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Biology 11 – Practice Final Exam
Instructions – circle the letter that corresponds to the BEST answer.
1.) the lens at the top of the microscope tube is called the
a.) diaphragm.
c.) objective
b.) ocular.
d.) course adjustment.
2. In the diagram below the arrow is pointing at what structure?
A) the Stage
C) the Diaphragm
B) the Base
D) the Revolving Nose Piece
3. If a microscope is set up so that the total power of magnification is 400 X, and the ocular lens has a
power of 10X, what must the power of the objective lens be?
A) 4000 X
C) 500 X
B) 40 X
D) 4 X
4. The line between life and nonlife becomes blurred in trying to describe
a.) bacteria.
c.) snowballs.
b.) viruses.
d.) trees (wood).
5. All organisms that consist of a single cell are
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a.) multicellular.
c.) plants.
b.) unicellular.
d.) animals.
6.Two cells from different individuals unite to produce the first cells of a new organism by
a.) rapid growth.
c.) asexual reproduction.
b.) slow development.
d.) sexual reproduction.
7. Plants, unlike animals, carry on
a.) digestion.
c.) catabolism.
b.) photosynthesis.
d.) anabolism.
EVOLUTION & DNA
8. Which of the following is NOT a major driving force of Evolution?
a.) Mutation
c.) Natural Selection
b.) Genetic Equilibrium
d.) Genetic Drift
9. Normal genetic DNA is found in which part of a cell?
A) #1
C) #3
B) #2
D) #4
10. A DNA Nucleotide consists of each of the following basic parts except a
a.) 5-carbon sugar.
c.) phosphate group.
b.) 6-carbon starch.
d.) nitrogenous base.
11. After DNA replication, the two DNA molecules that are made
a.) are complimentary.
c.) are identical
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b.) consist of RNA instead
d.) cannot replicate again.
12.) The two strands of a DNA within a single DNA molecule are
a.) purines.
c.) complementary.
b.) pyrimidines.
d.) identical.
13.) Which is the best example of CONVERGENT Evolution?
a.) A Shark and a Dolphin
b.) A Crow and a Raven
c) A Cactus and a Moss
d) A Horse and Donkey
14.) When a specific molecule of DNA is analyzed, it is found that 20% of the bases are Adenine, therefore,
which statement below must be true.
a.) 30% of the bases must be Cytosine
b) 30 % of the bases must be Thymine
c) 20 % of the bases must be Guanine
d) none of the above statements is accurate
15.) Before a cell divides, it must duplicate its DNA in a process known as
a.) translation.
b.) replication.
c.) transformation.
d.) transcription.
16.) In DNA - Cytosine and Guanine
a.) are joined by three weak hydrogen bonds.
c.) are joined by ionic bonds.
b.) alternately bond with a sugar.
d.) none of the choices are correct
17.) If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence ATCGT, the sequence of bases on the other
complementary strand is:
a.) ATCGT.
b.) TAGCA.
c.) AUCGU.
d.) UAGCA.
18.) The part of a microscope that helps regulate/adjust how much light comes through the slide:
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a.) Stage
b.) Arm
c.) Diaphragm
d.) Base
19.) The double ringed nitrogenous bases found in DNA are called
a.) Purines
c.) Pyrimidines
b.) Riboses
d.) Deoxyriboses
20.) Which best describes the shape of DNA?
A) An alpha helix
C) A double helix
B) A triple helix
D) A spindle
21.) To maintain the chromosome number of an organism, the gametes (sex cells) must
a.) become diploid.
c.) be produced by mitosis.
b.) become recessive.
d.) be produced by meiosis
22.) The long, slow process of change in a species over time is
a.) fitness.
c.) punctuated equilibrium
c.) adaptation.
d.) evolution.
23. Which of the following DOES NOT provide evidence that supports the theory of evolution?
A) Vestigial Organs
C) Biogeographical Evidence
B) Fossil Record
D) Homologous Structures
E) All of the above provide support
24. Another name for Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection is …
A) Survival of the Fittest
C) Spontaneous Generation
B) Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics
D) Cell Theory
25.) The preserved remains of ancient organisms are called
a.) imprints.
c.) fossils.
b.) impressions.
d.) petrified structures.
26.) An example of a group of homologous structures is
a.) arms, paws, tails.
c.) arms, bird wings, and seal flippers.
b.) butterfly wings and bird wings
d.) flippers, hoofs, beaks.
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27.) Which of the following is NOT a structural adaptation?
A) needles on a cactus
C) a turtle's shell
B) toxins produced by a venomous snake
D) webbed feet of a duck
28.) The fossil record indicates that several times in the past, huge numbers of species have disappeared
suddenly in a phenomenon known as
a.) speciation.
c.) convergent evolution.
b.) divergent evolution.
d.) mass extinction.
29.) Divergent evolution is most closely related to..
a.) adaptive radiation.
c.) genetic recombination.
b.) genetic equilibrium
d.) survival of the fittest.
30.) The controversial theory proposed to explain gaps in the fossil record as illustrated below is known as…
a.) gradualism.
c.) natural selection.
b.) punctuated equilibrium
d.) inheritance of acquired traits.
31.) The success of an organism in passing on its genes is a definition of
a.) fitness.
c.) adaptation.
b.) speciation.
d.) radiation.
32.) The combination of an organism's habitat and its role in that habitat is called a
a.) population.
c.) gene pool
b.) fitness.
d) niche.
33.) The evolution giving rise to the diversity of Darwin's finches is an example of
a.) genetic equilibrium.
c.) convergent evolution
b.) artificial selection.
d.) adaptive radiation
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TAXONOMY
34) The scientific name for humans is most properly written as..
a.) Homo Sapiens.
c.) Homo sapiens.
b.) homo Sapiens.
d.) Homo Sapiens.
35.) The smallest (most specific) taxon is
a.) kingdom.
c.) order.
b.) phylum.
d.) species.
36.) A multicellular eukaryotic organism that has a cell wall that lacks a cell wall is….
a.) a plant.
b.) an animal.
c.) a fungus.
d.) a protist.
37.) The double-naming system introduced by Linnaeus is
a.) based solely on Greek names.
c.) known as binomial nomenclature.
b.) not used for microorganisms.
d.) used only for eukaryotes.
38.) Within a phylum, the next level (first) of taxonomic category is known as…
a.) a kingdom
b.) an order
c.) a class.
d.) a family.
39.) Solely from its name, you know that Rhizopus niqricans must be
a.) a plant
c.) in the species niqricans.
b.) an animal.
d.) in the family Rhizopus.
40) An organism that lacks both a mitochondria and a nucleus, and primarily uses binary fission for
reproduction must belong to KINGDOM…
a.) MONERA
b.) FUNGI
c.) ANIMALIA.
d.) PLANTAE
41. What best describes the composition of the specimen below?
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A) It consist of a nucleic acid with a protein capsid
B) It consists of a fatty cholesterol membrane and DNA
C) It consists of a cuticle and a nucleic acid.
D) It is a prokaryotic cell
42. A "prophage" can exist in a host cell for a period of time before becoming active in…
A) Binary fission
C) A lytic cycle
B) A lysogenic cycle
D) An endospore
43.) Bacteriophages are
a.) tiny bacteria.
c.) coils of ribonucleic acid.
b.) bacteria of the same type.
d.) viruses that attack bacteria
44. The diagram below illustrates what is known as….
A) The lysogenic cycle
B) A temperate phage
C) A lytic cycle
D) Binary fission
45 An injection of a weakened (deactivated) virus into a host animal/human in an effort to stimulate the
immune system to build up immunity to the virus or bacteria is an example of …
A) An antibiotic
C) Interferon
B) A antibody
D) A vaccine
46. A structure that forms when a bacterium produces a thick internal wall that encloses its DNA and part
of its cytoplasm is called a (an)..
A) Capsid
C) Endospore
B) Proglottid
D) Prophage
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47. The diagram below represents…
A) A Prokaryotic Cell
B) A Virus
C) A Eukaryotic Cell
D) A Protist
48. The shape of the organism above is best described as…
A) cocci
C) oblongi
B) spirillum
D) bacillus
49. Cells that can only carry out energy producing reactions in the ABSENCE of oxygen are known as..
A) Obligate Anaerobes
C) Facultative Anaerobes
B) Obligate Aerobes
D) Facultative Aerobes
50. A unique characteristic of Cyanobacteria is that…
A) they are pathogenic
B) they are parasitic
C) they are heterotrophic
D) they are autotrophic
51. Substances/medications that can be taken into the body to kill bacteria…
A) Vaccines
C) Pathogenics
B) Antibiotics
D) Disinfectants
52. The proper classification for bacteria that can use sunlight for energy and to build organic compounds
for nutrition is…
A) Phototrophic autotrophs
C) Phototrophic heterotrophs
B) Chemotrophic autotrophs
D) Chemotrophic heterotrophs
53. The bacteria shown in the image below would best be described as…
8
A) Staphylococcal
B) Staphylobacillus
C) Streptobacillus
D) Streptococcal
54. The diagram below illustrate a process best described as….
A) Asexual reproduction in bacteria called conjugation
B) Sexual reproduction in bacteria called binary fission
C) Sexual reproduction in bacteria called conjugation
D) Asexual reproduction in bacteria called binary fission
Animal Kingdom
55. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic common to members belonging to Kingdom Animalia?
A) Prokaryotic Cells
C) Heterotrophic
B) Multicellular
D) Cells that lack a cell wall
56. Which of the organisms below exhibits CEPHALIZATION?
A) Sea Sponge
C) Planaria
B) Sea Anemone
D) Hydra
57. Which of the following is NOT a CNIDARIAN?
A) Obelia
C) Coral
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B) Planaria
D) Sea Anemone
58. The organism below is best described as having…
A) a polypoid body form with radial symmetry
C) a polypoid body form with bilateral symmetry
B) a medusoid body form with bilateral symmetry
D) a medusoid body form with radial symmetry
59. Which phylum below is the FIRST phylum to exhibit a complete gut?
A) Cnidaria
C) Nematoda
B) Porifera
D) Platyhelminthes
60. Which term is NOT associated with a Jelly Fish?
A) Mesoderm
C) Gastroderm
B) Ectoderm
D) Mesoglea
61. Which advancement below is NOT credited to the organism above?
A) First to exhibit cephalization
C) First to exhibit bilateral symmetry
B) First to exhibit true tissues
D) First to exhibit mesoderm
62. A true body cavity (coelom) that is completely lined with mesoderm, first shows up in…
A) Platyhelminthes
C) Platyhelminthes
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B) Annelida
D) Cnidaria
63. The structures used by an EARTHWORM to help the organism get rid of cellular (metabolic) wastes.
A) Nephridia
C) Malpighian Tubules
B) Clitellum
D) Green Glands
64. Which best describes the structures that food would encounter on its way through the digestive tract of an
Earthworm?
A) Mouth  Esophagus  Pharynx  Crop  Gizzard  Intestine
B) Mouth  Pharynx  Esophagus  Gizzard  Crop  Intestine
C) Mouth  Esophagus  Pharynx  Gizzard  Crop  Intestine
D) Mouth  Pharynx  Esophagus  Crop  Gizzard  Intestine
65. Which of the following structures would be part of an Earthworm's circulatory system?
A) Aortic Arches
C) Clitellum
B) Nephridia
D) Setae
66. In the picture above, the arrow is pointing at what structure?
A) The gastric mill
B) A nephridium
C) The ventral nerve cord
D) The brain
E) The clitellum
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67. In the diagram below, which LETTER represents the anatomical direction termed "ANTERIOR"?
D
C
A
B
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
68. What is the correct order of the steps in the scientific method?
A. Ask a question, make a hypothesis, test hypothesis, draw conclusions, analyze results,
communicate results.
B. Ask questions, make a hypothesis, test the hypothesis, analyze the results, draw
conclusions, communicate results.
C. Ask a question, analyze results, make a hypothesis, test the hypothesis, draw
conclusions, communicate results.
D. Make a hypothesis, test the hypothesis, analyze the results, ask a question, draw
conclusions, communicate results.
69. A scientist testing the effects of a chemical on apple yield sprays an orchard with the chemical. A
second orchard does not receive the chemical. In the fall, the number of apples harvested from
each forest is counted. Which of the following is the independent (manipulated) variable in the
experiment?
A. the chemical
B. the number of apples
C. the first orchard
D. the second orchard
70. A scientist hypothesizes that the temperature at which an alligator’s egg is incubated will
determine whether the alligator will be male or female. The dependent variable is
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A.
B.
C.
D.
the gender of the baby alligators
the size of the baby alligators
the temperature
the incubator
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