frequent hypothermia.
E. Smoking.
1117. Which factor is the leader in the development of obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Hypothermia, intoxication.
B. Hypercholesterolemia.
C. Diabetes.
D. Violations electrolytic exchange.
E. Suprarenalism.
1118. At what age is the greatest risk of ill atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Older than 40 years.
B. In 20 - 60 years.
C. In 19 - 25 years.
D. In 30 - 35 years.
E. In 35 - 39 years.
1119. At what age is the greatest risk of ill obliterative endarteritis?
A. *Up to 40 years.
B. 41 - 50 years.
C. 51 - 60 years.
D. In 10 - 15 years.
E. Over 60 years.
1120. At atherosclerosis obliterans first affected:
A. *Arteries, aorta.
B. Arteriovenous shunt vessels.
C. Capillaries.
D. Arteries of medium diameter.
E. Small arteries.
1121. At obliterative endarteritis first affected:
A. *Peripheral arteries.
B. Inguinal artery.
C. Aorta.
D. Ventral trunk.
E. The upper and lower mesenteric artery.
1122. At what disease you can auscultated systolic murmur on the major arteries?
A. *In obliterating atherosclerosis.
B. When occlusive disease.
C. With varicose veins.
D. In acute venous thrombosis shins.
E. When ileofemoralnom venous thrombosis.
1123. With the defeat of what artery atherosclerosis can develops Leriche syndrome?
A. *Bifurcation of the aorta, common iliac arteries.
B. Popliteal artery.
C. Arteries of the lower leg.
D. Ventral trunk.
E. Inferior mesenteric artery.
1124. What kind of reconstructive operations on the vessels are carried out with Leriche
syndrome?
A. *Aorto-femoral prosthesis or bypass surgery.
B. Operation Linton or Kokkett.
C. Leriche's operation.
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation, Babcock’ s operation.
E. Embolectomy
1125. What kind of reconstructive operations on the major arteries are carried out with obliterating
atherosclerosis?
A. *Endarterectomy, bypass surgery or prosthetic arteries.
B. Leriche's operation.
C. Lumbar sympathectomy.
D. Palm’s operation .
E. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation.
1126. What operations are conducted in obliterating endartereite lower extremities?
A. *Lumbar sympathectomy, Leriche's operation.
B. Embolectomy
C. Saphenectomy.
D. Thrombectomy.
E. Intimectomy
1127. What kind of manipulation to be done vascular prostheses ifection?
A. *Remove the prosthesis.
B. Catheterization subclavian vein.
C. Catheterization great saphenous vein.
D. Fasciotomy.
E. Necrectomy.
1128. Named the arteries that catheterization for aortography with bilateral Leriche syndrome?
A. *Brachial artery.
B. Total n artery.
C. Thigh iliac artery.
D. Subclavian artery.
E. Rear leg artery
1129. Aorto-occlusive disease at arteriogram characterized by:
A. *Uniform narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities.
B. Occlusion of peripheral arteries.
C. Uneven narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities.
D. Occlusion of collateral arteries.
E. Occlusion of capillaries.
1130. Lumbar sympathectomy is accompanied by:
A. *Removing the spasm of precapillary sphincter .
B. Decrease in prothrombin index.
C. Normalization of glucose.
D. Increased protein content in blood serum.
E. Normalization of bilirubin in the blood serum.
1131. To improve the microcirculation provide drugs:
A. *Nicotinic acid, reopolyglukine.
B. Diphenhydramine, suprastin.
C. Anaprilin, lineotol.
D. Cytitone, lobeline.
E. Amidopyrine, analgin.
1132. What drugs have antisclerotic action?
A. *Clofibrate, linetol, parmidin.
B. Cytitone, lobeline.
C. Fenilin, Omefin.
D. Nicotinic acid.
E. Diphenhydramine, suprastin.
1133. What methods are used to reduce the concentration of cholesterol and lipoproteins in the
blood serum?
A. *Plasmapheresis, hemosorption.
B. Artificial diuresis.
C. Hemodilution.
D. Transfusion of blood
E. Introduction vasorostana
1134. At what level are removed ganglia at the lumbar sympathectomy?
A. *L3 - L4.
B. S2 - S3.
C. L1.
D. Th 10-17
E. Th 8-9.
1135. How soon after the appointment of showing its effect indirect anticoagulants?
A. *After 12 - 48 hours.
B. After 4 hours.
C. After 72 hours.
D. After 56 hours.
E. 46-56 hours.
1136. Specify non-pharmacological methods of correcting blood coagulation system.
A. Hemodilution.
B. Hemodialysis.
C. Hemosorption.
D. Artificial diuresis.
E. Limfosorbtsiya.
1137. What are the contrast agents used for angiography?
A. *Triyodtrast, verografin.
B. Methylene blue.
C. Barium sulfate.
D. Alprostan.
E. Vasoprostan.
1138. Catheterization of the aorta is performed by:
A. *Seldinger.
B. Billroth.
C. Kocher
D. Pirogov
E. Shalimov
1139. What complications may arise during percutaneous catheterization of the aorta by
Seldinger?
A. *Bleeding, thrombosis, embolism.
B. Acute thrombophlebitis leg veins.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Thrombosis of the subclavian vein.
E. Endocarditis.
1140. At occlusion what arteries can develops Leriche syndrome:
A. *Occlusion of the aortic bifurcation, common iliac arteries
B. Occlusion of inferior mesenteric artery
C. Occlusion of the subclavian and brachial arteries
D. Occlusion of the popliteal artery and lower leg
E. Occlusion of the internal iliac arteries
1141. At occlusion what arteries can develops unilateral Leriche syndrome?
A. *Occlusion of the external and common iliac arteries
B. Occlusion of the internal iliac arteries
C. Occlusion of the aortic bifurcation
D. Occlusion of the deep femoral artery
E. Occlusion of popliteal artery
1142. For aorto-arteriography using contrast agents:
A. *Triumbrast, verografin, urotrast
B. Seabar
C. Bilignost
D. Holevid
E. Iodognost
1143. Aorto-arteriography by percutaneous catheterization of the aorta through a peripheral artery
is developed:
A. *Seldingerom
B. Petrovsky
C. Suharev
D. Pokrovsky
E. Vishnevsky
1144. For aorto-arterigrafii with bilateral Leriche syndrome conducted puncture:
A. *Brachialis artery
B. Femoral artery
C. Popliteal artery
D. External iliac artery
E. Cubital vein
1145. At obliterating atherosclerosis affected:
A. *Aorta and arteries
B. Small and small arteries
C. Arterivenoznye shunts
D. Komunikantni vein
E. Arterioles
1146. At obliterating endartereiite affected:
A. *Peripheral artery
B. Arteriovenous shunts
C. Kommunikantnye vein
D. Aorta and arteries
E. Sural vein
1147. The leading factor in the development of atherosclerotic lesions is:
A. *Violation of cholesterol-lipid
B. Violation of protein metabolism
C. Suprarenalism
D. Improving the function of the sympathetic system
E. Violation of mineral metabolism
1148. B-lipoproteins show:
A. *Antiplatelet effect
B. Atherogenic effect
C. Spasmolytic
D. Antiatherogenic effect
E. Surfactant effect
1149. Alpha-lipoproteins has:
A. *Atherogenic effect
B. Antiatherogenic effect
C. Anticoagulant activity
D. Antiplatelet effect
E. Surfactant effect
1150. At obliterative atherosclerosis of lower limb arteries performed:
A. *Bypass surgery, prostheses, endarterectomy
B. Leriche's operation, Oppel
C. Linton’s operation
D. Babcock’s operation
E. Troyanov – Trandelenburg’s operation
1151. The most severe complication after reconstructive operations on the major arteries are:
A. *Bleeding
B. Suppuration
C. Thrombosis
D. Chylorrhea
E. Phlebeurysm
1152. At occlusive disease of the lower extremities performed :
A. *Lumbar sympathectomy, Leriche's operation
B. Linton’s operation
C. Bypass surgery
D. Intimectomy
E. Troyanov – Trandelenburg’s operation
1153. What are the indications for lumbar sympathectomy at obliterating endartereite?
A. *Stage II
B. Stage IV
C. Gangrene of the lower extremity
D. Deep venous thrombosis
E. The duration of reactive hyperemia was more than 3 minutes
1154. At segmental occlusion of the bifurcation of the femoral artery what operation is performed:
A. *Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
B. Bifurcation bypass surgery
C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
1155. At segmental occlusion of the superficial femoral artery what operation is performed:
A. *Autogenous vein bypass
B. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
1156. At segmental occlusion of the popliteal artery what operation is performed:
A. *Autogenous vein bypass
B. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
C. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
1157. At segmental occlusion of the iliac artery what operation is performed:
A. *Iliac-femoral aloshuntirovanie
B. Autogenous vein bypass
C. Endarterectomy of the femoral artery
D. Saphenectomy
E. Artery ligation
1158. Endarterectomy is performed at:
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Occlusive disease
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
1159. Iliac-femoral bypass surgery performed at:
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Occlusive disease
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
1160. Femoropopliteal autovenous bypass surgery is performed at :
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Occlusive disease
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
1161. Aorto-femoral bifurcation bypass surgery performed at:
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Occlusive disease
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
1162. Decompression osteoperforation performed at:
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Coxarthrosis
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
1163. Sympathectomy performed at:
A. *Occlusive disease
B. Atherosclerosis obliterans
C. Varicose
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema
1164. What is the normal number of platelets in the blood?
A. *180-320
B. 20-40
C. 40-120
D. 420-650
E. 600-1000
1165. What phase hemocoagulation inhibits heparin:
A. *Only the formation of thrombin
B. No right answer
C. Only the formation of fibrin
D. Only the formation of thromboplastin
E. It operates on the phase of thrombotic
1166. By indirect anticoagulants include:
A. *Preparation of 4-oksikumarina
B. Preparations of alkaloids
C. Fibrinolytic drugs
D. Pentoksifilin
E. Thrombolytic drugs
1167. Absolute contraindications to anticoagulation attributes is:
A. *Bleeding of any location, hemorrhagic diathesis
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Respiratory failure
D. Cardiovascular insufficiency
E. Lack of cerebral circulation
1168. Methods control of coagulation and fibrinolytic systems of blood:
A. *Coagulogramm
B. Complete blood count
C. Determination of the rate of local blood flow
D. Blood count
E. Biochemical analysis of blood
1169. What vessels are usually affected by atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. *Aorta and arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Microcirculatory bed
D. Superficial veins
E. Deep veins
1170. What is the morphological basis of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *The accumulation of lipids in the intima
B. Thrombosis
C. Inflammatory process
D. Embolism
E. Aneurysm
1171. What is the main cause of atherosclerotic lesions?
A. *Hypercholesterolemia, dyslipoproteinemia
B. Infection
C. Trauma
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
1172. What principle is the basis classification of ischemic tissues in acute arterial obstruction?
A. *Clinical manifestations of ischemic tissues.
B. The residual blood flow in the limbs.
C. No ripple on the main arteries.
D. Segmental principle
E. The level of occlusion
1173. Specify non-pharmacological methods of correcting blood coagulation system.
A. Hemodilution.
B. Hemodialysis.
C. Hemosorption.
D. Artificial diuresis.
E. Limphosorbtsion.
1174. What are the contrast agents used for angiography?
A. *Triiodtrast, verografin.
B. Barium sulfate.
C. Methylene blue.
D. Alprostan.
E. Vasoprostan.
1175. In stage III acute obstruction of major arteries embolectomy completed:
A. *Fasciotomy
B. Operation Linton
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg’s operation
D. Modelung’s operation
E. Kokket’s operation
1176. The direct anticoagulant is
A. Heparin.
B. Phenilin, Omephin.
C. Nicotinic acid.
D. Streptokinase.
E. Acetylsalicylic acid.
1177. In case of overdose of heparin used:
A. *Protamine sulfate.
B. Rheopolyglucine.
C. Albumin.
D. Phibrinolysin.
E. 10% glucose solution.
1178. For embolectomy used:
A. *Fogarty probe .
B. Dzhadkins catheter .
C. Babcock’s vein stripper.
D. Nelaton’s probe .
E. Blekmor’s probe
1179. Best results embolectomy occur during an operation in the first place:
A. *6 hours.
B. 48 hours.
C. 8:00.
D. 24 hours.
E. 12 hours.
1180. What are the methods embolectomy arteries?
A. *Direct and indirect embolectomy .
B. Fasciotomy.
C. Intimtrombektomiya.
D. Shunting.
E. Endarterectomy.
1181. Indicate the surgical treatment acute thrombosis of major arteries.
A. Intimtrombectomy, thrombectomy, bypass surgery.
B. Emboleectomy.
C. Fasciotomy.
D. Sympathectomy.
E. Leriche's operation.
1182. Types embolectomy :
A. *Direct, indirect
B. Retrograde
C. Full, partial
D. Open, half closed, closed
E. Rising
1183. The most frequent cause of arterial thrombosis is:
A. *Blood disease
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Trauma
D. Aneurysm
E. Diabetes mellitus
1184. To angiographic signs embolisation of major arteries relates:
A. *Uniform narrowing of major vessels
B. Breaking contrast, poorer collateral channel, the absence of signs of atherosclerosis
C. The dramatic expansion of the main vessel
D. Pronounced collateral blood flow
E. Phlebeurysm
1185. To angiographic signs of acute thrombosis the major arteries include:
A. *Aneurysmal expansion of arteries
B. Weak collateral blood flow
C. Slanted posted line break contrast, unequal contours of the arteries, developed collateral
network
D. Uneven, serrated contours artery
E. Phlebeurysm
1186. Severe pallor of skin is characteristic for:
A. *Artery Embolism
B. Varicose
C. Deep phlebothrombosis
1187.
1188.
1189.
1190.
1191.
1192.
1193.
1194.
1195.
D. Postthrombophlebitic syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
Expressed cold extremities is characteristic for:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Varicose
C. Deep phlebothrombosis
D. Postthrombophlebitic syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
Full anesthesia limbs is characteristic for:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Varicose
C. Deep phlebothrombosis
D. Postthrombophlebitic syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
The absence pulsations on the extremities is characteristicfor :
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Varicose
C. Deep phlebothrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
Embolectomy performed at:
A. *Artery Embolism
B. Varicose
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
Trombintimectomy performed at:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Artery Embolism
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicose
Autovenous bypass grafting is performed when:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Artery Embolism
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicose
Thrombolytic therapy is indicated for:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Extremity lymphedema
C. Artery Embolism
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicose
Acute myocardial infarction is a risk factor:
A. *Artery Embolism
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Bacterial endocarditis is a risk factor:
A. *Artery Embolism
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
1196.
1197.
1198.
1199.
1200.
1201.
1202.
1203.
1204.
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Rheumatic heart disease is a risk factor:
A. *Artery Embolism
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Abdominal aortic aneurysm is a risk factor for:
A. *Artery Embolism
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Atrial fibrillation is a risk factor:
A. *Artery Embolism
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Cardiac fibrillationis a risk factor:
A. *Artery Embolism
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Obliterating atherosclerosis is a risk factor:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Closed trauma limb is risk factor:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Systemic lupus erythematosus is a risk factor:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Acute leukemia is a risk factor:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Extravessels compression is a risk factor:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
1205.
1206.
1207.
1208.
1209.
1210.
1211.
1212.
1213.
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Severe pallor of skin is characteristic for:
A. *No right answer
B. Varicose
C. Deep phlebothrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
Expressed cold extremities is characteristic for:
A. *No right answer
B. Varicose
C. Deep phlebothrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
Full anesthesia limbs characteristic:
A. *No right answer
B. Varicose
C. Deep phlebothrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
The absence pulsations on the extremities artery is characteristic for:
A. *No right answer
B. Varicose
C. Deep phlebothrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
Embolectomy performed at:
A. *No right answer
B. Varicose
C. Deep phlebothrombosis
D. Posttromboflebitichnogo syndrome
E. Phlegmon limb
Trombintimectomy performed at:
A. *No right answer
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Artery Embolism
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicose
Autovenous bypass grafting is performed when:
A. *No right answer
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Artery Embolism
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicose
Thrombolytic therapy is indicated for:
A. *No right answer
B. Extremity lymphedema
C. Artery Embolism
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicose
Acute myocardial infarction is a risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
1214.
1215.
1216.
1217.
1218.
1219.
1220.
1221.
1222.
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Bacterial endocarditis is a risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Rheumatic heart disease is a risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Abdominal aortic aneurysm is a risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Atrial fibrillation is a risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Cardiac fibrillation is a risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Obliterating atherosclerosis is a risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Closed trauma limb risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Systemic lupus erythematosus is a risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Acute leukemia is a risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
1223.
1224.
1225.
1226.
1227.
1228.
1229.
1230.
1231.
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Extra vessels artery compression is a risk factor:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Angiography is a procedure risk factor:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
Angiography is a procedure risk factor:
A. *No right answer
B. Artery Embolism
C. Varicose
D. Phlegmon limb
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
What drugs belong to a direct anticoagulant?
A. *Fraxiparine,
B. Sinkumar,
C. Streptokinase,
D. Trental,
E. Diclofenac,
What drugs belong to the indirect anticoagulants?
A. *Sinkumar
B. Fraxiparine
C. Streptokinase
D. Trental
E. Diclofenac
What drugs belong to fibrinolytics?
A. *Streptokinase, urokinase
B. Heparin
C. Sinkumar, fenilin
D. Trental, Pentoksifilin
E. Diclofenac, Naklofen
What is initial dose Streptokinase?
A. *250000 units
B. 5000
C. 10000 points
D. 100000 units
E. 1000000 Units
What drug is used in the overdose of heparin?
A. *Protamine sulfate
B. Fraxiparine
C. Streptokinase
D. Trental
E. Diclophenac
Which drug is used in the overdose of heparin?
A. *No right answer
B. Fraxiparine
C. Streptokinase
1232.
1233.
1234.
1235.
1236.
1237.
1238.
1239.
1240.
D. Trental
E. Diclophenac
What drug is used in an overdose of streptokinase?
A. *Aminocaproic acid, trasylol
B. Fraxiparine, Clexane
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Trental, Pentoksifilin
E. Diclofenac, Naklofen
What is normal prothrombin index?
A. *85-100%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-60%
D. 50-70%
E. 100-120%
What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of anticoagulants?
A. *Prothrombin index
B. The number of platelets in the blood
C. The level of plasma fibrinogen
D. Trombotest
E. Plasma recalcification time
What is the normal level of plasma fibrinogen?
A. *2-4 g / l
B. 6.8 grams / liter
C. 10-16 grams / liter
D. 30-50 grams / liter
E. 75-100 grams / liter
What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of thrombolytics?
A. *The level of plasma fibrinogen
B. The number of platelets in the blood
C. Prothrombin index
D. Thrombotest
E. Plasma recalcification time
What are the normal values of plasma recalcification time?
A. *60-120 seconds
B. 0.5-2 seconds
C. 10-40 seconds
D. 40-60 seconds
E. 4-8 minutes
What are the normal rates thrombotest?
A. *IV-V degree
B. I-II degree
C. II-III degree
D. VI-VIII degree
E. X-XII level
What is the normal number of platelets in the blood?
A. *180-320 109 / l
B. 20-40 109 / l
C. 40-120 109 / l
D. 420-650 109 / l
E. 600-1000 109 / l
What phase hemocoagulation inhibits heparin:
A. *Only the formation of thrombin
B. No right answer
C. Only the formation of fibrin
1241.
1242.
1243.
1244.
1245.
1246.
1247.
1248.
1249.
D. Only the formation of thromboplastin
E. It operates on the phase of thrombotic
Indirect anticoagulants include:
A. *Preparation of 4-oksikumarina
B. Preparations of alkaloids
C. Fibrinolytic drugs
D. Pentoksiphylin
E. Thrombolitic drugs
The absolute contraindication of anticoagulants include:
A. *Bleeding of any location, hemorrhagic diathesis
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Respiratory failure
D. Cardiovascular insufficiency
E. Lack of cerebral circulation
Activators of fibrinolysis include:
A. *Nicotinic acid, Complamin
B. Phenilin, Omefin
C. Gastrotsepin, Venter
D. Vitamin B
E. Vitamins A, C
Preparations thrombolytic action are:
A. *Phibrinolysin, celiasa, streptokinase
B. Strophanthus
C. Tselonid, lantozid
D. Rheopolyglucine, poliglucin
E. Trental
Methods of control the coagulation and fibrinolytic systems of blood:
A. *Coagulogramm
B. Complete blood
C. Determination of the rate of local blood flow
D. Blood count
E. Biochemical analysis of blood
At bleeding caused by anticoagulants of indirect action shall appoint:
A. *Vicasol
B. Pipolphen
C. Digitoxin
D. Hydrocortisone
E. Pentoksiphilin
Clinical signs the embolism arteries in the first hours is
A. Severe pain in the limbs
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
Clinical signs the embolism arteries in the first hours
A. Cold extremities
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is
A. Severe weakness of the affected limb
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
1250.
1251.
1252.
1253.
1254.
1255.
1256.
1257.
1258.
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is
A. Paleness of the skin of the affected limb
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is
A. The deterioration of the picture subcutaneous veins of the affected limb
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is
A. Changing the surface sensitivity of the affected limb
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is
A. Changing the deep sensitivity of the affected limb
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is
A. Violation of the function of the affected limb
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is
A. The disappearance of pulsation of the arteries to the level of obstruction
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
Clinical signs the arteries embolism in the first hours is
A. No right answer
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. Limb gangrene
E. Dystonia
At occlusion of the bifurcation aorta region of ischemia captures
A. Both legs and lower abdomen
B. Lower limb to crural arch
C. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh
D. Lower extremity to the knee
E. Foot
When occlusion of the bifurcation of the aorta region of ischemia captures
A. No right answer
B. Lower limb to crural arch
C. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh
1259.
1260.
1261.
1262.
1263.
1264.
1265.
1266.
1267.
D. Lower extremity to the knee
E. Foot
At occlusion of iliac artery ischemia region captures
A. Lower limb to crural arch
B. Both legs and lower abdomen
C. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh
D. Lower extremity to the knee
E. Foot
When occlusion of iliac artery ischemia region captures
A. No right answer
B. Both legs and lower abdomen
C. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh
D. Lower extremity to the knee
E. Foot
At occlusion of the femoral artery ischemia region captures
A. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh
B. Lower limb to crural arch
C. Both legs and lower abdomen
D. Lower extremity to the knee
E. Foot
At occlusion of the femoral artery ischemia region captures
A. No right answer
B. Lower limb to crural arch
C. Both legs and lower abdomen
D. Lower extremity to the knee
E. Foot
At occlusion of the popliteal artery ischemia region captures
A. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh
B. Lower limb to crural arch
C. Both legs and lower abdomen
D. Lower extremity to the knee
E. Foot
At occlusion of the popliteal artery ischemia region captures
A. No right answer
B. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh
C. Lower limb to crural arch
D. Both legs and lower abdomen
E. Foot
At occlusion of the popliteal artery ischemia region captures
A. Lower extremity to the knee
B. Lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh
C. Lower limb to crural arch
D. Both legs and lower abdomen
E. Foot
At occlusion of the subclavian artery ischemia region captures
A. All hand
B. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder
C. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder
D. Both hands
E. Brush
When occlusion of the subclavian artery ischemia region captures
A. No right answer
B. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder
C. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder
1268.
1269.
1270.
1271.
1272.
1273.
1274.
1275.
1276.
D. Both hands
E. Brush
When occlusion of the axillary artery ischemia region captures
A. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder
B. All hand
C. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder
D. Both hands
E. Brush
At occlusion of the axillary artery ischemia region captures
A. No right answer
B. All hand
C. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder
D. Both hands
E. Brush
At occlusion of the brachial artery area of ischemia captures
A. Hand until the middle third of the shoulder
B. All hand
C. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder
D. Both hands
E. Brush
At occlusion of the brachial artery area of ischemia captures
A. No right answer
B. All hand
C. Arm to the upper third of the shoulder
D. Both hands
E. Brush
How many days can occur secondary deep vein thrombosis limb?
A. *3-6 days
B. 1-2 days
C. 7-8 days
D. 7-10 days
E. 14 days
How many days can occur secondary deep vein thrombosis limb?
A. *No right answer
B. 1-2 days
C. 7-8 days
D. 7-10 days
E. 14 days
Arterial thrombosis developed on the background:
A. *Atherosclerotic lesions
B. Ulcer
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Chronic gastritis
Arterial thrombosis developed on the background:
A. *Obliterative endartereita
B. Ulcer
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Chronic gastritis
Arterial thrombosis developed on the background:
A. *Nonspecific aortoarteriitis
B. Ulcer
C. Chronic pancreatitis
1277.
1278.
1279.
1280.
1281.
1282.
1283.
1284.
1285.
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Chronic gastritis
Arterial thrombosis developed on the background:
A. *Infectious Diseases
B. Ulcer
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Chronic gastritis
Arterial thrombosis developed on the background:
A. *Erythrocytosis
B. Ulcer
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Chronic gastritis
Arterial thrombosis developed on the background:
A. *Hypercoagulation
B. Ulcer
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Chronic gastritis
How long is the reversible phase change?
A. *2-3 hours
B. 3-5 hours
C. 5-6 hours
D. 7-8 hours
E. 10-12 hours
How long is the reversible phase change?
A. *No right answer
B. 3-5 hours
C. 5-6 hours
D. 7-8 hours
E. 10-12 hours
How long is the growth phase of irreversible changes
A. 5-6 hours
B. 2-3 hours
C. 3-5 hours
D. 7-8 hours
E. 10-12 hours
How long is the growth phase of irreversible changes
A. No right answer
B. 2-3 hours
C. 3-5 hours
D. 7-8 hours
E. 10-12 hours
For the diagnosis of embolism of arteries of extremities most informative method is:
A. *Doppler ultrasound
B. Rheovasography
C. Radiography limbs
D. ECG
E. Echocardiography
To diagnose thrombosis of arteries most informative method is:
A. *Doppler ultrasound
B. Rheovasography
C. Radiography limbs
1286.
1287.
1288.
1289.
1290.
1291.
1292.
1293.
1294.
D. ECG
E. Echocardiography
For the diagnosis embolism of arteries the extremities most informative method is:
A. *Arteriography
B. Rheovasography
C. Radiography limbs
D. ECG
E. Echocardiography
For the diagnosis embolism of arteries the extremities most informative method is:
A. *No right answer
B. Rheovasography
C. Radiography limbs
D. ECG
E. Echocardiography
At arteries embolism differential diagnosis must be with:
A. *Arterial spasm
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphadenitis
D. Coxarthrosis
E. Strangulated hernia
When embolism arteries differential diagnosis must be with:
A. *Acute heart failure on a background of obliterating arterial diseases
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphadenitis
D. Coxarthrosis
E. Strangulated hernia
At arteries embolism differential diagnosis must be with:
A. *Stratification of abdominal aortic aneurysm
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphadenitis
D. Coxarthrosis
E. Strangulated hernia
At arteries embolism differential diagnosis must be with:
A. *Acute transverse poliomyelitis
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphadenitis
D. Coxarthrosis
E. Strangulated hernia
When embolism arteries differential diagnosis must be with:
A. *No right answer
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphadenitis
D. Coxarthrosis
E. Strangulated hernia
Absolute contraindication for surgical treatment of embolism is:
A. *Agony state of patients
B. Angina
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Fracture limb
E. Heart disease
Absolute contraindication for surgical treatment of embolism is:
A. *Total contracture limb
B. Angina
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Fracture limb
E. Heart disease
1295. Absolute contraindication for surgical treatment of embolism is:
A. *Limb gangrene
B. Angina
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Fracture limb
E. Heart disease
1296. Absolute contraindication for surgical treatment of embolism is:
A. *Critically ill patients with a mild degree of ischemia
B. Angina
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Fracture limb
E. Heart disease
1297. Relative contraindications to operation at a mild degree of acute limb ischemia and the
absence of its progression is
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Angina
C. Varicose disease
D. PTFS
E. Angiodysplasia
1298. Relative contraindications to operation at a mild degree of acute limb ischemia and the
absence of its progression is
A. Insult
B. Angina
C. Varicose disease
D. PTFS
E. Angiodysplasia
1299. Relative contraindications to operation at a mild degree of acute limb ischemia and the
absence of its progression is
A. Inoperable tumor
B. Angina
C. Varicose disease
D. PTFS
E. Angiodysplasia
1300. Relative contraindications to operation at a mild degree of acute limb ischemia and the
absence of its progression is
A. No right answer
B. Angina
C. Varicose disease
D. PTFS
E. Angiodysplasia
1301. For elimination spasm in acute arterial insufficiency using:
A. *Papaverine
B. Alprostan
C. Heparin
D. Warfarin
E. Dimexide
1302. For elimination spasm in acute arterial insufficiency using:
A. *No-shpa
B. Alprostan
C. Heparin
D. Warfarin
E. Dimexide
1303. The elimination of spasm in acute arterial insufficiency using:
A. *Halidor
B. Alprostan
C. Heparin
D. Warfarin
E. Dimexide
1304. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include:
A. *Embolintimtrmbectomy
B. Thoracic sympathectomy
C. Transverse sympathectomy
D. Periarterial simpaekectomy
E. Amputation
1305. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include:
A. *Intimectomy
B. Thoracic sympathectomy
C. Transverse sympathectomy
D. Periarterial simpaectomy
E. Amputation
1306. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include:
A. *Shunt surgery
B. Thoracic sympathectomy
C. Transverse sympathectomy
D. Periarterial sympathectomy
E. Amputation
1307. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include:
A. *Resection of the artery with prosthetic
B. Thoracic sympathectomy
C. Transverse sympathectomy
D. Periarterial sympathectomy
E. Amputation
1308. Radical operation in acute arterial insufficiency include:
A. *Plasticity of arterial wall with patches
B. Thoracic sympathectomy
C. Transverse sympathectomy
D. Periarterial sympathectomy
E. Amputation
1309. To palliative surgery for acute arterial insufficiency include:
A. *Periarterial sympaectomy
B. Plasticity of arterial wall with patches
C. Resection artery prosthetic
D. Shunt surgery
E. Endarterectomy
1310. To palliative surgery for acute arterial insufficiency include:
A. *Transverse sympathectomy
B. Plasticity of arterial wall with patches
C. Resection artery prosthetic
D. Shunt surgery
E. Endarterectomy
1311. To palliative surgery for acute arterial insufficiency include:
A. *Amputation
B. Plasticity of arterial wall with patches
C. Resection artery prosthetic
D. Shunt surgery
E. Endarterectomy
1312. Types embolectomy
A. Straight
B. Oblique
C. Transverse
D. Ring
E. No right answer
1313. Types embolectomy
A. Indirect
B. Oblique
C. Transverse
D. Ring
E. No right answer
1314. For secondary prevention thrombosis during the operation in the vascular bed is introduced
A. Heparin
B. Solcoseryl
C. Vicasol
D. Actovegin
E. No-shpa
1315. For secondary prevention of thrombosis during the operation in the vascular bed is
introduced
A. No right answer
B. Solcoseryl
C. Vicasol
D. Actovegin
E. No-shpa
1316. For secondary prevention of thrombosis during the operation in the vascular bed is
introduced at a dose of heparin:
A. *5000
B. 10000
C. 1000
D. 7000
E. 9000
1317. Shunting operations include
A. Femoropopliteal bypass
B. Endarterectomy
C. Saphenectomy
D. Fasciotomy
E. Ganglionectomy
1318. Shunting operations include
A. Femoropopliteal bypass autovenous
B. Endarterectomy
C. Saphenectomy
D. Fasciotomy
E. Ganglionectomy
1319. What volume of blood flows through superficial veins?
A. *10-15 %
B. 5 %
C. 30-40 %
D. 70-80 %
E. 90 %
1320. Where does a great saphenous vein drain in?
A. *Femoral vein
B. The veins of shin
C. Popliteal vein
1321.
1322.
1323.
1324.
1325.
1326.
1327.
1328.
1329.
D. External iliac vein
E. Vena cava inferior
Where does a small saphenous vein drain in?
A. *Popliteal vein
B. Vena cava inferior
C. External iliac vein
D. Femoral vein
E. The veins of shin
The localization of great saphenous vein inflow is:
A. *2-3 sm. below inguinal ligament
B. In upper third of the lower extremity
C. In a popliteal fossa
D. In lower third of thigh
E. In a lumbar area
The localization of small saphenous vein inflow is:
A. *In a popliteal fossa
B. In upper third of the lower extremity
C. In lower third of thigh
D. 2-3 sm. below inguinal ligament
E. In a lumbar area
What veins belongs to the superficial system?
A. *Small and great saphenous vein
B. The veins of shin
C. Superficial and deep femoral vein
D. Brachial veins
E. Elbow and radial veins
What veins belongs to the deep system?
A. *V. radіalіs
B. Small saphenous vein
C. Great saphenous vein
D. V. basіlіca
E. V. ceрhalіca
What factor prevails in the development of primary varicosity?
A. *Weakness of connecting tissue of vessels
B. Arterio-venous fistulas
C. Venous hypoplasia
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Obliterative atherosclerosis
What are the hormonal changes contribute to the development of varicosity?
A. *Pregnancy
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Miksedema
E. Insufficiency of suprarenal glands
What is the pathological basis of the development of chronic venous insufficiency?
A. *Venous hypertension
B. Block of lymph outflow
C. Arterial ischemia
D. Hypertension
E. Disturbance of innervation
What is the cause of hypertension in the venous system of lower extremities?
A. *Venous valvular incompetence
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Hypertension
D. Block of lymph outflow
E. Disturbance of innervation
1330. What does the venous valvular incompetence result in?
A. *Venous hypertension
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Hypertension
D. Disturbance of innervation
E. Disturbance of lymph outflow
1331. What is the characteristic sign of the I stage of varicosity?
A. *Heavy sensation
B. Transitory edema
C. Permanent edema
D. Hyperpigmentation
E. Trophic ulcer
1332. What is the characteristic sign of the IIA stage of varicosity?
A. *Transitory edema
B. Heavy sensation
C. Permanent edema
D. Hyperpigmentation
E. Trophic ulcer
1333. What is the characteristic sign of the IIB stage of varicosity?
A. *Hyperpigmentation
B. Heavy sensation
C. Transitory edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healed trophic ulcer
1334. What is the characteristic sign of the IIB stage of varicosity?
A. *Permanent edema
B. Heavy sensation
C. Transitory edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healed trophic ulcer
1335. What is the characteristic sign of the III stage of varicosity?
A. *Trophic ulcer
B. Heavy sensation
C. Transitory edema
D. Permanent edema
E. Hyperpigmentation
1336. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of "heavy
sensation"?
A. *I
B. 0
C. IIA
D. IIB
E. III
1337. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of a transitory
edema?
A. *IIA
B. 0
C. I
D. IIB
E. III
1338. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of a permanent
edema?
A. *IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
1339. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of a
hyperpigmentation?
A. *IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
1340. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of
lipodermatosclerosis?
A. *IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
1341. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of opened trophic
ulcer?
A. *III
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. IIB
1342. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by the sign of the healed trophic
ulcer?
A. *III
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. IIB
1343. Which stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by valvular incompetence of
superficial veins?
A. *I
B. 0
C. IIA
D. IIB
E. III
1344. Which stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by valvular incompetence of
superficial and perforative veins?
A. *II
B. 0
C. I
D. III
E. IV
1345. Which stage of chronic venous insufficiency is characterized by valvular incompetence of
superficial, perforative and deep veins?
A. *IIB-III
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. IV
1346. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical:
A. *Heavy sensation
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Rest pains
D. Disappearance of sensation
E. Disappearance of movements
1347. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical:
A. *Transitory edema of lower extremities
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Rest pains
D. Disappearance of sensation
E. Disappearance of movements
1348. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical:
A. *Varicose veins
B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity
C. Pallor of the lower extremity
D. Disappearance of sensation
E. Disappearance of movements
1349. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical:
A. *Lipodermatosclerosis of shin
B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity
C. Pallor of the lower extremity
D. Disappearance of sensation
E. Disappearance of movements
1350. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical:
A. *Trophic ulcer of shin
B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity
C. Pallor of the lower extremity
D. Disappearance of sensation
E. Disappearance of movements
1351. For varicosity of lower extremities is typical:
A. *Hyperpigmentation of shin
B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity
C. Pallor of the lower extremity
D. Disappearance of sensation
E. Disappearance of movements
1352. Heavy sensation of lower extremities is characteristic for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Atherosclerosis obliterans
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Embolisms of femoral artery
1353. The transitory edema of lower extremities is characteristic for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Atherosclerosis obliterans
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Embolisms of femoral artery
1354. Lipodermatosclerosis of the lower third of shin is characteristic for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Atherosclerosis obliterans
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Embolisms of femoral artery
1355. The hyperpigmentation of the lower third of shin is characteristic for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Atherosclerosis obliterans
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Embolisms of femoral artery
1356. The trophic ulcer of the lower third of shin is characteristic for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Embolisms of femoral artery
1357. What test is used for determination of valvular incompetence of superficial veins?
A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
B. Talman's test
C. Pratt's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
1358. What test is used for determination of valvular incompetence of perforative veins?
A. *Pratt's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Gackenbruch's test
D. Homan'se's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
1359. What test is used for the estimation of the passability of deep veins?
A. *Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Gackenbruch's test
D. Pratt's test
E. Talman's test
1360. The Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test is used in the diagnostics of:
A. *Valvular incompetence of superficial veins
B. Valvular incompetence of perforative veins
C. Passability of deep veins
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema of the extremity
1361. The Talman's test is used in the diagnostics of:
A. *Valvular incompetence of perforative veins
B. Valvular incompetence of superficial veins
C. Passability of deep veins
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema of the extremity
1362. The Pratt's test is used in the diagnostics of:
A. *Valvular incompetence of perforative veins
B. Valvular incompetence of superficial veins
C. Passability of deep veins
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema of the extremity
1363. The Mayo-Pratt's test is used in the diagnostics of:
A. *Passability of deep veins
B. Valvular incompetence of perforative veins
C. Valvular incompetence of superficial veins
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema of the extremity
1364. The Delbe-Pertess test (marching test) is used in the diagnostics of:
A. *Passability of deep veins
B. Valvular incompetence of perforative veins
C. Valvular incompetence of superficial veins
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Lymphedema of the extremity
1365. What complication is typical for varicosity?
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Gangrene
1366. More frequently the subcutaneous thrombophlebitis develops as a result of:
A. *Varicosity
B. Atherosclerosis obliterans
C. Lymphedema of lower extremities
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute cholecystitis
1367. What complication is typical for varicosity?
A. *Trophic ulcer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Plegia
E. Gangrene
1368. What is the basic method of the diagnostics of arterio-venous fistulas?
A. *Phlebography
B. Coagulogram
C. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
D. Ultrasound examination
E. Arteriography
1369. What is the basic method of the diagnostics of venous angiodysplasia?
A. *Phlebography
B. Coagulogram
C. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
D. Ultrasound examination
E. Arteriography
1370. A phlebography is used for the diagnostics of:
A. *Arterio-venous fistulas
B. Atherosclerosis obliterans
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynaecological pathology
1371. A phlebography is used for the diagnostics of:
A. *Venous angiodysplasia
B. Atherosclerosis obliterans
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynaecological pathology
1372. What method is used for the diagnostics of valvular incompetence of perforative and deep
veins?
A. *Ultrasound duplex scanning
B. Coagulogram
C. Reovasography
D. Ultrasound doppler examination
E. Arteriography
1373. What method is used for the estimation of the passability of deep veins?
A. *Ultrasound examination
B. Coagulogram
C. Reovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
1374. What operation is performed for varicosity?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Thrombectomy
C. Ligation of vein
D. Endarterectomy
E. Femoro-popliteal by-passing
1375. What treatment is indicated in varicosity of the IIA stage?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Scelerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation
E. Saphenectomy with the subfascial ligation of perforative veins (Linton's operation)
1376. What treatment is indicated for a noncomplicated varicosity?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Scelerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation
E. Saphenectomy with the subfascial ligation of perforative veins (Linton's operation)
1377. To the real causes of varicosity relapse regard:
A. *Remaining of main trunk, long stump of great saphenous vein
B. Thrombosis of vena cava inferior
C. Arterio-venous fistula
D. Insufficiency of the ostial valve
E. Thrombosis of iliac veins
1378. To the functional tests for the detection of valvular incompetence of superficial veins used:
A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
B. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
C. Oppel's test
D. Pratt's test
E. Talman's test
1379. To the functional tests for the detection of valvular incompetence of perforative veins used:
A. *Talman's test
B. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
D. Gackenbruch's test
E. Oppel's test
1380. To the functional tests for the detection of valvular incompetence of deep veins used:
A. *Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Gackenbruch's test
D. Oppel's test
E. Talman's test
1381. What is the sequence of the saphenectomy performance?
A. *Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation, Bebcock's, Linton's
B. Linton's operation, Cocketh's, Bebcock's
C. Narath's operation, Bebcock's, Cocketh's
D. Bebcock's operation, Linton's, Troyanov-Trendelenburg's
E. Bebcock's operation, Narath's, Cocketh's operation
1382. A maximal amount of perforative veins is located in:
A. *Lower third of shin
B. Upper third of shin
C. Middle third of shin
D. Area of thigh
E. Lower third of thigh
1383. The contraindication for saphenectomy in varicosity is:
A. *Obstruction of deep veins
B. Insufficiency of valves of perforative veins
C. Insufficiency of the ostial valve
D. Diffuse type of great saphenous vein
E. Valvular incompetence of sural veins
1384. For the saphenectomy operation used:
A. *Bebcock's catheter
B. Blackmore's zond
C. Fogarti's catheter
D. Nelaton's catheter
E. Nasogastric zond
1385. What operations are performed on the perforative veins of lower extremities:
A. *Linton's, Cocketh's operation
B. Bebcock's, Narath's
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's
D. Madelung's
E. Felder's
1386. To the indirect anticoagulants regard the medicines:
A. *Fenilin, Omephin, Pelentan.
B. Tiklid, Parmidin.
C. Papaverin, Platyphyllin.
D. Nicotine acid.
E. Miscleronum, Lypoic acid.
1387. To the direct anticoagulants belongs:
A. *Heparin.
B. Fenilin, Omephin.
C. Nicotine acid.
D. Streptokinase.
E. Aspirin.
1388. Saphenectomy is performed for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
1389. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation is performed for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
1390. The operation crossectomy is performed for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
1391. Linton's operation is performed for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
1392. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation is:
A. *Ligation of saphenofemoral junction
B. Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein
C. Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins
D. Subfascial ligation of perforative veins
E. Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein
1393. Narath's operation is:
A. *Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein
B. Ligation of saphenofemoral junction
C. Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein
D. Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins
E. Subfascial ligation of perforative veins
1394. Bebcock's operation is:
A. *Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein
B. Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein
C. Ligation of saphenofemoral junction
D. Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins
E. Subfascial ligation of perforative veins
1395. Cocketh's operation is:
A. *Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins
B. Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein
C. Ligation of saphenofemoral junction
D. Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein
E. Subfascial ligation of perforative veins
1396. Linton's operation is:
A. *Subfascial ligation of perforative veins
B. Removal of collaterals of great saphenous vein
C. Ligation of saphenofemoral junction
D. Removal of the main trunk of great saphenous vein
E. Suprafascial ligation of perforative veins
1397. The Narath's operation is performed for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
1398. The Bebcock's operation is performed for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
1399. The Cocketh's operation is performed for:
A. *Varicosity
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
1400. The indication for the scelerotherapy is:
A. *Reticular varicosity
B. Obliterative atherosclerosis
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Thrombosis of deep veins
E. Lymphedema of the extremity
1401. The indication for the scelerotherapy is:
A. *Teleangiectasy
B. Obliterative atherosclerosis
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Thrombosis of deep veins
E. Lymphedema of the extremity
1402. The indication for the scelerotherapy is:
A. *Relapse of varicosity
B. Obliterative atherosclerosis
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Thrombosis of deep veins
E. Lymphedema of the extremity
1403. The method of choice of the treatment of reticular varicosity is:
A. *Scelerotherapy
B. Linton's operation
C. Saphenectomy
D. Endarterectomy
E. Autovenous by-passing
1404. The method of choice of the treatment of teleangiectasy is:
A. *Scelerotherapy
B. Linton's operation
C. Saphenectomy
D. Endarterectomy
E. Autovenous by-passing
1405. The method of choice of the treatment of relapse of varicosity is:
A. *Scelerotherapy
B. Linton's operation
C. Saphenectomy
D. Endarterectomy
E. Autovenous by-passing
1406. For the scelerotherapy used:
A. *Fibrovein
B. Triumbrast
C. Verographin
D. Barium sulfate
E. Bilignost
1407. After saphenectomy the elastic compression is used for:
A. *2-3 months
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 3-4 weeks
1408. For the treatment of the varicosity of the I degree the elastic stocks and bandages are used of
the:
A. *I degree of compression
B. II degree of compression
C. III degree of compression
1409.
1410.
1411.
1412.
1413.
1414.
1415.
1416.
1417.
D. IV degree of compression
E. The compression stocks are not used
For the treatment of varicosity of II degree the elastic stocks and bandages are used of the:
A. *II degree of compression
B. I degree of compression
C. III degree of compression
D. IV degree of compression
E. The compression stocks are not used
After saphenectomy the elastic stocks and bandages are used of the:
A. *II degree of compression
B. I degree of compression
C. III degree of compression
D. IV degree of compression
E. The compression stocks are not used
In patients with a trophic ulcer the elastic stocks and bandages are used of the:
A. *III degree of compression
B. II degree of compression
C. I degree of compression
D. IV degree of compression
E. The compression stocks are not used
Endotelon is used for the treatment of:
A. *Varicosity
B. Ulcerous disease
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Hypertensive disease
Detralex is used for the treatment of:
A. *Varicosity
B. Ulcerous disease
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Hypertensive disease
Flebodia is used for the treatment of:
A. *Varicosity
B. Ulcerous disease
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Hypertensive disease
Troksevasin is used for the treatment of:
A. *Varicosity
B. Ulcerous disease
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Hypertensive disease
Why the saphenectomy does always begins with the ligation of saphenofemoral junction?
A. *To prevent pulmonary embolism
B. To prevent bleeding
C. To prevent saphenofemoral reflux
D. To insert easy a venous extractor
E. To perform the scelerotherapy
What is the basic sign of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Painful cord along a great saphenous vein
B. Trophic ulcer
C. A gangrene of toes
D. Absence of pulsation
E. Edema of the lower extremity
1418. Painful cord along a great saphenous vein is characteristic for:
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Lymphedema
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Thrombangiitis obliterans
E. Thrombosis of deep veins
1419. Hyperemia and infiltrate along a great saphenous vein is characteristic for:
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Lymphedema
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Thrombangiitis obliterans
E. Thrombosis of deep veins
1420. What are the clinical manifestations of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Painful infiltrate and hyperemia along a great saphenous vein
B. Pale cold extremity, pulsation is absent
C. The hot cyanotic edematous lower extremity
D. The pale edematous lower extremity
E. Gangrene of toes and trophic ulcer
1421. What is the main danger of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Pulmonary embolism
B. Venous insufficiency
C. Trophic ulcer
D. A gangrene of toes
E. Paralysis
1422. To the pulmonary embolism can lead:
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Lymphedema
C. Obliterative atherosclerosis
D. Obliterative thrombangiitis
E. Raynaud's phenomenon
1423. Development of edema of the extremity in the case of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
specifies on:
A. *Lesion of deep veins
B. Infection
C. Cardiac insufficiency
D. Kidney insufficiency
E. Development of lymphostasis
1424. What is the typical treatment of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytics
D. Spasmolytics
E. Vitamins
1425. What is the main cause of the development of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Varicosity
B. Arterio-venous fistulas
C. Venous hypoplasia
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Obliterative atherosclerosis
1426. What is the background of the development of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Inflammatory reaction of venous wall
B. Atherosclerotic plaque
1427.
1428.
1429.
1430.
1431.
1432.
1433.
1434.
1435.
C. Diabetic angiopathy
D. Lipidemia
E. Anemia
What factor contributes to the development of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Trauma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Obliterative atherosclerosis
D. Anemia
E. Hemophilia
What medicinal medicines can result in formation of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Contraceptives
B. Anticoagulants
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Antiaggregants
E. Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory medicines
Mondor's disease is:
A. *Venous thrombosis of front chest wall
B. Ileofemoral venous thrombosis
C. Thrombosis of subclavian vein
D. Thrombosis of vena cava inferior
E. Thrombosis of vena cava superior
Venous thrombosis of front chest wall is:
A. *Mondor's disease
B. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
C. Badda-Chiari's syndrome
D. Raynaud's phenomenon
E. Disease of Madelung
A subcutaneous thrombophlebitis often associated with the following disease:
A. *Obliterative thromboangitis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Obliterative atherosclerosis
D. Nonspecific aorto-arteriitis
E. Hemophilia
A subcutaneous thrombophlebitis often associated with the following disease:
A. *Varicosity
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Obliterative atherosclerosis
D. Nonspecific aorto-arteriitis
E. Hemophilia
What is the typical treatment of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytics
D. Spasmolytics
E. Vitamins
What operation is performed for a subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Trombintimectomy
C. Autovenous by-passing
D. Prosthetic graft repairing of vessel
E. Amputation
Saphenectomy is performed for:
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
1436.
1437.
1438.
1439.
1440.
1441.
1442.
1443.
1444.
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation is performed for:
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
The operation crossectomy is performed for:
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Lymphedema
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Obliterative thrombangiitis
What are the indications for an urgent operation?
A. *Acute ascending thrombophlebitis
B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis of shin
C. Deep venous thrombosis of shin
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Badda-Chiari's syndrome
A testimony for an urgent saphenectomy is:
A. *Acute ascending thrombophlebitis
B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis of shin
C. Deep venous thrombosis of shin
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Badda-Chiari's syndrome
What is the acute ascending thrombophlebitis?
A. *Localization of blood clot in saphenofemoral junction
B. Total thrombotic lesion of vein
C. Partial thrombotic lesion of vein
D. Localization of blood clot in a subclavian vein
E. Localization of blood clot in the veins of front chest wall
What is the main cause of the development of thrombosis of deep veins?
A. *Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Varicosity
C. Arterio-venous fistulas
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Obliterative atherosclerosis
What factor contributes to the development of thrombosis of deep veins?
A. *Operating trauma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Obliterative atherosclerosis
D. Anemia
E. Hemophilia
What factor contributes to the development of thrombosis of deep veins?
A. *Trauma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Obliterative atherosclerosis
D. Anemia
E. Hemophilia
Localization of blood clot in saphenofemoral junction is:
A. *Acute ascending thrombophlebitis
B. Ileofemoral venous thrombosis
C. Thrombosis of deep veins
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Badda-Chiari's syndrome
1445. What are the clinical manifestations of deep venous thrombosis of shin?
A. *Edema of shins with cyanosis
B. A total edema of the lower extremity with cyanosis
C. Edema of both lower extremities
D. Pale lower extremity, pulsation is absent
E. Varicosity of shin with a trophic ulcer
1446. What is the main danger of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. *Pulmonary embolism
B. Venous insufficiency
C. Trophic ulcer
D. A gangrene of toes
E. Paralysis
1447. The Homan's sign is typical for:
A. *Thrombosis of deep veins
B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
C. Varicosity
D. Obliterative atherosclerosis
E. Diabetes mellitus
1448. Homan's sign is:
A. *Pain in the muscles of shin, which increases by back flexing of foot
B. Intermittent claudication at physical exertion
C. Absence of pulsation in a cold environment
D. Symptom of caugh shove
E. Absence of hepatic dullness
1449. How is the symptom named by author, when back flexing of foot increases the pain in the
muscles of shin?
A. *Homan's sign
B. Lovenberg's sign
C. Mondor's sign
D. Murphy's sign
E. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
1450. The Lovenberg's sign is typical for:
A. *Thrombosis of deep veins
B. Obliterative atherosclerosis
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicosity
1451. Lovenberg's sign is:
A. *Pain in the muscles of shin after imposition of cuff with pressure 80-100 mm of Hg.
B. Intermittent claudication at physical exertion
C. Absence of pulsation in a cold environment
D. Absence of hepatic dullness
E. Pain in the muscles of shin, caused by the back flexing of foot
1452. What are the clinical manifestations of ileofemoral venous thrombosis?
A. *A total edema of the lower extremity with cyanosis
B. Edema of shins with cyanosis
C. Edema of both lower extremities
D. Pale lower extremity, pulsation is absent
E. Varicosity of shin with a trophic ulcer
1453. Intermittent claudication is characteristic for:
A. *Atherosclerosis of lower extremities
1454.
1455.
1456.
1457.
1458.
1459.
1460.
1461.
1462.
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Pancreatitis
D. Varicosity
E. Cholecystitis
Dilating pain in extremity is characteristic for:
A. *Thrombosis of deep veins
B. Teleangiektaziy
C. Retikulyarnogo varicosity
D. Mikotichnogo of lesion
E. Diseasees of Madelunga
Edema of the extremity is characteristic for:
A. *Thrombosis of deep veins
B. Teleangiectasia
C. Reticular varicosity
D. Mycotic lesion
E. Madelung's disease
Cyanosis of the skin of extremity is characteristic for:
A. *Thrombosis of deep veins
B. Teleangiectasia
C. Reticular varicosity
D. Mycotic lesion
E. Madelung's disease
Intermittent claudication is characteristic for:
A. *Atherosclerosis obliterans
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Teleangiectasia
D. Reticular varicosity
E. Madelung's disease
In thrombosis of deep veins the patients complain on:
A. *Dilating pain in extremity
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Coldness of the extremity
D. Varicosity
E. Presence of trophic ulcer
In thrombosis of deep veins the patients complain on:
A. *Edema of extremities
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Coldness of the extremity
D. Poblidninnya of the extremity
E. Presence of trophic ulcer
In thrombosis of deep veins the patients complain on:
A. *Cyanosis of the skin of the extremity
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Coldness of the extremity
D. Pale extremity
E. Presence of trophic ulcer
What is the classic clinical triad for a deep venous thrombosis?
A. *Pain, edema, cyanosis of the extremity
B. Pale lower extremity, absent pulsation, edema
C. The varicosity of the lower extremity, trophic ulcer, edema
D. Pain, paralysis, cyanosis
E. Pain, paralysis, trophic ulcer
What is the characteristic clinical sign of deep venous thrombosis?
A. *Edema of extremities
B. Pulsation is absent
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Paralysis
E. Gangrene
1463. What are the basic collaterals for compensation of venous outflow in thrombosis of distal
segment of vena cava inferior?
A. *Azygos and hemiazygos veins
B. Lumbar veins
C. Femoral veins
D. Kidney veins
E. Vena cava superior
1464. What are the clinical manifestations of thrombosis of distal segment of vena cava inferior?
A. *Edema of lower half of body and lower extremities
B. Trophic ulcers of lower extremities
C. Gangrene of lower extremities
D. Kidney insufficiency
E. Insufficiency of liver
1465. Edema of lower extremities is characteristic for:
A. *Thrombosis of vena cava inferior
B. Lerishe's syndrome
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Thrombosis of vena cava superior
1466. Disturbance of sensation is characteristic for:
A. *Embolisms of the artery
B. Varicosity
C. Thrombosis of deep veins
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Lymphedema
1467. Paresis of the extremity is characteristic for:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Varicosity
C. Thrombosis of deep veins
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Lymphedema
1468. Plegia of the extremity is characteristic for:
A. *Embolisms of the artery
B. Varicosity
C. Thrombosis of deep veins
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Lymphedema
1469. Absence of pulsation on extremity is characteristic for:
A. *Embolisms of the artery
B. Varicosity
C. Thrombosis of deep veins
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Postphlebitic syndrome
1470. Muscular contracture of the extremity is characteristic for:
A. *Embolisms of the artery
B. Varicosity
C. Thrombosis of deep veins
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Postphlebitic syndrome
1471. Development of kidney insufficiency is characteristic for:
A. *Thrombosis of renal segment of vena cava inferior
B. Thrombosis of distal segment of vena cava inferior
C. Thrombosis of hepatic segment of vena cava inferior
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Thrombosis of vena cava superior
1472. Development of Badda-Chiari's syndrome is characteristic for:
A. *Thrombosis of hepatic segment of vena cava inferior
B. Thrombosis of renal segment of vena cava inferior
C. Thrombosis of distal segment of vena cava inferior
D. Paget-Shretter's syndrome
E. Thrombosis of vena cava superior
1473. What are the clinical manifestations of thrombosis of kidney segment of vena cava inferior?
A. *Kidney insufficiency
B. Trophic ulcers of lower extremities
C. Edema of lower half of body and lower extremities
D. Gangrene of lower extremities
E. Insufficiency of liver
1474. What are the clinical manifestations of thrombosis the hepatic segment of vena cava
inferior?
A. *Badda-Chiari's syndrome
B. Trophic ulcers of lower extremities
C. Edema of lower half of body and lower extremities
D. Gangrene of lower extremities
E. Kidney insufficiency
1475. Badda-Chiari's syndrome is:
A. *Thrombosis of hepatic veins
B. Ileofemoral venous thrombosis
C. Thrombosis of subclavian vein
D. Thrombosis of kidney veins
E. Thrombosis of vein of gate
1476. What are the clinical manifestations of Badda-Chiari's syndrome?
A. *Portal hypertension
B. Trophic ulcer of lower extremities
C. Respiratory insufficiency
D. Gangrene of lower extremities
E. Gematuria
1477. Thrombosis of axillary and subclavian vein is:
A. *Paget-Shretter's syndrome
B. Badda-Chiari's syndrome
C. Cushing's syndrome
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Syndrome of Morgani-Adams-Stoks
1478. Paget-Shretter's syndrome is:
A. *Thrombosis of axillary and subclavian vein
B. Occlusion of bifurcation of aorta
C. Thrombosis of vena cava superior
D. Thrombosis of hepatic veins
E. Thrombosis of vena cava inferior
1479. In Paget-Shretter's syndrome the patients complain on:
A. *Edema of upper extremity
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Coldness of the extremity
D. Pale extremity
E. Presence of trophic ulcer
1480. In Paget-Shretter's syndrome the patients complain on:
A. *Edema of upper extremity
B. Edema of the lower extremity
C. Edema of both lower extremities
D. Edema of lower half of body
E. Pulsation of neck veins
1481. In Paget-Shretter's syndrome the patients complain on:
A. *Cyanosis of upper extremity
B. Cyanosis of the lower extremity
C. Varicose veins of the lower extremity
D. Cyanosis of lower half of body
E. Varicose veins of front abdominal wall
1482. What is the main cause of Paget-Shretter's syndrome?
A. *Compression of subclavian vein in costo-clavicular space
B. Compression of common iliac vein by a tumour
C. Atherosclerotic lesion of arteries of upper extremities
D. Atherosclerotic lesion of carotid
E. Aortic aneurysm
1483. Compression of subclavian vein is a risk factor for:
A. *Paget-Shretter's syndrome
B. Badda-Chiari's syndrome
C. Cushing's syndrome
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Morgani-Adams-Stoks syndrome
1484. Implantation of pace-maker is a risk factor for:
A. *Paget-Shretter's syndrome
B. Badda-Chiari's syndrome
C. Cushing's syndrome
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Morgani-Adams-Stoks syndrome
1485. The mastectomy operation is a risk factor for:
A. *Paget-Shretter's syndrome
B. Badda-Chiari's syndrome
C. Cushing's syndrome
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Morgani-Adams-Stoks syndrome
1486. What are the clinical manifestations of Paget-Shretter's syndrome?
A. *Edema of upper extremity with cyanosis
B. A pale hand, pulsation is absent
C. Pale lower extremity, pulsation is absent
D. Varicosity of the lower extremity with a trophic ulcer
E. Edema of both lower extremities with cyanosis
1487. What is the main cause of the syndrome of vena cava superior?
A. *Tumour of mediastinum
B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
C. Deep venous thrombosis of lower extremities
D. Tumour of retroperitoneal space
E. Tumour of abdominal region
1488. What are the clinical manifestations of the syndrome of vena cava superior?
A. *Edema of upper half of body and hands with cyanosis
B. Trophic ulcer of upper extremities
C. Edema of lower half of body and lower extremities with cyanosis
D. Absence of pulsation of carotids
E. Absence of pulsation of arteries of upper extremities
1489. What is the level of the absent pulsation in thrombosis of deep veins?
A. *Preserved on all levels
B. Tibial arteries
C. Popliteal artery
D. Femoral artery
E. Aorta
1490. Which among the roentgenologic methods of diagnostics is the most informative for
thrombosis of deep veins?
A. *Phlebography
B. Arteriography
C. X-ray examination of abdomen
D. X-ray examination with barium
E. X-ray examination of the extremity
1491. Which among the methods of diagnostics is the most informative for thrombosis of deep
veins?
A. *Ultrasound examination
B. Arteriography
C. X-ray examination of abdomen
D. X-ray examination of chest
E. X-ray examination of the extremity
1492. What method is used for the diagnostics of thrombosis of deep veins?
A. *Ultrasound duplex scanning
B. Coagulogram
C. Reovasography
D. Ultrasound Doppler examination
E. Arteriography
1493. What are the indications for endarterectomy:
A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis
B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Thrombosis of deep veins
E. Varicosity
1494. What group of medicinal drugs the heparin belongs to?
A. *Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytics
D. Fibrinolytics
E. Antiinflammatory drugs
1495. What group of medicinal drugs the Klexan belongs to?
A. *Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytics
D. Fibrinolytics
E. Antiinflammatory drugs
1496. What group of medicinal drugs the Sincumar belongs to?
A. *Indirect anticoagulants
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytics
D. Fibrinolytics
E. Antiinflammatory drugs
1497. What group of medicinal drugs the Fenillin belongs to?
A. *Indirect anticoagulants
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytics
1498.
1499.
1500.
1501.
1502.
1503.
1504.
1505.
1506.
D. Fibrinolytics
E. Antiinflammatory drugs
What group of medicinal drugs the Actilise belongs to?
A. *Thrombolytics
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Direct anticoagulants
D. Venotonics
E. Antiinflammatory drugs
What group of medicinal drugs the Streptokinase belongs to?
A. *Thrombolytics
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Direct anticoagulants
D. Venotonics
E. Antiinflammatory drugs
What group of medicinal drugs the Detralex belongs to?
A. *Venotonics
B. Thrombolytics
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory drugs
What group of medicinal drugs the Venoplant belongs to?
A. *Venotonics
B. Thrombolytics
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory drugs
What medical drugs belong to the direct anticoagulants?
A. *Heparin
B. Syncumarum, Fenilin
C. Streptokinase, Urokinase
D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin
E. Diklofenak, Naklofen
What medical drugs belong to the direct anticoagulants?
A. *Fraxiparin, Kleksan
B. Syncumarum, Fenilin
C. Streptokinase, Urokinase
D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin
E. Diklofenak, Naklofen
What medical drugs belong to the indirect anticoagulants?
A. *Syncumarum, Fenilin
B. Fraxiparin, Kleksan
C. Streptokinase, Urokinase
D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin
E. Diklofenak, Naklofen
What medical drugs belong to fibrinolytics?
A. *Streptokinase, Urokinase
B. Heparin
C. Syncumarum, Fenilin
D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin
E. Diklofenak, Naklofen
What is the dose of heparin for the treatment of thrombophlebitis?
A. *5000-10000 Units each 4-6 hours
B. 1000-2000 Units each 4-6 hours
C. 1000-2000 Units daily
1507.
1508.
1509.
1510.
1511.
1512.
1513.
1514.
1515.
D. 2500 Units every hour
E. 20000-40000 Units each 12 hours
What is the initial dose of Streptokinase?
A. *250000 Units
B. 5000 Units
C. 10000 Units
D. 100000 Units
E. 1000000 Units
What drugs are used in the overdose of heparin?
A. *Protamine sulfate
B. Fraxiparin, Kleksan
C. Streptokinase, Urokinase
D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin
E. Diklofenak, Naklofen
What drugs are used in the overdose of Streptokinase?
A. *Aminocapronic acid, Trasylolum
B. Fraxiparin, Kleksan
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin
E. Diklofenak, Naklofen
What medical drugs belong to venotonics?
A. *Detralex, Flebodia
B. Heparin
C. Syncumarum, Fenilin
D. Papaverin, Nospanum
E. Diklofenak, Naklofen
What are the normal measures of prothrombine index?
A. *85-100 %
B. 10-20 %
C. 30-60 %
D. 50-70 %
E. 100-120 %
What prothrombine index must be during the treatment of venous thrombosis?
A. *50-70 %
B. 10-20 %
C. 30-40 %
D. 85-100 %
E. 100-120 %
What indexes of coagulogram control the dosage of anticoagulants?
A. *Prothrombine index
B. The amount of thrombocytes in the blood
C. Level of blood fibrinogen
D. Thrombotest
E. Time of recalcification
What is the normal level of blood fibrinogen?
A. *2-4 g/l
B. 6-8 g/l
C. 10-16 g/l
D. 30-50 g/l
E. 75-100 g/l
What indexes of coagulogram control the dosage of thrombolytics?
A. *Level of blood fibrinogen
B. The amount of thrombocytes in the blood
C. Prothrombine index
1516.
1517.
1518.
1519.
1520.
1521.
1522.
1523.
1524.
D. Thrombotest
E. Time of recalcification
What is the norm of time of recalcification?
A. *60-120 seconds
B. 0.5-2 seconds
C. 10-40 seconds
D. 40-60 seconds
E. 4-8 minutes
What are the normal measures of the thrombotest?
A. *IV-V degree
B. I-II degree
C. II-III degree
D. VІ-VІІІ degree
E. X-XІІ degree
What is the normal amount of thrombocytes in blood?
A. *180-320?109/l
B. 20-40?109/l
C. 40-120?109/l
D. 420-650?109/l
E. 600-1000?109/l
What method is used for the diagnostics of deep venous thrombosis?
A. *Ultrasound doppler examination
B. General and biochemical analyses of blood
C. Coagulogram
D. Reovasography
E. Arteriography
What treatment is used for the deep venous thrombosis of shin?
A. *Conservative treatment
B. Thrombectomy
C. Saphenectomy
D. Autovenous by-passing
E. Prosthetic graft repairing of vessel
What treatment is used for ileofemoral venous thrombosis?
A. *Conservative treatment
B. Saphenectomy
C. Thrombectomy
D. Autovenous by-passing
E. Prosthetic graft repairing of vessel
Iliofemoral prosthetic by-passing is performed for:
A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis
B. Postphlebitic syndrome
C. Varicosity
D. Thrombosis of deep veins
E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
Femoro-popliteal autovenous by-passing is performed for:
A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis
B. Postphlebitic syndrome
C. Varicosity
D. Thrombosis of deep veins
E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
Bifurcation aorto-femoral prosthetic by-passing is performed for:
A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis
B. Postphlebitic syndrome
C. Varicosity
D. Thrombosis of deep veins
E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
1525. Decompression osteoperforation is performed for:
A. *Obliterative atherosclerosis
B. Postphlebitic syndrome
C. Varicosity
D. Thrombosis of deep veins
E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
1526. A sympathectomy is performed for:
A. *Obliterative thrombangiitis
B. Obliterative atherosclerosis
C. Varicosity
D. Thrombosis of deep veins
E. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
1527. When is the operation possible in ileofemoral venous thrombosis?
A. *Duration of disease less than 5 days
B. Duration of disease 7-14 days
C. Duration of disease 21-28 days
D. Duration of disease of 2-3 months
E. In a "cold" period
1528. What is the level of arterial pulsation absence in the thrombosis of deep veins?
A. *Preserved on all levels
B. Arteries of foot
C. Femoral artery
D. Popliteal artery
E. Common carotid
1529. What method of prophylaxis of pulmonary embolism is used during the operation for
ileofemoral venous thrombosis?
A. *Introduction of ballon catheter to the vena cava inferior during the operation
B. The elastic bandage during the operation
C. Application of anticoagulants during the operation
D. Application of fibrinolytics during the operation
E. Introduction of ballon catheter to the vena cava superior during the operation
1530. What method of prophylaxis of pulmonary embolism is used during the operation for
ileofemoral venous thrombosis?
A. *Introduction of cava-filters to the vena cava inferior during the operation
B. Application of anticoagulants during the operation
C. Application of fibrinolytics during the operation
D. The elastic bandage during the operation
E. Introduction of ballon catheter to the vena cava superior during the operation
1531. When after a deep venous thrombosis do we make the diagnosis of postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *In 6 months
B. In 10-14 days
C. In 1 month
D. Through 2 months
E. In 1 year
1532. What are the clinical manifestations of postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *The expressed edema, secondary varicosity
B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
C. Arterial ischemia
D. Contracture of joints
E. Paralysis
1533. What is the cause of postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *Thrombosis of deep veins
1534.
1535.
1536.
1537.
1538.
1539.
1540.
1541.
1542.
B. Arterial embolism
C. Arterial thrombosis
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicosity
The pallor of the skin is characteristic for:
A. *Embolisms of the artery
B. Varicosity
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Postphlebitic syndrome
E. Phlegmon of the extremity
A coldness of the extremity is characteristic for:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Varicosity
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Postphlebitic syndrome
E. Phlegmon of the extremity
What is the base of postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *Valvular incompetence
B. Venous occlusion
C. Arterial occlusion
D. Nervous damage
E. Gangrene of the extremity
What clinical form of postphlebitic syndrome does not exist?
A. *Gangrenous
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Edematous
E. Ulcerous
What is the typical follow up of deep venous thrombosis?
A. *Recanalization of blood clot with valvular incompetence
B. Complete obliteration of vein
C. Partial obliteration of vein
D. Varicose expansion
E. Arterio-venous fistula
What are the clinical manifestations of postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *Signs of venous insufficiency
B. Signs of nervous damage
C. Signs of vascular dystonia
D. Signs of arterial insufficiency
E. Limitation of movements of the lower extremity
What medicines belong to thrombolytic medicines?
A. *Fibrinolysinum, Streptokinase.
B. Nicotine acid.
C. Papaverin, Platyphyllin.
D. Fenilin, Omephin.
E. Vasaprostan
What clinical sign is characteristic for a postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *Edema of leg
B. Absence of pulsation
C. Paralysis
D. Gangrene
E. Absence of sensation
What is the characteristic sign of the I stage of postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *Transitory edema
1543.
1544.
1545.
1546.
1547.
1548.
1549.
1550.
1551.
B. Permanent edema
C. Hyperpigmentation
D. Trophic ulcer
E. Gangrene
What is the characteristic sign of the II stage of postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *Hyperpigmentation
B. Heavy sensation
C. Transitory edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healed trophic ulcer
What is the characteristic sign of the II stage of postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *Permanent edema
B. Heavy sensation
C. Transitory edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healed trophic ulcer
What is the characteristic sign of the III stage of postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *Trophic ulcer
B. Heavy sensation
C. Transitory edema
D. Permanent edema
E. Hyperpigmentation
What clinical form of postphlebitic syndrome is characterized by absence of varicosity?
A. *Sclerotic
B. Varicose
C. Edematous
D. Ulcerous
E. Necrotizing
What clinical form of postphlebitic syndrome is characterized by the secondary varicosity?
A. *Varicose
B. Sclerotic
C. Edematous
D. Ulcerous
E. Necrotizing
What clinical form of postphlebitic syndrome is caused by a venous obstruction?
A. *Edematous
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Ulcerous
E. Necrotizing
What is the physiology norm of fibrinogen in the blood serum?
A. *2.2 - 4.2 g/l.
B. 5.5 - 7.5 g/l.
C. 5.6 - 8.0 g/l.
D. 5.9 - 9.2 g/l.
E. 7.8 – 5.5 g/l.
What is the physiology norm of prothrombine index?
A. *80 – 100 %.
B. 40 – 60 %.
C. 110 – 130 %.
D. 15 – 45 %.
E. 0 – 10 %.
To the absolute contraindications for the usage of anticoagulants belongs:
A. *Bleeding of any localization, hemorrhagic diateses
1552.
1553.
1554.
1555.
1556.
1557.
1558.
1559.
1560.
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Respiratory insufficiency
D. Cardiac insufficiency
E. Insufficiency of cerebral blood circulation
To the activators of Fibrinolisine belong:
A. *Nicotine acid, Complamine
B. Fenilin, Omephin
C. Gastrocepin, Venter
D. Vitamins B
E. Vitamins A, C.
Medicines of antiaggrigant activity:
A. *Reopolyglucin, Trental, aspirin, курантіл
B. Omephin, Fenillin, Pelentan
C. Cinarizin, Sermion, Solcoseril
D. Fentalamin, Tropaphen
E. Simvastatin
Medicines of thrombolytic action:
A. *Fibrinolysinum, Streptokinase
B. Korglucon, strophanthin
C. Celonid, Lantozid
D. Reopolyglucin, polyhybrid
E. Trentalum, Pentoxiphyllin
The embolectomy is performed for:
A. *Embolisms of the artery
B. Varicosity
C. Thrombosis of deep veins
D. Postphlebitic syndrome
E. Phlegmon of the extremity
Trombintimectomy is performed for:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Embolisms of the artery
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicosity
The collateral autovenous by-passing is performed for:
A. *Arterial thrombosis
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Embolisms of the artery
D. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
E. Varicosity
Methods of control of the coagulative and fibrinolytic systems of blood:
A. *Coagulogram
B. General blood analysis
C. Determination of speed of local blood stream
D. Hemogram
E. Biochemical blood test
In the overdosing of heparin enter:
A. *1% solution of Protamini sulfate
B. Cimiton, Lobeline
C. Amitriptilin
D. 2,5% solution of Aminasini
E. Adrenalin
In bleeding, caused by the indirect anticoagulants prescribed:
A. *Vikasol
B. Pipolphenum
C. Digitoksin
D. Gidrokortizon
E. Petoksifilin
1561. In fibrinolytic bleeding prescribed:
A. *Aminokapronovu acid
B. 1 % solution of Ombeni, 0,5 % solution of hydrocortison, prednisolon
C. 0,1 % solution of nicotine acid
D. 5 % solution of аскорбіновоі acid
E. AlprostThe
1562. What is the purpose of the usage of thrombolytic and anticoagulating therapy:
A. *Lysis of blood clot, prophylaxis of distribution of blood clot
B. Improvement of function of liver
C. To development of collateral net
D. A removal of the spasm on peripheral vessels
E. Improvement of microcirculation
1563. Name the unpharmacological methods of correction of the coagulative system of blood.
A. Hemodilution.
B. Hemodyalisis.
C. Hemosorbtion.
D. A forced diuresis.
E. Lymphosorbtion.
1564. Where does a small saphenous vein drain?
A. *In a popliteal vein.
B. In a great saphenous vein.
C. In a femoral vein.
D. In a general iliac vein.
E. In a vena cava inferior.
1565. What method is used for the diagnostics of valvular incompetence in postphlebitic
syndrome?
A. *Ultrasound duplex scanning
B. Coagulogram
C. Reovasography
D. Ultrasound doppler examination
E. Arteriography
1566. What method is used for the estimation of the passability of deep veins in postphlebitic
syndrome?
A. *Ultrasound examination
B. Coagulogram
C. Reovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
1567. What treatment is indicated for a postphlebitic syndrome?
A. *Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Scelerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's operation
E. Saphenectomy with the subfascial ligation of perforative veins (Linton's operation)
1568. The trophic ulcer of the lower third of shin is characteristic for:
A. *Postphlebitic syndrome
B. Thrombosis of deep veins
C. Thrombangiitis obliterans
D. Lerishe's syndrome
E. Embolisms of femoral artery
1569. The basic source of embols in pulmonary embolism is:
A. *System of vena cava inferior
B. Subclavian artery
C. Left ventricle
D. Femoral artery
E. Abdominal part of aorta
1570. The cause of pulmonary embolism is:
A. *Thrombosis of deep veins of lower extremities
B. Bacterial endocarditis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
E. Obliterative atherosclerosis of lower extremities
1571. To massive pulmonary embolism belongs:
A. *Occlusion of basic trunk of pulmonary artery and its branches
B. Embolism of lobe branches of pulmonary artery
C. Embolism of segmental branches of pulmonary artery
D. Embolism of lobe branches of pulmonary artery with ileofemoral vein thrombosis
E. Embolism of segmental branches of pulmonary artery with subcutaneous
thrombophlebitis
1572. Which among the symptoms is characteristic for pulmonary embolism?
A. *Pain behind breastbone
B. Regurgitation
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Paradoxical breathing
E. Syndrome of thoracic outlet
1573. Which among the symptoms is characteristic for pulmonary embolism?
A. *Dispnoe
B. Regurgitation
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Paradoxical breathing
E. Syndrome of thoracic outlet
1574. Which among the symptoms is characteristic for pulmonary embolism?
A. *Shock
B. Regurgitation
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Paradoxical breathing
E. Syndrome of thoracic outlet
1575. EKG change in pulmonary embolism is characterized by:
A. *The overload of right parts of heart
B. The overload of left parts of heart
C. Heart premature beats
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. By the total block of left leg of Hiss bundle
1576. A typical roentgenologic sign of pulmonary embolism is:
A. *Wedge-shaped atelectasiss
B. Rounded shade
C. Pneumothorax
D. Caverns
E. "Rat tail" sign
1577. A typical roentgenologic sign of pulmonary embolism is:
A. *Pleural effusion
B. Rounded shade
C. Pneumothorax
D. Caverns
E. "Rat tail" sign
1578. Which among roentgenologic signs is not characteristic for pulmonary embolism?
A. *Rounded shade
B. Wedge-shaped atelectasiss
C. Pleural effusion
D. Dilatation of right ventricle
E. High standing of diaphragm dome
1579. Which among instrumental methods is the most informative for the diagnostic of pulmonary
embolism?
A. *Angiopneumography
B. X-ray examination of chest
C. Ultrasound examination
D. ECG
E. EchoCG
1580. Massive pulmonary embolism is characterized by the following clinic:
A. *Phenomena of shock
B. Infarction pneumonia
C. Hemoptysis
D. Pleurisy
E. Asymptomatic course
1581. Which among symptoms is not characteristic for infarction pneumonia?
A. *Ring-like shade
B. Wedge-shaped atelectasiss
C. Hemoptysis
D. Pleural effusion
E. Increase body t°
1582. For differentiation between pulmonary embolism and myocardial infarction is used:
A. *ECG
B. Ultrasound examination
C. X-ray examination of chest
D. Fibrogastroscopy
E. Spirography
1583. Which among echocardiographic signs is not characteristic for pulmonary embolism?
A. *Dilated, hypocinetic left ventricle
B. Dilated, hypocinetic right ventricle
C. Dilatation of proximal pulmonary arteries
D. The increase of bloodflow velocity of tricuspid regurgitation >3-7 m/s
E. Disturbance of bloodsource from a right ventricle
1584. The direct signs of pulmonary embolism on the angiopneumography are:
A. *Defects of filling of vessels
B. Dilatation of pulmonary artery trunk and its large branches
C. Asymmetry of filling of vessels by a contrast substance
D. The stasis of contrast
E. Pleural effusion
1585. The direct signs of pulmonary embolism on the angiopneumography are:
A. *«Amputation» of vessel with dilatation proximally to occlusion
B. Dilatation of pulmonary artery trunk and its large branches
C. Asymmetry of filling of vessels by a contrast substance
D. The stasis of contrast
E. Pleural effusion
1586. The direct signs of pulmonary embolism on the angiopneumography are:
A. *Oligemia
B. Dilatation of pulmonary artery trunk and its large branches
C. Asymmetry of filling of vessels by a contrast substance
D. The stasis of contrast
E. Pleural effusion
1587. To the laboratory methods which confirm the pulmonary embolism belong:
A. *Determination of D-dimer
B. General blood analysis
C. Determination of cholinesterase activity
D. Determination of circulationy immune complexes
E. Determination of antiphosfolipid factor
1588. For the control of anticoagulating therapy in pulmonary embolism used:
A. *The partial activated thromboplastine time
B. Fibrinogen of blood
C. Thrombotest
D. Tolerance of blood serum to heparin
E. Time of recalcification
1589. The initial dose of heparin in the treatment of pulmonary embolism:
A. *10-20 thousands Unites
B. 2,5-5 thousands Unites
C. 1-2,5 thousands Unites
D. 40-60 thousands Unites
E. 100 thousands Unites
1590. What index of the partial activated thromboplastine time, which confirms the efficiency of
anticoagulating therapy?
A. *Increase in 1,5-2 times
B. Does not change
C. Diminish in 1,5-2 times
D. Diminish in 3-5 times
E. Diminish in 10-15 times
1591. Medicine of choice of thrombolytic therapy in pulmonary embolism is:
A. *Aktilise
B. Heparin
C. Fibrinolysin
D. Fraxiparin
E. Clexan
1592. What is the dose of Aktilise is used in the treatment of pulmonary embolism?
A. *100 mg.
B. 5 mg.
C. 10 mg.
D. 500 mg.
E. 1000 mg.
1593. The indication for application of thrombolytic therapy is:
A. *Pulmonary embolism
B. Hemorrhagic shock
C. Suspicion on dissection of aorta
D. Severe traumas or great surgical operations within 2 weeks
E. Septic endocarditis
1594. The indication for application of thrombolytic therapy is:
A. *Deep vein thrombosis
B. Hemorrhagic shock
C. Suspicion on dissection of aorta
D. Severe traumas or great surgical operations within 2 weeks
E. Septic endocarditis
1595. What diseases are not contraindication for the thrombolytic therapy?
A. *Acute myocardial infarction
B. Hemorrhagic shock
C. Suspicion on dissection of aorta
D. Severe traumas or great surgical operations within 2 weeks
E. Septic endocarditis
1596. What diseases are not contraindication for thrombolytic therapy?
A. *Acute ileofemoral venous thrombosis
B. Hemorrhagic shock
C. Suspicion on dissection of aorta
D. Severe traumas or great surgical operations within 2 weeks
E. Septic endocarditis
1597. In relapse pulmonary embolism with a prophylactic purpose used:
A. *Implantation of cava-filters
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Thrombolytics
E. Profundoplastiks
1598. What operation is performed in patients with pulmonary embolism?
A. *Thrombectomy from a pulmonary artery
B. Ligation of pulmonary artery
C. Prosthetic graft repairing of pulmonary artery
D. Resection of pulmonary artery
E. Pneumonectomy
Situational tasks
1. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left
half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the
left half of the chest during breathing, lung sounds by percussion, by auscultation crackling rales
over the lower lobe of the left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of lung tissue
with areas of enlightenment in the center. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Abscessing pneumonia.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
2. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left
half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the
left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe,
by auscultation weakened breathing with amphoric sound, crackling rales. On X-ray of the chest
expressed infiltration of lung tissue with enlightenment in the center with fluid level. What is
the primary diagnosis?
A. *Acute lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Abscessing pneumonia.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
3. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left
half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 months, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the
left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe,
by auscultation weakened breathing with amphoric sound. On X-ray of the chest the destruction
cavity with the fibrous capsule in the projection of lower lobe of the left lung, infiltration of
lung tissue is not determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Chronic lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left
half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the
left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe,
by auscultation weakened breathing with amphoric sound. On the X-ray of chest the destruction
cavity with the fluid level, with a clear thin-walled capsule in the projection of the lower lobe of
the left lung. Infiltration of lung tissue is not determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Suppurative cyst of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left
half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the
left half of the chest during breathing, over the left lobe a dull percussion sound, by auscultation
the breathing is absent. On X-ray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts of the left lung with
an oblique upper level along Damuazo's line. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Pleural empyema.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Suppurative cyst of the lung.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left
half of the chest, dyspnea. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag
of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower
lobe, by auscultation the breathing is absent. On X-ray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts
of the left lung with a horizontal fluid level and enlightenment over it. Is visible the edge of
collapsed lung. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Limited pyopneumothorax.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Pleural empyema.
E. Total pyopneumothorax.
Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood, increased body
temperature to 40°C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. Has been ill for 2 weeks,
the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, with a
shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound, by auscultation moist rales over the left lung. On
X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of the left lung with multiple sites of destruction. What
is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Gangrene of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood, increased body
temperature to 40°C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. Has been ill for 2 weeks,
the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, with a
shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound, by auscultation moist rales over the lower lobe
of the left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of left lung tissue with a giant
cavity in the lower lobe with the level of the fluid. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Gangrenous abscess of lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Gangrene of the lung.
9. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain in the left
half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the
left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe,
by auscultation weakened breathing. On X-ray of the chest paracostal fusiform shadow in the
projection of the left lower lobe of the lung. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Limited empyema.
B. Wide-spread pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Chronic lung abscess.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
10. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous shadow in the
lower lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid with blood clots. What
treatment are the best for the patient?
A. *Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Operational - lung decortication
C. Daily puncture
D. Resorbed therapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
11. In the patient, 48 years old, on the seventh day after the onset of a moderate pain in the chest,
severe cough, fever to 39°C appeared the bad-smell sputum. The patient's condition remains
grave, with expectoration more than 600 ml of gray-green sputum, and hectic fever. On X-ray –
on the background of the heterogeneous shadow of the lower lobe of right lung revealed a cavity
with a horizontal level of fluid. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Abscess of the right lung
B. Gangrene of the right lung
C. Acute abscess of the right lung
D. Suppuration cyst of the right lung
E. Suppuration tuberculous cavern
12. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the left half of
the chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea, pain during inspiration.
By auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse
100 beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Angina pectoris
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Left-sided pleurisy
E. Pneumonia
13. The patient A., age 37, entered with complaints of cough with purulent sputum to 150 ml per
day, pain in the right half of the chest, fever to 38°C. Has been ill for two weeks. The day before
the entrance to the clinic during cough attack expectorated to 300 ml of purulent bad-smell
sputum. On examination: a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound under the right
scapula, and the weakening of vesicular breathing. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Acute lung abscess
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Exacerbation of chronic abscess
D. Exacerbation of bronchoectatic disease
E. Pleural empyema
14. Patient A., aged 42, had been treated for two months for an acute abscess of the upper lobe of
right lung without improvement. The treatment: intramuscular injection of antibiotics,
sulfanilamidns drugs. Remains the cough with purulent sputum to 80-100 ml per day, fever
(37,6°C). What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Chronic lung abscess
B. Acute abscess of the right lung
C. Tuberculous cavern
D. Peripheral lung cancer
E. Suppurative cyst of lung
15. The patient, 78 years old, entered with complaints of pain in the left half of the chest, coughing,
with daily 80 ml of mucopurulent sputum, fever to 37,2°C. The X-rays of the lower lobe of right
lung revealed a cavity with irregular internal border and outside spicules with minor infiltration
around. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Hollow form of lung cancer
B. Chronic lung abscess
C. Suppuration cyst of lung
D. Fibro-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Limited empyema
16. The patient has a pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by repeated bleeding., The
patient is undergoing the operative treatment. What antibiotics are the most suitable for
preoperative prophylaxis?
A. *Cephalosporins.
B. Penicillin.
C. Macrolides.
D. Aminoglycosides.
E. Fluorohinolones.
17. The patient with bilateral hydrothorax has undergone the repeat pleural puncture of both sides.
After the last puncture felt the deterioration, fever, pain in the chest. Therapeutist on the next
day during pleural puncture on the right obtained the pus. What is the mechanism of acute rightside empyema?
A. *Contact-aspirating.
B. Lymphogenous.
C. Hematogenous.
D. Implantation.
E. Airborne.
18. The patient has the pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What medicines
are the most suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. *Vitamin K.
B. Anticoagulants.
C. Antibiotics.
D. Antiaggregants.
E. Prostaglandins.
19. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What medicines are the
most suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. *Dicynon.
B. Heparin.
C. Penicillin.
D. Courantil.
E. Alprostan.
20. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding to 200 ml. How this
bleeding is classified?
A. *I degree
B. 0 degree
C. II degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
21. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of
the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by
auscultation - breathing is absent. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic
pneumothorax.
B. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side.
C. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic
subcutaneous emphysema.
E. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic complicated
hemothorax.
22. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of
the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by
auscultation - breathing is absent. What additional examination is the most suitable?
A. *Chest X-ray with contrast of the stomach
B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
C. Esophagogastroscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. Tomography of the chest
23. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of
the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by
auscultation - breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of VVI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the typical treatment of rib
fracture?
A. *Novocaine block
B. External fixation of ribs
C. Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis;
D. Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure
E. Thoracotomy
24. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of
the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by
auscultation - breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of VVI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the treatment of pneumothorax?
A. *Pleural drainage
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
25. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of
the chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by
auscultation - breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of VVI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in
pneumothorax is performed?
A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
26. The patient received chest trauma 14 days ago. Complains of a moderate pain in the right half
of the chest, dyspnea, fever up to 38,5°C. Lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
narrowing of the intercostal spaces. By percussion - a shortening of the percussion sound over
the right lung, by auscultation - weakening of breathing. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Right-side suppurative hemothorax.
B. Right-side posttraumatic pneumonia.
C. Right-side hemothorax.
D. Right-side pyopneumothorax.
E. Consolidated rib fractures.
27. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing,
chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the
front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. What is the primary
diagnosis?
A. *Mediastinal emphysema.
B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
C. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Subcutaneous emphysema.
28. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing,
chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the
front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis:
Mediastinal emphysema. What is the treatment of mediastinal emphysema?
A. *Drainage of anterior mediastinum
B. Conservative treatment
C. Drainage of pleural cavity
D. Novocaine block
E. Pericardial puncture
29. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing,
chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the
front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis:
Mediastinal emphysema. What is the main cause of mediastinal emphysema?
A. *Disruptions of trachea, bronchi
B. Rib fracture
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
E. Mediastinal tumours
30. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing,
chest pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements 26-28 per 1 min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the
front wall. The swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis:
Mediastinal emphysema. What does the mediastinal emphysema result in?
A. *Cardiac tamponade
B. Hemoptysis
C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung atelectasis
31. Female patient, 62 years old, was got in accident. On examination was detected the region of the
right half of the chest, which disengages during inspiration. What are the most appropriate
therapeutic measures?
A. *External fixation of a floating area
B. Introduction of narcotic analgetics
C. Vagosympathetic block by Vishnevsky
D. Tight chest bandage
E. Paravertebral blockade
32. In the patient after the accident with multiple rib fracture during the puncture of pleural cavity
received the gastric content. What additional examination is the most suitable?
A. *Chest X-ray with contrast of the stomach
B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
C. Esophagogastroscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. Tomography of the chest
33. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous shadow in the
lower lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid with blood clots. What
treatment are the best for the patient?
A. *Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Operational - lung decortication
C. Daily puncture
D. Resorbed therapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
34. In the patient after blunt chest trauma with a sternum fracture appeared the weakness,
hypotension, cyanosis of the upper half of the body, distension of the neck veins. By pleural
puncture the content is absent. Pulse 120 beats.per min, rhythmic, weakened. What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. *Cardiac tamponade
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Contusion of the heart
D. Acute myocardial infarction
E. Coagulated hemopericardium
35. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous emphysema of the
upper half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120 beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax
was found out with significantly enlargement of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the first
aid?
A. *Drainage of the anterior mediastinum
B. Puncture of the pleural cavity
C. Drainage of the pleural cavity
D. Thoracoscopy
E. Thoracotomy
36. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous emphysema of the
upper half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120 beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax
was found out with significantly enlargement of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. *Mediastinal emphysema.
B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
C. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Subcutaneous emphysema.
37. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. What is the first aid?
A. *Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Intravenous infusion
C. Oxygenotherapy
D. Intubation
E. Analgesics
38. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. Where the drainage of pleural
space in pneumothorax is performed?
A. *II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
39. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in
hemothorax is performed?
A. *VII intercostal space, scapular line
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
40. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What method is the most informative in
the diagnostic of hemothorax?
A. *Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
41. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What test is used to determine the
continuity of pleural bleeding?
A. *Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
42. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the left half of
the chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea, pain during inspiration.
By auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse
100 beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Angina pectoris
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Left-sided pleurisy
E. Pneumonia
43. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight.
On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium
like chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Diverticulum of the esophagus
B. Esophagotraheal fistula
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Stenosis of the esophagus
E. Esophageal achalasia
44. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight.
On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium
like chicken egg by the size and shape. What complication is probable for this disease?
A. *Diverticulitis
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
45. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight.
On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium
like chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the typical treatment of this disease?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Spasmolytics
C. Analgetics
D. Nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs
E. Antibiotics
46. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight.
On X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium
like chicken egg by the size and shape. What operation is performed in this disease?
A. *Resection of diverticulum
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Esophagogastric anastomosis
D. Extirpation of esophagus
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
47. To the hospital entered a man in the critical condition: acrocyanosis, dyspnea, subcutaneous
emphysema on the neck and upper part of body. Complains of severe pain behind the
breastbone and epigastrium. The body temperature of 38,9°C, pulse 130 beats/min, blood
pressure 80/50 mm Hg. From anamnesis 6 years ago after drinking appeared the vomit, which
resulted in the signatic. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. *Spontaneous rupture of esophagus
B. Incarceration of paraesophageal hernia
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Perforated ulcer
48. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic
vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow
during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On
plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. *Achalasia of esophagus
B. Peptic stenosis of the esophagus
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Diverticulum of the esophagus
E. Sliding esophageal hernia
49. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic
vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow
during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On
plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the stomach. What stage of dysphagia relates
to such manifestations?
A. *II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
50. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic
vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow
during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On
plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the roentgenological sign
of this disease in contrast X-ray with barium?
A. *"Rat tail" sign
B. Filling defects
C. "Niche" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
51. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic
vomiting. Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow
during sleep. Lost 15 kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On
plain X-ray film the absence of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the main method of
diagnostic of this disease?
A. *X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
52. On X-ray of the esophagus in the right lateral projection in the middle third on the front wall
was found out the additional shadow, of round shape with smooth contours to 2 cm in diameter.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Diverticulum of the esophagus
B. Achalasia of the esophagus
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Chemical burn of the esophagus
E. Diaphragmatic hernia
53. The tool dilation of burn and peptic stricture of the esophagus has a risk of perforation with the
development of purulent mediastinitis and pleural empyema. What is the least dangerous
method for perforation should be applied in the first attempt of dilation of the stricture?
A. *Dilatation of the stricture by balloon dilatator with a stable diameter of the cylinder.
B. Bouginage under the control of esophagoscope.
C. Bouginage along the metal conductor.
D. The blind bouginage under local anesthesia.
E. Bouginage under the control of X-ray
54. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by unchanged food,
regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years. On X-ray study revealed
achalasia of esophagus of the IV stage with S-shaped deformation. What is the optimal
treatment?
A. *Operation esophagocardiomyotomy with plastic by the stomach fundus.
B. Cardiodilatation by hard probe.
C. Cardiodilatation balloon probe.
D. Operation esophago-fundoanastomosis by Heyrovsky.
E. Resection of the cardia with esophageal anastomosis.
55. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by unchanged food,
regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years. On X-ray study revealed
achalasia of esophagus of the IV stage. What is the characteristic feature of the IV stage of this
disease?
A. *Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
B. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
C. Asymptomatic
D. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
E. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
56. Patient 52 entered the clinic with complaints of complete obstruction of the esophagus,
salivation, weakness, t-38,7°C. Dysphagia has been for 8 days, after the swallowing of piece of
the meat with bone. On X-ray the barium delays at the middle third of the esophagus. On
fibroesophagoscopy was found a wedged bone with hyperemia and edema of the mucous
membrane, covered by fibrin. What is the optimal treatment strategy in this case?
A. *Surgical treatment: thoracotomy, esophagotomy, removal of foreign body (bone),
suturing of the esophagus + gastrostomy.
B. Endoscopic removal of foreign body by rigid esophagoscope
C. Pushing of foreign body in the stomach by bougie.
D. Removal of foreign body by the Fogarty's probe
E. Removal of foreign body by fiberoptic endoscope.
57. Among the methods of esophageal plastic the most physiologic and safe modern method is:
A. *Isoperistaltic plastic by tube of the greater curvature of the stomach after the extirpation
of the esophagus through a cervical-laparotomy access.
B. Large intestine plastic in antiperistaltic position of the transplant.
C. Large intestine plastic in isoperistaltic position of the transplant.
D. Large intestine plastic with a skin flap.
E. Large intestine plastic by ileocecal segment.
58. The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt the fever,
tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of fluid in the posterior
mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Acute posterior mediastinitis.
B. Acute anterior mediastinitis.
C. Diverticulum of the esophagus.
D. Acute pleural empyema.
E. Paraesophageal hernia.
59. Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone, loss of weight. Has been ill for 7 months.
Last 2 weeks noticed difficult passing of solid food. On contrasting X-ray was diagnosed: filling
defect of lower thoracic part of the esophagus, a "niche" sign of the lesser curvature of stomach.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Gastric ulcer
B. Paraesophageal hernia
C. Decompensated pyloric stenosis
D. Sliding esophageal hernia
E. Peptic duodenal ulcer
60. Complaints of the pain behind the breastbone, difficult passage of solid food, weight loss,
dizziness. Has been ill for 3 months. Last 2 days disturbs the vomiting after fluid food, the
stagnation of fluid food. On EGDS severe narrowing of the esophagus, rigidity of the walls,
hyperemic mucosa without folds. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Esophageal cancer
B. Sliding esophageal hernia
C. Paraesophageal hernia
D. Reflux esophagitis
E. Varicose veins of the esophagus
61. In the patient six months ago appeared the complaints of pain behind the sternum and a strong
burning sensation in the esophagus. Sometimes observed dysphagia. On X-ray examination
found the presence of diverticulum of the left wall of esophagus at the level of tracheal
bifurcation 3?4 cm, just below the aortic arch. The patient was not treated. What tactics of
treatment should be choused?
A. *Right-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy.
B. Left-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy.
C. Right-side thoracotomy, resection of the esophagus.
D. Large intestine plastic of esophagus
E. Large intestine plastic of esophagus
62. The woman aged 52 complains of pain behind the breastbone, difficult passing of solid food
through esophagus, increased salivation. The doctor advised 0,1 % solution of atropine before
eating. After 3 days on X-rays no pathology was revealed. The doctor should do for this patient:
A. *Send to fibroesophagoscopy
B. Allow the job
C. Control visit after 2 months
D. Treatment by spasmolytics
E. Send to ECG
63. The woman, 38 years old, complains of difficulty passage of solid meal on esophagus, vomiting
by undigested food, night regurgitation (sign of ,,wet pillow"), loss of weight. Has been ill for
10 years. On X-ray examination with barium the sign of "rat tail", dilation of the esophagus to 6
cm with maintained peristalsis. What stage of achalasia is there in this patient?
A. *II
B. I
C. 0
D. III
E. IV
64. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy
food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital
after repeated gastric bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis
B. Diverticulum of the esophagus
C. Varicose veins of the esophagus
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Crohn's disease.
65. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy
food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital
after repeated gastric bleeding. What roentgenological sign confirms the pathology?
A. *"Bell" sign
B. "Rat tail" sign
C. Filling defects
D. "Bird-beak" sign
E. Esophageal dilatation
66. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy
food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital
after repeated gastric bleeding. What drugs are used for the treatment of this pathology?
A. *Blockers of proton pomp
B. Spasmolytics
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
67. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy
food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital
after repeated gastric bleeding. What disease should be this pathology differentiated from?
A. *Peptic ulcer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
68. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy
food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital
after repeated gastric bleeding. What is the main treatment of this pathology?
A. *Conservative treatment
B. Esophagostomy
C. Esophageal plastic
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
69. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy
food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital
after repeated gastric bleeding. What type of operation is used for treatment of this pathology?
A. *Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
B. Esophagostomy
C. Cruroplasty
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
70. After the birth of the child appeared the signs of respiratory failure. By auscultation on the left
side the breathing is absent. On X-ray expressed mediastinal shift to the right, the presence of
protrusion on the left side. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Left-sided diaphragmatic hernia
B. Hypoplasia of right lung
C. Polycistosis of the left lung
D. Relaxation of the diaphragm
E. Esophageal stricture
71. The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night, heartburn,
belching. Has been ill for 4 months. What research is the most appropriate?
A. *X-ray contrast study in Trendelenburg's position.
B. Plain chest X-ray
C. Fibroesophagogastroduodenoscopy
D. Plain X-ray of the abdominal cavity.
E. Computer tomography
72. The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night, heartburn,
belching. Has been ill for 4 months. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis
B. Diverticulum of the esophagus
C. Varicose veins of the esophagus
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Crohn's disease.
73. What is the most wide-spread cause of the peptic stricture of esophagus associated with refluxesophagitis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Prolonged nasogastric intubation in the esophagus.
C. Short stay nasogastric intubation.
D. Frequent vomiting of pregnancy.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
74. X-ray signs: the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach are
characteristic for:
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Paraesophageal hernia.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
75. The patient has the pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, which increases after the meal. Has
been ill for 6 months. For 5 days has a black chair. On X-ray examination revealed the "bell"
sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
76. Complaints of heaviness in the epigastric region, nagging pain after eating. When EGDS
pathology identified. On X-ray examination pronounced gas bubble of the stomach is is visible
the to the level III intercostal space on the left. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Relaxation of the diaphragm.
B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia.
C. Sliding esophageal hernia.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus.
77. The patients with sliding esophageal hernia mostly complain of:
A. *Heartburn, pain behind the breastbone.
B. Difficult passage of food, loss of weight.
C. The pain behind the breastbone, difficulty in food passage.
D. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the right hypochondrium.
E. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the back.
78. Complications paraesophageal hernias of esophagus:
A. *Incarceration
B. Malignancy.
C. Esophageal stricture.
D. Dysphagia.
E. Reflux esophagitis.
79. In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea, vomiting. 6
months ago was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What complication arose?
A. *Incarceration
B. Malignancy.
C. Esophageal stricture.
D. Dysphagia.
E. Reflex esophagitis.
80. In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea, vomiting. 6
months ago was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What type of operation is is indicated for this
patient?
A. *Cruroplasty
B. Esophagostomy
C. Resection of the esophagus
D. Resection of the stomach
E. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
81. Complaints of heartburn, pain behind the breastbone, outpour of food. Has been ill for 2
months. On X-ray examination revealed the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble
of the stomach. Your tactics?
A. *Conservative therapy.
B. Bouginage of esophagus.
C. Surgical intervention.
D. Large-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia.
E. Small-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia.
82. The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt the fever,
tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of fluid in the posterior
mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Acute posterior mediastinitis.
B. Acute anterior mediastinitis.
C. Diverticulum of the esophagus.
D. Acute pleural empyema.
E. Paraesophageal hernia.
83. Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone. Has been ill for 4 months. On contrasting Xray was diagnosed: the "bell" sign, the absence of gas bubble of the stomach, blunt Hiss angle.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Sliding esophageal hernia
B. Paraesophageal hernia
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Peptic duodenal ulcer
E. Decompensated pyloric stenosis
84. 5 hours ago, after the bouginage of esophageal cicatricle stricture appeared the pain behind the
breastbone, a feeling of compression, subcutaneous crepitation on the neck, fever to 38,5°C. On
examination the weakening of the heart tones by auscultation. On plain X-ray of chest –
mediastinal emphysema, mediastinal extension of the shadows. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. *Acute mediastinitis
B. Reflux esophagitis
C. Sliding esophageal hernia
D. Paraesophageal hernia
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
85. A 34-year-old female with hypertension is considering to become a pregnant. Which of the
following medications would be absolutely contraindicated to control her BP during pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. Metoprolol
C. Labetalol
D. *Captopril
E. Nifedipine
86. A 34-year-old male with isolated essential hypertension came to clinic and it was found high
BP of 180/100 mm Hg after failure of behavioral modifications. What is the most appropriate
next step?
A. Start hydrochlorothiazide
B. *Start hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril
C. Repeat BP in 4 weeks
D. Start amlodipine
E. Start doxazozin
87. A 34-year-old male with isolated essential hypertension came to clinic and it was found high
BP of 180/100 mm Hg item after failure of behavioral modifications. What is the most
appropriate next step?
A. Start hydrochlorothiazide
B. *Start hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril
C. Repeat BP in 4 weeks
D. Start amlodipine
E. Start doxazozin
88. A 40-year-old diabetic patient with a blood pressure (BP) of 145/90 mm Hg item and
proteinuria. Which BP profile represents the best therapeutic goal for this patient?
A. 160/90
B. 140/90
C. 130/85
D. *125/75
E. 140/85
89. A 40-year-old diabetic patient presents with a blood pressure (BP) of 145/90 mm Hg item and
proteinuria. What is the best medication for the initial management of this patient’s
hypertension?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Beta blockers
C. *ACE-inhibitors / angiotensin receptor blockers
D. Alpha blockers
E. Diuretics
90. A 42-year-old female with chronic obsctructive pulmonary disease is found on multiple office
visits to have elevated BP measurements. Which of the following medications is
contraindicated?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Metoprolol
C. Lisinopril
D. *None of above
E. All of the above
91. A 42-year-old male comes in for a routine physical examination. He is noted to have impaired
glucose methabolism, and a BP of 135/85 mmHg. What is the best treatment plan for this
individual?
A. *Aggressive lifestyle modification
B. Institute thiazide diuretic regimen
C. No treatment at this time
D. Initiate an ACE-inhibitor
E. Initiate a beta-blocker
92. A 45-year-old male comes in for a routine physical examination. He is noted to have impaired
glucose methabolism, and a BP of 140/85 mmHg. What is the best treatment plan for this
individual?
A. *Aggressive lifestyle modification
B. Institute thiazide diuretic regimen
C. No treatment at this time
D. Initiate an ACE-inhibitor
E. Initiate a beta-blocker
93. A 48-year-old male with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia has a hypertensive
emergency. His arterial pressure is 150/100 mmHg item. Which medications would be most
appropriate therapy for this patient?
A. *Nitroprusside
B. Enteral metoprolol
C. Fenoldopam
D. Intravenous nitroglycerine
E. Any of the above
94. ?A 48-year-old obese male with hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes mellitus presents to
the outpatient clinic for his yearly physical. He has refused medications in the past, but now is
willing to consider treatment. His BP is 145/95 mmHg with a HR of 80 bpm. His laboratory
data are significant for the presence of microalbuminuria. Which of the following medications
would be the most appropriate?
A. Carvedilol
B. Methyldopa
C. *Lisinopril
D. Chlorthalidone
E. Terazozin
95. A 48-year-old obese male with hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes mellitus presents to the
outpatient clinic for his yearly physical. He has refused medications in the past, but now is
willing to consider treatment. His BP is 145/95 mmHg with a HR of 80 bpm. His laboratory
data are significant for the presence of microalbuminuria. Which of the following medications
would be the most appropriate?
A. Carvedilol
B. Methyldopa
C. *Lisinopril
D. Chlorthalidone
E. Terazozin
96. A 56-year-old male on hydralazine, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and metoprolol begins to
develop a malar rash and arthralgias. Which of the above antihypertensive agents is known to
cause drug-induced lupus?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Lisinopril
C. *Hydralazine
D. Metoprolol
E. None of the above
97. A 53-year-old male on hydralazine, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and metoprolol begins to
develop a malar rash and arthralgias. Which of the above antihypertensive agents is known to
cause drug-induced lupus?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Lisinopril
C. *Hydralazine
D. Metoprolol
E. None of the above
98. A 60-year old white man consults you with a headache. Examination data are unremarkable,
except that the blood pressure is raised and subsequent measurements confirm readings of
170/106 mmHg. He is obese, smokes 15 cigarettes per day and drinks 2 pints of beer per day.
His investigations reveal a cholesterol of 6 mmol/l with a normal blood sugar and electrolyte
profile and normal renal function. There is no evidence of target organ damage.
A. This man needs immediate treatment with antihypertensive drugs, aspirin and a statin
B. *Initiate antihypertensive therapy with two-drug combination
C. At this age it is far more important to control the hyperlipidaemia than the BP
D. This man’s blood pressure could be wholly ascribed to his alcohol intake
E. This patient can be observed and counseled on maintaining a reasonable BMI
99. A 62-year-old man with isolated essential hypertension, currently taking hydrochlorothiazide 25
mg PO daily, comes to you for his first clinic visit. He notes that his BP at home is always less
than 140/80 mmHg, but in clinic it is always at least 155/95 mmHg. What is the next step?
A. Increase dose of thiazide
B. Addition of second antihypertensive medication
C. *Do nothing as he has white coat hypertension
D. Evaluate for secondary causes of hypertension
E. Start metoprolol
100. A 62-year-old man with isolated essential hypertension, currently taking
hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily, comes to you for his first clinic visit. He notes that his BP
at home is always less than 140/80 mmHg item, but in clinic it is always at least 155/95 mmHg.
What is the next step?
A. Increase dose of thiazide
B. Addition of second antihypertensive medication
C. *Do nothing as he has white coat hypertension
D. Evaluate for secondary causes of hypertension
E. Start metoprolol
101. At a routine examination, an asymptomatic 46-year-old man is found to have a BP of
150/110 mmHg item, but no other abnormalities are present. What do you do next?
A. Reassure the patient and repeat the physical examination in 12 months
B. Initiate antihypertensive therapy
C. *Obtain repeated BP recordings in your office and/or the patient’s home or work site
D. Hospitalize patient for renal arteriography
E. Order a 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring
102. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the antihypertensive and/or
cardiac agent in question: a 45-year old female has been on diuretic, but BP remains elevated at
145/95, leading to the proposed addition of lisinopril. Which key potential adverse effect should
be discussed?
A. Increased triglyceride levels
B. Peripheral edema
C. Lupus-like syndrome
D. *Cough
E. Gynecomastia
103. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the antihypertensive and/or
cardiac agent in question: a 58-year old male truck driver has significant hypertension, still not
controlled on a diuretic plus calcium channel blocker. Clonidine is being considered as the next
medication, but in this patients is concerned by sedation, sexual dysfunction.
A. Increased triglyceride levels
B. Cough
C. Gynecomastia
D. *Rebound hypertension
E. Urinary retention
104. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the antihypertensive and/or
cardiac agent in question: a 68-year old male with advanced chronic heart failure and BP 145/90
will have spironolactone therapy, but should be informed about possible side effect.
A. Increased triglyceride levels
B. Peripheral edema
C. Lupus-like syndrome
D. Cough
E. *Gynecomastia
105. In patients with a history of stroke or TIA the preferred drug combination is:
A. *ACE-inhibitor and diuretic
B. Calcium-channel blocker and beta-blocker
C. Beta-blocker and diuretic
D. Angiotensin receptor blocker and beta blocker
E. Beta- and alpha blocker
106. The initial antihypertensive medication recommended for patients who have no compelling
indications or contraindications is
A. ACE-inhibitor
B. Calcium-channel blocker
C. Diuretics
D. Beta blocker
E. *Any of the above
107. To reduce the patient’s cardiovascular morbidity and mortality, which therapy would you
prescribe?
A. Hydralazine
B. Atenolol
C. *Losartan
D. Doxazosin
E. Clonidine
108. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the patient’s antihypertensive therapy?
A. Advise a low-sodium diet
B. *Finish doxazosin therapy and consider an alternative agent
C. Advise high dietary intake of calcium and potassium
D. Increase the doxazosin to 4 mg a day
E. Advise magnesium supplements
109. You see a diabetic patient presents with BP readings that are 155/95 or higher. All of the
following statements about the treatment of this patient's hypertension are correct EXCEPT:
A. Pharmacologic blocade of the renin-angiotensin system reduces the risk of both
microvascular and macrovascular events
B. Aggressive BP control reduces cardiovascular events more in diabetics than in
nondiabetics
C. *Calcium channel blockers show no benefit in reducing cardiovascular events
D. The goal BP for this patient is <130/80 mmHg
E. All the above statements are correct
110. During the operation concerning strangular impassability of bowels, which conducted under
general anaesthesia of i/v with ALV, at a patient the stop of cardiac diyal-nosti happened 50
years in the moment of mesenretium streching by the surgeon. What would prevent the stop of
heart in this case?
A. *i/v injection atropin
B. i/v injection of cardiac glycozidis
C. Deepening of general anaesthesi
D. Additional injection of relaxants
E. Additional injection droperidol
111. Patient 30 years after a road-transport failure complaints of the acute tahypno Ob-ly: a skin
is pale, cyanosi Hypodermic emphysema in the region of thorax, stomach, right side of the
neck. Auscultative: breathing on the right side is not conducted; pulse – 130/min., AP – 80/60
mm.mercury., CVP – 140 mm wt., FB – 30 /min., Ht – 0,27, Hb – 90 g/l. Subsequent therapy
must include above all things:
A. *punction of pleura cavity.
B. Urgent ALV
C. Massive infusion therapy of the crystalloid solutions
D. Infusion of dofamin, 2-5 mcg/cg/min
E. 100% oxygen
112. Patient has BP - 80/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him:
A. *120/80=1,5
B. 80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
113. Patient N., 47 years, treated in the hospital with the diagnosis: carbuncle of right kidney.
Suddenly general condition deteriorated, body temperature 39.50 C, skin cold, humid,
consciousness kept, expressed choking. Breath deep, noisy, 26/min. Pulse - 110/min., SC 90/60 mm.mercury., oliguri Which complications we can think about?
A. *Infectious-toxic shock
B. Vascular dystonia
C. Epilepsy
D. Anaphylactic shock
E. Orthostatic collapse
114. Patient, 40 years, with the trauma of both thighs is delivered from the scene of accident by a
“passing transport”. Objectively: cyanosys, rubor of the lower half of the neck, tahypnoe, AP
60/40 mm mer st., HBA=120 /min, in lungs moist wheezes, diuresis – 20 ml/h., Nb 100 g/l.
Which from the offered diagnoses most reliable?
A. *Fatty embolism
B. Traumatic shock
C. Hemorhagic shock
D. Pain shock
E. Tromboembolism
115. The patient 60 years is delivered in the department of intensive therapy with a diagnosis:
bite of bee, anafilactic shock.. Which medicine will be primary and most effective?
A. Adrenalin
B. Calcium the chloride
C. Prednizolon
D. Dimedrol
E. Suprastin
116. The patient 25 years is hospitalized in the surgical department with a diagnosis: penetrable
wound of abdominal region. Objectively: it is excited, skin covers and visible mucous shells are
pale; peripheral pulse of the weak filling, frequent, AP – 110/60 mm mercury Positive symptom
of ”desolation” of peripheral hypodermic vein Diuresis is lowere How to characterize this
state?
A. The compensated shock
B. Preagonia
C. Circulating shock
D. Agony
E. Irreversible shock
117. The patient 36 years with ulcerous of gaster in anamnesis is hospitalized in the surgical
department with complaints on vomiting by "coffee-grounds", diarhea, moderately expressed
thirst. Objectively: a skin is pale, covered by a death-damp, a tongue is dry, AP – 80/60 mm
rt.st., HBA – 120/min., BF – 28/min., diuresis – 25 ml/h. Blood test: Era - 2,8 1012/l, Hb – 98
g/l. What will be most expedient in medical treatment:
A. *solutions with colloid
B. 5% solution of glucose
C. Whole blood
D. Red corpuscles mass
E. Colloid solutions with red corpuscles mass
118. 118. Patient 48 years the second day in dpartment of intensive therapy concerning the acute
front-partition heart attack of myocardium. During a review “wheezing” suddenly, nonpermanent tonic constricting of muscles is marked, pupils are extended, pulse on carotis not
palpitat What doctor have to do in the first place?
A. Triple Safar method
B. Record of ECG
C. Cardial hit in the area of heart
D. Artificial respiration by the method of Silvester
E. Intracardial injection of adrenalin with an atropine
119. The patient entered the department with a diagnosis: acute intestinal impassability.
Complaints: insignificant thirst, dizziness at an attempt to get up from a be At a review: patient
apathetical, turgor is lowered, eyeballs are soft, tongue is dry with crack Pulse – 110 min., AP –
80 /60 mm of mer item, diuresis – 25 ml /h. Electrolyte composition: Na+ - 142 mmol/l, C+ - 4
mmol/l, glucose – 6 mmol/l, urea – 7 mmol/l. What variant of infusion is most expedient during
operation?
A. *Transfusion of crystalloid
B. Transfusion of solution of glucos
C. Transfusion of albumen.
D. Transfusion of native plasm
E. Transfusion of poliglucin.
120. The patient, 28 years, 2 hours ago fell down from the ground floor of hous Sopor, pale,
there are the plural scratches of face, the lacerated hemorhagic wounds on the left forearm. The
closed break of the left shoulder and thigh. Pulse –110, Lc-10T/l, Hb – 100, AP – 90/40 mm of
rt. item In the blood test: red corpuscles – 3,5 g/l. What infouziyniy serednic does not need to be
used for medical treatment of shock?
A. *5% solution of glucose
B. Solution of crystalloids
C. Solutions gelatin
D. Solutions of calcium
E. Solution of albumen
121. Anafilactic shock appeared at a patient. The state heavy and progressively gets wors HBA –
110 in a 1 minute, AP – 60/30 mm mercury. Prescribe medicine for the rescue of life of patient
above all things?
A. *Adrenalin.
B. Chloride of calcium.
C. Prednizolon.
D. Dofamin.
E. Suprastin.
122. At a patient 20 years on a background the injection of vitamin B1 suddenly there was
excitation, fear of death, falling of AP to 50 mm rt.st., hard breathing. Which of medicine it is
necessary to inject firstly?
A. *Adrenalin
B. Prednizolon
C. Calcium
D. Dimedrol
E. Eufilin
123. At a patient 60 years with the third day after an exterpation uterus acute insufficiency of
breathing developed suddenly, a skin became at first cyanotic, and then ash-colored color.
Tachypnoe, cough with bloody sputum, retrosternal pain. BP – 100/70 mm. mercury, HR – 120,
BR – 32 in 1 min., CVP – 300 mm wt.col. What most reliable reason of worsening of the state
of patient ?
A. *Tromboemboliya of pulmonary artery
B. Bleeding
C. Pain shock
D. Hypostatic pneumonia
E. Heart attack of myocardium
124. At a patient in the ward of intensive therapy you marked appearance on the monitor of
fibrillation of ventricule Your first actions?
A. *To conduct defibrillation three times
B. To inject adrenalin
C. To inject a chloride
D. To begin the closed massage of heart
E. To inject lidocain
125. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium best of all to warn relapsing
fibrillation of ventricles with :
A. cordaronum
B. lidocainum
C. ornidinum
D. *electrocardiostimulation
E. there is no right answer
126. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium in the region of partition on a 5th day
after the brief episode of loss of consciousness there is reduction of frequency of pulse to 32 in
a minut BP - 80/40 mm Consciousness at the level of sopor. He immediately needs :
A. to put right a craniotserebral hypothermia, to enter lasics, prednisoloni, tserebrolizin
B. to enter an atropine, eoufilin, to begin infouziyo of aloupenta
C. *to conduct urgent cardiostimoulation
D. all answers are faithful
E. there is no right answer
127. At a patient, carried to a 2 year ago the heart attack of myocardium, the acute decline of
cholecystyties planned cholecystectomy, signs of electric instability of myocardium . Actions of
anaesthesiologist must include:
A. injection of prednisoloni, lidocaini, hyperventilation, take the ECG
B. *injection of dopamini, after stabilisation of BP - nitroglycerine + infusion therapy under
the control CVP, conducting of neurovegetative defence, take the ECG
C. injection of streptodecasol, stream infusion of reopoliglyocinum, injection of
lidocainum, increase of dose of analgetics
D. correctly A) and C)
E. all answers are faithful
128. At a patient, that is found on medical treatment in the therapeutic department, the sudden
stopping of circulation of blood happene Medical personnel begun the reanimation measure
Define the most rational way of injection of adrenalin for renewal of heart abbreviations in
default of vein access:
A. *To enter to a 3 ml solution of adrenalin in a trache
B. To enter to a 1 ml solution of adrenalin in muscl
C. To enter adrenalin in muscle, multiplying a dose in 3 time
D. The intracardial injection.
E. Adrenalin can be not entere
129. At a patient, that is found under the permanent electrocardioscopic supervision, microwave
fibrillation of myocardium and diagnosed clinical death develope It is necessary to do:
A. to inject the solution of calcium in cor
B. *to conduct high-voltage electric defibrillation
C. to inject solution of atropine in cor
D. to inject solution of adrenalin in cor
E. All answers are wrong
130. At the patient operated concerning the festering peritonitis coused by perforation of gastric
ulcer, in a postoperation period appeared: high temperature, frequency of breathing 35/min., AP
– 70/40 mm of mer item, diuresis -20 ml/h temperature of body to 39 , leucocitosi Transfusion
during 12 hours 1,8 of a 0,9% solution of chlorous sodium and 0,8 of solution of reopoliglucin
did not improve general condition. Central vein pressure – 130 mm wt.st. For stabilization of
hemodinamics will be optimum infusion:
A. *Dopamin
B. Mezaton
C. Adrenalin
D. Noradrenalin
E. Ephedrine
131. At the ventilated patient with the edema of lungs at low pressure and septic shock
intravenous infusion 7,5 mcg/kg/min dopamini will increase
A. RaO2, saturation of oxygen of the mixed vein blood, consumption of oxygen
B. diuresis
C. *cardiac systolic volume
D. right A) and B)
E. faithful all answers
132. In 2 hours after renewal of cardial activity at a patient, that carried the sudden stop of heart
on a background hemorhagic shock (blood lost near 2,5 l) and is found on ALV, unstable
hemorhagia (AP – 80/40 – 90/60 mm of mer item, tahycardia)is marked, central vein pressure –
5 mm wt.st. It is related to:
A. *By Hypovolume syndrome
B. By cardia insufficiency
C. By the inadequate interchange of gases
D. Vasoplegia
E. By the inadequate anaesthetizing
133. In a clinic a patient with the traumatic tearing of both lower extremities off at the level of
knee-joints is delivere A patient is extremly inert, languid, pale, pulse 140 bmin, threadlike,
AP 500. On both lower extremities there are the imposed plait Bleeding at the receipt is not
present. From the words of doctor of first-aid, lost about 3 litres of blood in place of event.
What principal reason of heavy of the state of Patient?
A. Acute hemorrhag
B. Pain shock.
C. Ishemia of extremities as a result of application of tourniquet
D. Fatty embolism
E. acute kidney insufficiency
134. In a clinic a patient with the traumatic tearing of both lower extremities off at the level of
knee-joints is delivere A patient is extremly inert, languid, pale, pulse 140 bmin, threadlike,
AP 500. On both lower extremities there are the imposed plait Bleeding at the receipt is not
present. From the words of doctor of first-aid, lost about 3 litres of blood in place of event.
What principal reason of heavy of the state of Patient?
A. *acute hemorrhag
B. Pain shock.
C. Ishemia of extremities as a result of application of tourniquet
D. Fatty embolism
E. acute kidney insufficiency
135. It is typical for:
A. *Negative CVT
B. Erroneous punction of artery
C. Right-side pmeumothorax
D. Edema of lungs
E. Hypodermic emphysema
136. On a 4 day after incompatible (on a group) blood transfusion at a patient acutely reduced
diouresis, anuria developed, the common state became worse acutely, arterial pressure ros At
laboratory research: creatinin plasma – 680 mlmol/l, urea of plasma - 24 mmol/l. What illness
and what stage of illness it follows to think about in the first place?
A. Acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
B. Anaphylactic shock, acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
C. Hemotransfusion shock, postrenal acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
D. Posthemoragic acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
E. acute interstitsial nephritis, postrenal anuria
137. Patient 20 years for verification of the functional state of kidneys the X- ray examination
with v/v injection of cardiotrast is conducte At the end of injection the state of patient acutely
became worse, the shortness of breath, hyperemia of skin, itch appeare AP – 60/20 mm of mer
item, HBA – 132/min. A similar research was conducted 3 months ago, such effects were not
observe What most reliable diagnosis?
A. Medicinal anafilactic shock
B. Acute kidney insufficiency
C. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery
D. Stress on the conducted manipulation
E. Heart attack miocardium
138. Patient 38 years, native plasma was poure At the end of infusion the state became worse:
Patient confused, excited, cyanosys, hypersalivation. Breathing frequency 36 on 1 min., AP –
70/40 mm of mer item, whistling dry wheeze Which from the following mediceni must be
injected firstly?
A. *Adrenalin.
B. Eufilin.
C. Suprastin.
D. Noradrenalin.
E. Prednizolon.
139. Patient 40 years with the acute gastro - intestinal bleeding a canned blood was poured in a
volume 400 ml after conducting of all tests on compatibility. After hemotransfusion the state of
patient became worse, appeared head pains and pains in muscles athe temperature of body rose
to 38,8 What can explaine the state of patient?
A. Pyroxene reaction of middle heavy
B. By development of hemotransfusion shock
C. *Allergic reaction
D. By development of bacterial-toxic shock
E. By air embolism
140. Patient 40 years with the acute gastro - intestinal bleeding a canned blood was poured in a
volume 400 ml after conducting of all tests on compatibility. After hemotransfusion the state of
patient became worse, appeared head pains and pains in muscles athe temperature of body rose
to 38,8 What can explaine the state of patient?
A. Pirogenic reaction of middle heavy
B. *By development of hemotransfusion shock
C. Alergic reaction
D. By development of bacterial-toxic shock
E. By air embolism
141. Patient 62 years the third day of presense in department of intensive therapy concerning the
acute transmural heart attack of myocardium of front-partition localization. At night woked up
from a suffocating cough, feeling of fear and troubl At a review: cyanosys, FB – 30 after 1
min., HBA – 132/ min., a rhythm is correct, tones of heart are deaf, accent ІІ tone above a
pulmonary artery, AP – 180/110 mm mercury. There is the loosened breathing above lungs with
the far of moist wheezes in lower fate What probably became the reason of worsening of the
state?
A. *Edema of lungs
B. Embolism of pulmonary artery
C. The repeated heart attack miocardium
D. Hypertensive crisis
E. Attack of bronchial asthma
142. Patient L is hospitalized in gynecological department with the temperature of 39 degrees C,
with complaints of pain in the bottom of stomach, vomit, diarrhea . Criminal abortion have been
done 4 days befor AP 80/60, breathing is difficult, psychosomatic excitation. Symptom of
Schotkin-blumberg is positiv Uterus is enlarged as on 9 weeks of pregnancy, limitedly mobile,
painles Pus with blood appeare Your Diagnosis?
A. *septic shock
B. Perforation of uterus
C. Pelvic peritonitis
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute adnexia inflammation
143. Patient N., 28 years ol 6 day after the complicated birth The clinical hematological signs of
subacute disseminate intravascular coagulation syndrome developed after skin hemorrhage and
uterine bleeding. The state of patient is very ba blood: Er-2,7 of T/l, Hb-78 of gm/l, CI - 0,93,
L-4,7 of Gm/l, thrombocytes-88 of gm/l, time of blood cloating - 16 min, prothrombin time - 25
sec, ethanol test +, fibrinogen-1,4 gramme/l, What preparations should be prescribed ?
A. *freezed plasma
B. Heparinum
C. Reopoliglycin
D. Cryoprecipitate
E. U-aminokapric acid
144. Patient N., 40 years, groom. In anamnesis there is an allergy to nonsteriidal
antiinflammatory. After injection of antitetanus on a method Besredco concerning the
hammered wound of right shin, through 20 mines, there was a acute weakness, labouring breath,
through 10 mines, loss of consciousnes What mechanism of development of anafilactic form of
illness?
A. Sensitization to the albumen of horse whey
B. Low quality of horse whey
C. Breach of the technique of PPS injection
D. Presence in anamnesis of medical allergy
E. Infection of whey
145. Patient N., 40 years, groom. In anamnesis there is an allergy to nonsteroidal
antyinflammatory. After injection of antytetanus on a method Besredco concerning the
hammered wound of right shin, through 20 mines, there was a acute weakness, labouring breath,
through 10 mines, loss of consciousnes What mechanism of development of anafilactic form of
illness?
A. *Sensitization to the albumen of horse whey
B. Low quality of horse whey
C. Breach of the technique of PPS injection
D. Presence in anamnesis of medical allergy
E. Infection of whey
146. Persons 48 years, patient by the heart attack of miocardium, suddenly lost consciousness,
breathing and palpitation. On ECG of highwave fibrilation of ventricule Conducted
defibrilation. Did not pick up normal cardial activity. What medicine needs to be entered for the
rise of sensuality to defibrillation?
A. *Amiodaron
B. Propranolon
C. Lidocain
D. Strofantin
E. Atropini sulfati
147. Pharmacological medicine, that diminish the (afterload) left ventricle at a patient with the
acute heart attack of myocardium, are not included
A. nitroglycerine
B. *strophantine
C. nitroproussid sodium
D. esmolol (brevibloc)
E. nifedipinum
148. Sick 46 years treated oneself in a therapeutic department with pneumonia of lower dole of
right lung. Planned antibacterial therapy - amoxiklav. After 40 min after intramuscular injection
of duty dose, the patients feeled dizziness, pain behind a breastbon AT 60/40 mm mer , pulse, 120 a min., rhythmical. During examination of lungs: wheezes under both lung Temperature is
38,5 What is worsening of the condition related to?
A. *Anaphylactic shock
B. Infectious toxic shock
C. Collapse
D. Tromboembolia of pulmonary artery
E. Infectious shock
149. The patient 20 years old, delivered to ambulance department on the 2nd day of illness in a
grave condition: temperature of body 39°c, symptoms of intoxication are expresse On
extremities, trunk, buttocks, present hemorrhagic rash as eczema with necrosis in the center.
One day before cut his leg. Now has the wound in that plac In 2 hours the decline of AP is
registered from 100/70 to 60/30 mm of Hg, diffused cyanosi Application of prednisolon of 120
mg and reopolyglucin did not give any effect. What complication does it follow to think about?
A. acute sub renal failure
B. *Septic shock
C. hypovolemic shock
D. Hemorragic shock
E. Respirator distress syndrom of adults
150. The patient 32 years have infusion of native plasm At the end of infusion the state became
worse: disorientation, cyanosys, excitation, appeared hypersalivation, tahypnoe, AP =70/40 mm
mer st., in lungs – the dissipated dry wheeze What medicine must be injected firstly?
A. *Adrenalin.
B. Suprastin.
C. Gidrocortizon.
D. Dopamin.
E. Eufilin.
151. To patient P., 50 years, with an unspecific ulcerous colitis with the purpose of correction of
anaemia transfusion of selfgroup blood 500 ml A(ІІ) the Rh(-) was conducte A doctor went out
from a chamber after conducting of necessary tests before hemotransfusion. In 20 minutes he
was quickly asked to the patient. Patient without consciousnes The cyanosys of upper body
part. Irregular breathing with the selection of a plenty of foamy, with the admixtures of blood,
phlegm. Pulse on peripheries and arterial pressure are not determine Tones of heart are deaf,
unrhythmical. An ampoule and transfusion system is empty. What complication arose up as a
result of hemotransfusion?
A. *Air embolism of pulmonary artery
B. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery
C. Edema of lungs
D. Heart attack of myocardium
E. Syndrome of massive hemotransfusion
152. To the patient 45 years with suspicion on holecystitis the rentgencontrast i/v is quickly
injecte Tahycardiya, arterial hypotension, cyanosys, shortness of breath appeared, acute
swelling of veins of neck, extension of liver, CVT to 200 mm wt.st. acute insufficiency of what
part of the cardial-vascular system is observed at a patient?
A. *Right ventricle of heart
B. The left ventricle of heart
C. Both ventricles of heart
D. Vessels
E. Uneffective heart
153. A man 50 years of asymptomatic mixed goiter. At the first stage, it should appoint
A. *only observation
B. thyroid hormones to suppress the function of cancer
C. propylthiouracil
D. subtotal thyroidectomy
E. radioiodine
154. In patient K, aged 26, noted a relapse of hyperthyroidism after medical treatment. Your
tactics.
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Continue medical treatment
C. Outpatient
D. Treatment is not required
E. Is no right answer
155. 1n patients after operations on the thyroid gland have complaints about the shortness of
breath, lethargy, convulsions. What is the cause of these clinical manifestations?
A. *lower calcium concentration
B. lower content of iodothyronine
C. increasing concentrations of glucose
D. increasing concentration of potassium
E. no right answer
156. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the thyroid
gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What additional diagnostic method to assign?
A. *Thyroid gland
B. Radiography of the neck
C. Doppler
D. Rheovasography
E. EEG
157. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the thyroid
gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify
the diagnosis?
A. *Thyroid hormones
B. Total blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Immunogram
E. Protein fraction
158. Patient D, aged 39, admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What
study be done.
A. *Investigation of iodine hormones in the blood serum
B. EFGDS
C. Is no right answer
D. Rheovasography
E. Doppler
159. Patient J., 57, was admitted to the surgical clinic with a diagnosis: euthyroid nodular goiter.
Choose the correct treatment option.
A. *resection of the thyroid gland with maximal preservation of healthy tissue and routine
histological examination
B. enucleation
C. medication
D. subtotal resection of the thyroid gland
E. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
160. Patient K, aged 49, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter.
What study be done.
A. *Scanning of the thyroid gland
B. EFGDS
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. There is no correct answer
161. Patient K., aged 45, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic with
complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. *goiter
B. acute strumitis
C. sporadic goiter
D. epidemic goiter
E. mass thyrotoxicosis
162. Patient M, 39 years old, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter.
What study be done.
A. *Thyroid gland
B. EFGDS
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. Is no right answer
163. Patient M., aged 35, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic with
complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. *there is no right answer
B. acute strumitis
C. sporadic goiter
D. epidemic goiter
E. mass thyrotoxicosis
164. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid
gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive
reduction of hands. Treatment.
A. *the introduction of calcium chloride intravenously
B. introduction Seduxen
C. introduction of iodine
D. infusion therapy
E. introduction of calcium chloride oral
165. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid
gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive
reduction of hands. What mated complication of surgery?
A. *Removal of parathyroid glands
B. Iodine deficiency
C. Lack of thyroid tissue
D. Increased thyroid hormone
E. Increased parathyroid hormone
166. ?Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive
weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in
minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy
hyper. The most likely diagnosis
A. *Toxic goiter
B. Hashimoto struma
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain
167. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive
weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in
minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy
hyper. The most likely diagnosis
A. *there is no right answer
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain
168. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive
weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in
minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What additional diagnostic method to assign?
A. *Thyroid gland
B. Radiography of the neck
C. Doppler
D. Reovazography
E. EEG
169. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive
weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in
minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify
the diagnosis?
A. *Total blood
B. Urinalysis
C. Thyroid hormones
D. Protein fraction
E. Immunogram
170. Patients after resection of the thyroid gland have cramps, Hvostek and Trousseau symptoms.
What complication is the patient?
A. *gipoparatireosis
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of thyrotoxicosis
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
171. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and
Trousseau. What a complication arose in a patient?
A. *there is no right answer
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
172. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and
Trousseau. What a complication is arose in a patient?
A. *hypoparathyreosis
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
173. The patient complaints of excessive sweating, hand tremor, exophthalmos. The most likely
diagnosis.
A. *Strumit
B. Goiter
C. Tireodit
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Is no right answer
174. The patient diagnosed nodular nontoxic goiter. What operation is indicated the patient?
A. *resection of the affected lobe with histological examination
B. conservative treatment of thyroxine
C. removal of the affected lobe, isthmus and central lymph node dissection
D. enucleation site
E. subtotal thyroidectomy
175. The patient diagnosed nodular nontoxic goiter. What operation is indicated the patient?
A. *No right answer
B. conservative treatment of thyroxine
C. removal of the affected lobe, isthmus and central lymph node dissection
D. enucleation site
E. subtotal thyroidectomy
176. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the
pathology?
A. *Exophthalmos
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
177. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the
pathology?
A. *Graefe symptom
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
178. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the
pathology?
A. *Mobius symptom
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
179. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the
pathology?
A. *Tachycardia
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
180. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the
pathology?
A. *Tremor of the upper limbs
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
181. The patient diagnosed with an aberrant goiter. Refine the definition of aberrant goiter.
A. *cancer of the thyroid gland
B. metastases of thyroid cancer in the liver
C. atypical location of the thyroid gland
D. all true
E. all wrong
182. The patient diagnosed with autoimmune thyroiditis. Which of the following symptoms
characteristic of this disease?
A. *increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, hypothyroidism
B. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, fever
C. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, hypothyroidism, fever
D. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland,
E. thyrotoxicosis, fever
183. The patient diagnosed with nodular euthyroid goiter left lobe of the thyroid gland. What is
the optimal treatment option.
A. *hemistrumectomy or resection of the lobe of the thyroid gland
B. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
C. enucleation site
D. subtotal thyroidectomy
E. conservative treatment thyroidin
184. The patient lives in the area of endemic iodine. What can be used to prevent goitre?
A. merkasalil
B. vaccination
C. iodine
D. improving the social life of the population
E. *iodination salt
185. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a
patient?
A. *Pneumathemia
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
186. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a
patient?
A. *Damage to the trachea
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
187. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a
patient?
A. *Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
188. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a
patient?
A. *Bleeding from the wound
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
189. The patient S., 546 years old, diagnosed with goiter II degree. What is characteristic of the
III degree of increase in thyroid gland?
A. *visible swallowing
B. giant goiter
C. determined only by palpation
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
190. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the
node. On scanning image identified a "cold node". Specify the most probable cause of this
condition
A. *node malignancy
B. cystic degeneration of the node
C. autoimmune
D. all true
E. hemorrhage site
191. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the
node. What method of diagnosis is the most informative?
A. *scanning with radioactive iodine
B. X-ray of the neck
C. Doppler
D. Rheovasography
E. EEG
192. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following post-operative
complications can sports a patient?
A. *No right answer
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
193. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative
complications may be sports in the patient?
A. *Hypocalcemia
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
194. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative
complications may be sports in the patient?
A. *Paresis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
195. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative
complications may be sports in the patient?
A. *Thyrotoxic crisis
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
196. The patient V., age 56, diagnosed with goiter of third degree. What is characteristic of the III
degree of increase in thyroid gland?
A. *visible without swallowing
B. giant goiter
C. determined only by palpation
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
197. The patient was admitted with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What operation is
indicated the patient?
A. *subtotal resection of the thyroid gland
B. thyroidectomy
C. hemistrumectomy
D. strumectomy
E. no right answer
198. The patient was admitted with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What operation is
indicated the patient?
A. *No right answer
B. thyroidectomy
C. hemistrumectomy
D. strumectomy
E. no right answer
199. The patient was planned to study the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine-131. How much
time should not use iodine and thyreostatics?
A. *30 days
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 10 days
E. 20 days
200. The patient was planned to study the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine-131. How much
time should not use iodine and thyreostatics?
A. *No right answer
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 10 days
E. 20 days
201. The patient's 43 years revealed an increase in the left lobe of the thyroid gland. When
scanning in this region found a hot site. Diagnosis.
A. *nodular toxic goiter
B. diffuse non-toxic goiter
C. toxic goiter
D. multinodular toxic goiter
E. non-toxic nodular goiter
202. The patient's 60 years in the last 3 months has been rapidly increasing dense mass in the left
lobe of the thyroid gland. Effects of hyperthyroidism is not. At thyroid scan revealed a cold
junction. Preliminary diagnosis
A. *thyroid cancer
B. lipoma of the thyroid gland
C. cyst
D. metastasis of lung cancer
E. thyroid cyst
203. A Patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower
extremities, chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are:
A. *Ultrasound examination
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
204. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower
extremities, chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are:
A. *Arteriography
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
205. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower
extremities, chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are:
A. *No right answer
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
206. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of
more than 1000 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the patient?
A. *I
B. II A
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
207. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of
300 - 400 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the patient?
A. *II A
B. I
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
208. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of
200 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency is the patient?
A. *II B
B. I
C. II A
D. III
E. IV
209. A patient admitted with complaints of pain at rest. What stage of chronic arterial
insufficiency has the patient?
A. *III
B. I
C. II A
D. II B
E. IV
210. A patient admitted with complaints of pain from intermittent claudication, and impotence.
What is the diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. *Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
211. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the muscles of the buttocks and waist. What is
the diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. *Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
212. At examination the patient was diagnosedthe absence pulse on femoral arteries. What is the
diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. *Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
213. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis arteries of
lower extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. *Obliterative endarteritis
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
214. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of
lower extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. *Diabetic angiopathy
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
215. The patient aged 53 years admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of
lower extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. *Sciatica
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Thrombosis of iliac vein
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
216. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to
block pain?
A. *Epidural block
B. No-shpa
C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucin
E. Solcosery
217. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to
block pain?
A. *Paravertebral sympathetic blockade
B. No shpa
C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucine
E. Solcoseryl
218. Patient is in hospital with diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower
extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of
blood should be used:
A. *Rheopoliglucin
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
219. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: arterial occlusive disease of the lower extremities,
chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be
used:
A. *Trental
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
220. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower
extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To remove vasospasm should be used:
A. *Papaverine
B. Rheopoliglikin
C. Seduksen
D. Actovegin
E. Niacin
221. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. *Oppel
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
222. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. *Goldflam
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
223. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. *Panchenko
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
224. The patient 47 years old complained on pain in the calf muscles during walking. What is this
symptom:
A. *Intermittent claudication
B. Troyanov
C. Oppel
D. Panchenko
E. Kokket
225. At doppler ultrasound study in the patients revealed atherosclerotic changes in arteries. What
method of diagnosis must be pursued to clarify the localization process?
A. *Arteriography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of limbs
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
226. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal artery. What
diseases can cause embolism?
A. *Rheumatic heart disease
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
227. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal artery . What is
the most probable cause of embolism?
A. *Myocardial infarction
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
228. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the right popliteal artery . What
is the most probable cause of embolism?
A. *Cardiac aneurysm
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
229. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the right popliteal artery . What
is the most probable cause of embolism?
A. *Aneurysm of femoral artery
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
230. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal artery . What is
the most probable cause of embolism?
A. *Septic endocarditis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
231. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the left popliteal artery. What is
the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Severe pain in the limbs
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
232. *The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism right popliteal artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Cold extremities
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
233. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right popliteal artery. What is
the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Acute weakness in the limbs
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
234. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism left popliteal artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Pale skin limbs
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
235. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism, right femoral artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *The deterioration of the picture subcutaneous veins of the affected limb
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
236. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery. What is
the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Changing the surface sensitivity on the affected limb
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
237. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery. What is
the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *Changing a deep sensitivity to the affected limb
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
238. In the patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery. What is
the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *The disappearance of pulsation with the level of the femoral artery
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
239. In the patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right popliteal artery. What
is the symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. *The disappearance of pulsation with the level of the popliteal artery
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
240. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs both legs and lower abdomen. What are level of
occlusion?
A. *Bifurcation of the aorta
B. Iliac arteries
C. Femoral artery
D. Popliteal artery
E. Arteries foot
241. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the inguinal ligament. What
are level of occlusion?
A. *Iliac arteries
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Femoral artery
D. Popliteal artery
E. Arteries foot
242. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the middle third of the thigh.
What are level of occlusion?
A. *Femoral artery
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Iliac arteries
D. Popliteal artery
E. Arteries foot
243. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the knee joint. What are level
of occlusion?
A. *Popliteal artery
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Iliac arteries
D. Femoral artery
E. Arteries foot
244. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the whole hand. What are level of occlusion?
A. *Subclavian artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Arteries hand
245. The patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the upper third of the shoulder. What are
level of occlusion?
A. *Axillary artery
B. Subclavian artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Arteries hand
246. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the middle third of the shoulder. What are
level of occlusion?
A. *Brachial artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Arteries hand
247. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the elbow joint. What are level of
occlusion?
A. *Ulnar artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Brachial artery
E. Arteries hand
248. A patient admitted to hospital complaining of a sharp intense pain in the limbs. This
symptom is typical for
A. *Embolism
B. Thrombosis
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Varicose
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
249. A patient admitted to hospital complaining of pain in the limbs with a gradual increase in
intensity. This symptom is typical for
A. *Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Varicose
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
250. The patient admitted to hospital with a stab wound femoral artery. Which type of injury is
this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Fire damage
251. The patient was admitted to hospital with a knife wound femoral artery. Which type of
injury is this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Fire damage
252. The patient admitted to hospital with chopped wound in the femoral artery. Which type of
injury is this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Fire damage
253. The patient admitted to hospital with a shattered wound in the femoral artery. Which type of
injury is this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
254. The patient admitted to hospital with a gunshot wound in the femoral artery. Which type of
injury is this damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
255. The patient admitted to hospital with external bleeding in the femoral artery. Which type of
injury is this damage?
A. *Fresh wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
256. The patient was admitted to hospital in a state of shock and damage in the femoral artery in
history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Fresh wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
257. The patient was admitted to hospital with gangrene and limb damage in the femoral artery in
history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Fresh wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
258. The patient admitted to hospital pulsating hematoma and injuries to the femoral artery in
history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Complicated wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
259. The patient was admitted to hospital with bruising and damage to suppuration in the femoral
artery in history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Complicated wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
260. The patient admitted to hospital with a blunt injury in the femoral artery in history. Which
type of injury is this damage?
A. *Closed injury
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
261. The patient admitted to hospital with a compression of the femoral artery in history. Which
type of injury is this damage?
A. *Closed injury
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
262. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to only the femoral artery. Which type of
injury is this damage?
A. *Isolated damage
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
263. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the femoral artery and internal organs.
Which type of injury is this damage?
A. *Combined injuries
B. Joint damage
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
264. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery in the first day after
injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Recent damage
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
265. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the second day
after injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Recent damage
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
266. The patient admitted to hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the fourth day after
injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Complicated injuries
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
267. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the seventh day
after injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Complicated injuries
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
268. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery in the second week
after injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. *Complicated injuries
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
269. A patient admitted to hospital with clinical symptoms of external bleeding in axillary artery.
To whom this type of injury is damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Complicated injuries
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
270. A patient admitted to hospital with clinical symptoms of external bleeding in axillary artery.
To whom this type of injury is damage?
A. *Open injury
B. Complicated injuries
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
271. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the superficial femoral artery. Which
research method can give the most accurate information?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the lower extremity
D. Radiography of abdominal
E. Rheovasography
272. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the superficial femoral artery. Which
research method can give the most accurate information?
A. *Angioraphy
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the lower extremity
D. Radiography of abdominal
E. Rheovasography
273. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the femoral artery. Which research
method can give the most accurate information?
A. *There is no correct answer
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the lower extremity
D. Radiography of abdominal
E. Rheovasography
274. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins the left lower extremity. At
the examination revealed only varicose saphenous veins of legs without edema. What stage of
varicose veins is in a patient?
A. *I
B. II A
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
275. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. At the
examination revealed varicose saphenous veins of lower leg with swelling and pasty. What
stage of varicose veins is in a patient?
A. *II A
B. I
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
276. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. At the
examination revealed varicose saphenous veins with leg edema, pasty, and induration of the
skin ulcer in the lower third of the leg. What stage of varicose veins is in a patient?
A. *III
B. II A
C. I
D. II B
E. IV
277. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency I degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. *Elastic compression
B. Surgical treatment
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
278. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency II degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Elastic compression
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
279. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Elastic compression
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
280. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency of II degree. What drug with venotonics properties should be appoint?
A. *Detralex
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
281. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties should be appoint?
A. *Phlebodia
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
282. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties should be appoint?
A. *Detralex
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
283. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet properties should be designated?
A. *Aspirin
B. Detralex
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
284. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins, right lower extremity,
chronic venous insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet properties should be
designated?
A. *Cardimagnil
B. Detralex
C. Pentoksiphilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
285. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower
limb, chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most
accurate information about the state of the venous system?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
286. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower
limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most
accurate information about the state of the venous system?
A. *Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
287. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower
limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most
accurate information about the state of communicative veins?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
288. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower
limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most
accurate information about the state of communicative veins?
A. *No right answer
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
289. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower
limb chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most
accurate information about the state of the venous system?
A. *Flebotonometry
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
290. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the left lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency of Article III. Which of the following methods gives the most
accurate information about the state of the venous system?
A. *Functional Tests
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
291. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity,
chronic venous insufficiency III drgree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. *Congenital arteriovenous fistula
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
292. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity,
chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. *Obtained arteriovenous fistula
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
293. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity,
chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. *Venous angiodysplasias
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
294. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity,
chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. *No right answer
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
295. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency II drgree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment?
A. *Obstruction of deep veins
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
E. Cholelithiasis
296. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment?
A. *Angina
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
E. Cholelithiasis
297. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment?
A. *Heart failure
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
298. The patient complains on burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand
of progress varicose veins in the leg. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. *Thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
299. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand
of progress varicose veins in the leg with the transition to the lower third of the thigh. What is
the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. *Ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
300. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand
of progress varicose veins in the leg with the transition to the lower and middle third of the
thigh. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. *Ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
301. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand
of progress varicose veins on the back of the tibia. What is the most likely diagnosis in a
patient?
A. *Small saphenous vein thrombophlebitis
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
302. The patient complains on frequent thrombophlebitis in the zone of varicose great saphenous
vein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Migrating thrombophlebitis
B. Ascending thrombophlebitis
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Erysipelas
303. The patient complains on frequent thrombophlebitis in the zone of varicose great saphenous
vein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *No right answer
B. Ascending thrombophlebitis
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Erysipelas
304. 304. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity.
Acute ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins.
Tactics?
A. *Surgical treatment
B. Conservative treatment
C. Physiotherapy
D. Sanatorium treatment
E. Treatment is not required
305. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose saphenous veins left lower
extremity. Acute ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Tactics?
A. *No right answer
B. Conservative treatment
C. Physiotherapy
D. Sanatorium treatment
E. Treatment is not required
306. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Which of
the following drugs should be appoint after surgery?
A. *Ciprinol
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin
D. Atenolol
E. Vasilip
307. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Which of
the following drugs should appoint after surgery?
A. *Dikloberl
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin
D. Atenolol
E. Vasilip
308. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Which of
the following drugs should appoint after surgery?
A. *Detralex
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin
D. Atenolol
E. Vasilip
309. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. How long
a patient should be advised to use elastic compression?
A. *3 months.
B. 1 month.
C. 1 year
D. 6 months.
E. 2 weeks
310. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. How long
a patient should be advised to use elastic compression?
A. *There is no correct answer.
B. 1 month.
C. 1 year
D. 6 months.
E. 2 weeks
311. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements. What is most
likely diagnosis?
A. *Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
B. Thrombosis of the femoral vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
E. Vein thrombosis aksilyarnoy
312. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements. What
research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
313. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements. What
research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. *Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
314. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the
knee joint. What is most likely diagnosis?
A. *Thrombosis of superficial femoral vein
B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the vena cava inferior
E. Thrombosis Axillary vein
315. The patient complains on pain in the right leg hip, increases with movements in the foot and
the knee joint. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
316. The patient complains on pain in the right leg hip, increases with movements in the foot and
the knee joint. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. *Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
317. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the
knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What is most likely diagnosis?
A. *Thrombosis of common femoral vein
B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
E. Thrombosis Axyllary vein
318. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the
knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What research method is most reliable for
further diagnosis?
A. *Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
319. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the
knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What research method is most reliable for
further diagnosis?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
320. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the
knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. Swelling of limbs throughout and on the
buttocks What is most likely diagnosis?
A. *Thrombosis of the iliac-femoral segment
B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
E. Thrombosis Axyllary vein
321. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the
knee joint. There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. Swelling of limbs throughout and on the
buttocks. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. *Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
322. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower
extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal pain. What
complication can be suspected in a patient?
A. *Pulmonary embolism
B. Superficial thrombophlebitis
C. Ulcer
D. Pharyngitis
E. Pleurisy
323. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower
extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal pain. What
method diagnosis should be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. *ECG
B. Reovazography
C. Densitometry
D. Ultrasound of internal organs
E. Ultrasound vascular limb
324. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower
extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, pain with localized behind
the breastbone, a feeling of fear. What complication can be suspected in a patient?
A. *Pulmonary embolism
B. Superficial thrombophlebitis
C. Ulcer
D. Pharyngitis
E. Pleurisy
325. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower
extremity. The patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal pain. What
method diagnosis should be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. *Radiography of the chest
B. Reovazogrfiya
C. Densitometry
D. Ultrasound of internal organs
E. Ultrasound vascular limb
326. The patient suddenly appeared retrosternal pain, dyspnea, collapse with increased sweating,
and a sharp V neck veins. Which version of PE is in this patient?
A. *Acute course
B. Subacute course
C. Recidivism during
D. Mixed
E. Combined
327. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation
is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Study of blood coagulation
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
328. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation
is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *ECG
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
329. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation
is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Radiography of the chest cavity
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
330. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation
is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Angiopulmonography
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
331. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation
is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Lung scintigraphy
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
332. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation
is required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. *Study of blood coagulation
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Echocardiography
333. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which
of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *The rise of the dome diaphragm
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
334. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which
of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Pleural effusion in the sinuses
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
335. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which
of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *The wedge-shaped shadow atelectases
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
336. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which
of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Breaking vessels near the root of the lungs
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
337. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which
of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Hyperperfusion of the contralateral lung
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
338. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which
of the following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Dilation of the right ventricle
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
339. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following
symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Advanced, hypokinetic right ventricle
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
340. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following
symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Increased ratio of right ventricle / left ventricle
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
341. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following
symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Dilation of proximal pulmonary arteries
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
342. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following
symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Increasing the speed of blood tricuspid regurgitation> 3.7 m / s
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
343. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following
symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Violation of blood flow from the right ventricle
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
344. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following
symptoms indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. *Advanced vena cava inferior, which has persisted for inspiration
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
345. Patients with suspected pulmonary embolism made angiopulmonography. Which of the
following symptoms is direct?
A. *Vascular filling defects
B. Asymmetry of vascular contrast material filling
C. Slow progress or stasis of contrast
D. Increased pulmonary artery trunk and its major branches
E. No right answer