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CNS Drugs – MCQs 28th November 2006 1. Diazepam a. b. c. d. e. 2. Flumazenil a. b. c. d. e. 3. b. c. d. e. Severe acidosis can occur with its use in paediatric respiratory infection Tremors are a common side effect Post op vomiting is common Hypertension is a complication It is positively inotropic Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest elimination half life a. b. c. d. e. 6. Vitamin D metabolism abnormalities can occur Nystagmus is a late complication Alopecia is a complication Agranulocytosis occurs commonly deep tendon reflexes are a manifestation of phenytoin toxicity Regarding adverse effects of propofol a. 5. Is cleared renally Predictably reverses benzodiazepine induced respiratory depression Antagonises CNS effects of opioids Can precipitate seizures in mixed overdose Has a half life of around 10 hours Regarding phenytoin toxicity a. b. c. d. e. 4. Is less lipid soluble than lorazepam Binds sparingly to plasma proteins Is potentiated by flumazenil Undergoes microsomal oxidation in the kidney Is mainly metabolised to desmethyl diazepam Lorazepam Diazepam Triazolam Temazepam Alprazolam Suxamethonium a. b. c. d. e. Is a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agent Is contraindicated in all eye operations Stimulates cardiac muscarinic receptors and autonomic ganglia Its action is directly terminated by the action of plasma cholinesterase Should not be administered to patients with burns > 24 hours old because of its hypercalcaemic effect CNS Drugs – MCQs 26 June 2006 7. Which of the following side effects most occurs with haloperidol a. b. c. d. e. 8. Regarding non-depolarising muscle relaxants a. b. c. d. e. 9. Has low lipid solubility May worsen cerebral oedema Is not significantly metabolised Has effects on the brain that are terminated by redistribution Is likely to MAP Carbamazepine a. b. c. d. e. 12. Has rapid onset of action Is partly renally excreted Has no interaction with NSAIDs Is the treatment of choice for severe unipolar depression Is contraindicated in sick sinus syndrome Thiopentone a. b. c. d. e. 11. Pancuronium is eliminated via the kidney Rocuronium is an isoquinolone derivative Rocuronium undergoes Hoffman elimination Vecuronium is eliminated predominantly via the kidney Atracurium is eliminated via plasma pseudocholinesterase Lithium a. b. c. d. e. 10. Hypotension Extrapyramidal side effects Arrhythmias Anti muscarinic side effects Toxic confusional state Can be used in the treatment of bipolar disorder, trigeminal neuralgia and epilepsy Like phenytoin, enhances GABA activity at therapeutic concentrations Has a rate of absorption that does not vary widely among different patients Can cause a mild, but persistent leukopaenia and this is an indication to stop treatment Has cytochrome p450 inhibiting properties Which of the following is a direct serotonin agonist a. b. c. d. e. Fluoxetine Amitriptylline Moclobemide Ondansetron Sumatriptan CNS Drugs – MCQs 26 June 2006 13. The opiate associated with seizures when given in high doses to patients with renal failure is a. b. c. d. e. 14. Methadone is used in the treatment of narcotic addiction because a. b. c. d. e. 15. Morphine Pethidine Methadone Fentanyl Codeine It It It It It is a less efficacious analgesic compared with morphine produces a short withdrawal when ceased is a phenylpiperidine class narcotic agonist produces predictable effects when given orally does not produce constipation Regarding the alcohols a. b. c. d. e. Alcohols can cause a wide anion gap metabolic acidosis Formaldehyde is responsible for the toxic effects of methanol A normal non-tolerant adult can metabolise 30-40grams alcohol/hour Ethanol is a potent vasoconstrictor The volume of distribution of ethanol is 3L/kg of CNS Drugs – MCQs 26 June 2006 Answers 1. E 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. E 10. D 11. A 12. E 13. B 14. D 15. A CNS Drugs – MCQs 26 June 2006