Download Unit 3 take home exam

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Human Biology 102, Fall 2006
Unit 3 Take-Home Exam
20 points Total
1. Choose the ratio for crossing two heterozygous parents for ear lobe attachment (Ee x Ee).
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. None of the choices are correct.
2. Choose the ratio for crossing a heterozygous parent for ear lobe attachment and a
homozygous recessive parent (Ee x ee).
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. None of the choices are correct.
3. In crossing two heterozygous parents, what are the chances for a pure recessive
offspring?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. less than 10%
4. In crossing two heterozygous parents, what are the chances that an offspring will
receive a dominant allele?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. less than 10%
E. None of the choices are correct.
5. In crossing a heterozygous parent and a homozygous recessive parent, what are the
chances that an offspring will receive a dominant allele?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. less than 10%
E. None of the choices are correct.
6. Which of the following is expected to be more common in male offspring than female?
A. hemophilia
B. sickle-cell disease
C. Huntington Disease
7. Brown eyes are dominant over blue eyes. If a woman with brown eyes (BB)
reproduces with a man with blue eyes (bb), what are the chances they will have a child
with brown eyes?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 0%
8. In a paternity suit the alleged father has blood type O, the mother blood type AB, and
the baby has blood type B. Choose the most accurate statement below.
A. The alleged father must be the biological father.
B. The alleged father could be the biological father.
C. The alleged father could not be the biological father.
D. The baby is not from either parent.
9. In a paternity suit the alleged father has blood type AB, the mother blood type O, and
the baby has blood type O. Choose the most accurate statement below.
A. The alleged father must be the biological father.
B. The alleged father could be the biological father.
C. The alleged father could not be the biological father
D. The baby is not from either parent.
10. In a paternity suit the alleged father has blood type AB, the mother blood type AB,
and the baby has blood type O. Choose the most accurate statement below.
A. The alleged father must be the biological father.
B. The alleged father could be the biological father.
C. The alleged father could not be the biological father.
D. The baby is not from either parent.
11. A man with blood type AB could NOT be the father of a child with the blood type of:
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
12. Free earlobes (E) are dominant over attached earlobes (e). If two people with
homozygous attached earlobes mate, what will be the phenotype of their offspring?
A. all free earlobes
B. all attached earlobes
C. 50/50 free to attached earlobes
D. 75% free, 25% attached
13. Muscular dystrophy is more common in:
A. females
B. males
14. Choose the following that is an X-linked genetic disorder.
A. color blindness
B. muscular dystrophy
C. hemophilia
D. All of the choices are correct.
15. Color blindness is __________.
A. sex-linked
B. dominant
C. multifactorial
D. recessive
16. Which of the following is true about X-linked disorders?
A. most are dominant
B. most are females
C. daughters of an X-linked disorder father are often carriers
D. daughters of a carrier are likely to have the condition
17. Down syndrome is seen in a person with:
A. XXX
B. XXY
C. XO
D. deletion in chromosome 5
E. extra chromosome 21
18. Which of the following genetic conditions is carried on a sex chromosome?
A. hemophilia
B. sickle-cell disease
C. Tay Sachs
D. All of the choices are correct.
19. Which of the following diseases has malformed blood cells that do not carry oxygen well?
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Tay - Sachs disease
C. PKU
D. Sickle-Cell Disease
20. Trisomy 21 is more commonly known as:
A. Turners syndrome
B. cri-du-chat
C. Klinefelters
D. Down syndrome
E. Jacobs syndrome
21. It is advantageous to have human testes in the scrotum rather than in the abdomen
due to:
A. the lack of room in the abdomen
B. a more direct blood supply outside the abdomen
C. a resulting lower temperature
D. the size of the testes
E. All of the above
22. Which of the following is NOT true about Viagra?
A. It works by allowing vasodilatation
B. It can precipitate a heart attack
C. It can cause vision problems
D. If it causes an erection for longer than 4 hours, the tissue of the penis can die
E. It increases the chance of getting an inguinal hernia
23. Which of these is NOT a viable mechanism of transmission or means of spreading AIDS?
A. passing body fluids
B. being in the same room as an AIDS patient
C. passing blood
D. passing saliva
E. passing semen
24. Which pairing of the female reproductive structures to their descriptions is correct?
A. vulva; external genitalia
B. cervix; neck of the uterus
C. clitoris; composed of erectile tissue
D. All of the choices are correct.
25. Ovulation involves:
A. maturation of the egg as it gains motility
B. penetration of the egg by a sperm cell
C. release of a mature egg from an ovary
26. Which of the following is not one of the best ways to prevent STDs:
A. The use of a condom along with a spermicide that contains nonoxynol-9
B. The avoidance of oral/genital contact
C. Have a monogamous relationship
D. Don’t have sex with someone who has a STDs or is an intravenous drug user.
E. All of the above are good ways to prevent STDs
27. The sex of the fetus can first be distinguished during:
A. fertilization
B. weeks 5-8
C. the third-fourth months
D. the fifth-seventh months
28. During the __________ month, the fetal heartbeat is first loud enough to be heard by
a physician with a stethoscope.
A. first
B. second
C. fourth
D. fifth – seventh
29. By the end of the __________ month, all major organs have appeared in the fetus.
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth
E. the ninth month
30. Which of the following has been cited for triggering recurrence of symptoms of
herpes infections?
A. high fever, colds
B. stress
C. menstruation
D. exposure to sunlight
E. All of the choices are correct.
31. Chlamydia symptoms are most similar to:
A. herpes
B. hepatitis
C. syphilis
D. gonorrhea
E. urinary tract infection
32. AIDS is a sexually transmitted viral disease which attacks the
A. liver
B. reproductive system
C. immune system
D. kidneys
E. nervous system
33. The structures constructed of DNA that control the characteristics of the individual are:
A. nucleus
B. genes
C. enzymes
D. mitochondria
E. karyotypes
34. If a human inherits one Y and one X chromosome, the person will be:
A. a female
B. a male
35. Choose the following that detects cervical cancers.
A. digital rectal exam
B. barium enema
C. mammogram
D. Pap smear
E. colonoscopy
36. What is it called when scientists arrange the pairs of chromosomes in order of their
assigned name?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Karyotyping
C. Karaoke
D. Genetic fingerprinting
37. The membrane that provides a fluid environment for the developing embryo is:
A. amnion
B. yolk sac
C. placenta
D. umbilical cord
38. The failure of sister chromosomes to separate during meiosis is properly called:
A. nondisjunction
B. chromosomal abnormality
C. mutation
D. chromosome adhesion
39. Which of the following ruptures just before birth, known as the “water breaking”?
A. yolk sac
B. placenta
C. umbilical cord
D. amnion
40. The cap of enzymes on the head of a sperm is called the:
A. acrosome
B. vericocele
C. flagellum
D. nucleus