Download Which of the following places on the diaphragm are weak? a

1. Which of the following places on the diaphragm are weak?
a) Sternocostal triangle
b) Lumbocostal triangle
c) Opening for inferior vena cava
d) Esophageal hiatus
2. The head of the pancreas is adjacent to:
a) Spleen
b) Stomach
c) Right kidney
d) Duodenum
3. The site of a potential retroperitoneal hernia is:
a) The superior and inferior duodenal recesses
b) The superior and inferior iliocaecal recesses
c) The retrocaecal recess
4. Gas exchange is accomplished by:
a) Lobar bronchi
b) Segmental bronchi
c) Acinus
d) Lobular bronchi
5. The upper pole of the left kidney is situated at the level of the following vertrebra:
a) 11th thoracic
b) 12th thoracic
c) 1st lumbar
d) 2nd lumbar
6. The kidneys are described as being related to the peritoneum:
a) Intraperitoneally
b) Mesoperitoneally
c) Retroperitoneally
7. The female inguinal canal contains:
a) Round ligament
b) Spermatic cord
c) Ureter
d) Ductus deferens
8. The correct statement about the topography of the prostate is:
a) Below the urinary bladder
b) In the scrotum
c) In the region of the bulb of the penis
d) In the region of the spongy part of the urethra
9. The correct statement about the peritoneal relation of the ovarium is:
a) Completely covered by peritoneum and suspended by mesentery
b) Partly covered by peritoneum and suspended by mesentery
c) Uncovered by peritoneum and suspended by mesentery
d) Uncovered by peritoneum and not suspended by mesentery
10. The left coronary artery supplies the following structures of the heart:
a) Anterior part of the interventricular septum
b) Anterior wall of the right ventricle
c) Wall of the left atrium
d) Wall of the right atrium
e) Posterior wall of the right ventricle
11. What is the site of the beginning of the coronary arteries?
a) Arch of the aorta
b) Pulmonary trunk
c) Left ventricle
d) Bulb of the aorta
12. The right coronary artery supplies the following structures of the heart:
a) Posterior part of the interventricular septum
b) Anterior part of the interventricular septum
c) Posterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle
d) Septum interatriale
13. Which arteries branch off immediately from the arch of the aorta?
a) Right common carotid artery
b) Left common carotid artery
c) Right subclavian artery
d) Left subclavian artery
14. Which vessels take part in the systemic circulation?
a) Pulmonary arteries
b) Pulmonary veins
c) Bronchial branches of the thoracic aorta
d) Bronchial veins
15. The organs that are supplied by branches of the celiac trunk are:
a) Stomach
b) Sigmoid colon
c) Liver
d) Spleen
16. The organs that are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery:
a) Jejunum
b) Caecum with appendix vermiformis
c) Ascending colon
d) Descending colon
17. The organs that are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery:
a) Duodenum
b) Descending colon
c) Greater omentum
d) Upper 1/3 of the rectum
18. Which chamber of the fetal heart is supplied with blood by means of the oval foramen?
a) Left atrium
b) Right atrium
c) Left ventricle
d) Right ventricle
19. The organs that belong to the central part of the immune system are:
a) Spleen
b) Thymus
c) Lymphatic nodes
d) Red bone marrow
20. Which of the following age-related features of the thymus are correct?
a) The thymus starts to develop earlier than the organs of the peripheral immune
system
b) In children and teenagers the mass of the thymus is constant
c) There is a reduction in the size of the thymus from puberty
d) The parenchyma of the organ is atrophied completely during age-related involution
21. Which part of the pancreas contains mostly Islets of Langerhans?
a) The tail
b) The head
c) The body
d) All subdivisions of the gland
22. In adults, the spinal cord ends at the level of the following vertebra:
a) TH 12
b) L 2
c) L 5
d) S 1
23. The heart is innervated from the following nodes of the sympathetic trunk:
a) C2-C3; Th1
b) C1-C2; Th1-Th2
c) C1-C3; Th1-Th5
24. Which nerves belong to the brachial plexus?
a) Median nerve
b) Long thoracic nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Ulnar nerve
25. The muscles of facial expression are innervated by the following cranial nerve:
a) Trigeminal nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Buccal nerve
d) Infraorbital nerve
26. Which nerve provides the motor innervation of the tongue?
a) Lingual nerve
b) Trigeminal nerve
c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Hypoglossal nerve
27. Which of the following nerves supplies the skin of the face?
a) Facial nerve
b) Trigeminal nerve
c) Trochlear nerve
d) Accessory nerve
28. The following structures of a newborn skull are visible in an X-ray examination:
a) Frontal sinus
b) Maxillary sinus
c) Sphenoid sinus
d) Cellulae ethmoidales
29. Which of the following interfascial spaces of the neck communicate with the mediastinum?
a) Prescalenic
b) Pretracheal
c) Preverterbral
d) Interscalenic
30. The walls of the femoral canal are composed of:
a) Superficial layer of the fascia lata
b) Deep layer of the fascia lata
c) Femoral vein
d) Femoral artery
31. The walls of the inguinal canal are composed of:
a) Inguinal ligament
b) Transversal fascia
c) Aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle
d) Inferior border of the internal oblique and transverse muscle
32. The parotid duct opens at the site opposite to:
a) The second upper molar tooth
b) The third upper molar tooth
c) The sublingual papilla
d) The second lower premolar tooth
33. The esophagus has the following anatomical constrictions:
a) Diaphragmatic
b) Ventricular
c) Aortic
d) Pharyngeal
34. The stomach is composed of the following anatomical parts:
a) Body (corpus)
b) Fundus
c) Cardiac part
d) Pyloric part
35. Which part of the duodenum receives ductus choledochus and the pancreatic duct?
a) Superior part
b) Horizontal part
c) Descending part
d) Ascending part
36. Which of the following parts of the digestive tract have Payer’s patches as an essential feature?
a) Caecum
b) Ileum
c) Jejunum
d) Sigmoid colon
37. The relation of the internal organs to the peritoneum may be:
a) Extraperitoneal
b) Intraperitoneal
c) Mesoperitoneal
d) Retroperitoneal
38. The base of the appendix is projected on the anterior abdominal wall in the region named:
a) Umbilical
b) Right iliac
c) Left iliac
d) Epigasric
39. The upper part of the peritioneal cavity is subdivided into:
a) Pregastic bursa
b) Hepatic bursa
c) Omental bursa
d) Lienal bursa
40. The lesser omentum is composed by:
a) Hepatorenal ligament
b) Hepatogastric ligament
c) Gastrocolic ligament
d) Hepatoduodenal ligament
41. The frontal and maxillary air sinuses communicate with the following meatus:
a) Superior nasal meatus
b) Middle nasal meatus
c) Inferior nasal meatus
d) Common nasal meatus
42. The root of the lung includes:
a) Main bronchus
b) Lobar bronchus
c) Pulmonary artery
d) Pulmonary veins
43. How many lobar bronchi does the right lung have?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
44. How many lobar bronchi does the left lung have?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
45. The male urethra is subdivided into the:
a) Vesical part
b) Prostatic part
c) Spongy part
d) Membranous part
46. The uterus adjoins the:
a) Rectum
b) Sigmoid colon
c) Pubic symphisis
d) Urinary bladder
47. The correct statement about the projection of the apex of the heart on the anterior thoracic wall is:
a) 1 cm from linea medioclavicularis sinistra toward the midline, 6th intercostal space
b) 1 cm from linea medioclavicularis sinistra toward the midline, 5th intercostal space
c) Linea medioclavicularis sinistra, 5th intercostal space
d) Linea medioclavicularis sinistra’ 6th intercostals space
48. Which of the following vessels take part in the formation of circulus arteriosus cerebri?
a) Anterior cerebral arteries
b) Ophthalmic artery
c) Posterior communicating arteries
d) Superior cerebellar arteries
49. The superior vena cava is formed by the joining of the following veins:
a) Internal jugular vein
b) Left brachiocephalic vein
c) Subclavian vein
d) Right brachiocephalic vein
50. Which organs have venous outflow by the portal vein?
a) Stomach
b) Kidneys
c) Pancreas
d) Upper part of the rectum
51. The inferior vena cava is formed by the joining of the following veins:
a) External iliac veins
b) Internal iliac veins
c) Common iliac veins
d) Upper and lower mesenteric veins
52. Red bone marrow in an adult is located in:
a) Epiphysis of long tubular bones
b) Compact substance of plane bones
c) Spongy substance of plane bones
d) Spongy substance of spongy bones
53. The palatine tonsil is lodged:
a) Above the palatopharyngeal arch
b) Behind the palatopharyngeal arch
c) Between the palatopharyngeal and palatoglossal arches
d) On the uvula
54. The thoracic duct is formed by the joining of the following lymphatic trunks:
a) Left subclavian trunk
b) Left jugular trunk
c) Right lumbar trunk
d) Left lumbar trunk
55. The following segments of the spinal cord possess lateral horns:
a) C1-C8
b) S2-S4
c) TH8-L4
d) C8-L2
56. Which anatomical structures belong to the basal ganglia of the cerebrum?
a) Corpus striatum
b) Amigdaloid body
c) Nucleus caudatus
d) Nucleus ruber
57. The deepest pleural sinus is the:
a) Phrenicomediastinal
b) Costomediastinal
c) Costodiaphragmal
d) All are at the same depth
58. The tympanic cavity communicates with the following anatomical structures:
a) Middle cranial fossa
b) Mastoid air cells
c) Nasopharynx
59. The narrowest part of the male urethra is:
a) Prostatic part
b) Membranous part
c) External orifice
d) Navicular fossa
60. Which of the following anatomical structures are sites of potential hernias?
a) Linea alba
b) Umbilical ring
c) Inguinal canal