Download Exam - McLoon Lab

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Nsci 4100: Development of the Nervous System
2016 Final Examination
On your scantron answer sheet, enter your name (last name, space, first name), internet
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Questions in blue are reused from the first two midterm exams.
Class 2 neuro 101
1. Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes?
A. contribute to the blood-brain-barrier.

B. myelinate axons.
C. insulate synapses.
D. remove neurotransmitter.
E. More than one of the above are not functions of astrocytes.
2. Where are the cell bodies of most neurons that carry somatosensory information and have
axons that synapse in primary somatosensory (S1) cortex?
A. spinal cord
B. medulla

C. thalamus
D. dorsal root ganglia
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 3 & 4 embryology
3. The cerebellum develops …

A. from the rhombic lip.
B. from basal plate.
C. from the mesencephalon (midbrain).
D. ventral to the sulcus limitans.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
4. Imagine that you stably transfected a small group of cells with a
constitutively expressed reporter gene such as green
fluorescent protein (GFP) just off the midline in the posterior
neural plate as indicated in the figure. All cells generated by
division of the transfected cells would carry the GFP gene and
express GFP. Which of the following cell types in the adult do
you think would most likely express GFP?
A. neurons in sensory nuclei of the medulla

B. motor neurons in the spinal cord
C. neurons in dorsal horn of the spinal cord
D. neurons in dorsal root ganglia
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 2
5. Neurons that develop from what region of the neural tube are most likely to have axons in
the peripheral nervous system?
A. alar plate
B. floor plate

C. basal plate
D. roof plate
E. sulcus limitans
6. In the developing central nervous system, all mitosis (M-phase of the cell cycle) takes place
near the ventricle. True or false?
A. true

B. false
Class 5 induction
7. What effect is transplantation of a second notochord to the lateral side of the early neural
tube likely to have?
A. No neural crest cells will develop.
B. More neural crest cells than normal will develop.

C. More motor neurons than normal will develop.
D. An area of the neural tube closest to the transplanted tissue will develop into
mesodermal tissue.
E. An area of the neural tube closest to the transplanted tissue will develop into
epidermis.
8. Incubating dissociated early amphibian animal cap cells in culture with a medium
supplemented with an excess of which of the following proteins is likely to result in the cells
developing into epidermis (skin)?

A. BMP4
B. truncated activin receptor
C. follistatin
D. Sox2
E. More than one of the above are correct.
9. Which of the following is true regarding Spemann’s organizer?
A. It later becomes epidermis.

B. It later becomes axial mesoderm.
C. It induces neural tissue in the underlying endoderm.
D. It only exists in avian embryos.
E. None of the above is correct.
Class 6 & 7 regionalization
10. Which of the following statements is true about the activation-transformation model of
regionalization?
A. In Niewkoop’s experiments in the 50’s, the level of the graft in the host always
determined the regional character of the most rostral neural tissue in the graft.
B. Activation occurs via inhibition of Wnt signaling.
C. Caudalization activity typically comes from the axial mesoderm.

D. Retinoic acid is an example of a caudalizing signal.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 3
11. Which of the following statement is NOT true about retinoic acid (RA) in regionalization?
A. RA binds to specific receptors that bind to DNA and activate transcription.

B. RA is produced from vitamin A, which needs to be supplied via the diet. If you feed a
female mouse with a vitamin A deficient diet during the early gestation period, the
embryos will have an expanded posterior hindbrain at the expense of the anterior
hindbrain.
C. Many Hox genes are directly regulated by the RA receptor.
D. All of the above are true.
E. More than one of the above are NOT true.
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true about dorsal-ventral patterning?
A. Neural crest is derived from the lateral border of the neural plate and contributes to
many cell types including sensory neurons and myelinating cells in the peripheral
nervous system.
B. The roof plate secretes BMPs, which antagonize factor(s) secreted from the floor
plate.
C. The floor plate is a secondary organizer, and its formation requires Sonic hedgehog
produced by the notochord.

D. The alar plate will give rise to neurons that directly innervate skeletal muscles.
E. More than one of the above are NOT true.
13. Which of the following molecules is NOT a BMP inhibitor?
A. noggin
B. follistatin

C. FrzB-1
D. chordin
E. More than one of the above are NOT BMP inhibitors.
Class 8 & 9 cell division
14. Which of the following is NOT true regarding neuroepithelial cells in the early neural tube?
A. During cell division, the cell that does not inherit the newly synthesized centrosome
will typically divide again.
B. A neuroepithelial cell typically has a process extending through the entire thickness
of the neural tube when it enters M-phase.
C. A neuroepithelial cell typically has its nucleus at the apical side of the cell when it
enters M-phase.

D. Adherens junctions adhere most neuroepithelial cells to the pial surface.
E. More than one of the above are NOT true.
15. In the early neural tube, a basal lamina is present …
A. on the ventricular surface of the tube.

B. on the pial surface of the tube.
C. between neuroepithelial cells in the ventral neural tube.
D. between neuroepithelial cells in the dorsal neural tube.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 4
16. If you want to label cells that become postmitotic in the embryonic day 12 (E12) rat cortex,
you could inject a pregnant rat when its embryos are at E12 with ________ . After the rats
are born, you could identify the labeled cells in their cortex histologically. (Fill in the blank.)
A. radioactive thymidine
B. Ki67
C. bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU)
D. nestin
A/C E. More than one of the above are correct.
17. Neurogenic cell divisions are required for the exponential expansion of the cell population in
the early developing neural tube. True or false?
A. true

B. false
Class 10 & 11 cell fate
18. Basal plate is induced in the developing spinal cord by high concentrations of what factor?
A. FGF
B. Wnt
C. BMP

D. Shh
E. More than one of the above are correct.
19. Activation of Notch in a progenitor cell typically …
A. inhibits differentiation.
B. promotes differentiation.
C. drives a change in the potential cell fate.
D. initiates cell death.
AC E. More than one of the above are correct.
20. Treating early cortical progenitor cells with CNTF prior to the first cells becoming postmitotic
would result in the first postmitotic cells differentiating into astrocytes. True or false?
A. true

B. false
21. Activation of Notch in neural progenitor cells results in increased expression of what factor?

A. Hes1
B. Proneural genes
C. Delta
D. Numb
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 17 & 18 cell migration
22. Which of the following molecules is NOT a component of the extracellular matrix (ECM)?
A. collagen type IX
B. versican (a CSPG)
C. laminin

D. N-cadherin
E. All of the above are ECM components.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 5
23. In developing cerebellum, postmitotic neurons migrate …
A. tangentially from the medulla.
B. radially from the pial surface towards the ventricular surface.
C. radially from the ventricular surface towards the pial surface.
BC D. More than one of the above are correct.
24. Cells in the wall of the developing large intestine secrete what factor that attracts migrating
neural crest cells?
A. Ret
B. Cxcr4
C. ephrinB2

D. GDNF
E. hyaluronic acid
25. Cells that secrete reelin in the embryonic cortex are found in what layer?
A. cortical plate
B. subplate
C. ventricular zone

D. marginal zone
E. subventricular zone
Class 20-23 mechanisms of movement & guidance
26. The shape of a neuron is largely determined by which component of the cytoskeleton?
A. actin filaments
B. myosin filaments
C. neurofilaments

D. microtubules
27. Which of the following is true regarding a typical postmitotic, migrating projection neuron in
the developing neocortex, such as a pyramidal neuron?
A. The cell mainly uses axons growing in from the thalamus for its adhesive substrate.

B. The trailing process of the migrating cell will become the axon.
C. The trailing process of the migrating cell will become the main dendrite.
D. The cell stops migrating as soon as it enters the cortical plate.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
28. Which of the following is an important element of the clutch hypothesis?
A. Cell surface adhesion molecules such as an integrin anchor actin filaments and
prevent retrograde flow.
B. Depolymerization of microtubules stabilizes the filopodia.
C. Myosin retracts actin filaments from the filopodia.
D. Neurofilaments function as clutches to stop the retrograde flow of microtubules.
AC E. More than one of the above are correct.
29. Which of the following is NOT a component of the signal transduction cascade that leads to
growth cone collapse in response to a repellent guidance cue?
A. RhoA

B. Rac
C. myosin II
D. ROCK
E. More than one of the above are not components of this signaling cascade.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 6
30. Cell migration involves three steps, traction, protrusion, and adhesion, not necessarily in that
order. Three proteins, Ena/VASP, myosin II and integrin, were each described as being
involved in a step of cell migration. Which sequence below places these proteins in the
correct order for the three steps of cell migration, as presented in class?
A. integrin, Ena/VASP, myosin II
B. Ena/VASP, myosin II, integrin

C. Ena/VASP, integrin, myosin II
D. integrin, myosin II, Ena/VASP
E. Myosin II, Ena/VASP, integrin
31. Which of the following is NOT part of the process of neurite elongation?

A. Long microtubules elongate by intercalating new subunits along their length.
B. The plasma membrane grows by intercalation of membrane precursors along the
shaft of the growing neurite.
C. Adhesions are made by the extending growth cone.
D. Short microtubules are moved forward by dynein motors.
E. All of the above are part of the process of neurite elongation.
32. Ligand-bound integrin on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane …

A. binds actin binding proteins.
B. binds microtubules.
C. bundles myosin filaments.
D. initiates intermediate filament polymerization.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 24 & 25 specificity
33. In humans, which set of retinal ganglion cell axons do NOT cross the midline in the optic
chiasm?
A. axons from dorsal side of both retinas

B. axons from the temporal side of both retinas
C. axons from the nasal side of both retinas
D. axons from dorsal side of the right retina and the temporal side of the left retina
E. axons from the ventral side of both retinas
34. Which of the following is a characteristic of ephrinBs?
A. They are GPI-linked to the cell surface.

B. They are capable of functioning as a ligand or a receptor.
C. They can function as a transcription factor.
D. They can function as a Wnt receptor.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
35. Axons of retinal ganglion cells synapse in multiple locations in the brain. Which of the
following is NOT one of those locations?
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus in the hypothalamus
B. lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus
C. superior colliculus in the midbrain

D. occipital cortex
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 7
36. Bonhoeffer and associates created a substrate on a tissue culture dish with alternating
stripes of cell membranes harvested from the anterior and posterior thirds of chick tectum.
They grew explants from the far nasal or far temporal regions of the retina on this substrate.
Which of the following statements best describes the growth of the axons from the explants
on this substrate? [Axons from the temporal side of the retina normally synapse in anterior
tectum; nasal retinal axons synapse in posterior tectum.]
A. Axons from the temporal side of the retina grew selectively on the membranes from
the anterior tectum due to a high affinity of these axons for these membranes.
B. Axons from the nasal side of the retina grew selectively on the membranes from the
posterior tectum due to a high affinity of these axons for these membranes.

C. Axons from the temporal side of the retina grew selectively on the membranes from
the anterior tectum because they were repelled by the posterior tectal membranes.
D. Axons from the nasal side of the retina grew selectively on the membranes from the
posterior tectum because they were repelled by the anterior tectal membranes.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 26 synaptogenesis
37. Neuroligins are described as anchoring the synapse because they …
A. bind neurexins in the presynaptic membrane.
B. bind neurexins in the postsynaptic membrane.
C. bind neurotransmitter receptor proteins via scaffolding proteins.
D. bind to extracellular matrix molecules in the synaptic cleft.
AC E. More than one of the above are correct.
38. Which of the following proteins binds directly to acetylcholine receptors (AchR) in muscle
fibers?
A. agrin
B. dystroglycan
C. synaptic laminin (s-laminin)

D. rapsyn
39. Which of the following proteins binds directly to postsynaptic density protein-95 (PSD95) at
synaptic sites?
A. neuroligin
B. neurexin
C. synaptotagmin (a protein associated with synaptic vesicles)
D. NMDAR (a glutamate receptor)
AD E. More than one of the above are correct.
40. A loss of function mutation in the MUSK gene is likely to cause …
A. numbness in areas of skin
B. muscle tetanus (muscle contractions that do not relax)

C. muscle weakness
D. epilepsy
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 31 & 32 cell death / trophic factors
41. The most common type of cell death reported in the normal developing mammalian central
nervous system is necrosis. True or false?
A. true

B. false
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 8
42. Which of the following is a hallmark of necrosis?
A. The cell shrinks.

B. The organelles of the cell are broken down by proteolysis.
C. The cell’s DNA is cut into 180 base pair fragments.
D. The cell’s chromatin condenses.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
43. In the developing nervous system, only cells undergoing cell death express procaspases.
True or false?
A. true

B. false
44. Which neurotrophin receptor is expressed by cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain?

A. TrkA
B. TrkB
C. TrkC
D. TrkD
E. GFRα1
45. Knockout of the NGF gene in mouse would virtually eliminate what neuronal population
during development?
A. motor neurons in the spinal cord

B. sympathetic ganglion neurons
C. retinal ganglion cells
D. cortical interneurons
46. Which of the following statements regarding Trks is NOT true?

A. Trks are glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) linked to the cell membrane.
B. Trks dimerize when they bind their appropriate ligand.
C. Dimerized Trks autophosphorylate each other.
D. Trks, when activated, phosphorylate proteins in the PI3K and ERK pathways.
E. More than one of the above are NOT correct.
47. Which of the following statements regarding cell death and cell life in developing C. elegans
is true?
A. Ced-3 and ced-4 genes are required for cells to live.
B. Ced-9 is required for normal programmed cell death.
C. The vertebrate Caspase-3 gene can substitute for ced-3.
D. The function of ced-3 is normally blocked by the ced-9 protein in most cells.
CD E. More than one of the above are correct.
48. An increase in the level of which protein in the cytoplasm of a cell can trigger cell death?
A. procaspase-9
B. phosphorylated (activated) CREB
C. Bcl-XL

D. cytochrome C
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 9
49. Which of the following statements regarding a Bax-Bax homodimer is true?
A. It indirectly results in CREB phosphorylation.
B. It directly cleaves procaspase-9.

C. It inserts into the membrane of a mitochondrion forming a pore.
D. It results in release of Apaf-1 into the cytoplasm.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 33 & 34 refinement
50. During the period of developmental refinement in the neuromuscular system the total
number of synapses on a myofiber typically decreases. (true or false?)

A. true
B. false
51. Early in development of the rodent visual system, approximately 200 ganglion cells in the
superior-nasal quadrant of the right retina send their axons to the right superior colliculus. In
the adult, no ganglion cells in this region of the retina send axons to the right superior
colliculus. Approximately what percentage of those 200 ganglion cells were eliminated by
cell death during normal development?
A. <5%
B. ~50%

C. ~85%
D. ~100%
52. In a normal adult cat, individual neurons in what location are likely to be activated by a visual
stimulus to either eye (i.e. likely to be binocular)?
A. neurons in layer 4 of primary visual cortex

B. neurons in layers 2 and 3 of primary visual cortex
C. neurons in the lateral geniculate nucleus
D. More than one of the above are correct.
E. None of the above are correct since information from one eye goes only to the
contralateral side of the brain after developmental refinement.
53. Which of the following actions is likely to prevent ocular dominance columns from forming in
a kitten when performed at the start of the critical period for ocular dominance column
formation?
A. induce strabismus

B. administer BDNF to the primary visual cortex
C. block nitric oxide synthesis
D. block communication among starburst amacrine cells in the retina
E. More than one of the above are correct.
54. Spontaneous activity of neurons in the retina is important for segregating axons carrying
information from the two eyes in what cell population?

A. lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
B. layer II and III of visual cortex
C. layer IV of visual cortex
D. layer V of visual cortex
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 10
55. In developing cerebellum prior to refinement, each purkinje cell receives synapses from …
A. multiple granule cells
B. multiple climbing fibers
C. multiple mossy fibers
D. multiple upper (cortical) motor neurons
A/B E. More than one of the above are correct.
56. Refinement in neuromuscular synapses is mediated in part by activation of …
A. NMDA receptors.
B. AMPA receptors.

C. ACh receptors.
D. NGF receptors.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
57. Which of the following is true regarding glutamate receptors?

A. Blocking AMPA receptors in a neuron is likely to prevent glutamate from activating
NMDA receptors in that same cell.
B. NMDA receptors in excitatory neurons must be activated before AMPA receptors can
be activated.
C. The calcium-block must be released before an NMDA receptor can be activated.
D. The calcium-block must be released before an AMPA receptor can be activated.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 35 behavior
58. Amphibian embryos were allowed to develop in an anesthetic from just after fertilization until
they would normally have started swimming movements. After removal of the anesthetic,
they had to ‘practice’ movements before they were capable of normal swimming
movements. True or false?
A. true

B. false
59. The sexual dimorphic nucleus of the preoptic area (SDNPOA) in the mammalian
hypothalamus is larger in males than in females. This is because …
A. testosterone in males increases cell division in this nucleus during development.

B. testosterone in males reduces cell death in this nucleus during development.
C. estrogen in females reduces cell division in this nucleus during development.
D. estrogen in females increases cell death in this nucleus during development.
E. progesterone in males blocks the effect of estrogen in this nucleus during
development.
60. Complex behaviors in mammals are …
A. learned.
B. based mainly on genetic determinants.

C. based on a combination of genetics and experience.
D. either learned or based on genetics but not both for an individual behavior.
61. The RA and HVc nuclei are larger in adult male zebrafinch (a songbird) than in females of
the same species. Administering estradiol to the females during the first 80 days of life will
result in their RA and HVc nuclei being about the same size as that of males. True or false?

A. true
B. false
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 11
Class 36 disorders
62. What disease can result from constitutive or excessive activation of the Shh signaling
pathway?
A. Waardenburg syndrome
B. holoprosencephaly

C. medulloblastoma
D. retinoblastoma
E. Hirschsprung’s disease
63. Retinoblastoma can result from a mutation in the retinoblastoma protein (Rb). What is the
function of Rb in normal development?
A. promotes expression of cyclin D
B. promotes expression of DNA polymerase

C. inhibits E2F transcription factors
D. degrades cdk4/6
E. More than one of the above is correct.
64. Fragile-X syndrome…

A. is due to a mutation in the gene for a cytoplasmic RNA binding protein.
B. is caused by abnormal migration of cortical neurons often due to a mutation in the
LIS1 gene.
C. is characterized by abnormal decussation of retinal axons at the chiasm.
D. is a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to a portion of the large intestine.
E. More than one of the above is correct.
65. Neuroligin genes have been found mutated in some individuals with autism. This suggests
that a defect in which of the following developmental processes could underlie this
developmental disorder?
A. nervous system patterning
B. cell division
C. cell migration

D. synapse formation
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 37 adult neurogenesis
66. Which of the following statements is true regarding neural stem cells (NSCs) in the
subventricular zone (SVZ) of the adult mammalian brain?
A. The NSCs are also the ependymal cells that line the ventricle in this part of the brain.
B. Cells generated directly by division of NSCs can include neuroblasts and glioblasts.
C. NSCs are generated directly by division of transit amplifying cells.

D. NSCs divide slowly.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
67. Cells generated in the adult mammalian subventricular zone (SVZ) can differentiate into …
A. olfactory receptor neurons.

B. interneurons of the olfactory bulb.
C. granule cells of the dentate gyrus.
D. interneurons of the cerebral cortex.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 12
68. Which of the following is likely to have a negative effect on certain types of learning due to
reduced neurogenesis in part of the hippocampus?
A. exercising
B. sleeping

C. drinking alcohol
D. having sex
E. taking certain antidepressants such as Prozac
69. Stem cells have been converted to dopaminergic neurons in the laboratory. These cells
have been transplanted into what part of the brain for treatment of Parkinson’s disease in
animal models?
A. substantia nigra
B. globus pallidus

C. striatum
D. cerebral cortex
E. cerebellum
Class 38 injury & regeneration
70. How does a neuron’s soma “know” that its axon has been severed?
A. an influx of sodium (Na+)
B. breakdown of its myelin

C. loss of its retrograde supply of neurotrophin
D. activation of microglia
E. More than one of the above are correct.
71. Either spinal cord injury or injury to the sciatic nerve could result in the loss of conscious
control of certain leg muscles. What would be the difference between these two injuries?
A. The affected muscles would atrophy with spinal cord injury but not with nerve injury.
B. The affected muscles would atrophy with nerve injury but not with spinal cord injury.
C. The affected muscles would completely degenerate with nerve injury but only
atrophy with spinal cord injury.
D. The affected muscles would atrophy in both situations but would do so more quickly
with spinal cord injury.

E. The affected muscles would atrophy in both situations but would do so more quickly
with nerve injury.
72. Imagine that you are interested in developing a new treatment to cure paralysis following
spinal cord injury. You are specifically interested in promoting regeneration of the axons of
upper motor neurons in motor cortex. You would give serious consideration to using an
antisense treatment to block expression of which of the following genes in the upper motor
neurons in the cerebral cortex?
A. β1 integrin
B. Nogo-A (Nogo-66)

C. Klf4
D. tubulin
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 13
73. Chromatolysis in a neuron …

A. indicates dissolution of its rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER).
B. indicates dissolution of its myelin coating.
C. indicates formation of a growth cone.
D. can take place only in CNS neurons.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 39 research (Georgieff)
74. Knockout of the transferrin gene in mouse resulted in …
A. fewer neurons in the hippocampus.
B. fewer dendritic spines on hippocampal granule cells.
C. reduced myelination in CNS tracts.
D. increased levels of glutamate in the hippocampus.
ABC E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 40 discussion
75. Kruppel-like factor-4 (KLF4) …
A. is a component of adult myelin in the central nervous system.
B. is down-regulated by retinal ganglion cells at the end of development.
C. can promote axon regeneration in the adult central nervous system when
misexpressed in neurons.

D. represses axon regeneration in mature retinal ganglion cells.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Class 41 stem cells
76. Fibroblasts transfected to express the transcription factors Brn2, Ascl1 and Myt1L (the BAM
factors) became what cell type?
A. ES cells
B. iPS cells

C. neurons
D. oligodendrocytes
E. fibroblast progenitor cells
77. Which of the following statements regarding embryonic stem cells (ES cells) is true?
A. ES cells have been harvested from many tissues of embryos.

B. ES cells are made from the inner cell mass of blastula stage embryos.
C. The potential fate of ES cells is typically limited to those that normally develop from a
single germ cell layer in an embryo.
D. The process of making ES cells involves transfecting harvested cells with several
transcription factors.
E. More than one of the above are correct.
78. The goal of replacing lost neurons with neurons made from stem cells is complicated in most
systems by the new neurons needing to receive specific synapses and make synapses with
specific postsynaptic cells. The situation appears to be simpler for what type of neuron?

A. retinal photoreceptors
B. retinal ganglion cells
C. granule cells of the dentate gyrus
D. spinal motor neurons
E. None of the above are correct.
Nsci 4100 – Final Exam
page 14
79. Which of the following neurodegenerative diseases involve death of motor neurons?
A. Spinocerebellar ataxia
B. Huntington’s disease
C. Parkinson’s disease

D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
E. More than one of the above are correct.
Freebie
80. Your Professor wishes you a joyous holiday. True or false?

A. true
B. false
The End!
Please turn in your bubble answer sheet. You may keep your exam questions.
Have a wonderful and safe holiday!
…HO, HO, HO!