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APES Semester Exam
1. Which of the following is the best
illustration of the tragedy of the commons?
(A) Depletion of fishing stocks in the
North Atlantic
B) Collective farming of wine grapes in
communities in France
(C) Using national forests for wood production
and harvesting
(D) Allocation of all nuclear wastes to one site
in Nevada
(E) Agreements among western ranchers to
jointly manage common grazing land
2. Which of the following is true about a
manipulative experiment?
(A) The researcher manipulates the dependent
variable
(B) The researcher manipulates the independent
variable
(C) The experiment involves recorded data that
is predominantly obtained from the natural
environment.
(D) The results may lead theories while natural
experiments may not
(E) None of the above
3. Ecology is
(A) concerned only with solving environmental
problems
(B) the study of organisms and their
interactions with each other and with the
environment
(C) a subfield of environmentalism
(D) not a crucial discipline to environmental
science
(E) the study of animal behavior
4. Solutions to environmental problems:
(A) can be implemented only by scientists
(B) must be sustainable
(C) must be on a local scale
(D) must be short term
(E) are best discussed in the political arena
5. Tommy has a puppy and wants to feed it the
best possible food. He decides on an
experiment where he will feed it the very best
canned food plus a dietary supplement of
vitamins recommended by a veterinarian.
Which of the following best describes
Tommy’s project?
(A) This is an example of an excellent,
controlled experiment as it is written.
(B) Tommy needs to take careful
measurements of the puppy’s weight and height
at least once a week for it to be a good
experiment.
(C) Tommy needs to control the amount of
exercise, sunshine, water, and care that the
puppy gets each week, so that they are equal
from week to week.
(D) Tommy needs to use the mother’s 6 – year
old chocolate Sharpei to feed a standard
diet so he can compare his puppy with a control
dog.
(E) This is not an experiment – there are no
controls or replicates.
6. Rocks, wind, water, temperature and solar
radiation are all examples of:
(A) non-renewable resources
(B) abiotic environmental factors
(C) biotic environmental factors
(D) renewable resources
(E) biodegradable materials
7. Malthus was responsible for:
(A) the book The Population Bomb, which
described the disastrous effects of human
population growth
(B) the idea that, without social structures, the
increase in the human population would lead to
famine and war
(C) the concept that human population growth
would lead to greater industry and prosperity
through education
(D) instituting fertilizer use for agriculture
(E) the political stance that the environment
was important in its own right
8. Sustainable development:
(A) ensures an economy that will decline over
time
(B) means consuming resources without
compromising future availability
(C) is impossible to accomplish
(D) is beyond our current technology and
attitudes
(E) is possible given our increased use of
fertilizers and technology for agriculture
9. The world average is about 2.2 hectares per
person for an ecological footprint. At that size,
we are depleting our renewable resources 30%
faster than they can replenish. The U.S.
average footprint is 9.5 hectares, which is
______ times larger than the average world
footprint.
(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 4.4
(D) 5
(E) 2.85
10. Sean and Fred are having a discussion
about the scientific method. Sean makes the
comment that every time he sees people
carrying umbrellas, she also sees several small
car accidents. This is a(n):
(A) hypothesis
(B) theory about umbrellas
(C) theory about car accidents
(D) scientific study
(E) observation
.
11) How many citizens of Mexico does it take
to equal the ecological footprint of the average
citizen of the United States?
A) They are essentially equal
B) Two citizens of Mexico equal the
ecological footprint of one average citizen of
the US
C) It takes nearly four Mexican citizens to
equal the ecological footprint of the average US
citizen
D) It takes just over eight Mexican citizens to
equal the ecological footprint of the the average
US citizen
E. It takes about 12 Mexican citizens to equal
the ecological footprint of the average US
citizen
12.) Which of the following is not a quality
present in a sustainable enterprise?
A) Future generations are able to carry on at
the same level of productivity as present.
B) Environmental effects will not damage,
degrade, or deplete the system with which it
interfaces.
C) Materials and energy will be used
efficiently.
D) Wastes will be eliminated completely
E) The ecological footprint of the enterprise
will remain unchanged, or may diminish as
better technology becomes available.
13.) The cumulative total and kind of living
things on Earth is:
A) called taxonomy
B) its biodiversity
C) increasing rapidly
D) its environment
E) an abiotic factor
14.) Ehrlich’s predictions have not come true
on the scale he imagined because:
A) Malthus was right
B) agricultural advances have been made in
recent decades
C) pollution has reduced the birth rate in all
countries
D) governments controlled birth rates in all
countries
E) medicine has not advanced as rapidly as he
predicted
15) The graph successfully illustrates:
A) marginal benefit and cost curves
B) the costs of resource use and pollution
reduction
C) internal and external costs associated with
market economies
D) how price is determined by supply and
demand
E) how price falls when demand is high
16) If a non-renewable resource such as oil
suddenly became scarce while demand
remained constant, the intersection of the lines
on the graph would:
A) move up on line B
B) move down on line B
C) move up on line A
D) move down on line A
E) remain unchanged
17. Which of the following does not adequately
differentiate environmentalism from
environmental science?
A) Environmental scientists use an objective
scientific approach to understanding
environmental problems
B) Environmental scientists often use
dramatic, emotional approaches to alter the
political and social understanding of
environmental problems.
C) Environmental scientists pursue knowledge
about the workings of the environment and our
interactions with it.
D) Environmentalists dedicate themselves to
the protecting the natural environment and
humans from undesirable changes brought on
by certain human choices.
E) All of the above
18) The oceans face pressure from:
A) increasing whale populations
B) the Endangered Species Act
C) overfishing
D) too many preserves
E) lack of predators
19) Which of the following is TRUE?
A) The primary goal of science is to prove
hypotheses
B) If human population growth continues the
way it is now, it will level off in 2050.
C) Globalization will have an impact on the
development of environmental law as the
global community is interconnected by trade,
politics, and the movement of people and
species.
D) Scientists believe that fossil fuel use will
lower the temperature of the atmosphere
E) The Easter Island Civilization was lost due
to environmental degradation due to many
years of drought and plague.
Use Figure 5.1 to answer the following
questions.
A flock of 100 small, bright yellow and brown
finches is blown off course and ends up on a
large island where there is a lot of open, grassy
ground, and low hills. There are mammals,
many plants, some insects, lizards, and a few
hawks, but there are no other small birds. There
are two types of plants with edible seeds, a very
small-seeded grass, and a large-seeded bush.
20) Over many years, the population of finches
on the island ________.
A) doesn’t change; they maintain their original
diversity
B) begins to look like graph (a), directional
selection, with regard to beak size
C) goes extinct because there is nothing that
they can manage to eat
D) begins to look like graph (b), stabilizing
selection, with regard to beak size
E) begins to look like graph ©, disruptive
selection, with regard to beak size
21) The hawks on the island have always eaten
insects, lizards, and mammals, but they find the
brightest yellow finches to be easy prey as well.
Over many years, the population of finches on
the island ________.
A) begins to look like graph (a), directional
selection, with regard to coloration
B) goes extinct because the hawks eat them all
C) begins to look like graph ©, disruptive
selection, with regard to coloration
D) doesn’t change; they maintain their original
diversity
E) begins to look like graph (b), stabilizing
selection, with regard to coloration.
22) Extinction is ________.
A) the loss of communities from the planet
B) proceeding more slowly now than at any
other time
C) not caused by human disturbance
D) a natural process that is gradual
E) something that occurs only rarely
23) The two processes that determine the
world’s current biodiversity are ________.
A) mutation and cleavage
B) endemism and climate change
C) breeding and ecotourism
D) extinction and speciation
E) allopatric and sympatric speciation
24) A population is a ________.
A) group of individuals of interacting species
that live in one area
B) subset of bacteria that grow on a petri dish
C) group of individuals of a single species that
live in one area
D) group of individuals of interacting species
that interact in multiple ecosystems
E) group of cells that have similar function
25) Endemic species ________.
A) cause disease
B) are found only in one place on the planet
C) have high rates of mutations that lead to
large numbers of offspring species
D) are invasive species that cause extinction
E) are generalist organisms
26) The functional role of a species in its
community is its _______habitat
B) selection
C) evolution
D) place in the food chain
E) niche
27) The destruction of ecosystems is not a
problem ________.
A) because humans can find and make their
own resources
B) because restoration ecology can restore
ecosystems
C) because zoos and gardens contain most
important species and breeding technologies
are improving
D) because our understanding of genetics
allows us to restore populations
E) incorrect; the destruction of ecosystems is
always a problem
28) Which of the following would be most
vulnerable to extinction?
A) a mold that attacks wheat in the field
B) a healthy plant, such as a pine tree, that
completely dominates its native environment
C) an orchid endemic to an area where logging
is occurring
D) a migratory flock of warblers stopping along
its winter route to feed on local resources that
are now gone and replaced by a suburb
E) a moth, brought to the United States for silk
production, escaping into the wild and
becoming established
29) Heavy rains and mudslides cause a river to
change course, isolating two groups of lizards
from one another. Over a long period of time,
________.
A) both groups will probably become native
species
B) the groups will probably become genetically
different, and speciation may occur
C) one or both groups will probably emigrate
D) one group will probably become an endemic
species
E) one or both groups will probably become
invasive species
30) Groups of organisms with low biotic
potential, such as gray whales, that produce at
most one offspring every other year, are said to
be ________.
A) r-selected
B) density-independent organisms
C) K-selected
D) cannot be determined from information
given
E) high in biotic potential because of their size,
like the grey whale
31) Which of these best matches with a type III
survivorship curve?
A) A species that has a constant rate of death
throughout its lifespan
B) A K-selected species
C) Endemic species
D) An organism that produces huge numbers
of offspring, most of which die quickly with a
few not dying until old age
E) Humans
32. Density-dependent factors ________.
A) include the effects of a hard freeze on a
single species within a community
B) include the effects of rainfall on an entire
community
C) include the effects of a hard freeze on an
entire community
D) include the effects of disease and predators
on a single species within a community
E) cause decreases in the number of species in
an ecosystem
33) The carrying capacity is the ________.
A) limitation on numbers of species in a
community
B) maximum population size that a given
environment can sustain
C) average number of offspring carried to term
by a species
D) greatest number of different niches possible
in a given area
E) potential growth in the number of species in
a given area
34) Unregulated populations tend to increase
by ________.
A) exponential growth
B) immigration
C) emigration
D) pyramidal growth
E) linear growth
35) Age pyramids, used to show the age
structure of a population, generally ________.
A) have no inherent value for predicting growth
B) indicate the total numbers of individuals in
each age class
C) indicate the relative numbers (frequency, or
percentage) of individuals in each age class
D) cannot predict possible species declines in
numbers
E) have bars that represent sizes of individual
organisms
36) Population distribution describes
________.
A) spatial arrangement of multiple species
within a particular area
B) how near or far away individuals in a
population are from a resource, such as water
C) placement of a species within a country’s
boundaries
D) placement of a species around the globe
E) spatial arrangement of individuals of a
single species within a particular area or
ecosystem
37) High population density can ________.
A) decrease the use of resources
B) hinder organisms from finding mates
C) increase the incidence of disease
transmission
D) decrease biodiversity within a species
E) decrease competition
38) A small moth pollinates native trees when
they bloom in April. Some of the moths emerge
in early March and discover a different
blooming shrub to use as a resource. As time
passes, this could be an example of ________.
A) an invasive species
B) a change in age structure of the original
population
C) allopatric speciation
D) sympatric speciation
E) an extinction for the original population
39) One example of artificial selection is
________.
A) humans placing a gene for human insulin
into a flower
B) broccoli and brussels sprouts
C) crossing a lion and a tiger to get a sterile
animal called a liger
D) pet dogs that have gone wild, are mating
with coyotes, and live in packs
E) gypsy moths as an invasive species
21) In a population of field mice, an example of
an adaptive trait that could help with
reproduction and/or survival would be
________.
A) spending more time running around on the
ground looking for better seeds
B) having a bit more fur to withstand cold
weather
C) having shorter legs to be lower to the ground
D) needing to eat more food than other mice
your size
E) being brightly colored so other mice could
see you
40) Which statement below most accurately
describes a phylogenetic tree?
A) a branching diagram used to illustrate the
steps an organism went through during artifical
selection
B) a branching diagram used to illustrate a
scientist’s hypothesis about how divergence
took place
C) a branching diagram used to illustrate a
scientist’s hypothesis about how individuals of
a population are related.
D) a diagram that shows how one species
develops into another
E) a genetically modified tree that can produce
asexually without using seeds.
Read the following scenario and answer
questions 23-25 below.
Between 1907 and 1923, cattle grazing was
greatly reduced, deer hunting was eliminated,
and predators were killed. Over 600 cougars,
11 wolves (most had already been killed in the
1800s), and 3,000 coyotes were trapped or shot.
In response, the deer herd began to increase. By
1915, the deer were estimated at 25,000; by
1920 at 50,000; and by 1923 at approximately
100,000.
41) Mule deer such as the Kaibab population
can live 10 to 25 years. In 1920, an age
structure diagram of the Kaibab deer
population would ________.
A) look like a narrow inverted triangle,
somewhat wide at the top and narrow at the
bottom
B) look like an inverted triangle, very wide at
the top and narrow at the bottom
C) be almost the same size from bottom to top,
tapering slightly at the top
D) look like a narrow triangle, somewhat wide
at the bottom and narrow at the top
E) look like a wide triangle, very wide at the
bottom and narrow at the top
42) What is going to happen to the area
resources after 1923?
A) The deer herd will have leveled off to a
steady state, so the resources will recover.
B) The deer herd will have leveled off to a
steady state, but the resources will continue to
be damaged.
C) The deer herd will have begun decreasing,
so the resources will recover.
D) As the deer switch to the forage previously
used by cattle, the resources will recover.
E) The deer herd continues to increase, so the
resources will continue to be damaged.
43) Which of these graphs shows the Kaibab
deer population between 1900 and 1923?
A) a “sine wave” curving up, down, up, down
B) an S-shaped curve that shows a smooth,
rapid increase and then levels off
C) a J-shaped upward curve with a very rapid
increase
D) a straight line slanting upward, showing a
steady increase over time
E) a rapidly decreasing slope from left to right
44) A coyote, which can alter its food intake to
match seasonal abundance of plants, fruits, or
small animals, is considered to be ________.
A) density independent and resource neutral
B) a generalist, able to be flexible
C) an organism with a Type II survivorship
curve
D) a specialist, able to specialize on whatever is
available at the time
E) an endemic, able to be flexible
45) Which of the following pairs contains, first,
an r-selected organism and, second, a Kselected organism?
A) grasshopper; whale
B) elephant; pine tree
C) dandelion; pine tree
D) elephant; whale
E) pine tree; dandelion
46) An example of a density-independent factor
would be ________.
A) blight (a mold disease) in a wheat field
B) a grass that is wind pollinated
C) a plant parasite, such as mistletoe
D) cold weather causing the lake to freeze
E) nest sites for a flock of warblers
47) A Type I survivorship curve, with higher
death rates at older ages, is typical of
________.
A) large open-water ocean fish, such as tuna
B) dandelions
C) large mammals such as gorillas
D) large reptiles such as alligators
E) redwood trees
48) Which of the following would represent a
clumped population dispersion pattern?
A) a forest of pine trees
B) oaks planted on city streets
C) eagles nesting in the Grand Canyon
D) earthworms in the soil of a garden
E) a pod of 40 migrating gray whales
49) The sixth mass extinction event is likely
being caused by ____________.
A) a warming event
B) several disease pandemics
C) the last ice age
D) meteorites
E) human-induced causes
50) Pick the proper order of ecological
organization. Starting with the smallest level to
the largest.
A) biosphere, population, ecosystem,
community
B) community, population, biosphere,
ecosystem
C) ecosystem, population, community,
biosphere
D) community, ecosystem, biosphere,
population
E) population, community, ecosystem,
biosphere
51) What is habitat selection?
A) when an organism chooses the biome to
live in
B) when an organism chooses its habitat
entirely on the presence of the food it prefers to
eat
C) when the organism chooses the nutrition
that it needs
D) when an organism selects a specific
environment in which to live from the range of
options it encounters.
E) is demonstrated when population growth
rises sharply at first, and then begins to level
off as the limiting factors become stronger.
52) A population growth rate of 20, 40, 60,
80….would be characteristic of
A) logarithmic growth
C) static growth
D) arithmetic growth
E) power curve growth
53)A number of coyotes move into an area and
begin to eat a population of small harvest mice.
After several years, the harvest mice are much
speedier runners than before the coyotes came.
This is an example of
A) stabilizing selection
B) sympatric speciation
C) allopatric speciation
D) directional selection
E) disruptive selection
54) Zebra mussels
A) are presently restricted to the Great Lakes
and Hudson River, but they are expected to
spread rapidly in the near future
B) are clogging up water intake pipes at
factories, power plants, and wastewater
treatment facilities
C) were introduced into the United States in
the early 1900s
D) excrete waste that facilitates algae blooms
and subsequent eutrophication of lakes
E) are native to Canada
55) Taiga and tundra both
A) are found in the United States
B) have low temperatures throughout the year
C) lack trees
D) lack many birds
E) have many burrowing rodents
56) Desert and tundra both
A) lack many insects
B) have relatively low precipitation
C) have wide temperature variations
throughout the year
D) lack shrubs
E) have lithosols
57) Benthic organisms in the Great Lakes
A) are harmed by the presence of zebra
mussels
B) live near the water's surface
C) benefit from the presence of zebra mussels
D) include zebra mussels
E) include phytoplankton
58) ________ are typical primary consumers
in a temperature deciduous forest.
A) Deer
B) Snakes
C) Shelf fungi
D) Wolves
E) Bison
59) The diagram above shows
A) A predator-prey system with un-paired
cycles
B) A predator- prey system with paired cycles
C) A predator-prey system where increases
and decreases in population are unrelated
D) An extinction cycle for hares due to an
overpopulation of lynx
E) How predator-prey populations can
sometimes be unrelated.
60) Which of the following is true about top
predators?
A) They are likely to be herbivores.
B) They are likely to be producers.
C) They are likely to be keystone species.
D) Their removal increases biodiversity.
E) They include bacteria and fungi.
61) Which terrestrial biome has the most
biodiversity?
A) temperate deciduous forest
B) prairie
C) boreal forest
D) temperate rainforest
E) tropical rainforest
62) Grazing animals such as deer are
A) primary consumers
B) decomposers
C) secondary consumers
D) detritivores
E) producers
63) Secondary succession
A) occurs after a volcano spreads lava across a
landscape
B) is very predictable because it always ends
in the formation of a climax community
C) occurs after a fire or flood
D) requires primary succession to precede it
E) typically begins with lichen colonizing rock
64) ________ capture solar energy and use
photosynthesis to produce sugars.
A) Detritivores
B) Primary consumers
C) Heterotrophs
D) Producers
E) Secondary consumers
65) Orchids require tree limbs for support but
do not harm the trees. This demonstrates
A) allelopathy
B) facilitation
C) commensalism
D) mutualism
E) amensalism
66) Individuals of a single species fighting
over access to a limiting resource is one
example of
A) interspecific competition
B) resource partitioning
C) symbiosis
D) intraspecific competition
E) competitive exclusion
67) The climatogram shown above for a
temperate deciduous forest does not show
A) relatively moist conditions year-round
because the precipitation line is above the
temperature line.
B) relatively stable year-round precipitation
C) seasonal temperature changes
D) the latitude and longitude associated with
the biome
E) a double y-axes
68) By definition, parasites ________ their
host.
A) are much smaller than
B) never kill
C) cannot live independently of
D) kill
E) feed on and harm
69) Zooplankton populations in Lake Erie and
the Hudson River have declined by up to 70%
since the arrival of zebra mussels because
A) zebra mussels block sunlight penetration
into lakes and thus prevent zooplankton from
photosynthesizing
B) zebra mussels feed on cyanobacteria, which
zooplankton need as a food source
C) zebra mussels carry a parasite that kills
zooplankton
D) zebra mussels prey on zooplankton
E) waste from zebra mussels promotes
bacterial growth that kills zooplankton
70) Which of the following might be first to
populate an area after permafrost melts in
response to global climate change?
A) hardwood trees
B) aspen trees
C) grasses
D) shrubs
E) lichens
71) If the climate warms significantly, tundra
permafrost may melt. This may next lead to
________ of the community.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
facilitation
primary succession
coevolution
climax
secondary succession
Use Figure 6.1 to answer the questions 19-21.
72) What does the diagram illustrate?
A) Mountain ranges demonstrate all of Earth's
biomes.
B) Increasing altitudes demonstrate the stages
of succession.
C) Biomes at the highest altitudes roughly
parallel biomes at the poles.
D) Rules regarding climate and biomes do not
apply to mountainous regions.
E) Biomes at the highest altitudes roughly
parallel biomes at the equator.
73) The lowest altitude in this figure most
closely resembles
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
temperate deciduous forest
prairie
desert
chaparral
temperate rainforest
74) Organisms most likely to be found at the
bottom level would be
A) frogs and fish
B) bison
C) giraffes
D) loosestrife
E) snakes
75) Efforts at urban restoration
A) mostly have been attempted in developing
nations
B) are very inexpensive
C) intend to undo damage done to
communities due to urban development
D) have failed in San Francisco
E) are not viable conservation strategies for the
future
76) Global climate change may produce major
shifts in biomes for any given location because
A) mean temperature, precipitation and salinity
will change
B) many species may become extinct
C) soil chemistry, pH of precipitation and the
frequency of invasive species will change
D) food web dynamics will change
E) biodiversity and daylength will change
77) Environmentally and economically
acceptable means of controlling introduced
invasive species include
A) banning of all importation of non-native
species with heavy fines for non-compliance
B) killing off pollinators for invasive plants,
food sources for invasive animals
C) removal of all the invasive individuals by
collecting, baiting, trapping and, for plants,
prescribed burning
D) application of potent pesticides that kill the
introduced species
E) public education, introduction of suitable
predators, examination of imported goods
78) Analyze the climatogram above and
chose the biome it most likely describes
A) temperate rainforest
B) tundra
C) desert
D) tropical dry forest
E) tropical rain forest
79) Microbes in our digestive tract that help us
digest food demonstrate a(n) ________
association.
A) trophic
B) allelopathic
C) benthic
D) homeopathic
E) symbiotic
Read the following scenario and answer the
questions below
Human activities, including fossil fuel
combustion, farming, and deforestation, are
known to increase the levels of carbon dioxide,
methane, and nitrous oxides in our atmosphere.
Measurable warming of Earth due to these
greenhouse gases can alter ecosystem
dynamics. In addition to the direct climatic
effects on organisms within biomes, warming
can lower levels of sea ice and increase
precipitation in Arctic areas. Global warming
also can increases sea surface temperatures,
which can subsequently melt permafrost in the
tundra and increase the intensity of hurricanes
in vulnerable areas. Within communities,
climatic change can shift interdependent
species "out-of-sync," potentially causing
indirect loss of species.
82) If you wanted to predict which biome you
would find in an area, you would need to know
two things about that area--the yearly average
A) immigration and emigration rates
B) light levels and day length
C) daytime high and nighttime low
temperature
D) rainfall and temperature
E) soil nutrients and relative humidity
80) Global warming has been hypothesized to
cause many plants to flower earlier. If bees
search for food earlier in response to this, this
would represent ________ within the
community.
A) primary succession
B) climax
C) secondary succession
D) extirpation
E) coevolution
83) What is not true about the graph above
A) Roughly all ecological communities are
structured according to the diagram
B) Organisms in lower trophic levels exist in
greater numbers
C) Organisms in the highest trophic level
contain as little as 10% of the energy passed on
by producers
D) Primary consumers are smaller in biomass
than secondary consumers
E) Eating at a lower trophic level will reduce a
persons ecological footprint
81) The relationship between flowering plants
and caterpillars is best described as
A)commensalism
B)amensalism
C)parasitism
D)herbivory
E)mutualism
84) If you wanted to graphically represent the
relative importance of the trophic levels in a
food chain, the most accurate way would be as
a
A) pyramid of energy
B) pyramid of numbers
C) pyramid of keystone species
D) pyramid of competition
E) pyramid of primary productivity
85) A trophic cascade was illustrated by the
food chain of kelp → sea urchin → sea otter →
killer whale with the direction of the arrow
showing energy flow. Which of these would be
a prediction based on the idea of the trophic
cascade?
A) A drop in the sea urchin population will
cause a drop in the kelp population.
B) Competition between killer whales and kelp
could collapse the entire food chain.
C) An increase in the killer whale population
would cause an increase in the kelp population.
D) A drop in the killer whale population
should cause an increase in the sea urchin
population.
E) An increase in the sea otter population will
have no effect on any other level since only the
top predator and producer are important in the
idea of the trophic cascade.
87) Which of the following statements best
describes competition for a niche?
A) Competition for a niche always results in
the disappearance of one of the competing
species.
B) The two species could divide the niche
through "resource partitioning".
C) Both species get to keep all of their
fundamental niche, but only part of their
realized niche.
D) Competition for resources always involves
aggression.
E) Members of different species never
compete for resources.
86) When a species is moved from its native
range to a new area (often across an ocean), it
can become an invasive species and damage its
new home ecosystem. What is one reason these
species are able to do damage to an ecosystem?
A) When a species is transported, it leaves
behind its predators and diseases and is able to
grow to huge and damaging numbers.
B) In nearly every case, when a species is
moved across an ocean and into a new habitat it
becomes a harmful invasive simply because it
is in a new habitat.
C) Having been moved from its home country,
the introduced species does not know the local
language so is unable to communicate with its
new neighbors and gets angry, lashing out at
any nearby organisms and doing great harm.
D) It becomes a damaging invasive because it
was brought by humans. If it were transported
naturally, it would not become an invasive
species.
E) When moved to the new location, the
species fills in unoccupied niches.
88)
Which of the following is not true according to
the food-web diagram?
A) Deer are parasitic hosts to ticks
B) Spiders are secondary consumers
C) The rattlesnake could be a keystone species
D) Energy flows from the white oak to the
chipmunk to the tick
E) Energy only flows in one direction to
complete a cycle of energy flow.
89) The physical, abiotic components of our
planet can be divided into the ________.
A)centrosphere, geosphere, biosphere, and
abiosphere
B)lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere
C)lithosphere, biosphere, and atmosphere
D)geosphere and atmosphere
E)lithosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere, and
atmosphere
90) Any network of relationships among a
group of components, which interact with and
influence one another through exchange of
matter and/or information, is referred to as
________.
A)an environmental collaboration
B)an interchange
C)hierarchy
D)an ecosystem
E)a system
91) The eutrophication that has taken place in
the Gulf of Mexico and other locations appears
to be due to ________.
A)pesticide use along the waterways
B)heavy metals dumped in the sewage
C)global warming from human use of fossil
fuels
D)excess nutrients from fertilizers
E)weather alone, because it is only obvious in
the summer
92) A system receiving inputs and producing
outputs without undergoing any changes in size
or function is said to be in ________.
A)harmonic resonance
B)static control
C)dynamic equilibrium
D)environmental balance
E)normal balance
93) A small section of prairie grasses, over a
year, produces enough biomass to feed insects,
mice, rabbits, birds, deer, antelope, and a host
of decomposers. The amount of food
potentially available to the herbivores is the
________.
A)food chain
B)net primary production
C)secondary production
D)gross primary production
E)productivity
94) Human beings have dramatically altered
the flux rate of nitrogen from ________.
A)producers to consumers through increased
wildfires
B)from soils to the atmosphere
C)proteins to inorganic ions in soils
D)oceans to soils
E)the atmosphere to various pools on the
earth's surface
95) The process of subduction ________.
A)occurs when plates pull apart
B)causes the formation of deep ocean trenches
C)occurs when denser ocean crusts slide
beneath lighter continental crusts
D)is caused by volcanoes
E)is responsible for hurricanes
96) Rock that has undergone heat or pressure
that causes it to change form is called
________.
A)igneous
B)sedimentary
C)conglomerate
D)metamorphic
E)deformative
97) By damming rivers and using methods
such as flood irrigation, we are ________.
A)increasing the water table
B)increasing transportation
C)decreasing transpiration
D)decreasing the water table
E)increasing evaporation
98) Aquifers are ________.
A)the result of transpiration
B)natural ponds and lakes
C)oceans
D)recharge lakes at water quality facilities
E)underground water reservoirs
99) The freshwater we depend on for our
survival accounts for ________.
A)10% of all water on Earth
B)3% of all water on Earth
C)one-third of all water on Earth
D)two-thirds of all water on Earth
E)less than 1% of all water on Earth
100) Humans have dramatically altered the
rate of nitrogen fixation into forms usable by
autotrophs ________.
A)because of the erosion of farmlands through
poor agricultural practices
B)by using antibiotics to reduce the numbers of
denitrifying bacteria
C)due to the burning of fossil fuels to meet our
energy needs
D)by selectively removing leguminous plants
E)as we produce synthetic fertilizers and apply
them to crops, lawns, and parks
101) Nitrogen fixation is a process that makes
nitrogen available to plants by ________.
A)volcanic eruptions
B)photosynthesis
C)parasitic bacteria
D)dissolving in freshwater and in the ocean
E)mutualistic and free‑ living bacteria
102) The origin of all nitrogen in biological
tissues is ________.
A)nitrogen weathered from rock
B)earthquake activities
C)atmospheric N2 gas
D)volcanoes
E)lightning
103) The origin of all phosphorus in biological
tissues is ________.
A)phosphorus dissolved in the ocean and taken
up by shellfish
B)volcanic activities
C)atmospheric phosphorus gas
D)phosphorus weathered from rock
E)phosphorus in animal bones
104) The largest pools of carbon in the carbon
cycle are ________.
A)atmosphere
B)sedimentary rock and fossil fuels
C)plants and animals
D)freshwater systems and oceans
E)hydrosphere
105) Plants conduct photosynthesis, making
glucose and other carbohydrates. To do this
they need ________.
A)water from the humid atmosphere and
carbon dioxide from the soil
B)water from the soil and carbon dioxide from
the atmosphere
C)carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
D)water from the soil
E)water from the soil and carbon dioxide from
the soil
106) Macronutrients ________.
A)are the only nutrients that can be tracked in
nutrient cycles
B)can only be taken up by plants from rock
cycles
C)are what large predators eat
D)are required in large amounts for organisms
to survive
E)are large molecules necessary for making
macromolecules
107) The biosphere consists of the ________.
A)water, saltwater, and freshwater in surface
bodies and the atmosphere
B)abiotic portions of the environment
C)solid earth beneath our feet
D)air surrounding our planet
E)sum of all the planet's living organisms and
the abiotic portions of the environment
108) The rate at which biomass becomes
available to consumers is termed ________.
A)ecosystem productivity
B)grossulosity factor
C)net density
D)net primary productivity
E)gross primary production
109) The swamplands of extreme southern
Louisiana, which contain elements of both the
forests and the coast, could be called ________.
A)a closed ecosystem
B)a superbiome
C)a dead zone
D)an ecotone
E)an abiotic system
110) Cattle on an open range, in some areas,
may compact fragile soils while grazing. This
can damage plant roots, leading to fewer,
smaller plants, which may in turn cause cattle
to graze more and work harder to obtain food.
This is an example of a ________.
A)positive feedback loop
B)food web
C)homeostatic system
D)negative feedback loop
E)dynamic equilibrium
111) Which of the following processes HAS
NOT increased the nitrogen in ecosystems
beyond what I naturally there?
A)the Haber-Bosch process
B)nitrogen fixation basteria
C)use of nitrogen fertilizers
D)fossil fuel use
E)maintenance of feedlots
112) What does the term emergent properties
describe?
A)the properties created by evolutionary
changes in leaf structure in a lineage of ancient
plants
B)the characteristics of emerging vegetation
such as the forb called fireweed
C)the particular timing and season of
emergence of flowers in the spring, as long as it
is not being changed by global climate change
D)characteristics that are not evident in the
system’s individual components, only by
looking at the operating system
E)the particular timing and season of
emergence of organisms from dormancy
113)Positive feeback loops ________.
A)are more common in natural systems altered
by human actions
B)result in stabilizing concentrations of a
substance
C)are loops in which inputs reverse a change
that may cause damage to an ecosystem
D)are releatively common in nature compared
to negative feedback loops
E)help an ecosystem achieve dynamic
equilibrium
114)In the carbon cycle, carbon moves from
the atmosphere into the living portion of the
cycle through:
A)sedimentation
B)burning of fossil fuels
C)respiration
D)photosynthesis
E)erosion
115)Which nutrient cycle has no appreciable
atmospheric component?
A)water
B)carbon
C)nitrogen
D)phosphorus
E)all of the above
116) In 2003, Congress reauthorized the
Harmful Algal Bloom and Hypoxia Research
Control Act which includes funding and
resources for all of the following proposals
except:
A)encouraging farmers to irrigate their fields
up to 50% more than they already do.
B)offering insurance and economic incentives
for not using excess fertilizer
C)implementing new strategies such as organic
farming
D)planting cover crops in the off season to
reduce runoff.
E)helping farmers to maintain natural wetlands
which host nitrogen fixing bacteria.
Use Figure 8.1 to answer the following
questions.
117) Looking at the figure, you are able to
determine:
A) that the population in the part (b) is aging
rapidly
B) that the population in the part (b) is
growing rapidly
C) that the population in the part (b) has many
more males than females
D) that there was a "baby boom" in the
population on the right 30 years ago
E) that the population in part (a) is growing
rapidly
118) What is the population in part (b) likely
to experience soon?
A) lack of economic growth
B) more senior citizens
C) more households
D) resource depletion and decreased quality of
life
E) more single males
119) What is the population in part (a) likely to
experience soon?
A) more senior citizens
B) government institution of a population
control policy
C) more single males
D) exponential population growth
E) resource depletion and decreased quality of
life
120) During which time period did the world's
population increase the most?
A) 1850–1900
B) 1950–2000
C) 1800–1850
D) 1900–1950
E) 1750–1800
121) Currently, the human population is
approximately
A) 6.5 million
B) 1.5 million
C) 1.5 billion
D) 6.7 billion
E) 10 billion
122) If a population roughly doubles in the
course of 50 years, its growth rate would be
close to
A) 5 %
B) 1.5 %
C) 25 %
D) 20 %
E) 10 %
123) ________ is the world's most populous
nation, home to ________ of the people living
on Earth.
A) China; half
B) The United States; half
C) China; one-fifth
D) India; one-third
E) The United States; one-fifth
124) Which of the following is not one of the
world's top five most populous nations?
A) Vietnam
B) Brazil
C) United States
D) India
E) Indonesia
125) Life expectancy in parts of southern
Africa
A) is starting to fall
B) has fallen dramatically since 1990
C) is on the rise
D) has stabilized due to population control
E) cannot be determined due to lack of
adequate methods for data collection
126) The 1994 Cairo, Egypt, conference was
organized
A) to reevaluate the effectiveness of China's
one-child policy
B) by President Clinton to seek world funding
for family planning initiatives
C) to urge governments to push contraception
and lower population to preset targets.
D) to address the growing AIDS epidemic in
Africa
E) to urge governments to offer universal
access to reproductive health care within 20
years through better education and addressing
social needs.
127) Replacement fertility
A) is below 2 in Latin America and the
Caribbean
B) is below 2 in Africa
C) is equal to 2.1 in stable populations
D) restores population size after a catastrophic
event
E) is a contraceptive technique
128) Declining death rates due to increased
food production and improved medical care
while birth rates remain high is characteristic of
the ________ stage in a demographic
transition.
A) revolutionary
B) stabilization
C) transitional
D) post-industrial
E) pre-industrial
129) Areas with the least dense human
populations are in
A) the suburbs
B) agricultural areas
C) Mexico
D) Europe
E) temperate areas
130) Which of the following countries has the
highest population growth rate?
A) Pakistan
B) Italy
C) Spain
D) United States
E) Canada
131) Which of the following factors drives
TFR down?
A) history and tradition
B) rural lifestyle
C) social and economic security
D) sexism
E) high infant mortality
132) The transitional stage in Frank
Notestein's demographic model is initiated by:
A) industrialization
B) the increased use of contraceptives
C) government intervention
D) epidemics
E) resource depletion
133) The richest one-fifth of the world's
population possesses approximately ________
times the income of the poorest one-fifth, and
the richest one-fifth use over 86% of the
world's resources.
A) 80 B) 10 C) 60 D) 20 E) 40
134) If global fertility rates remain at 2006
levels, the United Nations predicts that world
population will be approximately ________
billion in 2050.
A) 4
B) 12 C) 7 D) 10 E) 5
135) The annual global growth rate of the
human population peaked in the ________ and
has been declining ever since.
A) 1960s
B) early 1900s
C) 1990s
D) year 2000
E) 1950s
136) A country with ________ is not expected
to grow quickly in the near future.
A) many developing regions
B) growing industrialization
C) high female literacy
D) a female to male ratio of 1.2 to 1
E) a pyramid shaped age structure diagram
137) In a country where there are increasingly
more households
A) birth rates should remain constant
B) consumption should decrease
C) consumption should increase
D) birth rates should increase
E) population growth rates should increase
138) As of 2008, total cumulative HIV
infections since 1980 are estimated at nearly
________ million.
A) 1
B) 50 C) 78
D) 10
E) 25
139) Demographic effects of AIDS are most
significant socially, politically, and
economically because
A) it is caused by a virus
B) AIDS sickens and kills the youngest and
most productive members of society
C) it is not known who is resistant to AIDS
D) AIDS leaves behind orphans
E) AIDS strikes affluent people more than
poor people
143) The Cornucopian view held by many
economists suggests that resource depletion due
to greater numbers of people ________.
A) is not a problem if new resources can be
found to replace depleted ones
B) will cause a population crash
C) is not a problem because disease will limit
population size
D) is not a problem because humans are too
intelligent to allow it to be
E) will lead to natural selection of the most fit
individuals
140) America's age structure diagram:
A) looks like a pyramid
B) reflects unequal distribution of males and
females at all age groups
C) reflects a population with a high growth rate
D) reflects a "baby boom" in the early 1800s
E) reflects an aging population as babyboomers grow
141) The world population growth rate is
currently close to ________%.
A) 5
B) 20 C) 1.2 D) 2.5 E) 10
142) According to the IPAT model,
technology that enhances our acquisition of
minerals, fossil fuels, timber, and ocean fish
________.
A) increases environmental impact
B) decreases sensitivity
C) increases population
D) increases sensitivity
E) decreases environmental impact
144) The "sensitivity factor" in the IPAT model
denotes ________.
A) the sensitivity of endangered species to
human population infringement
B) economic sensitivity to resource use
C) the sensitivity of governments to carrying
capacity demands
D) the sensitivity of an environment to human
pressures
E) human sensitivity to what needs to be done
to protect the environment
145) The most accurate terms describing the
trend over the past 50 years in resource use for
human energy and agricultural systems are
A) from unsustainable to sustainable
B) decreasing and sustainable
C) increasing and unsustainable
D) rapidly increasing, moving from
unsustainable to sustainable
E) steady state - no change
146) According to the model developed by
Donella Meadows and her colleagues, if human
society proceeds as it has for most of the 20th
century
A) human population will stabilize at about 8
billion
B) human population will reach 20 billion by
2100 as pollution levels drop rapidly
C) industrial production will reach steady-state
as non-renewable resources increase
D) pollution levels will soar and productivity
decrease exponentially in the next century
E) human population will crash and then grow
exponentially to 20 billion
147) Despite dire predictions in the past,
humans still inhabit Earth. A few economists
would argue that this is because
A) Malthus's measurements were inaccurate
B) world population growth has been slower
than expected
C) space exploration has revealed new
frontiers
D) Malthus overestimated the Earth's
environmental sensitivity
E) technological developments have alleviated
some of the strain on Earth's resources
148) Mesopotamian, Mayan, Easter Island and
1930s U.S. midwest prairie societies all
experienced "crashes" because they
A) abused and overused their natural resources
B) had low TFR
C) had a weak military
D) experienced rapid climate change
E) had an unbalanced male:female ratio
149) Because of the success of China's
population control programs
A) there is a younger population in China
today
B) African nations have instituted similar
programs
C) European nations have instituted similar
programs
D) environmental problems in China have
been virtually eliminated
E) China's population growth rate is much
lower than it was in the 1970s
150) Aside from contraception, what can
humans do to control population growth's
negative effects on the environment?
A) encourage emigration from Africa
B) encourage smaller households
C) discourage population movement into
sensitive environmental areas
D) encourage consumption
E) discourage emigration from Africa
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