Download ANATOMY SAMPLEX

1. Which statement BEST describes the ulnar artery?
a. Anastomoses with carpal branch of radial artery
b. Arises from brachial artery in cubital fossa
c. Anastomoses with superior ulnar collateral in arm
d. All of the options are correct
2. This structure surrounds the radial head and radial notch of ulna, keeps radial head in radial notch
and allows pronation and supination.
a. Annular ligament
b. Capsule
c. LUCL
d. MCL
3. These structures can be found distal to the DRUJ EXCEPT
a. TFCC
b. Carpus
c. Metacarpals
d. Phalanges
4. The ____________ fibrous joint unites both bones via an interosseous membrane, which also
divides the forearm into anterior and posterior compartments.
a. ulnohumeral
b. radiohumeral
c. radiocapitellar
d. Radioulnar
5. “Golfer’s elbow” refers to inflammation of the tendons that originate from the _____________”
a. trochlea
b. coronoid
c. medial epicondyle
d. lateral epicondyle
6. The upper limb is part of the appendicular skeleton and includes the following EXCEPT
a. Forearm
b. Shoulder
c. Arm
d. Sternum
7. How many tendons can be found within the carpal tunnel?
a. Four
b. Nine
c. Ten
d. Eight
8. Which statement BEST describes the thumb?
a. Possesses only one interphalangeal joint
b. Capable of abduction/adduction/rotation/retraction
c. Responsible for circumduction
d. Triquetrometacarpal joint forms the base
9. The first dorsal compartment contains which of the following tendons?
a. ECRB ECRL
b. ED EIP
c. EDM
d. APL EPB
10. These muscles abduct, flex digits at metacarpophalangeal joints and extend interphalangeal joints.
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a. Lumbricals
b. Opponens pollicis
c. Dorsal interossei
d. Palmar interossei
The triceps muscle attaches onto what structure?
a. Olecranon
b. Trochlea
c. Coronoid
d. Radial head
Which tendon is most superficial distal to the PIP joint?
a. FDS
b. FCU
c. FDP
d. FCR
All EXCEPT two muscles of the anterior compartment (forearm) are innervated by the median
nerve.
a. EDM and ECU
b. FCU and FCR
c. FDS and FDP (lateral)
d. FCU and FDP (ulnar)
Which DOES NOT belong to the group?
a. Trapezium
b. Lunate
c. Scaphoid
d. Pisiform
Which statement BEST describes the anterior compartment of the forearm?
a. They are supplied by the ulnar and radial arteries.
b. Two of the muscles are supinators.
c. All except two muscles are innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve.
d. They are primarily flexors of the hand at the wrist and/or are finger extensors.
e. Correct answer
The blood supply to the hand is by the radial and ulnar arteries, which anastomose with each
a. palmar arch
b. medial arch
c. dorsal arch
d. carpal arch
The cubital fossa is the region anterior to the elbow and is demarcated by the ______________
muscle laterally and the ___________ muscle medially.
a. Brachioradialis/Pronator teres
b. Brachioradialis/Pronator quadratus
c. Pronator teres/Coracobrachialis
d. Pronator teres/Brachialis
The muscles of the posterior compartment are arranged in a superficial and deep layer, with the
superficial layer of muscles largely arising from what part of the distal humerus?
a. Capitellum
b. Medial epicondyle
c. Lateral epicondyle
d. Trochlea
19. The extensor digitorum extends the four medial fingers. What is another muscle that extends the
small finger at the MCP and IP joints?
a. EDM
b. ECRL
c. EIP
d. ECRB
20. ________ nerve compression in the carpal tunnel, the most common compression neuropathy, is
often linked to occupational repetitive movements related to wrist flexion and extension, holding
the wrist in an awkward position, or strong gripping of objects.
a. Radial
b. Ulnar
c. Median
d. Carpal
21. This muscle allows you to flex your hip during sit ups.
a. Quadriceps femoris
b. Gracilis
c. Iliopsoas
d. Obturator externus
22. Weakening of deep fibular nerve affects all of the following muscles EXCEPT
a. Fibularis brevis
b. Extensor digitorum
c. Fibularis tertius
d. Tibialis anterior
23. Which of the following supplies skin of dorsum of the foot?
a. Medial plantar nerve
b. Superficial fibular nerve
c. Sural nerve
d. Saphenous nerve
24. Which muscle belongs to the smallest leg compartment?
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Plantaris
c. Fibularis longus
d. Fibularis tertius
25. It supplies the skin of the anteromedial thigh
a. Anterior cutaneous branches
b. Ilioinguinal nerve
c. Lateral cutaneous nerve
d. Genitofemoral nerve
26. Which bone of the foot DOES NOT have muscle or tendon attachment?
a. Calcaneus
b. Cuboid
c. Talus
d. Navicular
27. Injury to obturator nerve will weaken the following muscle EXCEPT
a. Adductor longus
b. Hamstring part of adductor magnus
c. Adductor brevis
d. Gracilis
28. A 30 yo man is stabbed on the medial aspect of the thigh, there is profuse bleeding secondary to
the transection of which vessel?
a. Superior gluteal artery
b. Obturator artery
c. Deep femoral artery
d. Femoral artery
29. Only part that crosses the hip joint
a. Vastus lateralis
b. Rectus femoris
c. Vastus intermedius
d. Vastus medialis
30. The adductor hiatus is found in which muscle?
a. Adductor longus
b. Adductor magnus
c. Adductor brevis
d. Gracilis
31. Paralysis of the peroneal nerve weakens which muscle?
a. Extensor hallucis longus
b. Tibialis anterior
c. Extensor digitorum longus
d. Fibularis longus
32. Paralysis of the femoral nerve will lead to weakness of which movement?
a. Abduction of the thigh
b. Extension of the knee
c. Flexion of the knee
d. Adduction of the thigh
33. The longest muscle of anterior thigh is _____________.
a. sartorius
b. gracilis
c. ilipsoas
d. Pectineus
34. Injury to femoral nerve affects which muscle?
a. Obturator externus
b. Gracilis
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Tibialis anterior
35. All of the following are dorsiflexors of ankle joint EXCEPT
a. Fibularis tertius
b. Extensor hallucis longus
c. Fibularis brevis
d. Tibialis anterior
36. Which structure forms the medial border of the femoral triangle?
a. Inguinal ligament
b. Sartorius
c. Femoral nerve
d. Adductor longus
37. A stab wound to the midpoint of the femoral triangle will MOST LIKELY injure which structure?
a. Femoral vein
b. Femoral canal
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c. Femoral nerve
d. Femoral artery
The muscles on the lateral compartment of the leg are concerned mainly for __________________.
a. ankle dorsiflexion
b. great toe extension
c. foot inversion
d. foot eversion
Which of the following is the chief flexor of the thigh?
a. Quadriceps
b. Pectineus
c. Iliopsoas
d. Sartorius
Which muscle is NOT part of the pes anserinus?
a. Semitendinosus
b. Semimembranosus
c. Sartorius
d. Gracilis
A sheath of connective tissue that groups muscle fibers into bundles of fascicles.
a. Epimysium
b. Perimysium
c. Paramysium
d. Endomysium
A _________ contracts isometrically to stabilize the origin of the prime mover so that it can act
efficiently.
a. Agonist
b. Fixator
c. Antagonist
d. Synergist
It is a type of tendon which forms a thin strong sheet that functions to join muscles and the body
parts they act upon.
a. Cartilage
b. Ligament
c. Bursa
d. Aponeurosis
Endomysium is ___________ type of connective tissue
a. Dense fibrous irregular connective tissue
b. Areolar connective tissue
c. Dense fibrous regular connective tissue
d. Dense connective tissue
All the following muscles have attachment to the scapula, EXCEPT
a. Trapezius
b. Serratus Anterior
c. Coracobrachialis
d. Subclavius
All of the following are functions of skeletal muscle, EXCEPT
a. Maintain posture
b. Stabilize joints
c. Provides cushion between bones
d. Produce movement
47. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a skeletal muscle?
a. Excitability
b. Elasticity
c. Stability
d. Contractility
48. All of the following are rotator cuff muscles, EXCEPT
a. Supraspinatus
b. Subscapularis
c. Teres major
d. Infraspinatus
49. A point at which a motor nerve enters a muscle
a. Motor point
b. Motor unit
c. Origin
d. Insertion
50. All the following muscles can medially rotate the arm, EXCEPT
a. Deltoid
b. Pectoralis major
c. Teres minor
d. Latissimus dorsi
51. What COMMON movement is produced by the anterior part of the deltoid, latissimus dorsi, and
teres major on the arm?
a. Medial rotation
b. Extension
c. Lateral rotation
d. Flexion
52. Which of the following pairing of ligament and bone/structure that they articulate is INCORRECT?
a. Coracohumeral ligament: Coracoid process and Humerus
b. Trapezoid ligament: Acromion and Coracoid process
c. Glenohumeral ligament: Humerus and Glenoid Fossa
d. Acromioclavicular ligament: Acromion and Clavicle
53. Winging of the scapula is caused by injury to what nerve?
a. Dorsal scapular nerve
b. Suprascapular nerve
c. Thoracodorsal nerve
d. Long thoracic nerve
54. The median nerve is composed of the following roots from the brachial plexus EXCEPT
a. C8
b. C6
c. C5
d. C7
55. Which of the following is the longest bone of the upper limb?
a. Radius
b. Clavicle
c. Humerus
d. Ulna
56. The shallow depression that spirals around the posterior and lateral aspects of the midshaft of the
humerus is ________________groove.
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a. median
b. ulnar
c. axillary
d. Radial
What is the COMMON movement produced biceps brachii, and brachialis ?
a. Extends arm
b. Flexes forearm
c. Extends forearm
d. Flexes arm
In the brachial plexus, the radial nerve is formed by all of the following, EXCEPT
a. All posterior divisions
b. Superior and Inferior trunk
c. Posterior cord
d. All anterior divisions
All the following muscles are innervated by dorsal scapular nerve, EXCEPT
a. Pectoralis minor
b. Rhomboid major
c. Levator scapulae
d. Rhomboid minor
All the following muscles adduct the arm , EXCEPT
a. Supraspinatus
b. Pectoralis major
c. Teres major
d. Latissimus dorsi
Which of the following pairing is CORRECT regarding the boundaries of the apex of the axilla?
a. Lateral: Head of humerus
b. Behind: medial border of scapula
c. Medial: Inner border of the first rib
d. Front: Clavicle
Which of the following is the structure that divides the axillary artery into three parts?
a. Pectoralis major
b. Anterior Scalene
c. Pectoralis minor
d. Clavicle
Which of the following is the anatomical landmark that demarcates the termination of axillary artery?
a. Lower border of teres minor
b. Upper border of teres minor
c. Lower border of teres major
d. Upper border of teres major
The axilla contains the following structures EXCEPT
a. Ansa cervicalis
b. Vein
c. Artery
d. Lymph nodes
65. The blood vessel that has a close relation to the surgical neck of humerus and are commonly
injured during fractures is _____________.
a. Brachial artery
b. Circumflex humeral
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c. Profunda brachii
d. Axillary artery
The landmark that demarcates the termination of the axillary vein.
a. Medial border of the first rib
b. Lower border of the Teres major
c. Upper border of the Teres major
d. Lateral border of the first rib
The axillary artery is a branch of which of the following?
a. Subclavian artery
b. Aorta
c. Brachiocephalic trunk
d. Brachial artery
Regarding the walls of the axilla, which of the following is CORRECTLY paired?
a. Lateral wall: Corachobrachialis and biceps brachii in the bicipital groove of the humerus
b. Posterior wall: Supraspinatus, Serratus anterior
c. Anterior wall: Rhomboids, Pectoralis major and minor
d. Medial wall: Lower three ribs and intercostal spaces
The left subclavian artery arises from _________.
a. brachiocephalic trunk
b. ascending aorta
c. descending aorta
d. arch of the aorta
The MOST COMMON nerve affected during anterior shoulder dislocation is _________________.
a. Musculocutaneous nerve
b. Axillary nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Ulnar nerve
Which structure encloses several structures, such as the heart, lungs, abdominal viscera, and
tendons, much like this collapsed balloon encloses the fist?
a. Bursal sac
b. Synovium
c. Tendon sheath
d. Omentum
The main use of anatomical planes is to describe ______________________.
a. section
b. movement
c. measurement
d. Distance
Which of the following statements regarding the axilla is TRUE?
a. The ansa cervicalis found in the axilla is an important nerve network that innervates the
upper limb
b. Contains lymph nodes which drains lymph from the upper limb, the breast and trunk as far
as the inguinal area.
c. Contains artery and its branches which supplies the lower limb
d. Contents are embedded in fat
Which of the following is a fibrous joint?
a. Diaphysis
b. Syndesmosis
c. Tubercle
d. Prominence
75. In breast cancer, assessment of ___________ is part of staging and determining the appropriate
treatment of cancer.
a. Brachial plexus
b. Axillary artery
c. Axillary vein
d. Axillary lymph nodes
76. Which is NOT a surface landmark?
a. Crevice
b. Trochanter
c. Fissure
d. Crest
77. Which is an example of a biaxial saddle joint?
a. Trapeziometacarpal
b. Metacarpophallangeal joint (MCP)
c. C1-C2
d. Glenohumeral
78. Which statement is FALSE?
a. Surface anatomy provides knowledge of what lies under the skin.
b. Systemic anatomy sees the body as organized into compartments
c. Regional anatomy considers the body as organized into segments or parts.
d. Anatomy is the study of the structure of the human body.
79. Which of the following statements regarding axillary artery is INCORRECT?
a. Lies superficial to the pectoralis minor and is enclosed in the axillary sheath
b. Branches of the 2nd part of the axillary artery are thoracoacromial artery and lateral
thoracic artery
c. First part is proximal to the pectoralis minor
d. Second part is posterior to the pectoralis minor
80. Cross sections are slices of the body or its parts that are cut at right angles to the longitudinal axis
of the body or of any of its parts. Because the long axis of the foot runs horizontally, a transverse
section of the foot lies in what plane?
a. Median
b. Sagittal
c. Axial
d. Frontal
81. Most of the bones can be classified into one of five shapes EXCEPT
a. Long
b. Sesamoid
c. Concave
d. Irregular
82. The muscles of the anterior compartment are arranged in a superficial and deep layer, with the
superficial layer of muscles largely arising from what part of the distal humerus?
a. Trochlea
b. Medial epicondyle
c. Lateral epicondyle
d. Capitellum
83. Which statement BEST describes the ulnar artery?
a. Arises from axillary artery in cubital fossa
b. None of the options is correct
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c. Anastomoses with superior radial collateral in arm
d. Anastomoses with carpal branch of ulnar artery
Which is NOT an origin of the heads of the triceps brachii?
a. Infraglenoid tubercle of scapula
b. Proximal end of olecranon of ulna and fascia of forearm
c. Posterior surface of humerus, inferior to radial groove
d. Posterior surface of humerus
The arm is divided into two compartments by ___________, which is attached medially and laterally
to the deep (investing) fascia surrounding the muscles.
a. intermuscular septum
b. interosseous membrane
c. bursal surface
d. arm interval
The neurovascular bundle of the arm can be found ________.
a. distal
b. medially
c. centrally
d. Laterally
Which two muscles of the anterior compartment of the forearm is NOT supplied by median nerve?
a. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum profundus (medial)
b. Extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris
c. Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundud (radial)
d. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi radialis
Muscles of the posterior compartment of the arm exhibit the following features EXCEPT
a. Supplied with blood from the deep artery of the arm (profunda brachii)
b. Can supinate the flexed forearm
c. Innervated by the radial nerve
d. Primarily extensors of the forearm at the elbow
Which statement BEST describes the anterior compartment of the forearm?
a. Two of the muscles are pronators.
b. Supplied by the ulnar and brachial arteries.
c. Primary flexors of the hand at the wrist and/or are finger extensors.
d. All except two muscles are innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve.
The upper limb is part of the appendicular skeleton and includes the following EXCEPT
a. Forearm
b. Phalanges
c. Ribs
d. Clavicle
Which statement BEST describes the thumb?
a. Responsible for opposition
b. Possesses two interphalangeal joints
c. Capable of abduction/adduction/rotation/retraction
d. Triquetrometacarpal joint forms the base
These structures can be found proximal to the distal radio-ulnar joint EXCEPT
a. Metacarpals
b. Radial notch
c. Ulnar styloid
d. Triangular fibrocartilage complex
The tendon of which muscle is most superficial, proximal to the proximal interphalangeal joint?
a. Flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Flexor carpi ulnaris
c. Flexor digitorum profundus
d. Flexor carpi radialis
94. How many nerve/s can be found within the carpal tunnel?
a. Two
b. Four
c. Ten
d. One
95. Which DOES NOT belong to the group?
a. Hamate
b. Capitate
c. Trapezoid
d. Triquetrum
96. This structure surrounds the radial head and radial notch of ulna, keeps radial head in radial notch
and allows pronation and supination.
a. Medial collateral ligament
b. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
c. Annular ligament
d. Capsule
97. The radioulnar fibrous joint unites both bones via a/an _______________ membrane, which also
divides the forearm into anterior and posterior compartments.
a. interosseous
b. mucous
c. basement
d. Permeable
98. The radial and ulnar arteries anastomose with each other in the hand thru the __________.
a. carpal arch
b. dorsal arch
c. medial arch
d. palmar arch
99. What is another muscle aside from extensor digitorum that extends the index finger at the
metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints?
a. Extensor digiti minimi
b. Extensor carpi radialis longus
c. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
d. Extensor indicis propius
100.
These muscles abduct, flex digits at metacarpophalangeal joints and extend
interphalangeal joints.
a. Opponens pollicis
b. Lumbricals
c. Dorsal interossei
d. Palmar interossei
101.
The tendon of this muscle has the highest rate of spontaneous rupture of any tendon in the
body.
a. Brachialis
b. Biceps
c. Coracobrachialis
d. Triceps
102.
The short head of the biceps muscle originates from what structure?
Apex of coracoid process of scapula
Radial head
Supraglenoid tubercle of humeral head
Coronoid
103.
________ nerve compression (inflamed, swollen or irritated) happens as it passes through
the cubital tunnel on the inside of the elbow,
a. Ulnar
b. Carpal
c. Median
d. Radial
104.
The third dorsal compartment contains the tendon/s of which of the following muscles?
a. Extensor digitorum - Extensor inidicis proprius
b. Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
c. Extensor pollicis longus
d. Extensor digiti minimi
105.
What passes through the intertubercular groove?
a. Pectoralis major
b. Tendon of the short head of the biceps brachii
c. Teres major
d. Bicipital tendon
106.
This artery is commonly used to measure blood pressure.
a. Brachial
b. Inferior ulnar collateral
c. Deep artery of the arm
d. Superficial ulnar collateral
107.
Which of the following segmental levels form the deep tendon reflex of triceps brachii?
a. C7 C8
b. C5 C6
c. C8 T1
d. C6 C7
108.
MOST common site of fracture of the proximal humerus among older persons from a fall
on an outstretched hand.
a. Surgical neck
b. Greater tuberosity
c. Lesser tuberosity
d. Anatomical neck
109.
The deep brachial veins usually consist of either paired veins or venae comitantes that
surround the brachial artery. These veins drain into which vein/s?
a. Basilic
b. Axillary
c. Basilic and axillary
d. Cephalic
110.
“Tennis elbow” refers to inflammation of the tendons that originate from the
_____________.
a. coronoid
b. medial epicondyle
c. lateral epicondyle
d. Trochlea
a.
b.
c.
d.
111.
All of the following are attachments of fascia lata EXCEPT
Pubic arch
Femur
Inguinal ligament
Body of pubis
112.
Which vein is formed by the union of the dorsal vein of the great toe and the dorsal venous
arch of the foot?
a. Fibular vein
b. Femoral vein
c. Obturator vein
d. Great saphenous vein
113.
QN fell and was unable to flex her thigh, which nerve was injured?
a. Femoral nerve
b. Obturator nerve
c. Fibular nerve
d. Saphenous nerve
114.
This is the longest muscle in the body, with its name derived from the Latin word for “tailor."
a. Gracilis
b. Sartorius
c. Rectus femoris
d. Adductor longus
115.
The skin of the middle part of the medial thigh is supplied by which of the following nerve?
a. Anterior cutaneous branches
b. Ilioinguinal nerve
c. Cutaneous branch of obturator nerve
d. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
116.
These are oblique fibers that connect tibia and fibula.
a. Medial condyle of the tibia
b. Interosseous membrane
c. Lateral malleolus of the fibula
d. Intercondylar fossa
117.
Which surface landmark IS NOT part of the humerus?
a. Deltoid tuberosity
b. Bicipital groove
c. Radial groove
d. Supraglenoid tubercle
118.
Which of the following CORRECTLY describes the course of the brachial artery?
a. Runs with radial nerve around humeral shaft
b. Runs with ulnar nerve
c. Passes anterior to medial epicondyle of humerus
d. Begins at inferior border of teres major and ends at its bifurcation in cubital fossa
119.
Which of the following is / are action/s of anconeus muscle?
a. Assists triceps in extending elbow and abducts the ulna during pronation
b. Abducts ulna during pronation and steadies the head of the adducted humerus
c. Steadies head of abducted humerus (long head)
d. Adducts the ulna
120.
Loss of sensation of skin on anterolateral leg and dorsum of foot is due to injury of which
of the following nerve?
a. Superficial fibular nerve
a.
b.
c.
d.
b. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. Ilioinguinal nerve
d. Saphenous nerve
121.
The continuation of the quadriceps tendon is the _____________.
a. medial patellar retinacula
b. lateral patellar retinacula
c. patella
d. patellar ligament
122.
The terminal cutaneous branch of femoral nerve is the _______________.
a. saphenous nerve
b. popliteal nerve
c. deep fibular nerve
d. superficial fibular nerve
123.
Which is formed by the inferior prolongation of transversalis and iliopsoas fascia from the
abdomen?
a. Femoral sheath
b. Fascia lata
c. Crural fascia
d. Femoral triangle
124.
The structure that divides the retroinguinal space in two compartments is the
______________.
a. iliopectineal arch
b. inguinal ligament
c. rectus femoris
d. femur
125.
Which of the following muscles is the MOST powerful hip flexor?
a. Rectus femoris
b. Iliopsoas
c. Gracilis
d. Pectineus
126.
It proximally attaches to body and inferior ramus of pubis and distally attach to superior
part of medial surface of tibia.
a. Adductor longus
b. Gracilis
c. Adductor magnus
d. Obturator externus
127.
FLN was unable to extend her leg at knee joint, which muscle had been paralyzed?
a. Rectus femoris
b. Gracilis
c. Obturator externus
d. Pectineus
128.
Injury to anterior rami of L1, L2, L3 will cause paralysis of ______________.
a. vastus lateralis
b. psoas minor
c. sartorius
d. psoas major
129.
EB figured in a vehicular accident and a shard of glass penetrated his right femoral triangle.
Which muscle will be affected?
a. Rectus femoris
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b. Vastus lateralis
c. Pectineus
d. Gracilis
The largest component of the quadricep femoris is __________________.
a. vastus magnus
b. vastus lateralis
c. rectus femoris
d. vastus intermedius
Which of the following forms the base of the femoral triangle?
a. Sartorius
b. Femoral artery
c. Inguinal ligament
d. Adductor longus
All are boundaries of adductor canal EXCEPT
a. Adductor magnus
b. Vastus medialis
c. Pectineus
d. Adductor longus
AB injured her superficial fibular nerve, she will experience difficulty in ________________.
a. extending great toe
b. everting foot
c. dorsiflexion of the ankle
d. inverting foot
An injury to the head of femur will MOST LIKELY affect which of the following artery?
a. Medial circumflex femoral
b. lateral circumflex femoral
c. Obturator artery
d. Profunda femoris
Injury to this muscle weakens the adduction and flexion of the thigh.
a. Adductor magnus
b. Rectus femoris
c. Pectineus
d. Adductor longus
Which of the following is the most lateral of the anterior leg muscle?
a. Tibialis anterior
b. Fibularis longus
c. Extensor digitorum longus
d. Extensor hallucis longus
The adductor muscle is distally attached to which of the following?
a. Linea aspera of the femur
b. Lateral epicondyle of the femur
c. Greater trochanter of the femur
d. Medial condyle of the femur
Which of the following is the weakest adductor muscle?
a. Adductor magnus
b. Gracilis
c. Adductor brevis
d. Adductor longus
139.
The largest branch of femoral artery is _______________.
lateral circumflex femoral artery
medial circumflex femoral artery
profunda femoris artery
obturator artery
140.
SD fell off her bike and had a deep laceration on his left lateral leg. Which muscle was cut?
a. Fibularis longus
b. Fibularis tertius
c. Extensor digitorum longus
d. Extensor hallucis longus
141.
Branch of the lumbar plexus that leaves the psoas major muscle anteriorly.
a. Obturator nerve
b. Ilioinguinal nerve
c. Iliohypogastric nerve
d. Genitofemoral nerve
142.
Attachments of thoracolumbar fascia EXCEPT:
a. Transverse process of the lumbar vertebrae
b. External oblique
c. Psoas fascia
d. Iliac crest
143.
Origin of Quadratus lumborum muscle
a. 12th ribs
b. Iliac crest
c. Intervertebral disc
d. Iliac fossa
144.
Level at which the abdominal aorta divides to form the right and left common iliac arteries
a. L2
b. L5
c. L4
d. L3
145.
During a laparotomy procedure (open abdomen operation), the surgeon is dissecting the
posterior abdomen and was isolating the abdominal artery which was intact when he accidentally
lacerated a large vessel anterior to the L5 vertebrae, approximately 2.5cm to the right of the median
plane. It was bleeding profusely. What structure was likely injured?
a. Renal artery
b. Renal vein
c. Gonadal vein
d. Inferior vena cava
a.
b.
c.
d.
146.
The abdominal aorta gives off branches to supply the gastrointestinal organs namely:
celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, and inferior mesenteric artery. On the other hand, blood
drains to the __________ before entering the inferior vena cava.
a. superior mesenteric vein
b. portal vein
c. inferior mesenteric vein
d. splenic vein
147.
An 18 y/o patient was rushed to the ER 16 hours post injury due to blunt abdominal injury
secondary to vehicular crash. After primary and secondary surveys, there was bleeding seen from
the indwelling foley catheter with high suspicion of urinary tract injury based on history and
presentation. Kidney/Ureter/Bladder (KUB) Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) showed non-functioning
right kidney. A renal artery injury was confirmed by CT imaging. What vertebral level does the renal
artery branch from the aorta?
a. L1
b. L2
c. L3
d. L4
148.
A surgeon was performing an open ureterolithotomy. At the retroperitoneum over the psoas
muscle, vessels were lying anterior to the ureter and was identified as ________.
a. gonadal vessels
b. renal vessels
c. common iliac vessels
d. lumbar artery and veins
149.
An athlete participated in the Iron Man Challenge held 2 days ago. Upon waking up he was
experiencing lower back pain. He had difficulty standing up and walking around. He also noted
deep sharp pain upon coughing, sneezing, or during forced breathing. He also experienced pain
upon stretching side to side. He was diagnosed with a posterior abdominal muscle injury. Which
muscle was likely affected?
a. Psoas major
b. Iliacus
c. Quadratus lumborum
d. Psoas minor
150.
A branch of the lumbar plexus has a purely sensory function amongst others. What are the
roots of this branch and the area it innervates?
a. L2, L3 – anterior and medial surface of the thigh
b. L2, L3 – posterior and lateral surface of the thigh
c. L2, L3 – anterior and lateral surface of the thigh
d. L2, L3 – posterior and medial surface of the thigh
151.
The branch of the lumbar plexus that emerges from the medial aspect of psoas muscle
innervates the following muscles EXCEPT:
a. Vastus medialis
b. Adductor brevis
c. Gracilis
d. Adductor longus
152.
This branch of the plexus nerve originates from the roots of L2-L4, emerges lateral to the
psoas muscle and iliacus muscle, enters the thigh behind the inguinal ligament and lateral to the
femoral vessels and sheath.
a. Genitofemoral nerve
b. Femoral nerve
c. Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
d. Obturator nerve
153.
An intern was assisting a surgeon performing Anatrophic Nephrolithotomy (dissecting the
kidney on the lateral margin of bloodless plane of incision between anterior and posterior segments)
for a staghorn calculus. Which among the following is the correct sequence of layers dissected to
reach the renal pelvis starting from the skin?
a. Skin-> subcutaneous tissue->medulla->minor calyx->major calyx->renal pelvis
b. Skin-> subcutaneous tissue->pararenal fat->minor calyx->renal papilla->renal pelvis
c. Skin-> subcutaneous tissue->renal fascia->pararenal fat->cortex->medulla->renal pelvis
d. Skin->subcutaneous tissue->perirenal fat->renal fascia->pararenal fat->renal pelvis
154.
Nephron is the functional unit of the kidney, the structure that produces urine in the process
of removing waste and excess substances from the blood. Upon filtration in the renal corpuscle,
what is the correct sequence of flow of fluid until it reaches the renal papilla?
a. Distal convoluted tubule->descending limb->ascending limb0->proximal convoluted
tubule->collecting duct
b. Proximal convoluted tubule->loop of Henle->descending limb->distal convoluted tubule>collecting duct
c. Distal convoluted tubule->loop of Henle->descending limb->proximal convoluted tubule>collecting duct
d. Proximal convoluted tubule->descending limb->loop of Henle->distal convoluted tubule
collecting duct
155.
An 18 y/o, intoxicated female was rushed to the ER 16 hours post injury due to blunt
abdominal injury secondary to vehicular crash. After primary and secondary survey, there was
gross bleeding seen from the indwelling foley catheter with high suspicion of urinary tract injury
based on history and presentation. Retrograde pyelogram showed spillage of contrast anterior to
the bladder. What is the space needed to be dissected to visualize the injury?
a. Vesicovaginal space
b. Space of Retzius
c. Rectovesical space
d. Pouch of Douglas
156.
In relation with the previous case in question, all arteries supply the bladder EXCEPT:
a. Inferior vesical artery
b. Vaginal artery
c. Obturator artery
d. Gluteal artery
157.
Dr. Taby So was operating on a patient with a large uterine mass. Upon nearing the end
of the operation, the anesthesiologist called her attention and informed her that there was no urine
output from the patient. She accidentally ligated both the ureters. What anatomical landmarks
would have helped her in identifying the ureters?
a. The left ureter is posterior to the ileocolic vessels and root of mesentery of the small
intestine.
b. The ureters are anterior to the gonadal vessels.
c. The ureters run downward in front of the internal iliac arteries and behind the ovary.
d. The ureters run superior to the uterine arteries, usually approximately 2 cm lateral to the
supravaginal part of the cervix.
158.
The structure that prevents retrograde ejaculation (ejaculatory reflux) of the semen into the
bladder.
a. External urethral sphincter
b. Ureteric orifices
c. Internal urethral orifice
d. Internal urethral sphincter
159.
What happens during parasympathetic stimulation of the bladder (without toilet training)?
Bladder relaxes, internal urethral sphincter relaxes
Bladder contracts, internal urethral sphincter contracts
Bladder relaxes, internal urethral sphincter contracts
Bladder contracts, internal urethral sphincter relaxes
160.
Part of the brain that integrates the autonomic and neuroendocrine systems.
a. Hypothalamus
b. Thalamus
c. Brainstem
d. Pituitary gland
161.
What part of the skull (resembles that of a bat with extended wings) that houses the Sella
turcica.
a. Occipital bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Temporal bone
d. Sphenoid bone
162.
Part of the pituitary gland with strongest secretory activity.
a. Pars intermedia
b. Pars distalis
c. Pars tuberalis
d. Neurohypophysis
163.
True regarding hormones secreted by the pancreas.
a. Beta cells - Insulin
b. Alpha cells - Somatostatin
c. Delta cells - Glucagon
d. All the above
164.
Hormone that is mainly produced by the hypothalamus that regulates electrolyte balance,
blood pressure and kidney function.
a. Angiotensin
b. Antidiuretic hormone
c. Erythropoietin
d. Renin
165.
All are true regarding thyroid EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The thyroid lies deep to the neck muscles.
It is located anterolateral to the larynx and trachea.
The thyroid is approximately at the level of C4-C6.
During physical examination, it moves with deglutition.
166.
Which venous drainage of the thyroid anastomoses with one another before joining their
respective drainage?
a. Superior thyroid vein
b. Brachiocephalic vein
c. Inferior thyroid vein
d. Middle thyroid vein
167.
A patient with an acute abdomen underwent laparotomy. During the operation, he was
diagnosed with necrotizing pancreatitis. The pancreas was barely recognizable with all the necrotic
tissue. The surgeon decided to put drains as management. How would you identify the pancreas
using the anatomical relationship of the adjacent or nearby organs or structures?
a. The neck of the pancreas is enveloped inside the peritoneum, and is adjacent to the pylorus
of the stomach
b. The tail of the pancreas lies anterior to the left kidney, where its tip is closely related with
the renal hilum.
c. The head of the pancreas is found to the left of superior mesenteric vessels just inferior to
the transpyloric plane.
d. The body of the pancreas lies to the left of superior mesenteric vessels, passing over the
aorta and L2 vertebra.
168.
During an operation the gastroduodenal artery and superior mesenteric artery were ligated.
What part of the pancreas will be likely affected?
a. Head of the pancreas
b. Body of pancreas
c. Tail of the pancreas
d. None of the above
169.
The tough fibrous outer surface of the testis that thickens into a ridge on its internal,
posterior aspect as the mediastinum of the testis.
a. Tunica albuginea
b. Tunica vaginalis
c. Tunica externa
d. Tunica intima
170.
The hypothalamus sends signals to stimulate the gonadotrophs to produce LH and FSH.
What is the role of LH in males?
a. Testosterone production
b. Regulate oestrogen
c. Sperm production
d. Testosterone inhibition
171.
From right to left, which is the CORRECT order of structures found in between the
suprarenal glands?
a. IVC->right crus of diaphragm->celiac trunk->celiac ganglion->SMA->left crus of diaphragm
b. IVC->right crus of diaphragm->celiac ganglion->celiac trunk->SMA->left crus of diaphragm
c. IVC->right crus of diaphragm->celiac ganglion->SMA->celiac trunk->left crus of diaphragm
d. IVC->right crus of diaphragm->SMA->celiac ganglion->celiac trunk->left crus of diaphragm
172.
The suprarenal medulla secretes this hormone that activates the body to a fight-or-flight
status in response to traumatic stress.
a. glucocorticoids
b. catecholamines
c. mineralocorticoids
d. Androgens
173.
LH and FSH are produced by gonadotropic cells in the anterior pituitary gland regulated by
the hypothalamus. In females, they stimulate the ovaries to produce estrogen and progesterone.
What can result from an increase in levels of progesterone?
a. reproductive organ development
b. fat distribution
c. development of breast
d. Ovulation
174.
The parathyroid hormone stimulates the following actions EXCEPT:
Reabsorption of phosphate in by the kidneys
Release of calcium by bones
Conversion of calcium by the kidneys
Absorption of calcium by the intestines
175.
Which among the following has the correct anatomical structure and location in relation
with the hypothalamus?
a. Anterior – tuber cinereum
b. Inferior – lamina terminalis
c. Superior – base of the third ventricle
d. Posterior – posterior commissure
176.
Cells found in the adenohypophysis EXCEPT:
a. somatotrophs
b. pituicytes
c. gonadotrophs
d. progenitor cells
177.
If both internal carotid arteries will be blocked, which structure/s will be affected?
a. Hypothalamus, Anterior pituitary, and Posterior pituitary
b. Anterior pituitary and Posterior pituitary
c. Anterior Pituitary only
d. Hypothalamus only
178.
Melatonin, which is important in the regulation of circadian rhythm, is produced by the
pineal gland. Melatonin release peaks a. early in the morning.
b. during night-time.
c. after eating.
d. during noon.
179.
What structure correctly bounds the hypophyseal fossa?
a. Inferiorly by the sphenoid sinus
b. Anteriorly by intercavernous sinus
c. Superiorly by the dorsum sellae
d. Laterally by the cavernous sinus
180.
What is the anterolateral boundary of the perineum?
a. Pubic symphysis
b. Ischiopubic rami
c. Ischial tuberosities
d. Sacrotuberous ligaments
181.
It is formed by the right and left ischiopubic rami.
a. Acetabulum
b. Pubic arch
c. Pubic symphysis
d. Pelvic girdle
182.
It is a thin sheet of tough, deep fascia which closes the urogenital triangle.
a. Fascia of the pelvic diaphragm
b. Perineal body
c. Perineal membrane
d. Urethra
183.
The perineal body is the site of convergence and interlacing of fibers of these muscles
EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bulbospongiosus
External anal sphincter
Obturator internus
Superficial transverse perineal muscle
184.
The pudendal canal covers the medial aspect of which muscle?
a. Piriformis
b. Obturator internus
c. Coccygeus
d. Pubococcygeus
185.
A branch of the internal pudendal artery which supplies superficial perineal muscles and
scrotum in males and vestibule of females?
a. External pudendal artery
b. Deep artery of penis
c. Dorsal artery of clitoris
d. Perineal artery
186.
What part of the urethra includes the male external genitalia?
a. Intramural urethra
b. Preprostatic urethra
c. Prostatic urethra
d. Spongy urethra
187.
What branch of the femoral artery supplies the anterior aspect of scrotum and skin at the
root of penis?
a. External pudendal artery
b. Inferior rectal artery
c. Dorsal artery of penis
d. Perineal artery
188.
What is made up of penile erectile tissues?
a. Bulbospongiosus
b. Ischocavernosus
c. Corpora cavernosa
d. Spongy urethra
189.
What is the free pendulous part of the penis?
a. Body
b. Glans
c. Root
d. Urethra
190.
What anchors the erectile bodies of the penis to the symphysis pubis?
a. Buck’s fascia
b. Fundiform ligament of the penis
c. Suspensory ligament of the penis
d. Tunica albuginea
191.
The female superficial perineal pouch includes the following EXCEPT:
a. clitoris
b. greater vestibular gland
c. labia majora
d. superficial transverse perineal muscle
192.
They are prominent folds of skin which contain smooth muscle and the termination of the
round ligament of the uterus.
a. Clitoris
b. Labia majora
c. Labia minora
d. Vestibule of the vagina
193.
What is the distal part of the penis which is formed by the expansion of the corpus
spongiosum?
a. Body of the penis
b. Frenulum of the prepuce
c. Glans penis
d. Root of the penis
194.
The male superficial perineal pouch includes the following EXCEPT:
a. proximal part of the spongy urethra
b. root of the penis
c. scrotum
d. superficial transverse perineal muscle
195.
It is a prolongation of dartos fascia which divides the scrotum into two compartments.
a. Buck’s fascia
b. Scrotal septum
c. Scrotal raphe
d. Tunica albuginea
196.
Mrs. Juana consulted a GYNE clinic due to pain on her vulva. On examination, there was
a 5x5 cm cystic tender mass at the right side of the vestibule of the vagina posterolateral to the
vaginal orifice. What structure is found in that area which also secretes mucus?
a. Clitoris
b. Greater vestibular gland
c. Labia minora
d. Lesser vestibular gland
197.
What is the transverse fold found in younger women especially virgins that connect the
labia minora posteriorly?
a. Clitoris
b. Frenulum of the labia minora
c. Posterior of the labia majora
d. Vestibule of the vagina
198.
What muscle assists in the erection of the penis? It also surrounds the crura in the root of
the penis.
a. Bulbospongiosus
b. Ischiocavernosus
c. Superficial transverse muscle
d. External anal sphincter
199.
These arteries give off branches called the helicine arteries of the penis.
a. Arteries of the bulb of the penis
b. Deep arteries of the penis
c. Dorsal arteries of the penis
d. None of the above
200.
Which statement about the female pelvic organs is INCORRECT?
a. The round ligament of the uterus follows the subperitoneal course of the ductus deferens
of the males.
b. The supravaginal part of the cervix is related to the bladder.
c. The ureters run superior to the uterine arteries.
d. The rectouterine pouch contains loops of the small intestine and anterior wall of the rectum.
201.
Which of the following is/are the primary function/s of the pelvic girdle?
Bears the weight of the upper body
Provides attachment for the powerful muscles of locomotion
Transfers weight from the axial to the lower appendicular skeleton
All of the above
202.
TRUE about the pelvic bones.
a. The preadolescent pelvis is composed of four bones.
b. The internal aspect of the pelvic bones bound the pelvis, forming the lateral walls.
c. Adult pelvic bones are separated and are united by triradiate cartilage.
d. The ischium is the superior, fan shaped part of the pelvis.
203.
What is the concavity between the ischial spine and the ischial tuberosity?
a. Acetabulum
b. Greater sciatic notch
c. Lesser sciatic notch
d. Obturator foramen
204.
TRUE about lesser pelvis.
a. It is between the pelvic inlet and pelvic outlet.
b. It is bounded by the iliac alae posterolaterally.
c. It is occupied by abdominal viscera.
d. It is superior to the pelvic inlet.
205.
It demarcates the body of the uterus from the cervix
a. Myometrium
b. Isthmus
c. Endometrium
d. Cardinal ligament
206.
During a speculum examination, you were asked to describe the vaginal fornix. Which part
is the deepest?
a. Anterior fornix
b. Lateral fornix
c. Posterior fornix
d. Vaginal part of the cervix
207.
Characteristic of a male bony pelvis.
a. Comparatively large pelvic outlet
b. Heart-shaped, narrow pelvic inlet
c. Small acetabulum
d. Shallow greater pelvis
208.
Characteristic/s of a female pelvis include/s:
a. Oval and rounded pelvic inlet
b. Wide pubic arch
c. Small acetabulum
d. All of the above
209.
What is a dynamic barrier separating the lesser pelvis and perineum?
a. Hip bones
b. Pelvic diaphragm
c. Pubic symphysis
d. Sacrum
210.
Which statement about the pelvic cavity is correct?
a. The pelvic cavity is continuous with the abdominal cavity at the pelvic outlet.
b. The pelvic cavity contains the proximal part of the ureters.
a.
b.
c.
d.
c.
d.
211.
a.
b.
c.
d.
212.
a.
b.
c.
d.
213.
a.
b.
c.
d.
214.
a.
b.
c.
d.
215.
a.
b.
c.
d.
216.
a.
b.
c.
d.
217.
a.
b.
c.
d.
218.
a.
b.
c.
d.
219.
a.
b.
c.
d.
220.
The pelvic cavity is a space bounded peripherally by the bony ligamentous, muscular pelvic
walls and floor.
None of the above
Which muscle forms the posterosuperior wall of the pelvis?
Obturator internus
Piriformis
Levator ani
Coccygeus
TRUE about the pelvic diaphragm.
It consists of coccygeus, levator ani, fascia.
It lies within the lesser pelvis.
The components of the pelvic diaphragm form the floor of the pelvic cavity.
All of the above
These are shorter muscular slips of pubococcygeus muscle.
Iliococcygeus
Puboperinealis
Puborectalis
None of the above
What muscle forms a puborectal sling?
Iliococcygeus
Puborectalis
Puboanalis
Puboperinealis
It is created by the peritoneum that reflects onto the superior aspect of the bladder.
Broad ligament
Rectovesical pouch
Supravesical pouch
Vesico-uterine pouch
Which structure/s originate/s from the abdominal aorta?
Ovarian artery
Testicular artery
Both are correct
None of the above
Branch/es of anterior division of internal iliac artery?
Uterine artery
Umbilical artery
Both are correct
None of the above
Branch/es of posterior division of internal iliac artery.
Iliolumbar artery
Lateral sacral artery
Superior gluteal artery
All of the above
What is the main artery of the perineum?
Umbilical artery
Uterine artery
Internal pudendal artery
None of the above
What is the principal artery of the pelvis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
External iliac artery
Internal iliac artery
Femoral artery
None of the above
221.
The female homologue of the inferior vesical artery in males.
a. Uterine artery
b. Vaginal artery
c. Both are correct
d. None of the above
222.
The female homologue of artery to ductus deferens in males.
a. Uterine artery
b. Vaginal artery
c. Both are correct
d. None of the above
223.
TRUE about ductus deferens
a. It begins in the tail of epididymis.
b. It is the primary component of spermatic cord.
c. It penetrates the anterior abdominal wall via the inguinal canal.
d. All of the above
224.
What are the elongated structures that lie between the fundus of the bladder and the rectum
in males that secrete alkaline fluid?
a. Ductus deferens
b. Ejaculatory ducts
c. Spermatic cord
d. Seminal glands
225.
TRUE about the ejaculatory ducts.
a. It is formed by the union of seminal glands and prostate.
b. Prostatic secretions do not mix with seminal fluid until the ejaculatory ducts have
terminated in the prostatic urethra.
c. Both statements are correct.
d. None of the above
226.
What is the approximate measurement of the prostate gland?
a. 5cm long, 5 cm wide, 2cm in anteroposterior
b. 3cm long, 4 cm wide, 2cm in anteroposterior
c. 8cm long, 4cm wide, 2cm in anteroposterior
d. 5cm long, 4cm wide, 2cm anteroposterior
227.
What organ produces 20% of the volume of the semen?
a. Bladder
b. Prostate
c. Seminal glands
d. Testes
228.
The male homologue of female Skene’s gland.
a. Testes
b. Prostate
c. Seminal gland
d. Ductus deferens
229.
The homologue of male testis in female.
a. Ovary
b. Uterus
c. Vagina
d. Vulva
230.
TRUE about ovaries.
a. Ovaries are suspended by mesosalpinx.
b. Ovaries are not endocrine glands.
c. Oocytes are formed in the ovaries.
d. Before puberty the ovarian surface epithelium is scarred and distorted.
231.
It contains the ovarian vessels, lymphatics, nerves that become continuous with the
mesovarium.
a. Broad ligament
b. Cardinal ligament
c. Ovarian ligament
d. Suspensory ligament
232.
What is the remnant of the superior part of the ovarian gubernaculum of the fetus which
connects the proximal end of the ovary to the lateral angle of the uterus?
a. Broad ligament
b. Cardinal ligament
c. Ovarian ligament
d. Suspensory ligament
233.
Which part of the fallopian tube is thick-walled that enters the uterine horn?
a. Ampulla
b. Infundibulum
c. Isthmus
d. Uterine part
234.
The right ovarian vein drains into:
a. Inferior vena cava
b. Left renal vein
c. Right renal vein
d. Right uterine vein
235.
What is the position of the uterus that is tipped anterosuperiorly relative to the axis of the
vagina?
a. Anteverted
b. Anteflexed
c. Retroverted
d. Retroflexed
236.
The rounded part of the body of the uterus that lies superior to the uterine ostia.
a. Fundus of the uterus
b. Isthmus
c. Cervix
d. None of the above
237.
The outer serous layer of the uterus.
a. Endometrium
b. Myometrium
c. Perimetrium
d. None of the above
238.
Which provides passive support of the uterus?
a. Coccygeus
b. Position of the uterus
c. Pubococcygeus
239.
d. Puborectalis
Function/s of the vagina.
a. Forms the inferior part of the birth canal
b. Receives the penis
c. Serves as a canal for menstrual fluid
d. All of the above
240.
Of the 33 vertebrae, how many are movable?
27
33
24
30
241.
Each IV disc consists of an anulus fibrosus, an outer fibrous part, composed of concentric
lamellae of ________
a. Gelatinous central mass
b. Fibrocartilage
c. Hyaline cartilage
d. Pulp
242.
In aggregate, the discs account for ______% of the length (height) of the vertebral column
.
a. 20-25
b. 15-20
c. 10-15
d. 5-10
243.
Where is/are the primary curve/s of the spine located?
a. Thoracic only
b. Cervical & lumbar
c. Lumbar only
d. Thoracic & sacral
244.
A typical vertebra possesses the following structures EXCEPT
a. Vertebral body
b. Foramen
c. Process
d. Vertebral arch
245.
The size of the vertebral bodies increases as the column descends as each bears
progressively greater body weight. Where does this marked increase begin?
a. T5
b. T2
c. T4
d. C7
246.
Complete the statement: _______ are short, stout cylindrical processes that project
posteriorly from the vertebral body to meet two broad, flat plates of bone, called _______, which
unite in the midline.
a. Pedicles-lateral masses
b. Pedicles-laminae
c. Laminae-pedicles
d. Laminae-spinous processes
247.
This structure differentiates the cervical vertebrae from the other regions.
a. Transverse process
a.
b.
c.
d.
b. Transverse foramen
c. Intervertebral foramen
d. Uncinate process
248.
What is/are the primary characteristic feature/s of thoracic vertebrae?
a. Heart-shaped body
b. Wide verterbral foramen
c. Bifid spinous processes
d. Costal facets
249.
What is the largest of all movable vertebrae, distinguished by its massive body and
transverse processes?
a. L2
b. L5
c. S1
d. T12
250.
What is responsible for the triangular shape of the sacrum?
a. Rapid decrease in the size of the lateral masses during development
b. Late ossification of the 5 sacral segments
c. Sacralization of the L5 vertebra
d. None of the above
251.
It contains the bundle of spinal nerve roots arising inferior to the L1 vertebra, known as the
cauda equina.
a. Sacral canal
b. Vertebral canal
c. Vertebral foramen
d. Sacral foramina
252.
The coccyx is a remnant of the skeleton of the embryonic tail-like caudal eminence which
is present in human embryos. Which period of development can it be seen?
a. End of the 5th week until the beginning of the 8th week
b. Beginning of the 5th week until the beginning of the 8th week
c. End of the 4th week until the beginning of the 8th week
d. Beginning of the 4th week until the end of the 8th week
253.
These group includes muscles that specifically act on the vertebral column, producing its
movements and maintaining posture.
a. Deep
b. Intrinsic
c. Superficial
d. Extrinsic
254.
Which nerve/s innervate/s both serratus posterior muscles?
Intercostal nerves
Phrenic nerve
Accessory nerve
Vagus nerve
255.
TRUE OR FALSE: Although the cervical IV discs are thinner than those of inferior regions,
they are relatively thick compared to the size of the vertebral bodies they connect.
256.
*
257.
1/1
258.
True
a.
b.
c.
d.
259.
260.
False
261.
262.
The tubercles provide attachment for a laterally placed group of cervical muscles. Identify
these muscles.
263.
*
264.
1/1
265.
Levator scapulae and scalenes
266.
267.
Serratus anterior and posterior
268.
Splenius capitis and cervicis
269.
Semispinalis
270.
271.
It is the most prominent spinous process in 70% of people.
272.
*
273.
1/1
274.
C6
275.
T1
276.
C5
277.
C7
278.
279.
280.
TRUE OR FALSE: Vertebral arteries and accompanying venous and sympathetic plexuses
pass through foramina transversarii of all cervical vertebrae except C7, which transmits only small
accessory vertebral veins.
281.
*
282.
1/1
283.
True
284.
285.
False
286.
287.
Identify the region being described: The transverse processes project somewhat
posterosuperiorly as well as laterally. On the posterior surface of the base of each transverse
process is a small accessory process, which provides an attachment for the intertransversarii.
288.
*
289.
1/1
290.
Sacral
291.
Thoracic
292.
Cervical
293.
Lumbar
294.
295.
Skull/Temporal Region/Neck
296.
44 of 60 points
297.
298.
What is the ONLY unpaired triangle in the neck?
299.
*
300.
1/1
301.
Submental
302.
303.
Carotid
304.
Digastric
305.
Muscular
306.
307.
An 18 y/o male was stabbed in the neck and was hit in front of the right
sternocleidomastoid, below the hyoid bone, above the superior omohyoid. What is the triangle
involved?
308.
*
309.
0/1
310.
Muscular
311.
Digastric
312.
Submental
313.
Carotid
314.
315.
Correct answer
316.
Muscular
317.
318.
What thyroid veins drain into the Internal jugular vein?
319.
*
320.
1/1
321.
Middle and Inferior
322.
Superior, Middle and Inferior
323.
Superior and Inferior
324.
Superior and Middle
325.
326.
327.
Post – operatively after thyroidectomy procedure, your patient presents with hoarseness
that results from an inability to abduct or adduct the right vocal cord. The patient is able to swallow
normally, and the palate elevates symmetrically during testing of the gag reflex. A complete lesion
of which of the following nerves might account for the patient’s symptoms?
328.
*
329.
0/1
330.
Recurrent laryngeal
331.
Glossopharyngeal
332.
Superior laryngeal
333.
Vagus
334.
335.
Correct answer
336.
Recurrent laryngeal
337.
338.
A child was diagnosed to have Congenital Torticollis involving the right
Sternocleidomastoid muscle. Which of the following describes the most likely anatomical change?
339.
*
340.
1/1
341.
Head rotated to the left
342.
343.
Head rotated to the right
344.
Head flexed forward in the midline
345.
Head extended in the midline
346.
347.
What is the correct relationships of the structures within the carotid sheath?
348.
*
349.
1/1
350.
Vein – Medial, Artery – Lateral, Nerve – Anterior
351.
Vein – Lateral, Artery – Medial, Nerve – Posterior
352.
353.
Vein – Medial, Artery – Lateral, Nerve – Posterior
354.
Vein – Lateral, Artery – Medial, Nerve – Anterior
355.
356.
When surgery is performed below the isthmus of the thyroid gland. Which of the following
vessels may be encountered by the surgeon?
357.
*
358.
0/1
359.
Inferior thyroid vein
360.
Middle thyroid vein
361.
Inferior thyroid artery
362.
All of the choices are correct
363.
364.
Correct answer
365.
Inferior thyroid vein
366.
367.
Which cranial nerve descends through the neck in the carotid sheath?
368.
*
369.
1/1
370.
Vagus
371.
372.
Spinal accessory
373.
Glossopharyngeal
374.
Hypoglossal
375.
376.
A patient was seen at the emergency room because of severe chest pain. Past medical
history revealed a dental abscess that the patient ignored for two weeks. The doctor suspected that
the infection spread to the mediastinum causing the symptoms in this patient most likely through
which pathway?
377.
*
378.
1/1
379.
All of the choices are correct
380.
Retropharyngeal space
381.
382.
Pretracheal space
383.
Suprasternal space
384.
385.
What laryngeal muscle acts as the chief tensor of the vocal cords?
386.
*
387.
1/1
388.
Lateral cricoarytenoid
389.
Transverse arytenoid
390.
Cricothyroid
391.
392.
Posterior cricoarytenoid
393.
394.
A laceration was noted in the anterolateral aspect of the patient’s neck. The wound was
superficial and the muscle fibers located just beneath the subcutaneous tissue. Which muscle is
most likely injured?
395.
*
396.
0/1
397.
Platysma
398.
Omohyoid
399.
Trapezius
400.
Sternocleidomastoid
401.
402.
Correct answer
403.
Platysma
404.
405.
The Hyoid bone is approximately at what level of the cervical vertebrae?
406.
*
407.
1/1
408.
C6
409.
C5
410.
C3
411.
412.
C1
413.
414.
The Mylohyoid muscles forms the floor of what triangles of the neck?
415.
*
416.
1/1
417.
Submental and Digastric
418.
419.
Submental and Carotid
420.
Submental and Muscular
421.
Carotid and Muscular
422.
423.
424.
425.
426.
427.
428.
429.
430.
431.
432.
433.
434.
435.
436.
437.
438.
439.
440.
441.
442.
443.
444.
445.
446.
447.
448.
449.
450.
451.
452.
453.
454.
455.
456.
457.
458.
459.
460.
461.
462.
463.
464.
465.
466.
467.
468.
rings
The Ansa cervicalis C1 C2 C3 supplies the Infrahyoid group of muscles EXCEPT which?
*
0/1
Sternothyroid
Sternohyoid
Thyrohyoid
Omohyoid
Correct answer
Thyrohyoid
Which of the following nervous structures are seen in the posterior triangle of the neck?
*
0/1
Spinal Accessory
Trunks of the brachial plexus
Cutaneous branches of the cervical nerves
All of the choices are correct
Correct answer
All of the choices are correct
What muscle divides the posterior triangle into two triangles?
*
1/1
Posterior belly of Digastric
Superior belly of Omohyoid
Anterior belly of Digastric
Inferior belly of Omohyoid
If present, the pyramidal lobe of the thyroid gland projects upward from the:
*
1/1
Left lobe
Isthmus to the left of the midline
Isthmus to the right of the midline
Right lobe
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the anatomy of the thyroid gland?
*
1/1
It is covered by the Pretracheal layer of the deep cervical fascia
The isthmus connecting the right and left lobes is located at the fourth and fifth tracheal
469.
The pyramidal lobe is connected to the hyoid by means of a fibrous muscular band called
as thyroidea ima
470.
All of the choices are correct
471.
472.
The thyrocervical trunk supplying the thyroid gland originates from what blood vessel?
473.
*
474.
1/1
475.
Second part of Subclavian
476.
First part of the Brachiocephalic trunk
477.
First part of Subclavian
478.
479.
Second part of the Brachiocephalic trunk
480.
481.
An incision at the thyrohyoid membrane may cause laceration of a nerve that could present
with what type of symptoms?
482.
*
483.
0/1
484.
Loss of sensation above the vocal cords
485.
Mild hoarseness
486.
Inability to tense the vocal cords
487.
All of the choices are correct
488.
489.
Correct answer
490.
Loss of sensation above the vocal cords
491.
492.
In Bell’s palsy, corneal inflammation and ulceration results from which of the following
conditions?
493.
*
494.
1/1
495.
Sensory loss of the cornea and conjunctiva
496.
Inability to constrict the pupil
497.
Absence of the corneal blink reflex
498.
499.
Lack of secretion of the parotid gland
500.
501.
Which of the following will NOT be affected in Cavernous sinus thrombosis?
502.
*
503.
0/1
504.
Lacrimal gland secretions
505.
Sensation in the skin of the forehead
506.
507.
The ability to elevate the upper eyelid
508.
The ability to abduct the eye
509.
Correct answer
510.
Lacrimal gland secretions
511.
512.
Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is because of involvement of what structure?
513.
*
514.
1/1
515.
Tensor tympani muscle
516.
Stapedius muscle
517.
518.
Cochlear nerve
519.
Tympanic membrane
520.
521.
Laceration of the main trunk of the Facial nerve in surgical removal of a malignant parotid
tumor would cause paralysis of which of the following muscles?
522.
*
523.
0/1
524.
Anterior belly of the Digastric
525.
Masseter
526.
527.
Buccinator
528.
Tensor tympani
529.
Correct answer
530.
Buccinator
531.
532.
Inability to close the lips is due to paralysis of what muscle of the face?
533.
*
534.
1/1
535.
Orbicularis oris
536.
537.
Levator labii superioris
538.
Zygomaticus
539.
Depressor labii inferioris
540.
541.
A 30 y/o patient has dryness of the corneal surface of his eye because of lack of tears.
Which of the following nerves may be damaged?
542.
*
543.
0/1
544.
Zygomatic branch of facial
545.
546.
Greater petrosal
547.
Lesser petrosal
548.
Temporal branch of facial
549.
Correct answer
550.
Greater petrosal
551.
552.
Trumpeter’s muscle is the common name of what muscle of facial expression?
553.
*
554.
1/1
555.
Temporalis
556.
Masseter
557.
Zygomaticus
558.
Buccinator
559.
560.
561.
The skin on the side of the nose is supplied by what nerve?
562.
*
563.
0/1
564.
Ophthalmic of Trigeminal
565.
566.
Buccal of Facial
567.
Zygomatic of Facial
568.
Maxillary of Trigeminal
569.
Correct answer
570.
Maxillary of Trigeminal
571.
572.
Inability to open the jaw is because of paralysis of which of the following muscles?
573.
*
574.
1/1
575.
Masseter
576.
Lateral pterygoid
577.
578.
Medial pterygoid
579.
All of the choices are correct
580.
581.
Where is the dangerous area of the face?
582.
*
583.
1/1
584.
Root of the nose and two angles of the mouth
585.
586.
Tip of the nose and two angles of the jaw
587.
Tip of the nose and two angles of the mouth
588.
Root of the nose and two angles of the jaw
589.
590.
Which of the following is correct regarding the anatomy of the parotid gland?
591.
*
592.
0/1
593.
It is enclosed by an outer dense fibrous capsule derived from the investing layer of the
deep cervical fascia
594.
595.
It is innervated by parasympathetic secretomotor fibers of the glossopharyngeal nerve
596.
It has a duct that crosses the masseter, pierces the buccinator muscle and opens into the
vestibule of the mouth
597.
All of the choices are correct
598.
Correct answer
599.
All of the choices are correct
600.
601.
Which part of the maxillary artery is seen at the pterygopalatine fossa?
602.
*
603.
0/1
604.
First
605.
606.
Second
607.
Third
608.
Fourth
609.
Correct answer
610.
Third
611.
612.
Which among the muscles of mastication originates from the zygomatic arch, inserts into
the ramus of the mandible and acts as elevator of the mandible?
613.
*
614.
1/1
615.
Temporalis
616.
Masseter
617.
618.
Lateral pterygoid
619.
Medial pterygoid
620.
621.
The Stensen’s duct opens into the vestibule of the mouth opposite what tooth?
622.
*
623.
1/1
624.
Second lower molar
625.
Third lower molar
626.
Third upper molar
627.
Second upper molar
628.
629.
630.
The middle meningeal artery originates from what branch of the external carotid artery?
631.
*
632.
1/1
633.
Superficial temporal
634.
Posterior auricular
635.
Maxillary
636.
637.
Facial
638.
639.
The temporomandibular ligament mainly prevents _________ displacement of the
mandible:
640.
*
641.
1/1
642.
Medial
643.
Posterior
644.
645.
Anterior
646.
Superior
647.
648.
The arrangement of structures coursing within the parotid gland from the most superficial
to the deepest?
649.
*
650.
0/1
651.
Retromandibular vein, External carotid artery, Facial nerve, Auriculotemporal nerve
652.
Retromandibular vein, Facial nerve, External carotid artery, Auriculotemporal nerve
653.
Facial nerve, Retromandibular vein, External carotid artery, Auriculotemporal nerve
654.
Facial nerve, External carotid artery, Retromandibular vein, Auriculotemporal nerve
655.
656.
Correct answer
657.
Facial nerve, Retromandibular vein, External carotid artery, Auriculotemporal nerve
658.
659.
What is the terminal branch of the Facial artery that supplies the side of the nose and
medial canthus of the eye?
660.
*
661.
1/1
662.
Angular
663.
664.
Infratrochlear
665.
Infraorbital
666.
Lacrimal
667.
668.
The motor nerve supply of the muscles of mastication is derived specifically from what part
of Trigeminal nerve?
669.
*
670.
1/1
671.
Posterior division of maxillary
672.
Posterior division of mandibular
673.
Anterior division of mandibular
674.
675.
Anterior division of maxillary
676.
677.
What vein serves as the communication between the superficial veins of the face and the
cavernous sinus?
678.
*
679.
1/1
680.
Infraorbital
681.
Supraorbital
682.
Angular
683.
Ophthalmic
684.
685.
686.
Bleeding as a result of tearing of the superior cerebral veins at the superior sagittal sinus
is seen at what meningeal space?
687.
*
688.
1/1
689.
Subdural
690.
691.
Subarachnoid
692.
Epidural
693.
Extradural
694.
695.
What marks the separation of the middle and posterior cranial fossae?
696.
*
697.
1/1
698.
Lesser wing of Sphenoid
699.
Petrous part of Temporal
700.
701.
Squamous part of Temporal
702.
Greater wing of Sphenoid
703.
704.
In a collision between 2 buses along the highway, one of the passengers was brought to
the ER unconscious with blood and clear fluid oozing from the ear. Neurological examination shows
involvement of cranial nerve VII and VIII. What bone is the most likely site of fracture?
705.
*
706.
1/1
707.
Nasal
708.
Sphenoid
709.
Ethmoid
710.
Temporal
711.
712.
713.
A 3 y/o boy with abscess of the scalp developed seizures and was diagnosed to have
meningitis. The bridge or vein crossed by bacteria from the loose connective tissue of the scalp to
the meninges is:
714.
*
715.
1/1
716.
Superficial temporal
717.
Supraorbital
718.
Emissary
719.
720.
Superior sagittal sinus
721.
722.
Bleeding as a result of aneurysm of the blood vessels of the Circle of Willis is seen at what
meningeal space?
723.
*
724.
1/1
725.
Epidural
726.
Subarachnoid
727.
728.
Subdural
729.
Extradural
730.
731.
A 25 y/o male was brought to the ER after he was thrown off his motorcycle. CT scan
revealed right temporal bone fracture and epidural hematoma. What vessel was most likely
ruptured?
732.
*
733.
1/1
734.
Posterior auricular
735.
Superficial temporal
736.
Internal carotid
737.
Middle meningeal
738.
739.
740.
What nerve may be affected if there is a tumor compressing the foramen rotundum?
741.
*
742.
1/1
743.
Mandibular
744.
Maxillary
745.
746.
Facial
747.
Ophthalmic
748.
749.
Which of the following nerves innervates the skin of the face and scalp?
750.
*
751.
0/1
752.
Zygomaticofacial
753.
754.
Zygomaticotemporal
755.
Infraorbital
756.
Infratrochlear
757.
Correct answer
758.
Zygomaticotemporal
759.
760.
Which of the following openings of the skull is located at the middle cranial fossa?
761.
*
762.
0/1
763.
Optic canal
764.
765.
Jugular foramen
766.
Internal acoustic meatus
767.
Foramen spinosum
768.
Correct answer
769.
Foramen spinosum
770.
771.
What structure passes through the foramen ovale?
772.
*
773.
1/1
774.
Middle meningeal artery
775.
Maxillary nerve
776.
Internal carotid artery
777.
Mandibular nerve
778.
779.
780.
A patient comes to the emergency with acute onset of paralysis of the right face and right
upper limbs. If this is a case of stroke, where is the likeliest site of occlusion?
781.
*
782.
1/1
783.
Left middle cerebral artery
784.
785.
Right middle cerebral artery
786.
Left anterior cerebral artery
787.
Right anterior cerebral artery
788.
789.
Ophthalmic artery is a branch of which part of the internal carotid artery?
790.
*
791.
1/1
792.
Cerebral
793.
794.
Cavernous
795.
Petrous
796.
Cervical
797.
798.
The Common carotid artery bifurcates into the External and Internal carotid arteries at what
vertebral level?
799.
*
800.
1/1
801.
C4
802.
803.
C3
804.
C5
805.
C6
806.
807.
The great cerebral vein of Galen drains immediately into what sinus?
808.
*
809.
1/1
810.
Sigmoid
811.
Cavernous
812.
Transverse
813.
Straight
814.
815.
816.
The Oculomotor nerve passes between which two arteries at the base of the brain and may
be affected by an aneurysm of either of these arteries?
817.
*
818.
1/1
819.
Middle cerebral and anterior cerebral
820.
Anterior cerebral and anterior communicating
821.
Posterior communicating and posterior cerebral
822.
823.
Basilar and vertebral
824.
825.
What dural venous sinus lies in the convex attached border of the falx cerebri?
826.
*
827.
1/1
828.
Inferior sagittal
829.
Superior sagittal
830.
831.
Transverse
832.
Straight
833.
834.
What areas of the brain are supplied by the anterior cerebral artery?
835.
*
836.
1/1
837.
Medial portion of the frontal and parietal lobes
838.
839.
Occipital and inferomedial portion of the temporal lobes
840.
All of the choices are correct
841.
Lateral portions of the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes
842.
843.
Within the cavernous sinus, what nerves are located on its lateral wall?
844.
*
845.
1/1
846.
Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens, Ophthalmic
847.
Oculomotor, Abducens, Ophthalmic, Maxillary
848.
Oculomotor, Trochlear, Ophthalmic, Maxillary
849.
850.
Trochlear, Abducens, Ophthalmic, Maxillary
851.
852.
In laceration of the middle meningeal arteries at pterion, the bleeding is seen at what
meningeal space?
853.
*
854.
1/1
855.
Between skull bone and dura mater
856.
857.
Within the brain parenchyma
858.
Between arachnoid and pia
859.
Between dura and arachnoid
860.
861.
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery originates from what blood vessel?
862.
*
863.
1/1
864.
Internal carotid
865.
Posterior cerebral
866.
Vertebral
867.
868.
Basilar
869.
Root of the Neck
870.
20 of 20 points
871.
872.
This muscle in NOT included in the anterior vertebral muscles of the neck.
873.
*
874.
1/1
875.
Rectus capitis lateralis
876.
877.
Longus capitis
878.
Longus colli
879.
Rectus capitis anterior
880.
881.
This muscle flexes neck with rotation to opposite side if acting unilaterally.
882.
*
883.
1/1
884.
Longus colli
885.
886.
Anterior scalene
887.
Rectus capitis anterior
888.
Longus capitis
889.
890.
This prevertebral muscle in innervated by C4-C6 spinal nerves.
891.
*
892.
1/1
893.
Middle scalene
894.
Longus capitis
895.
Anterior scalene
896.
897.
Splenius capitis
898.
899.
The superior attachment of this muscle is at the jugular process of occipital bone.
900.
*
901.
1/1
902.
Rectus capitis anterior
903.
Levator scapulae
904.
Rectus capitis lateralis
905.
906.
Longus capitis
907.
908.
The following statements are TRUE about the Root of the Neck EXCEPT:
909.
*
910.
1/1
911.
It is bounded posteriorly by the body of C7 vertebra
912.
913.
It is bounded inferiorly by the superior thoracic aperture
914.
It is the junctional area between the thorax and the neck
915.
It is located in the cervical side of the superior thoracic aperture
916.
917.
TRUE about Left subclavian artery:
918.
*
919.
1/1
920.
It is about 1cm distal to the left common carotid artery.
921.
922.
The artery course anterior to the left SC joint
923.
The left vagus nerve runs parallel to the 2nd part of the artery
924.
It arises from the brachiocephalic trunk
925.
926.
The subclavian arteries arch superolaterally, reaching an apex as they pass posterior to
this muscle:
927.
*
928.
1/1
929.
Longus colli
930.
Longus capitis
931.
Anterior scalene
932.
933.
Middle scalene
934.
935.
When the subclavian arteries cross the margin of the first ribs, they become:
936.
*
937.
1/1
938.
Axillary artery
939.
940.
Vertebral artery
941.
Internal thoracic artery
942.
Dorsal scapular artery
943.
944.
The cervical part of the vertebral artery ascends in the pyramidal space formed between
the following prevertebral muscles EXCEPT:
945.
*
946.
1/1
947.
Splenius capitis
948.
949.
Longus capitis
950.
Anterior scalene
951.
Longus colli
952.
953.
This part of the vertebral artery courses in a groove on the posterior arch of the atlas before
it enters the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum.
954.
*
955.
1/1
956.
Cranial part
957.
Suboccipital part
958.
959.
Cervical part
960.
Vertebral part
961.
962.
Which statements are TRUE about Internal thoracic artery:
963.
*
964.
1/1
965.
It arises from the anteroinferior aspect of the SC artery
966.
967.
It passes posterolaterally into the thorax
968.
It arises from the 2nd part of the subclavian artery
969.
Its thoracic part has no branches
970.
971.
The largest branch of the thyrocervical trunk.
972.
*
973.
1/1
974.
Ascending cervical
975.
Inferior thyroid
976.
977.
Suprascapular
978.
Transverse cervical
979.
980.
The following statements are TRUE about costocervical trunk EXCEPT:
981.
*
982.
1/1
983.
It passes posterosuperiorly on both sides
984.
It arises posterior to the anterior scalene on the right side
985.
It arises medial to the anterior scalene on the left side
986.
It arises from the anterior aspect of the first part of SCA
987.
988.
989.
This is a branch of costocervical trunk that supplies the first two intercostal spaces:
990.
*
991.
1/1
992.
Deep cervical
993.
Superficial cervical
994.
Superior intercostal
995.
996.
Inferior intercostal
997.
998.
Three pairs of major nerves in the root of the neck are EXCEPT:
999.
*
1000.
1/1
1001.
Vagus nerves
1002.
Recurrent laryngeal nerves
1003.
1004.
Phrenic nerves
1005.
Sympathetic trunks
1006.
1007.
This statement is FALSE regarding the subclavian vein.
1008.
*
1009.
1/1
1010.
It is separated from the SCA by the Anterior scalene
1011.
It passes anterior to the scalene tubercle
1012.
It begins at the lateral border of the 2nd rib
1013.
1014.
It is the continuation of the axillary vein
1015.
1016.
The IJV ends posterior to the medial end of the clavicle by uniting with the subclavian vein
to form the:
1017.
*
1018.
1/1
1019.
Deep cervical vein
1020.
Anterior Jugular vein
1021.
External Jugular vein
1022.
Brachiocephalic vein
1023.
1024.
1025.
The right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops inferior to the subclavian artery approximately at
what vertebral level?
1026.
*
1027.
1/1
1028.
T2-T3
1029.
T4-T5
1030.
T5-T6
1031.
T1-T2
1032.
1033.
1034.
Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx EXCEPT:
1035.
*
1036.
1/1
1037.
Thyrohyoid
1038.
Stylohyoid
1039.
Cricothyroid
1040.
1041.
Sternohyoid
1042.
1043.
This cervical ganglion fuses with the first thoracic ganglion to form the large cervicothoracic
ganglion:
1044.
*
1045.
1/1
1046.
Inferior
1047.
1048.
Middle
1049.
Stellate
1050.
Superior
1051.
End of Midterms.
1052.
0 of 0 points
1053.
This form was created inside of Batangas State University.
1054.
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1055.