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CNS Drugs – MCQs
28th November 2006
1.
Diazepam
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
2.
Flumazenil
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Severe acidosis can occur with its use in paediatric respiratory
infection
Tremors are a common side effect
Post op vomiting is common
Hypertension is a complication
It is positively inotropic
Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest elimination half life
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
6.
Vitamin D metabolism abnormalities can occur
Nystagmus is a late complication
Alopecia is a complication
Agranulocytosis occurs commonly
 deep tendon reflexes are a manifestation of phenytoin toxicity
Regarding adverse effects of propofol
a.
5.
Is cleared renally
Predictably reverses benzodiazepine induced respiratory depression
Antagonises CNS effects of opioids
Can precipitate seizures in mixed overdose
Has a half life of around 10 hours
Regarding phenytoin toxicity
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
4.
Is less lipid soluble than lorazepam
Binds sparingly to plasma proteins
Is potentiated by flumazenil
Undergoes microsomal oxidation in the kidney
Is mainly metabolised to desmethyl diazepam
Lorazepam
Diazepam
Triazolam
Temazepam
Alprazolam
Suxamethonium
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Is a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agent
Is contraindicated in all eye operations
Stimulates cardiac muscarinic receptors and autonomic ganglia
Its action is directly terminated by the action of plasma cholinesterase
Should not be administered to patients with burns > 24 hours old
because of its hypercalcaemic effect
CNS Drugs – MCQs
26 June 2006
7.
Which of the following side effects most occurs with haloperidol
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
8.
Regarding non-depolarising muscle relaxants
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
9.
Has low lipid solubility
May worsen cerebral oedema
Is not significantly metabolised
Has effects on the brain that are terminated by redistribution
Is likely to  MAP
Carbamazepine
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
12.
Has rapid onset of action
Is partly renally excreted
Has no interaction with NSAIDs
Is the treatment of choice for severe unipolar depression
Is contraindicated in sick sinus syndrome
Thiopentone
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
11.
Pancuronium is eliminated via the kidney
Rocuronium is an isoquinolone derivative
Rocuronium undergoes Hoffman elimination
Vecuronium is eliminated predominantly via the kidney
Atracurium is eliminated via plasma pseudocholinesterase
Lithium
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
10.
Hypotension
Extrapyramidal side effects
Arrhythmias
Anti muscarinic side effects
Toxic confusional state
Can be used in the treatment of bipolar disorder, trigeminal neuralgia
and epilepsy
Like phenytoin, enhances GABA activity at therapeutic concentrations
Has a rate of absorption that does not vary widely among different
patients
Can cause a mild, but persistent leukopaenia and this is an indication
to stop treatment
Has cytochrome p450 inhibiting properties
Which of the following is a direct serotonin agonist
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Fluoxetine
Amitriptylline
Moclobemide
Ondansetron
Sumatriptan
CNS Drugs – MCQs
26 June 2006
13.
The opiate associated with seizures when given in high doses to patients with
renal failure is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
14.
Methadone is used in the treatment of narcotic addiction because
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
15.
Morphine
Pethidine
Methadone
Fentanyl
Codeine
It
It
It
It
It
is a less efficacious analgesic compared with morphine
produces a short withdrawal when ceased
is a phenylpiperidine class narcotic agonist
produces predictable effects when given orally
does not produce constipation
Regarding the alcohols
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Alcohols can cause a wide anion gap metabolic acidosis
Formaldehyde is responsible for the toxic effects of methanol
A normal non-tolerant adult can metabolise 30-40grams
alcohol/hour
Ethanol is a potent vasoconstrictor
The volume of distribution of ethanol is 3L/kg
of
CNS Drugs – MCQs
26 June 2006
Answers
1.
E
2.
D
3.
A
4.
A
5.
C
6.
C
7.
B
8.
A
9.
E
10.
D
11.
A
12.
E
13.
B
14.
D
15.
A
CNS Drugs – MCQs
26 June 2006