Download Pharmacology Exam for Grade 2007 Oversea Students (A)

Shandong University School of Medicine
Year 2010 -2011 Semester 1
2010, July
Test Paper of Pharmacology 2 (A)
No.
Part Ⅰ
Part Ⅱ
Part Ⅲ
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Points
Part Ⅰ
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Part ⅠChoice questions (only one answer is correct)（50 points）
1. Chlorpromazine can be used for
A. hypertension
B. hypothermic anesthesia
C. epilepsy
D. coma
E. coronary heart disease
2. Morphine can be used in treatment of patients with
A. cardiac asthma
B. headache
C. serious simple diarrhea
D. pain caused by inflammation
E. cardiac infarction and normal blood pressure
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3. Aspirin can induce all of the following effect EXCEPT
A. reducing fever
B. reducing prostaglandin synthesis in inflamed tissue
C. stimulating respiratory when taken in toxic dosage
D. inducing tendancy to bleeding
E. reducing leukotrienes
4. The effects of NSAIDs are mainly due to inhibiting
A. 5-lipoxygenae
B. peroxidase
C. cyclooxygenase
D. phospholipase A2
E. TXA2 synthetase
5. The main mechanism of antipsychiatric action of chlorpromazine relies in
A. blocking DA receptors in the nigra-striatum system.
B. blocking DA receptors in the midbrain limbic system.
C. blocking central M-receptors.
D. blocking α-receptors in the ascending activating system of the reticular formation.
E. blocking DA receptors in the hypothalamas.
6. Which of the following statements about aspirin is incorrect?
A. its analgesia is due to the inhibition of PG synthesis
B. it is mainly used to relieve headache and other dull pain
C. its main adverse effect is GI reaction
D. it can inhibit lipoxidase
E. it inhibits the synthesis of both PGI2 and TXA2
7. Chlorpromazine can cause dry mouth due to its
A. central depression
B. blocking M-receptor
C. blocking α-receptor
D. blocking DA receptor
E. stimulating CTZ
8. Morphine can’t produce
A. nausea and vomiting
B. euphoria
C. dizziness
D. respiratory depression
E. mydriasis
9. Which of the following drugs is ineffective in the treatment of rheumatic arthritis?
A. aspirin
B. phenylbutazone
C. sodium salicylate
D. acetaminophen
E. indomethacin
10. Which of the following drugs is an inducer of hepatic microsomal enzymes
A. cimitidine
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B. propranolol
C. quinidine
D. phenytoin
E. codeine
11. Opioids-induced analgesia is due to
A. inhibit opioid receptors
B. stimulate opioid receptors
C. release substance-P
D. release endorphin
E. inhibit the synthesis of PG
12. Which of the following analgesic drugs can be used for artificial hibernation
A. pethidine
B. morphine
C. anadol
D. methadone
E. fentanyl
13. Which of the following isn’t the adverse effect resulting from the administration of an opioid analgesia
A. urinary retention
B. nausea and vomiting
C. diarrhea
D. addiction
E. constriction of bronchial smooth muscle
14. Chlorpromazine can reverse the action of boosting blood pressure of adrenaline because
A. it blocks the M receptors
B. it blocks theβ-receptors
C. it blocks the α-receptors
D. it stimulates the β2-receptors
E. it stimulates the DA receptors
15. Which of the following drugs can be used in treating intractable hiccup?
A. diazepam
B. chloral hydrate
C. Phenobarbital
D. chlorpromazine
E. promethazine
16. Which one of the following statements about heparin is true?
A. Mild anticoagulative effect
B. Slow onset of effect
C. No anticoagulative effect in vitro
D. Possessing anticoagulative effect both in vitro and in vivo
E. It can be administrated orally
17. Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for the anticoagulant effect of heparin?
A. enhangcing the activity of AT Ⅲ, accelerating the deactivation of clotting factors
B. Interfering with the utilization of Vitamin k and decreasing synthesis of clotting factors
C. Inhibiting the platelet aggregation
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D. Inhibiting the activity of thrombase
E. Antagonizing the effect of thromba
18. The antiplatelet mechanism of aspirin is
A. inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in platelet
B. inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in endothelium
C. promoting synthesis of PGI2 in platelet
D. promoting synthesis of PGI2 in endothelium
E. promoting synthesis of PGE2 in endothelium
19. Vitamin K is a substance to prevent or reduce bleeding caused by
A. heparin
B. aspirin
C. urokinase
D. streptokinase
E. warfarin
20. Which is the best scheme for treatment of pernicious anemia?
A. folic acid orally
B. folic acid injection
C. Vit B12 injection
D. Vit B12 orally
E. Vit B12 plus ferrous sulfate
21. Which of the statements about warfarin is true?
A. it can inhibit the aggregation of platelet
B. it can inactivate coagulant factor Ⅱa, Ⅶa, Ⅸa, Ⅹa
C. it is effective in vivo, not in vitro
D. cimetidine can weaken its anticoagulant effect
E. we can control its effective dose easily
22. Which of the following factors interferes with the absorption of ferrous agents?
A. Gastric acid
B. Vitamin C
C. Strong tea
D. Fructose in foodstuff
E. Cysteine
23. Which of the following drugs can protect gastric mucosa and eliminate helicobacter pylori?
A. Proglumide
B. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate
C. Omeprazole
D. Cimetidine
E. Sucralfate
24. Which one of the following drugs can inhibit H+-K+-ATPase, and decrease the secretion of gastric acid?
A. Ranitidine
B. Pirenzepine
C. Omeprazole
D. Sucralfate
E. Cisapride
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25. Which drug can cause endocrine system effects?
A. Cimetidine
B. Sucralfate
C. Omeprazole
D. Proglumide
E. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate
26. Which drug can prevent or reduce bleeding caused by Streptokinase?
A. Aminomethylbenzoic acid
B. Thrombin
C. Vitamin K
D. Posterior pituitary
E. Protamine sulfate
27. Which one of the following drugs can be used to treat cretinism?
A. Methylthiouracil
B. Propylthiouracil
C. Methimazole
D. Carbimazole
E. Thyroid hormones
28. All of the following statement about glucocorticoids are true except
A. inhibiting both the early and the late manifestation of inflammation
B. affecting all types of inflammatory reactions
C. inhibiting the amount of lymphocyte
D. inhibiting the release of arachidonic acid
E. inhibiting granulation tissue formation
29. The reason for that glucocorticoids used in severe bacterial infection is that
A. they can act as good antimicrobials
B. they are able to enhance the immunity of organisms
C. they possess an anti-inflammatory and antitoxic actions
D. the phagocytic ability of neutrophils can be promoted by these agents
E. they can increase the immunoreactions of the body to bacterium.
30. All of the following drugs can be used in peptic ulcer except
A. Omeprazole
B. Al (OH)3
C. Misoprostol
D. Cimetidine
E. Aspirin
31. The severe adverse reaction of biguanides is
A. hypoglycemia
B. lactic acidosis
C. vomiting
D. blood dyscrasias
E. hepatic impairment
32. Insulin can not be used to treat
A. NIDDM with ketoacidosis
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B. NIDDM with diabetic coma
C. edema
D. patients with schizophrenia
E. IDDM
33. Which of the following statement about cimetidine are NOT TRUE?
A. is a H2 receptor blocker
B. can be used in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
C. can reduce the secretion of gastric acid
D. has no effect on gastroesophageal reflux disorder
E. can cause serious CNS effects when used in elderly patients
34. Transamic acid is
A. a Vitamin K inhibitor
B. a fibrinolytic drug
C. an antiplatelet drug
D. an anticoagulant drug
E. a fibrinolytic inhibitor
35. Which of the statements about thioureas is NOT TRUE?
A. they are used in patients with hyperthyroidism
B. they inhibit synthesis of thyroid hormones
C. they have immunosuppressive effect
D. propylthiouracil (PTU) stimulates T4 to transform to T3
E. they can cause thyroid enlargement when long term used
36. All of the following are indications of glucocorticoids EXCEPT
A. nephrotic syndrome
B. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
C. peptic ulcer
D. infectious-toxic shock
E. acute lymphocytic leukemia
37. Among the following anti-inflammatory mechanisms of glucocorticoids, which one can commonly be
observed ?
A. Increased influx of leukocytes to the site of inflammation
B. Reduced expression of ACEI
C. Reduced capillary permeability and edema at the inflammatory site
D. Increased prostaglandin formation
E. Enhanced formation of pro-inflammatory interleukins
38. Which of the following mechanisms BEST accounts for the anti-thyroid effect of high concentrations of
iodine
A. Inhibiting peroxidase and decreasing the thyroxin synthesis
B. Inhibiting the thyroid hormones release
C. Inhibiting the absorption of iodine
D. Interfering with the utilization of iodine
E. Decomposing the thyroid hormones
39. A 60-year-old diabetic male is treated with insulin plus pioglitazone, what is the mechanism of the
latter?
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A. Increased release of endogenous insulin
B. Decreased plasma glucagon levels
C. Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis
D. Increased target tissue sensitivity to insulin
E. Decreased intestinal absorption of glucose
40. Which of the following hypoglycemic drugs can inhibit α-glycosidase?
A. insulin
B. glyburide
C. pioglitazone
D. acarbose
E. metformin
41. Which of the following statements about antibiotics is TRUE?
A. the cephalosporins inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting β-lactamases
B. tetracyclines inhibit cell wall synthesis
C. quinolones inhibit protein synthesis by interacting with the 30s ribosomal subunit
D. sulfonamides inhibit DNA gyrase of bacteria
E. erythromycin inhibits protein synthesis by interacting with the 50s ribosomal subunit
42. Which of the following drugs is the first choice in treating mycoplasma pneumonia?
A. tetracycline
B. azithromycin
C. gendamycin
D. cefaclor
E. kanamycin
43. Which of the following drugs have no effect on pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
A. third generation cephalosporins
B. tetracycline
C. netilmicin
D. ciprofloxacin
E. carbenicillin
44. Sulfonamides act synergistically with TMP because
A. sulfonamides inhibit the metabolism of TMP
B. TMP inhibit the metabolism of sulfonamides
C. both drugs act at the same step in inhibiting folic acid synthesis
D. both drugs act at different steps in inhibiting folic acid synthesis
E. none of the above
45. Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice for the treatment of osteomyelitis caused by G+
bacteria?
A. penicillin G
B. carbenicillin
C. chloramphenicol
D. clindamycin
E. ciprofloxacin
46. The most serious adverse effect of chloramphenicol is
A. allergic reaction
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B. GI tract reaction
C. aplastic anemia
D. hepatic necrosis
E. renal toxicity
47. Which of the following drugs may cause superinfections?
A. penicillin G
B. streptomycin
C. erythromycin
D. tetracycline
E. neomycin
48. Which of following drugs prevents synthesis of cell-wall, but does not belong to β-lactam antibiotics
A. penicillin G
B. vancomycin
C. carbenicillin
D. cefaclor
E. amoxycillin
49. All of the following antibiotics act by interfering with protein synthesis except
A. tetracycline
B. streptomycin
C. chloramphenicol
D. penicillin G
E. clindamycin
50. Which drug can treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis caused by lincomycin
A. penicillin G
B. carbenicillin
C. chloramphenicol
D. vancomycin
E. ciprofloxacin
Part Ⅱ Please explain the following pharmacological terms（20 points）
1. Post antibiotic effect
deduction
2. Chemotherapeutic index
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deduction
3. Superinfection
deduction
4. Antibacterial spectrum
deduction
5. Antimicrobial activity
deduction
Part Ⅲ Assay questions （30 points）
1. Please describe the pharmacological effects and uses of BDZs.
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deduction
2. Please describe the adverse reactions caused by long-term and large dose uses of
glucocorticoids.
10
deduction
3. Please compare the characteristics of four generations of cephalosporins.
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deduction
Additional Test Paper (only 1 page)
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