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Economics 4333/5333 Fall 2000 Assignment #3 Sample Answers 1. a. If the country is running a BOP deficit, its imports of goods, services, and assets exceed its exports. This means that the private supply of its currency on the FX market exceeds the private demand as residents try to sell their currency to buy the foreign currency needed for all those imports. If they get this foreign currency from the country’s central bank, that means the central bank is selling the foreign currency and buying the domestic currency. (This means the country’s central bank is losing reserves.) b. If the country’s central bank is not intervening, the one or more other central banks must be intervening to sell FX and buy the country’s currency. 2. With no central bank intervention, the current account and capital account must offset one another. With a net capital inflow into the U.S., foreigners must get dollars from somewhere to acquire U.S. assets. They get those dollars from U.S. importers, so the U.S. must import more than it exports. In this case, the U.S. ran a current account deficit over this period. In general, it is technically possible for a capital inflow to occur simultaneously with a balanced current account or even a current account surplus. In this case, foreign investors do not get the domestic currency they need from the country excess of goods and services imports over exports. Instead, in the modern world, they would get it from one or more central banks that are selling the country’s currency and buying up the currencies of other countries. In the late 1800s, however, the world economy was on a gold standard and there was no central bank in the U.S. The inflow of investment funds into the U.S. could have been the result of gold shipments here. That is, if foreign investors were unable to obtain dollars in the foreign exchange market, they could have shipped gold here to obtain dollars. In fact, however, the U.S. did run a substantial current account deficit, importing all kinds of manufactured goods for use in the settlement of the western frontier. 3. a. The Fed should buy dollars and sell yen. The additional demand for dollars and supply of yen will, if done in sufficient quantity, stop the fall in the dollar’s value. b. The Fed will lose yen reserves, which means the U.S. is running a balance of payments deficit. 4. The pound value of UK imports determines the supply of pounds (demand for $) in the FX market. The pound value of UK exports determines the demand for pounds (supply of $) in the FX market. This means that: (1) (2) Supply of pounds = pound price of imports * Real quantity of imports, and Demand for pounds = pound price of exports * Real quantity of exports Consider (1). The pound price of imports is PI/S, where S is the spot exchange rate measured in $/pound and PI is the $ price of UK imports. The real quantity of imports will be Economics 4333/5333 Assignment #3 Sample Answers Page 2 unchanged if the pound price of imports rises 8%, because UK inflation is 8%. We know P I rises 15% because US inflation is 8%. For PI/S to rise 8%, S must rise by about 7%. [Technically, S must rise 6.48%, because x = 1.0648 solves (1.15/x) = 1.08.] Now consider (2). The pound price of UK exports is also given by PX/S, where PX is the $ price of UK exports. The real quantity of pound exports is unchanged if PX/S rises by 8% because UK inflation is 8%. We know PX rises 15% because US inflation is 8%. For PX/S to rise 8%, S must rise by about 7%. [Technically, S must rise 6.48%, because x = 1.0648 solves (1.15/x) = 1.08.] Thus we have a new equilibrium of both the supply and demand curves in the foreign exchange market shift up by about 7% (technically 6.48%) and rightward by 15%. Thus the pound appreciates by about 7% (really 6.48%). That is, the pound appreciates by about the extent to which UK inflation is lower than U.S. inflation (15% - 8% = 7%, or technically 1.15/1.08 = 1.0648). 5. I messed up on this question. I meant to have the quantity measured in yen rather than dollars. As it is, you can follow the book exactly: a. The demand curve for USD is downward sloping. As the exchange rate (in JPY/USD) falls, the dollar price of exports (given a fixed JPY price) rises. This increases the real quantity of US exports. Since both the quantity of exports and the USD price of exports rise, the demand for USD rises unambiguously. The supply curve for USD may slope upward or downward depending on the elasticity of US import demand. When the exchange rate falls, this increases the dollar price of imports and the quantity of imports falls. If import quantity falls a lot relative to the USD price (elastic import demand), the supply of USD will fall and the supply curve is upward-sloping. If import quantity falls only a little relative to the USD price (inelastic import demand) , the supply of USD will rise and the supply curve is downward sloping. b. The market is unstable if the supply curve is downward sloping and flatter than the demand curve. NOTE: If we use measure the quantity in JPY rather than USD but continue to measure the exchange rate as JPY/USD, then the following things happen. The supply curve for JPY (which is the demand for USD) is unambiguously downward-sloping. The demand curve for JPY (which is the supply of USD) may be either downward or upward sloping. If it slopes downward and is flatter than the supply curve, the market will be unstable.