Download c) gray matter protrusions found on the pons.

Houston Community College
Anatomy and Physiology
Third Lecture Exam
Chapters 10 through 15
Instructions: Please select the most correct choice and completely fill in the bubble with a #
2 pencil. Each question is worth 1 point.
YOU ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR MAKING SURE YOUR SCANTRON IS TURNED IN.
PLEASE WORK INDEPENDENTLY TO AVOID EXAM MALPRACTICE.
GOOD LUCK!!!!!!
1) Most muscles cross at least one
a) tendon
b) joint
c) bone
d) ligament
e) body plane
2) The attachment of a muscle’s tendon to the stationary bone is called the ______; the attachment of
the muscle’s other tendon to the movable bone is called the ______.
a) origin, action
b) insertion, action
c) origin, insertion
d) insertion, origin
e) insertion, action
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3) A lever is acted on at two different points by two different forces which are called the
a) fulcrum and resistance.
b) leverage and load.
c) lever and resistance.
d) effort and load.
e) lever and effort.
4) Motion will occur in a muscle when the ______ supplied exceeds the _______.
a) effort, load
b) resistance, lever
c) load, effort
d) load, resistance
e) lever, effort
5) Which of the following is NOT a common arrangement of muscle fascicles?
a) pennate
b) triangular
c) oval
d) parallel
e) fusiform
6) This type of fascicle arrangement has the fascicles spread over a broad area and converges at a thick
central tendon.
a) triangular
b) pennate
c) circular
d) fusiform
e) multipennate
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7) The muscle that serves as the “prime mover” during a movement is called the
a) antagonist.
b) agonist.
c) synergist.
d) asynergist.
e) fixator.
8) This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of the agonist so that it can act more efficiently.
a) synergist
b) agonist
c) antagonist
d) fixator
e) secondary mover
9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic commonly used to name skeletal muscles?
a) Size
b) Shape
c) Number of origins
d) Sites of origins
e) Thickness of fibers
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10) In the diagram, where is the fulcrum?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) All of these choices
e) None of these choices
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11) In the diagram, where is the effort?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) All of these choices
e) None of these choices
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12) Which one represents a second-class lever?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) All of these choices
e) None of these choices
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13) Where is the latissimus dorsi?
a) A
b) B
c) F
d) G
e) I
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14) Where is the rectus femoris?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) I
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15) Where is the deltoid?
a) C
b) D
c) F
d) G
e) I
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16) Where is the masseter?
a) A
b) B
c) G
d) I
e) E
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17) Where is the gastrocnemius?
a) C
b) D
c) G
d) H
e) I
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18) Where are the thenar muscles?
a) D
b) E
c) G
d) H
e) None of these answers are correct.
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19) Where is the extensor carpi ulnaris?
a) C
b) D
c) F
d) G
e) H
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20) Where is the soleus?
a) A
b) C
c) E
d) I
e) H
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21) Where is the external oblique?
a) D
b) G
c) H
d) I
e) E
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22) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system?
a) Sensory function
b) Integrative function
c) Motor function
d) All are functions of the nervous system
23) Which of the following are divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
a) Somatic nervous system
b) Autonomic nervous system
c) Enteric nervous system
d) All of these choices
24) The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into
a) somatic and sympathetic divisions.
b) somatic and parasympathetic divisions.
c) enteric and somatic divisions.
d) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
e) voluntary and involuntary divisions.
25) Which of the following types of cells display the property of electrical excitability?
a) Muscle cells
b) Neurons
c) All of these choices
d) None of these choices
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26) Which of following organelles is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons?
a) mitochondria
b) nucleus
c) Nissl body
d) Golgi apparatus
e) nucleolus
27) With respect to neurons, the term “nerve fiber” refers to
a) an axon.
b) a dendrite
c) a Nissl body.
d) both axons and dendrites.
e) all of these choices
28) This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body.
a) Multipolar neuron
b) Bipolar neuron
c) Unipolar neuron
d) Purkinje cell
e) Renshaw cell
29) Schwann’s cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons in the peripheral nervous system
a) when neurons are injured.
b) during fetal development.
c) after birth.
d) only in response to electrical stimulation by neuroglial cells.
e) during the early onset of Alzheimer’s disease.
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30) This type of nervous tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon
terminals, and neuroglial cells.
a) Gray matter
b) White matter
c) Nissl bodies
d) Ganglia
e) Nuclei
31) Which of the following is NOT a type of channel used in production of electrical signals in neurons?
a) Leakage channel
b) Voltage-gated channel
c) Ligand-gated channel
d) Mechanically gated channel
e) Ion-gated channel
32) The resting membrane potential in neurons ranges from:
a) +5 to 100 mV
b) –25 to –70 mV
c) –40 to –90 mV
d) –90 to 5 mV
e) None of these choices
33) A polarized cell
a) has a charge imbalance across its membrane.
b) includes most cells of the body.
c) exhibits a membrane potential.
d) includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential.
e) All of these choices are correct.
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34) Na+/K+–ATPase is considered to be an electrogenic pump because
a) it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential.
b) the sodium ions are negatively charged.
c) it exhibits low permeability.
d) both it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential and the sodium ions are
negatively charged.
e) all of these choices
35) A depolarizing graded potential
a) makes the membrane more polarized.
b) makes the membrane less polarized.
c) is considered a type of action potential.
d) is the last part of an action potential.
e) is seen when the cell approaches threshold.
36) When a depolarizing graded potential makes the axon membrane depolarize to threshold,
a) ligand-gated Ca+2 channels close rapidly.
b) voltage-gated Ca+2 channels open rapidly.
c) ligand-gated Na+ channels close rapidly.
d) voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly.
e) none of these choices occur.
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37) During the resting state of a voltage-gated Na+ channel,
1. the inactivation gate is open.
2. the activation gate is closed.
3. the channel is permeable to Na+.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) both 1 and 2 are true.
e) all of these choices are true.
38) During this period, a second action potential can only be initiated by a larger than normal stimulus
a) Latent period
b) Absolute refractory period
c) Relative refractory period
d) All of these choices
e) None of these choices
39) Saltatory conduction
a) can occur in unmyelinated axons
b) happens due to an even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels
c) encodes only action potentials that are initiated in response to pain.
d) occurs in unmyelinated axons and happens due to even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels
e) occurs only in myelinated axons
40) Which type of axons has the largest diameter?
a) A fibers
b) B fibers
c) C fibers
d) A and B fibers
e) B and C fibers
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41) The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch by
a) saltatory conduction.
b) continuous conduction of graded potentials.
c) changing the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers.
d) propagation action potential in both directions.
e) modifying the length of the refractory period.
42) Which of the three spinal meninges is the most superficial?
a) Arachnoid mater
b) Dura mater
c) Meninx mater
d) Pia mater
e) Epi mater
43) Which of the structures listed below contains cerebrospinal fluid?
a) Epidural space
b) Subarachnoid space
c) Dural space
d) Meninx
e) Pia mater
44) Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of
a) arachnoid mater.
b) pia mater.
c) dura mater.
d) interstitial fluid.
e) subdural space.
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45) What spinal cord feature is the area where the nerves that supply the lower limb emerge?
a) Lumbar enlargement
b) Filum terminale
c) Cauda equina
d) Cranial nerve XII
e) Cervical enlargement
46) Which of the following structures contains only sensory axons that conduct nerve impulses from
sensory receptors in the skin, muscles and internal organs to the CNS?
a) Spinal nerves
b) Cauda equina
c) Anterior root of spinal nerves
d) Posterior root of spinal nerves
e) Conus medullaris
47) Which layer of protective connective tissue is the outermost covering surrounding a spinal nerve?
a) dura mater
b) pia mater
c) endoneurium
d) perineurium
e) epineurium
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48) What types of axons are wrapped in a protective endoneurium?
1. Myelinated
2. Unmyelinated
3. Only dendrites are surrounded by endoneurium
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 and 2
e) None of these choices
49) Spinal nerves
1. Are parts of PNS.
2. connect the CNS to sensors and effectors in all parts of the body.
3. are named according to the region of the cord from which they emerge.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) both 1 & 3
e) 1, 2 & 3
50) This division of a spinal nerve reenters the vertebral cavity through the intervertebral foramen and
serves the vertebrae, vertebral ligaments, blood vessels of the spinal cord, and meninges.
a) Dorsal ramus
b) Ventral ramus
c) Rami communicantes
d) Meningeal branch
e) Brachial plexus
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51) Intercostal nerves
a) are also known as cervical nerves.
b) do not enter into a plexus and directly connect to the structures they supply.
c) are found in the C6-T4 area of the vertebral column.
d) extend through the sacrum.
e) do not exist in humans.
52) A man presents with median nerve palsy in his left hand. What is the most likely site of injury?
a) Dorsal scapular nerve
b) Intercostal nerve
c) Lumbar plexus
d) Median nerve
e) Radial nerve
53) Which region of the spinal cord carries nerve impulses for proprioception?
a) Posterior white column
b) Anterior gray horn
c) Anterior white column
d) Lateral white column
e) Dermatome tract
54) These white matter tracts of the spinal cord carry sensory information.
a) Ascending tracts
b) Descending tracts
c) Integration tracts
d) Columnar tracts
e) Epidural tracts
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55) What type of information is carried in the descending tracts of the spinal cord?
1. Sensory
2. Motor
3. Integration
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 & 2
e) Both 2 & 3
56) Another term for the summing of EPSPs and IPSPs in the gray matter of spinal cord is
a) refraction.
b) facilitation.
c) integration.
d) adaptation.
e) tetany.
57) This type of descending motor pathway conveys nerve impulses that originate in the cerebral cortex
and are destined to cause precise, voluntary movements of skeletal muscles.
a) Indirect pathway
b) Direct pathway
c) Reflex arc
d) Somatic arc
e) Muscle spindle
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58) This type of descending motor pathway originates in the brainstem and governs automatic
movements that help regulate muscle tone, posture and balance.
a) Indirect pathway
b) Direct pathway
c) Reflex arc
d) Somatic arc
e) Muscle spindles
59) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors body conditions?
a) Sensory receptor
b) Integrating center
c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Interneuron
60) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to
respond to a change in the body’s condition?
a) Sensory receptor
b) Sensory neuron
c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Integration center
61) The brain and spinal cord develop from the ______ neural tube.
a) mesodermal
b) endodermal
c) ectodermal
d) cranial
e) caudal
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62) This brain vesicle gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct.
a) Prosencephalon
b) Mesencephalon
c) Rhombencephalon
d) Telencephalon
e) Myelencephalon
63) Which of the following is NOT a major region of the brain?
a) Brain stem
b) Cerebellum
c) Cauda equina
d) Diencephalon
e) Cerebrum
64) Which of the following brain structures consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain?
a) Brain stem
b) Cerebrum
c) Cerebellum
d) Diencephalon
e) Dura mater
65) Which of the following brain structures consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus?
a) Cerebellum
b) Brain stem
c) Cerebrum
d) Diencephalon
e) Dura mater
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66) Which of the following meninges has two layers?
a) Spinal dura mater
b) Cranial dura mater
c) Spinal arachnoid mater
d) Cranial arachnoid mater
e) All of these choices
67) This extension of the dura mater separates the two hemispheres of the cerebrum.
a) Falx cerebri
b) Falx cerebelli
c) Tentorium cerebelli
d) Tentorium cerebri
e) None of these choices
68) The adult brain represents only ____ of the total body weight.
a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 12%
e) 20%
69) This protects the brain by preventing the movement of harmful substances and pathogens from the
blood into the brain tissue.
a) Dura mater
b) Arachnoid mater
c) Cerebrospinal fluid
d) Blood brain barrier
e) All of these choices
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70) Cerebrospinal fluid carries small amounts of chemicals like glucose from the ______ to neurons and
neuroglia.
a) interstitial fluid
b) bile
c) intracellular fluid
d) arachnoid space
e) blood
71) Which of the following is a fluid-filled cavity located in each hemisphere of the cerebrum?
a) Lateral ventricle
b) Septum pellucidum
c) Fourth ventricle
d) Third ventricle
e) Corpus callosum
72) This is a narrow fluid-filled cavity found along the midline superior to the hypothalamus and
between the right and left halves of the thalamus.
a) Lateral ventricle
b) Septum pellucidum
c) Third ventricle
d) Fourth ventricle
e) Fifth ventricle
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73) Which of the following describes a function of cerebrospinal fluid?
1. Mechanical protection
2. pH homeostasis
3. Circulation
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 and 2
e) All of these choices
74) These are networks of capillaries found in the walls of the ventricles of the brain that produce
cerebrospinal fluid.
a) Choroid plexuses
b) Lateral apertures
c) Interventricular foramina
d) Brachial plexuses
e) Aqueduct of the midbrain
75) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed through these fingerlike projections found in the dural venous
sinuses.
a) Choroid plexuses
b) Microvilli
c) Arachnoid villi
d) Dural villi
e) Lemnisci
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76) This is a netlike region of white and gray matter that extends throughout the brainstem and
functions to help maintain consciousness.
a) Cuneate nucleus
b) Gracile nucleus
c) Medial lemniscus
d) Reticular formation
e) Decussation of pyramids
77) This structure in the brain contains centers responsible for the “startle reflex” in response to loud
sounds.
a) Superior colliculus
b) Inferior colliculus
c) Pontine nucleus
d) Medial lemniscus
e) Arbor vitae
78) This region of the brain contains pneumotaxic and apneustic areas that help control respiration.
a) Spinal cord
b) Midbrain
c) Pons
d) Thalamus
e) Cerebellum
79) Pyramids are
a) gray matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata.
b) white matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata.
c) gray matter protrusions found on the pons.
d) white matter protrusions found on the pons.
e) a network of white and gray matter found in the medulla oblongata.
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80) Medullary nuclei are
1. masses of gray matter in the medulla oblongata.
2. masses of white matter in the medulla oblongata.
3. decussations of the pyramids.
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) 3 only.
d) Both 1 and 2.
e) None of these choices.
81) Interoceptors are found in
a) blood vessels
b) visceral organs
c) muscles
d) all of these choices
e) none of these choices
82) Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by
1. increasing activities in effector tissue.
2. decreasing activities in effector tissue.
3. changing the direction of impulse conduction across synapses.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 and 2
e) None of these choices
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83) The autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling
a) exocrine glands.
b) skeletal muscle.
c) cardiac muscle.
d) smooth muscle.
e) endocrine glands.
84) Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
a) Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
b) Has myelinated axons.
c) Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
d) Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
e) Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
85) A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
a) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
b) is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
c) has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
d) has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
e) carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
86) Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
a) Somatic motor neurons
b) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
c) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
d) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
e) Somatosensory neurons.
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87) Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?
a) Ganglia primarily found in the head
b) Stimulates sweat glands
c) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessel walls
d) Short preganglionic neurons
e) Thoracolumbar output
88) Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
a) Long preganglionic neurons
b) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls
c) Vagus nerve output
d) Ganglia found near visceral effectors
e) Sacral spinal cord output
89) Which of the following terms is used to designate an effector that is innervated by both the
parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the ANS?
a) Preganglionic stimulation
b) Biganglion excitation
c) Multi-autonomic output
d) Bipolar innervation
e) Dual innervation
90) Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic prevertebral ganglion?
a) Celiac ganglion
b) Ciliary ganglion
c) Superior mesenteric ganglion
d) Inferior mesenteric ganglion
e) All are prevertebral ganglia
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91) Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic terminal ganglion?
a) Ciliary ganglion
b) Pterygopalatine ganglion
c) Submandibular ganglion
d) Otic ganglion
e) All are parasympathetic terminal ganglia
92) The largest autonomic plexus is called the
a) superior mesenteric plexus.
b) renal plexus.
c) cardiac plexus.
d) celiac plexus.
e) hypogastric plexus.
93) This autonomic plexus is located anterior to the fifth lumbar vertebra and serves the pelvic viscera.
a) Inferior mesenteric plexus
b) Renal plexus
c) Celiac plexus
d) Hypogastric plexus
e) Superior mesenteric plexus
94) These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of
the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk.
a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve
b) Greater splanchnic nerve
c) Inferior cervical ganglion
d) White rami communicantes
e) Gray rami communicantes
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95) These ganglia contain the cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons that serve the
parotid salivary glands.
a) Ciliary ganglia
b) Pterygopalatine ganglia
c) Submandibular ganglia
d) Otic ganglia
e) None of these choices
96) The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
a) nicotine and adrenaline.
b) muscarine and acetylcholine.
c) norepinephrine and muscarine.
d) norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
e) somatostatin and nicotine.
97) Acetylcholine is released by _____________postganglionic neurons and is removed from the
synaptic cleft at a ______ rate than norepinephrine.
a) sympathetic; slower
b) sympathetic; faster
c) parasympathetic; slower
d) parasympathetic; faster
e) both parasympathetic and sympathetic; slower
98) Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?
a) Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors
b) Muscarinic and somatic receptors
c) Adrenergic and somatic receptors
d) Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
e) Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors
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99) Autonomic tone is regulated by the
a) medulla oblongata.
b) cerebellum.
c) cerebrum.
d) vermis.
e) hypothalamus.
100) Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the parasympathetic division of
the ANS?
a) Decreased heart rate
b) Airway dilation
c) Decreased pupil diameter
d) Increased secretion of digestive juices
e) Increased gastric motility
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