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Transcript
Chapter 17- The Special Senses
Choose the single best answer to each question.
1) Special sense receptors
A) are specialized structures found at specific locations in the head.
B) are parts of neural pathways that are more complex than those of general senses.
C) allow us to touch, taste, smell, see and hear.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
2) Smell
A) is a chemical sense.
B) impulses propagate to the occipital lobe and cerebellum.
C) receptors are found in connective tissue associated with the inferior nasal concha.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
3) Olfactory receptors
A) are second-order, multipolar neurons.
B) are also called basal cells.
C) use olfactory hairs to transduce chemical signals from odorants.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
4) How do olfactory receptors differ from other neurons?
A) They, like other special sense receptors, have a lower threshold than most neurons.
B) They are able to regenerate.
C) They adapt to stimuli slowly.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
5) Place the parts of the olfactory pathway in the order in which an impulse travels to its integration center:
1. olfactory nerve
2. olfactory integration centers (temporal lobe, amygdala, hypothalamus, frontal lobe)
3. olfactory bulb
4. olfactory receptor
5. olfactory tract
A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
B) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
C) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
D) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
E) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
6) Which of the following is NOT a primary taste sensation?
A) sweet
B) sour
C) salty
D) peppery
E) bitter
7) How does gustation compare to olfaction?
A) There are more primary tastes than there are primary odors.
B) The gustatory receptors are less sensitive than the olfactory receptors.
C) Women have a more sensitive sense of taste; men have a more sensitive sense of smell.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
8) Which of the papillae function in gustation?
A) vallate
B) fungiform
C) foliate
D) filiform
E) All except the filiform papillae function in gustation.
9) Which of the following taste sensations arises from ions entering specific channels in the plasma membranes
of gustatory receptors?
A) salty
B) sour
C) sweet
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
10) Which of the following tastants binds to receptors on the plasma membrane rather than entering the cell?
A) sweet
B) umami
C) bitter
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
11) If there are only five primary tastes, why can humans identify thousands of flavors?
A) Some receptors may respond more strongly to one tastant than another.
B) Many flavors result from activation of groups of gustatory receptors.
C) Some perceived tastes are actually scents; humans can detect more scents than flavors.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
12) Which of the following lists tastes in order of increasing thresholds?
A) bitter, sour, sweet, salt
B) bitter, sour , sweet, salt
C) sweet, salt, bitter, sour
D) sweet, salt, bitter, sour
E) sweet, bitter, salt, sour
13) Which of the following are NOT accessory structures of the eye?
A) intrinsic eye muscles
B) extrinsic eye muscles
C) eyelashes
D) eyebrows
E) eyelids
14) Which of the following is a function of the eyelids?
A) cover the eyes while sleeping
B) shield the eyes from debris or excessive light
C) spread lubricating substances over the eyeballs
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
15) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Eyelashes and eyebrows direct foreign objects and particles toward the eyeballs.
B) Tears are produced by the medial lacrimal ducts and drain into the lateral lacrimal glands.
C) Only humans express emotions by crying.
D) The ciliary, rectus and oblique muscles are the extrinsic muscles of the eyes.
E) The fibrous tunic of the eyeball is highly vascular.
16) The fibrous tunic of the eye
A) is highly vascular.
B) consists of the anterior cornea and the posterior sclera.
C) consist of the white, opaque cornea and the transparent, colorless sclera.
D) is composed entirely of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
E) makes the eyeball more flexible and exposes its inner parts.
17) A 3-year-old child becomes frightened of the “monster” in the closet and runs screaming into his parents’
room. What might the boy’s mother, a neurologist, notice about the child’s pupils?
A) Parasympathetic activation of the radial muscles of the iris constricted the child’s pupils.
B) Parasympathetic activation of the circular muscles of the iris constricted the child’s pupils.
C) Sympathetic activation of the radial muscles of the iris constricted the child’s pupils.
D) Sympathetic activation of the radial muscles of the iris dilated the child’s pupils.
E) Sympathetic activation of the circular muscles of the iris dilated the child’s pupils.
18) Hypertension is sometimes called the “silent killer” because patients may be asymptomatic until significant
damage to tissues has occurred. Why might an optometrist (an O.D.) be the 1st person to detect that a patient has
hypertension?
A) During an eye exam, an O.D. may see changes in retinal blood vessels.
B) During an eye exam, an O.D. uses a sphygmomanometer to check blood pressure.
C) During an eye exam, an O.D. uses a puff of air to measure blood pressure in the eye.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
19) Which of the following is NOT a landmark that may be examined with an ophthalmoscope?
A) macula lutea
B) optic disc
C) optic chiasma
D) central fovea
E) central retinal blood vessels
20) Rods
A) are able to function at low light levels.
B) allow gray-scale vision but not color vision.
C) are photoreceptors concentrated at the center of the retina.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
21) Cones
A) outnumber rods.
B) function only at low light levels.
C) allow color vision.
D) are concentrated at the periphery of the retina.
E) are most critical for night vision.
22) The area of highest visual acuity is the
A) central fovea.
B) optic disc.
C) macula lutea.
D) pigmented layer of retina.
E) choroid layer.
23) The lens
A) is composed of a vitamin A derivative called retinal.
B) focuses light on to the retina.
C) lies between the cornea and the iris.
D) becomes more elastic with age.
E) is somewhat vascular.
24) The aqueous humor
A) develops during the embryonic period and is not replaced.
B) is found only in the posterior chamber of the eye.
C) accumulates “floaters” as a person ages.
D) nourishes the cornea and the lens.
E) holds the retina against the choroid.
25) Which of the following is NOT correct?
A) The cornea and the lens focus light onto the retina.
B) The shape of the lens can be modified to adjust the degree of refraction.
C) Images projected on the retina are inverted and reversed.
D) Accommodation is an increased curvature of the lens for near vision.
E) The longest distance at which an object can be focused is the near point.
26) Ten year old Matt Zigbowski struggles at school. His teacher seats students alphabetically, so he is at the
back of the classroom. He cannot see the words on the chalkboard from his desk. When he goes to the teacher’s
desk near the chalkboard, he can see the words but some of the letters t, l, and i are hard to distinguish from each
other. What is probably wrong with his eyes?
A) hyperopia
B) myopia
C) astigmatism
D) astigmatism and myopia
E) astigmatism and hyperopia
27) Which of the following is correct?
A) Convergence refers to the type of vision resulting when both eyes focus on one set of objects.
B) Binocular vision refers to medial movements that directed both eyes toward an object.
C) Transduction of light into a receptor potential occurs in the outer segments rods and cones.
D) Photoreceptor outer segments are renewed very slowly, if at all.
E) Photopigments are composed of derivatives of vitamin E called tocopherol and opsin proteins.
28) How does light excite the bipolar cells that synapse with rods?
A) by blocking the release of an inhibitory neurotransmitter
B) by stimulating the release of an excitatory neurotransmitter
C) by increasing the synthesis of GMP
D) by forcing Na+ channels in bipolar neurons to open
E) by increasing the synthesis of glutamate in bipolar neurons
29) Where will a nerve impulse that arose when ganglion cells depolarized terminate?
A) in the optic nerve
B) in the optic chiasma
C) in the optic tract
D) in the thalamus
E) in the occipital lobe
30) Which of the following is NOT correct?
A) Axons from the temporal half of each retina decussate in the optic chiasma.
B) Axons from the nasal half of each retina decussate in the optic chiasm.
C) Optic tracts consist of both crossed and uncrossed axons.
D) Some retinal ganglionic axon collaterals terminate in the midbrain and hypothalamus.
E) Signals for shape, color and location seem to be processed by at least 3 separate optic systems.
31) Which of the following is correctly described?
A) external ear: collects and directs sound waves toward middle ear
B) middle ear: transfers sound vibrations to the oval window of the middle ear
C) inner ear: contains receptors for hearing and equilibrium
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
32) Which of the following is (are) not considered to be part of the external ear?
A) auricle (pinna)
B) ossicles
C) external auditory canal
D) tympanic membrane
E) ceruminous glands
33) A patient had a stroke that damaged her facial nerve. In addition to changes in the ability to make facial
expressions, which of the following might be observed by the patient?
A) decreased sensitivity to sound
B) increased “popping” of the ears
C) increased sensitivity to sound
D) decreased ability to maintain balance
E) decreased ability to interpret sound
34) The auditory tube
A) is also called the pharyngotympanic or Eustachian tube.
B) allows equalization of pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.
C) allows microbes to colonize the interior surface of the tympanic membrane.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
35) The inner ear
A) consist of the bony and membranous labyrinths.
B) includes the semicircular canals, vestibule and cochlea.
C) is involved in hearing but not in equilibrium.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
36) Which of the following form the vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII?
A) ampullar nerve
B) utricular nerve
C) secular nerve
D) auditory nerve
E) All except D are correct.
37) The hair cells of the spiral organ (organ of Corti) are covered with
A) the tectorial membrane.
B) the vestibular membrane.
C) the basilar membrane.
D) perilymph.
E) periosteum.
38) Pitch increases when
A) the frequency of sound waves decreases.
B) the frequency of sound waves increases.
C) the intensity of sound waves decreases.
D) the intensity of sound waves increases.
E) the frequency of sound waves decreases but the intensity increases.
39) What is the function of the ossicles?
A) They transduce sounds into electrical impulses.
B) They transduce motions into electrical impulses.
C) They transfer the vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window.
D) They transfer the fluid shift of the semicircular canals to the ampulla.
E) They transfer otoliths from the utricle to the saccule.
40) Place the events involved in hearing in the order in which they occur.
1. Scala vestibuli movement causes scala tympani movements.
2. Sound waves cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate.
3. Endolymph waves cause movement of the basilar membrane and its hair cells.
4. The pinna conducts sound waves into the external auditory canal.
5. Hair cells push against the tectorial membrane; stereocilia bend; impulses generate.
6. The tympanic membrane moves the malleus, which in turn moves the incus and stapes.
7. Scala tympani movements create waves in cochlear endolymph.
8. The stapes moves against the oval window, moving the perilymph of the scala vestibuli
A) 4, 2, 8,6, 1, 7, 3, 5
B) 4, 2, 6, 1, 8, 7, 3, 5
C) 4, 2, 6, 8, 7, 1 3, 5
D) 4, 2, 6, 8, 1, 7, 3, 5
E) 4, 2, 6, 8, 1, 3, 7, 5
41) Which of the following is NOT correct?
A) The same sound strikes the right and left eardrums at slightly different times.
B) All regions of the basilar membrane vibrate with the same intensity.
C) High intensity sound waves cause greater vibrations of the basilar membrane.
D) The cochlea can produce sounds.
E) Otoacoustic emissions can be used to screen newborns for deafness.
42) Where do first-order neurons of the vestibulocochlear nerve terminate?
A) in ipsilateral cochlear nuclei of the medulla oblongata.
B) in contralateral superior olivary nuclei of the pons.
C) in the inferior colliculus of the midbrain.
D) in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.
E) in the primary auditory area of the temporal cerebral cortex.
43) Which of the following is correct?
A) Static equilibrium allows maintenance of head position relative to the force of gravity.
B) Dynamic equilibrium allows maintenance of balance during rapid movements.
C) The receptor organs for balance include the vestibule, semicircular canals and cochlea.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
44) A 4-year-old who wants to be a gymnast is assisted on to the balance beam and instructed just to stand on it
for a minute. Which parts of the child’s ears will primarily be involved in helping her stay on the beam?
A) the ossicles
B) the tympanic membrane
C) the maculae
D) the semicircular canals
E) All of these are correct.
45) A gymnast competing in the floor exercise must do a rapidly executed series of flips and twists. At the end of
those movements the gymnast must land upright within the boundaries of tumbling mat and remain motionless for
a few seconds. Which parts of the gymnast’s ears allow him to successfully complete the floor exercise?
A) the utricle
B) the saccule
C) the semicircular canals
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
46) Axons from the vestibular nuclei extend to the nuclei of cranial nerves
A) III
B) IV
C) VI
D) XI
E) All of these are correct.
47) The cerebellum
A) receives input from the utricle, saccule and semicircular canals.
B) sends nerve impulses to the motor areas of the cerebrum.
C) helps maintain equilibrium by adjusting motor signals to smooth muscles.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
48) Which of the following is correct?
A) The eyes begin to develop about 22 days after conception.
B) The eyes develop primarily from ectoderm and mesenchyme.
C) Myelination of the optic nerves is complete before birth.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
49) Which of the following is correct?
A) The ears begin to develop about 22 weeks after conception.
B) The inner ear arises from ectoderm and mesenchyme.
C) The external ear arises primarily from ectoderm.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
50) Which of the following is NOT an expected age-associated change in the special senses?
A) increased acuity of hearing
B) vestibular imbalance
C) loss of night vision
D) dry eyes
E) change in eye color