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Section I Functional Anatomy (Q1-Q38)
1. Which of the following examples would present the longest resistance arm, making it the
most mechanically disadvantaged position for the body during resistance training?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Side dumbbell raises at 90º of shoulder abduction
Dumbbell fly on a flat bench at the end range of motion (full horizontal adduction)
Biceps curl at 90º of elbow flexion
Starting position of triceps press down
2. Which of these muscles is part of the rotator cuff?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Coracobrachialis
Teres major
Supraspinatus
Pectoralis minor
3. Which of the following muscles is the prime mover during the seated calf raise exercise?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Gastrocnemius
Semitendinosus
Soleus
Anterior tibialis
4. Spinal extension could be used to evaluate the range of motion in which of the following
muscles?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Latissimus dorsi
Erector spinae
Rectus abdominis
Quadratus lumborum
5. The medicine ball side pass occurs in which anatomical plane?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Frontal
Transverse
Sagittal
Coronal
6. Bar action occurs in which anatomical plane during the lat pull down exercise?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Frontal
Transverse
Sagittal
Coronal
7. Eccentric contractions of the _________ muscle groups decelerate a ballistic movement such
as those used in running or throwing.
a.
b.
c.
d.
agonist
antagonist
synergist
stabilizing
8. Hyperextension of the shoulder is restricted by the range of motion (ROM) of the
__________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
posterior deltoid
anterior deltoid
subscapularis
teres minor
9. The downward phase of the deadlift exercise involves a(n) _________ contraction of the hip
and knee extensors.
a.
b.
c.
d.
isometric
plyometric
concentric
eccentric
10. Seated knee extension on a machine has reduced ________ recruitment versus knee extension
that occurs while standing (closed chain) due to the position of the hip.
a.
b.
c.
d.
vastus medialis
rectus femoris
vastus intermedius
vastus lateralis
11. A lifting posture with a noticeable anterior pelvic tilt may be attributed to tightness in the
_______.
a.
b.
c.
d.
latissimus dorsi
erector spinae
rectus abdominis
iliopsoas
12. This muscle indicated by the arrow is the ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
brachioradialis
pronator teres
biceps brachii
coracobrachialis
13. Type I muscle fibers are converted to Type IIa fibers due to ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
fast twitch nerve activation from training
chronic muscle glycogen depletion from training
improvements in calcium release rates
None of the above. Slow twitch fibers cannot be converted into fast twitch fibers
14. Due to fiber dynamics, activities requiring a combination of elevated force and prolonged
duration preferentially recruit the ________ fibers to perform the work.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Type I
Type IIa
Type IIb
Type III
15. For increased stability during the exercise, the hip adductors would experience the highest
force production requirements from isometric contractions during a ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
standing shoulder press using a single dumbbell
seated shoulder press with barbell
standing bilateral cable shoulder press
the adductors are not used for stabilization
16. This muscle indicated by the arrow is the ________ and works with the gluteus minimus and
medius to cause hip abduction.
a.
b.
c.
d.
tensor fascia latae
iliopsoas
sartorius
adductor magnus
17. The muscle indicated by the arrow is the ________ and makes up one-third of the hamstring
muscle group.
a.
b.
c.
d.
biceps femoris
sartorius
semimembranosus
semitendinosus
18. The muscle indicated by the arrow is primarily responsible for ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
shoulder adduction
trunk rotation
lateral flexion
back extension
19. The upward phase of the push up involves ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
humeral extension
humeral horizontal abduction
humeral abduction
humeral horizontal adduction
20. The __________ contain higher concentrations of Type I muscle fibers due to the postural
requirements of the tissue.
a.
b.
c.
d.
gluteus medius
rectus abdominis
rhomboids
hip flexor
21. Resisted shoulder extension and humeral adduction can both be used to train the _________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
latissimus dorsi
anterior deltoid
subscapularis
teres minor
22. The forward lunge occurs in which movement plane?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Frontal
Transverse
Sagittal
Horizontal
23. Poor flexibility in the muscle indicated by the arrow can lead to an exaggerated lordotic
curvature and diminished range of motion during hip extension and knee flexion.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rectus femoris
Sartorius
Semitendinosus
Biceps femoris
24. The rhomboids are the prime mover for the ________ exercise and are responsible for
scapular retraction.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Romanian deadlift
biceps curl
seated row
lunge
25. Which of the following muscles is an external rotator of the femur and is associated with low
back pain when it becomes tight and limits range of motion?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vastus intermedius
Quadratus lumborum
Pectineus
Piriformis
26. Which of these muscles commonly lack flexibility, often leading to a pelvic imbalance that
increases the tendency for the pelvis to migrate into a posterior tilt?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Quadriceps
Hip abductors
Hamstrings
Hip adductors
27. During the performance of the squat exercise, which muscle group is most responsible for hip
extension?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Gluteal muscles
Quadriceps
Hamstrings
Hip adductors
28. At which spinal motion segment do most intervertebral disc injuries occur?
a.
b.
c.
d.
C1-C2
C7-T1
T12-L1
L5-S1
29. The primary responsibility of the medial head of the deltoid is ___________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
shoulder flexion
shoulder extension
shoulder adduction
shoulder abduction
30. The forward motion of throwing requires internal rotation and therefore would be accelerated
by the ________ muscle.
a.
b.
c.
d.
infraspinatus
deltoid
subscapularis
teres minor
31. The primary role of the ________ is to increase intra-abdominal pressure through hoop
tension to stabilize and support the spine.
a.
b.
c.
d.
rectus abdominis
transverse abdominis
external obliques
erector spinae
32. The muscle indicated by the arrow lies below the mid-fibers of the trapezius and causes
scapular retraction.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rhomboids major
Posterior deltoid
Serratus anterior
Levator scapulae
33. The main action of the muscle indicated by the arrow is _______.
a.
b.
c.
d.
ankle plantar flexion
ankle dorsiflexion
knee flexion
knee extension
34. During the pull-up exercise, the ________ are the prime movers.
a.
b.
c.
d.
teres minor and latissimus dorsi
teres major and triceps
teres major and obliques
teres major and latissimus dorsi
35. During a forward lunge, the front (weight-bearing) leg uses _______ during the upward
phase.
a.
b.
c.
d.
concentric contractions of the hip and knee flexors
eccentric contractions of the hip and knee flexors
eccentric contractions of the hip and knee extensors
concentric contractions of the hip and knee extensors
36. Tight hip flexors often lead to an increased lordotic curve of the ________ spine.
a.
b.
c.
d.
cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacral
37. The growth plates at the ends of a long bone are called ________ and may be damaged under
very high levels of stress in growing children.
a.
b.
c.
d.
articular surfaces
bursa sacs
epiphyseal plates
sutures
38. The muscle indicated by the arrows is the ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
brachialis
triceps brachii
biceps brachii
brachioradialis
39. What is the correct movement of the glenohumeral joint during a triceps extension exercise?
a. dorsi flexion
b. no joint movement
c. extension
d. abduction
40. The concept that energy is transferred across joints to support voluntary movement is termed
__________.
a. neuromuscular system
b. systemic transfer
c. kinetic chain
d. isotonic acceleration
41. Which of the following muscles is commonly found to lack proper flexibility; promoting a
posterior pelvic tilt as seen in this picture?
a. quadriceps
b. glutes
c. obliques
d. hip flexors
42. The _________ is the only dual-action muscle of the quadriceps; allowing it to act upon both
the hip and knee joints.
a. vastus lateralis
b. biceps femoris
c. vastus intermedius
d. rectus femoris
43. What is the term used to describe the natural curvature of the cervical spine?
a. lordotic
b. kyphotic
c. sciatic
d. thoracic
44. Which tissue functions to connect a muscle to a bone?
a. ligament
b. sarcomere
c. tendon
d. myofilament
45. Which of the following represent the four muscles of the rotator cuff?
a. infraspinatus, teres minor, pectoralis minor, subscapularis
b. supraspinatus, levator scapulae, teres minor, infraspinatus
c. levator scapulae, teres minor, pectoralis minor, subscapularis
d. supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularus
46. Which muscle is responsible for the first 30 degrees of trunk flexion and is targeted during
the crunch movement?
a. obliques
b. iliopsoas
c. erector spinae
d. rectus abdominus
47. During the performance of a single-leg squat (Bulgarian squat), what muscles are considered
the prime movers?
a. quadriceps and glutes
b. hamstrings and calf
c. sartorius and hip flexors
d. hip adductors and tensor fascia latae
48. What muscle acts as the agonist during performance of the Romanian deadlift?
a. shoulders
b. pectoralis
c. hamstrings
d. rhomboids
49. During the descent phase of the standing barbell curl, the biceps are contracting _________.
a. concentrically
b. eccentrically
c. isometrically
d. isokinetically
50. Plantar flexion of the ankle during running is caused by a concentric contraction of which
muscle?
a. anterior tibialis
b. gastrocnemius
c. hamstring
d. serratus anterior
51. During performance of the side lateral raise, the prime mover is the __________.
a. rhomboid
b. infraspinatus
c. levator scapulae
d. deltoid
52. Which of the following would cause dorsiflexion of the ankle?
a. a concentric contraction of the anterior tibialis
b. an isometric contraction of the soleus
c. an eccentric contraction of the biceps femoris
d. a concentric contraction of the vastus lateralis
53. Retraction of the scapulae, as seen during proper performance of the bilateral row exercise, is
accomplished by a __________.
a. concentric contraction of the pectoralis major
b. concentric contraction of the rhomboids
c. eccentric contraction of the latissimus dorsi
d. eccentric contraction of the erector spinae
54. A majority of back injuries from incorrect lifting and movement mechanics occur between
which segments of the spine?
a. cervical and thoracic
b. thoracic and lumbar
c. lumbar and sacral
d. sacral and coccyx
55. Which muscle acts as a spinal stabilizer during the performance of a push-up?
a. transverse abdominis
b. pectoralis minor
c. serratus anterior
d. rhomboids
56. Having your client rehearse the forward lunge repeatedly without weights will improve their
movement performance due to neuromuscular familiarity, referred to as __________.
a. proprioception
b. motor learning
c. kinetic chain
d. ballistic movements
57. After performing a flexibility screen, it is determined that your client has difficulty moving
through a full, functional range of motion at the shoulder joint; with clear limitations in
external rotation capabilities. Which of the following exercises may prove difficult to perform
properly as a result of this flexibility concern?
a. chest flys
b. standing triceps pushdown
c. deadlift
d. back squat
58. Which of the following connective tissues is responsible for providing stability within a joint
by connecting bone to bone?
a. tendon
b. sarcomere
c. fascia
d. ligament
59. The deltoid becomes the primary abductor of the humerus beginning at what joint angle;
reducing involvement of the rotator cuff?
a. 0°
b. 10°
c. 30°
d. 45°
60. To minimize the risk for injury, hamstring strength should be _____% of quadriceps
strength?
a. 10
b. 25
c. 40
d. >50
61. The performance of a lunge with forward press on a cable machine occurs in which
movement plane?
a. sagittal
b. transverse
c. frontal
d. anterior
62. During the triceps kickback exercise what joint action should occur at the shoulder?
a. no joint movement
b. flexion
c. abduction
d. extension
63. During your client’s performance of the overhead squat you observe the bar moving forward
when their hips begin to flex. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
a. weakness in the quadriceps
b. low endurance in the erector spinae
c. tightness in the pectorals and lattissimus dorsi
d. weakness in the deltoids
64. Tibial translation will occur during the lunge exercise if ____________.
a. there is excessive dorsiflexion of the ankle
b. the client has weak abdominal musculature
c. excessive resistance is being used
d. the client improperly rotates during the movement
65. What type of contraction occurs in the quadriceps during the descent phase of a leg press?
a. concentric
b. eccentric
c. isokinetic
d. isometric
66. What muscle can contribute to an anterior pelvic tilt when it becomes inflexible?
a. semimembranosus
b. semitendinosus
c. gluteus minimus
d. rectus femoris
67. What is the natural curvature of the thoracic spine?
a. lordotic curve
b. lateral curve
c. kyphotic curve
d. medial curve
68. Which connective tissue becomes inflamed with overuse or incorrect biomechanics?
a. tendon
b. ligament
c. myofibril
d. cartilage
69. Which of the following correctly identifies the muscles that comprise the hamstrings?
a. rectus femoris, biceps femoris, semimembranosus
b. semitendinosus, vastus lateralis, soleus
c. biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus
d. semimembranosus, sartorius, vastus intermedius
70. Which muscles dominate the upward movement when a full, anchored sit-up is performed?
a. erector spinae
b. hamstrings
c. hip flexors
d. obliques
71. During the performance of the back squat, what is the prime mover responsible for hip
extension?
a. soleus
b. quadriceps
c. erector spinae
d. gluteus maximus
72. What muscle group functions as the antagonist during the performance of the leg extension
exercise?
a. hamstrings
b. quadriceps
c. hip flexors
d. internal obliques
73. What muscle is responsible for shoulder flexion?
a. trapezius
b. biceps
c. levator scapulae
d. anterior deltoids
74. What muscle is the prime mover for the lateral lunge performed in the picture?
a. hip abductors
b. hip extensors
c. hip rotators
d. hip flexors
75. During the pulling phase of the seated row the rhomboids:
a. isometrically contract to act as a stabilizer
b. isokinetically contract to allow for proper back activation
c. concentrically contract to cause scapular retraction
d. eccentrically contract to encourage shoulder extension
76. Which muscle is responsible for stabilizing the pelvis and spine in the frontal plane, and
functions as a mover during lateral trunk flexion?
a. rectus abdominis
b. transverse abdominis
c. erector spinae
d. quadratus lumborum
77. Which muscle is responsible for shoulder elevation during the performance of the shrug
exercise?
a. upper trapezius
b. erector spinae
c. rotator cuff
d. serratus anterior
78. Which of the following exercises requires the greatest contribution from trunk stabilizers
when using 80% of the client’s 1RM?
a. seated leg extension
b. barbell military press
c. bench press
d. cable lat pull-down
79. What adjustment to the traditional lunge exercise would increase the proprioception
requirement to the greatest extent?
a. switching the weight from a barbell to dumbbells
b. completing more repetitions
c. moving backward instead of forward
d. holding the resistance in front of the body
80. Based on the results of a flexibility assessment, your client shows a limited range of motion
in his hamstrings. This would compromise performance in which of the following exercises?
a. hanging knee raises
b. Romanian deadlift
c. calf raise
d. box step-ups
81. The reverse lunge is performed in which movement plane?
a. sagittal
b. posterior
c. frontal
d. transverse
82. What hand position increases biceps activity to the greatest degree during pulling exercises?
a. pronated grip
b. supinated grip
c. neutral grip
d. alternate grip
83. To avoid excessive dorsiflexion and possible tibial translation at the knee during the box stepup exercise, the clients should be instructed to:
a. start closer to the box so they can take shorter steps
b. increase the speed of the movement
c. keep a lower center of gravity by maintaining hip flexion throughout the entire
movement
d. step to the center of the box and push through the heel
84. The performance of side lateral raises occurs in what movement plane?
a. anterior
b. sagittal
c. frontal
d. transverse