Download Spring 03

Systemic Anatomy Exam II
Prepared especially for the trimester one class, Spring 2003
Please place the single best answer in the space provided (unless designated by the letters MACA, which in this
case mark all correct answers that apply) on your scantron sheet. The faculty will not answer any of your
questions (unless you find a typo) once the exam begins, as interpretation of the question is a part of the
examination. Good luck.
FORM A
1) Which of the following joints would NOT be classified as an amphiarthrosis?
a) joint present between the two pubic bones
b) the joint present between the manubrium and the body of the sternum
c) a symphysis
d) the joint present between two adjacent vertebral bodies
e) the atlantoaxial joint
2) Choose the INCORRECT match of vocabulary word to its definition.
a) auscultation – to listen
b) presbyopia – loss of visual acuity in the geriatric patient
c) mydriasis – constriction of the pupil
d) blepharospasm – twitching of the eyelid
e) otitis media – a middle ear infection
3) Choose the INCORRECT match of vocabulary word to its definition.
a) ankylosis – immobility and consolidation of a joint
b) neuralgia – nerve pain
c) myringotomy – surgical puncture of the tympanic membrane
d) laminectomy – surgical removal of the lamina of a vertebra
e) syncope – fusion of the boney components of a joint
4) Choose the INCORRECT match of vocabulary word to its definition.
a) palsy – paralysis
b) ataxia – absence of movement of a part
c) anorexia – not eating
d) diuretic – anything that increases the production of urine
e) arthrocentesis – surgical puncture into a joint
5) What is the difference between a primary and a secondary cartilaginous joint?
a) the arrangement of the boney components
b) the ends of the boney components of a primary cartilaginous joint are covered by fibrocartilage and
the ends of the boney components of a secondary cartilaginous joint are covered with hyaline cartilage
c) there is a plate of elastic cartilage separating the boney components in a secondary cartilaginous joint
d) there is a plate of fibrocartilage present in secondary cartilaginous joints that is not present in primary
cartilaginous joints
e) secondary cartilaginous joints are only found in the skull and primary cartilaginous joints are found
all over the body
6) What separates the boney components in a sutural joint?
a) fibrocartilage
b) a joint cavity
c) fibrous connective tissue
d) hyaline cartilage
e) none of the above
page 1, SA Exam II, Q. # 1-6
7) Choose the INCORRECT match of joint to its classification.
a) hinge joints – uniaxial
b) condyloid joint – multiaxial
c) pivot joint – uniaxial
d) saddle joint – biaxial
e) spheroid joint – multiaxial
8) Which of the following joint classifications apply to the zygapophyseal joint? (MACA)
a) plane joint
b) diarthrosis
c) symphysis
d) gliding joint
e) primary cartilaginous joint
9) Which of the following classifications apply to the joint present between two vertebral bodies? (MACA)
a) plane joint
b) symphysis
c) primary cartilaginous joint
d) secondary cartilaginous joint
e) synovial joint
10) Which of the following joints would NOT be classified as a condyloid joint?
a) radiocarpal joint
b) metacarpophalangeal joint
c) tibiofemoral joint
d) sacroiliac joint
e) atlanto-occipital joint
11) Which of the following classifications apply to the atlanto-occipital joint? (MACA)
a) synovial
b) trochoid
c) diarthrodial
d) called the “yes” joint
e) condyloid
12) A patient is presented to your clinic after falling off of his bicycle while mountain biking with some friends.
He reports to you that he landed head first on the ground on his shoulder joint. His left shoulder is depressed
and he is unable to abduct the arm at the shoulder joint. You suspect a dislocated should joint and take x-rays.
What would you expect to see if your initial suspicions are correct? (MACA)
a) the head of the humerus would be superior to the glenoid fossa of the scapula
b) the head of the humerus would be inferior to the glenoid fossa of the scapula
c) the head of the humerus would be medial to the glenoid fossa of the scapula
d) the head of the humerus would be lateral to the glenoid fossa of the scapula
e) the head of the humerus would be in anatomic position with relation to the scapular glenoid fossa
13) Which of the following components ARE NOT part of the cruciate ligament complex found in the neck?
a) transverse ligament of the atlas
b) superior longitudinal band
c) cranial crus
d) apical ligament
e) caudal crus
page 2, SA Exam II, Q. # 7-13
14) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the joint of Luschka (uncovertebral joint).
a) AKA the uncovertebral joint
b) it is a synovial joint
c) located between the uncinate process and the small indentation found on the spinous process of the
vertebra it articulates with
d) located lateral and posterolateral to the margins of the IVD
e) degeneration can cause compression of adjacent structures
15) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the intervertebral disc (IVD).
a) there are 23 IVD’s in the adult
b) IVD’s account for 25% of the height of the vertebral column
c) in areas of lordotic curves the discs are thicker posteriorally
d) they form the inferior portion of the wall of the IVF
e) they are attached to the anterior and to the posterior longitudinal ligaments
16) Which of the following joints would be considered a syndesmosis of the spine?
a) the zygapophyseal joint
b) the atlanto-occipital joint
c) the interspinous joint
d) the alantoaxial
e) the joint of Luschka
17) Which one of the following classifications does NOT apply to the temporomandibular joint?
a) synovial
b) hinge
c) gliding
d) condyloid
e) symphysis
18) Articular discs, found in many joints of the body, are made of ______.
a) elastic cartilage
b) fibrocartilage
c) hyaline cartilage
d) fibroelastic ligaments
e) none of the above
19) The sternoclavicular joint is _________.
a) a primary cartilaginous joint
b) a secondary cartilaginous joint
c) a syndesmotic joint
d) a diarthrodial joint
e) fibrous joint
20) Which of the following criteria is NOT found in synovial joints?
a) joint cavity
b) fibrous joint capsule
c) synovial membrane
d) interosseous membrane
e) articular cartilage
page 3, SA Exam II, Q. # 14-20
21) The typical rib articulates with ____ typical thoracic vertebra.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
22) The transverse humeral retinaculum ________.
a) connects the humerus to the coracoid process of the scapula
b) holds the bicipital tendon in place
c) is an intrinsic ligament
d) is a thickened expansion of the insertion of the supraspinatus muscle
e) none of the above
23) Clinical symptoms of subacromial bursitis is most evident when a patient ________.
a) flexes the elbow
b) abducts the humerus at the glenohumeral joint
c) protracts the scapula
d) retracts the scapula
e) pronates the forearm
24) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the hip joint.
a) formed by the head of the femur and the acetabulum of the os coxae
b) synovial, diarthrodial, spheroid, multiaxial joint
c) iliofemoral, pubofemoral and ischiofemoral ligaments all help prevent hyperextension
d) round ligament is an extrinsic ligament and connects the fovea capitis to the transverse acetabular
ligament
e) transverse acetabular ligament crosses the acetabular notch and connects joint capsule to the
ligamentum teres
25) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the knee joint.
a) synovial, diarthrodial, double condyloid, modified hinge, biaxial joint
b) hyperextension of knee joint with the foot on the ground results in a lateral rotation of the tibia
c) lateral and medial patellar retinacula give anterior stability to the knee joint
d) the word popliteal refers to the back of the knee
e) the medial and lateral collateral ligaments provide medial and lateral stability
26) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the cruciate ligaments of the knee.
a) anterior cruciate ligament attaches to the posterior and medial aspect of the lateral condyle of the
femur
b) anterior cruciate ligament prevents anterior movement of the tibia beneath the femur
c) torn ACL results in “anterior drawer sign”
d) posterior cruciate ligament attaches to the posterior aspect of the tibial plateau
e) anterior cruciate ligament is pulled tight when the knee is flexed
27) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) snyarthrosis – fibrous joints in which the bones are joined together by connective tissue
b) syndesmosis – the bones of a joint are joined together by a special type of cartilage
c) synostosis – the bones of a joint are joined together by bone
d) synovial – these joints have special criteria which include a joint cavity, a joint capsule, articular
cartilage, synovial membrane and synovial fluid
e) symphysis – literally means a growing together
page 4, SA Exam II, Q.# 21-27
28) Which of the following is a characteristic of skeletal muscles which explains that skeletal muscle is able to
respond to a stimulus?
a) irritability
b) contractility
c) extensibility
d) elasticity
29) Choose the CORRECT statement.
a) parallel muscle – fan shaped
b) sphincter muscle – fibers converge onto a tendon from several different directions
c) convergent muscle – the orbicularis oris m. is an example
d) strap muscle – sartorius m. is an example
e) deltoid muscle – is an example of a unipennate muscle
30) Choose the CORRECT match of muscle to action and or innervation.
a) risorius m. – pulls angles of the mouth laterally, CN VII
b) levator palpebrae superioris m. – raises upper eye lid, CN VII
c) zygomaticus m. – “smile” muscle, CN VII
d) orbicularis oris m. – a sphincter muscles that purses or puckers the lips, CN VII
e) depressor anguli oris m. – “frown” muscle, innervated by the nerve that exits the skull through the
stylomastoid foramen
31) The temporalis m. ____________. (MACA)
a) attaches to the zygomatic arch
b) will elevate the mandible
c) attaches to the temporal lines of the temporal bones
d) attaches to the coronoid process of the mandible
e) innervated by the nerve that travels through the foramen ovale of the sphenoid bone
32) Which of the following muscles will depress the mandible? (MACA)
a) lateral pterygoid m.
b) digastric m.
c) temporalis m.
d) medial pterygoid m.
e) platysma m.
33) Choose the INCORRECT match concerning the extrinsic ocular muscles.
a) superior oblique m. – CN IV
b) lateral rectus muscle – will abduct the eyeball and rotate the pupil laterally
c) inferior rectus m. – innervated by the nerve that travels through the superior orbital fissure
d) rotates the pupil so that it points down and out – superior oblique m.
e) abducens nerve – medial rectus m.
34) Which one of the following muscles will protract the tongue?
a) styloglossus m.
b) hyoglossus m.
c) genioglossus m.
d) digastricus m.
e) platysma m.
page 5, SA Exam II< Q.# 28-34
35) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the sternocleidomastoid m.
a) will flex the neck
b) will extend the head
c) attaches to the manubrium
d) will flex the head
e) attaches to mastoid process of the temporal bone
36) I discover some yellow colored nervous tissue looking structures exiting from between the middle and the
anterior scalene muscles of my cadaver in gross anatomy. What are they? (MACA)
a) phrenic nerve
b) suboccipital nerve
c) brachial plexus
d) spinal accessory nerve
e) ansa cervicalis
37) Contraction of the diaphragm m. will ___ the volume of the thoracic cavity and ___ the internal pressure of
the thoracic cavity.
a) increase; increase
b) increase; decrease
c) decrease; decrease
d) decrease; increase
38) The rectus abdominis m. will ______ the spine.
a) extend
b) flex
39) The erector spinae mm. will ______ the spine.
a) extend
b) flex
40) Which of the following structures are found in the sphenoid bone? (MACA)
a) jugum
b) chiasmatic groove
c) groove for the transverse sinus
d) anterior clinoid process
e) groove for the middle meningeal artery
41) Which of the following bones touch the sphenoid bone? (MACA)
a) lacrimal bone
b) nasal bone
c) occipital bone
d) maxillary bone
e) mandible
42) Which of the following components are a part of the sella turcica? (MACA)
a) hypophyseal fossa
b) posterior clinoid process
c) dorsum sella
d) jugum
e) tubeculum sella
page 6, SA Exam II, Q.# 35-42
43) Choose the INCORRECT match of a hole in the skull and what structures run through it.
a) superior orbital fissure – CN III, IV, VI and the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
b) stylomastoid foramen – CN VIII
c) internal acoustic meatus – vestibulocochlear n. and the facial n.
d) foramen ovale – branches of the trigeminal nerve that innervate the muscles of mastication
e) jugular foramen – CN IX, X and XI
44) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) temporomandibular joint – condylar process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the temporal
bone
b) glenohumeral joint – head of the humerus and the glenoid fossa of the scapula
c) auditory ossicles – malleus, stapes, incus
d) foramen magnum – spinal cord, meninges, spinal accessory nerve, vertebral arteries
e) mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve – sensory to skin of roof of mouth and upper lip
45) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the vertebral column.
a) kyphotic curves of the vertebral column develop after birth.
b) lordotic curves of the vertebral column are anterior curves
c) the first pair of intervertebral foramina are present between the epistropheus and C3
d) the boundaries of the vertebral foramen are the posterior vertebral body and the neural arch
e) there are 23 total intervertebral discs, they form the anterior wall of the IVF and they form the
secondary curves of the vertebral column
46) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning vertebral ossification centers.
a) a typical vertebra has 5 secondary ossification centers that develop during puberty
b) typical vertebra have three initial ossification centers
c) the three primary ossification centers of a vertebra are the spinous process, the transverse process and
the centrum
d) fusion of the vertebral arch is complete by age 6 in the lumbar vertebrae
e) secondary ossification centers unite with the vertebra by age 25
47) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning vertebra.
a) the inferior articular surfaces of T12 face in an anterior and lateral direction
b) the surfaces of the superior articular facets of a typical thoracic lie in a sagittal plane
c) mammillary process are found on the superior articular facets of the lumbar vertebra
d) the spinous process of C2 is palpable 2 inches inferior to the external occipital protuberance
e) transverse lines of the sacrum represent the remnants of the intervertebral discs
48) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the ligaments of the spine.
a) the anterior longitudinal ligament runs from the axis to the sacrum
b) the ligamentum nuchae attaches on the EOP, the median nuchal crest, the posterior tubercle of the
atlas and the spinous process of C2 to C7
c) the ligamentum flavum connects adjacent spinous processes
d) the posterior longitudinal ligament is located within the confines of the neural canal
e) the ligamentum nuchae is the superior continuation of the supraspinous ligament
49) The semilunar notch is located on the ___ aspect of the ulna.
a) proximal and anterior
b) proximal and posterior
c) distal and anterior
d) distal and posterior
e) it is not located on the ulna
page 7, SA Exam II, Q.# 43-49
50) Choose the INCORRECT match of articular surfaces to vertebra they are on.
a) C2 – 5
b) C6 – 6
c) T3 – 12
d) T12 – 8
e) L2 – 6
page 8, SA Exam II, Q. # 50
The end of the exam. Grades will be emailed to you by the end of the day.