Download CMA Practice Test Cardiopulmonary procedures

CMA Practice Test Cardiopulmonary procedures
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. An electrocardiogram is a recording of the:
a. Electrical activity of the heart
b. Opening and closing of the valves of the heart
c. Force of the blood against the walls of the blood vessels
d. Contraction and relaxation of the ventricles
____
2. Blood enters the right atrium from the:
a. Pulmonary artery
b. Superior and inferior venae cavae
c. Pulmonary veins
d. Aorta
____
3. The left atrium receives:
a. Deoxygenated blood from the body
b. Oxygenated blood from the left ventricle
c. Oxygenated blood from the lungs
d. Deoxygenated blood from the lungs
____
4. Which chamber pumps the blood from the heart to the tissues of the body?
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
____
5. What is the knot of modified myocardium that sets the pace of the heart called?
a. Medulla
b. AV node
c. SA node
d. Bundle branches
____
6. What structure in the heart delays the electrical impulse momentarily to allow the ventricles to fill
____
____
completely?
a. Bundle of His
b. AV node
c. SA node
d. Cuspid valves
7. What is the name of the structure in the heart that distributes the electrical impulse to the ventricles?
a. Epicardium
b. Endocardium
c. Bundle of His
d. Purkinje fibers
8. What is a cardiac cycle?
a. Contraction of the atria
b. One complete heartbeat
c. Relaxation of the entire heart
d. Contraction of the ventricles
____
9. The portion of the ECG between two waves is known as a:
a. Segment
b. Baseline
c. Interval
d. Polarization line
____ 10. How high should the standardization mark be when the electrocardiograph is properly standardized?
a. 5 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 15 mm
d. 20 mm
____ 11. How many leads are there on the standard electrocardiogram?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 12
d. 15
____ 12. A device placed on the skin that picks up electrical impulses released by the heart is known as:
a. A lead wire
b. An amplifier
c. An electrode
d. An electrolyte
____ 13. Electrical voltage received by the electrocardiograph is changed to mechanical motion in the:
a. Stylus
b. Galvanometer
c. Amplifier
d. Patient cable
____ 14. Which electrode is used as a ground reference?
a. Right arm
b. Right leg
c. Left arm
d. Left leg
____ 15. An electrolyte must be used when running an ECG to:
a. Facilitate the transmission of the electrical impulses
b. Reduce the amount of dryness of the skin
c. Protect the patient from shocks that are generated by the electrocardiograph
d. Amplify the electrical impulses coming from the heart
____ 16. A disposable electrode is held in place by:
a. A rubber strap
b. A vacuum cup
c. An adhesive backing on the electrode
d. Superglue
____ 17. Leads 1, 2, and 3 are the:
a. Bipolar leads
b. Chest leads
c. Augmented leads
d. Precordial leads
____ 18. AVR, AVL, and AVF are known as the:
a. Standard leads
b. Chest leads
c. Augmented leads
d. Bipolar leads
____ 19. Electrocardiograms are normally recorded with the paper moving at a speed of:
a. 25 mm/sec
b. Twice the normal standard
c. One half standard
d. 50 mm/sec
____ 20. Chest lead V2 is located at the:
a. Fourth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
b. Fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
c. Fifth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
d. Fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum
____ 21. Where is chest lead V5 located?
a. Midway between V4 and V6
b. At the fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
c. At the horizontal level of V4 at the left anterior axillary line
d. At the horizontal level of V4 at the left midaxillary line
____ 22. What are artifacts?
a. The marking code recorded by the ECG to indicate which lead is being run
b. Additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph
c. A type of standardization mark
d. Rare objects uncovered in ancient Peru
____ 23. Which of the following artifacts appears as small, straight spiked lines that are consistent in nature?
a. Muscle
b. Wandering baseline
c. Alternating current
d. Interrupted baseline
____ 24. All of the following may result in muscle artifacts EXCEPT:
a. Patient discomfort
b. An apprehensive patient
c. Electrodes that have come loose
d. Patient coughing or talking
____ 25. Which of the following may cause an alternating current artifact?
a. Patient movement
b. Lead wires not following body contour
c. A broken patient cable
d. Parkinson’s disease
____ 26. Which of the following represents an ERROR in technique when running an electrocardiogram?
a. Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table
b. Working on the left side of the patient
c. Instructing the patient to lie still and not to talk during the procedure
d. Positioning the limb electrodes on the fleshy part of the upper arms and lower legs
____ 27. Holter monitor electrocardiography is used to:
a. Detect cardiac dysrhythmias that are intermittent in nature
b. Assess the functioning of an artificial pacemaker
c. Evaluate patients with unexplained syncope
d. Assess the effectiveness of dysrhythmic medications
e. All of the above
____ 28. Which of the following are guidelines for wearing a Holter monitor?
a. Do not consume alcohol or caffeinated beverages
b. Limit physical activity
c. Do not use a wool blanket for sleeping
d. Do not shower, bathe, or swim
e. All of the above
____ 29. Which of the following should be recorded in the Holter monitor diary notebook?
a. Meals
b. Emotional states
c. Bowel movements
d. Sleep periods
e. All of the above
____ 30. Touching or moving electrodes during the Holter monitoring period may cause:
a. Malfunctioning of the recorder
b. Drying out of the electrolyte
c. A dysrhythmia
d. Artifacts
e. All of the above
____ 31. What is the term used to refer to an electrocardiogram that is within normal limits?
a. Sinus arrhythmia
b. Baseline recording
c. Normal sinus rhythm
d. WNL
____ 32. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT)?
a. Rapid fluttering of the atrium
b. Sudden onset and termination of symptoms
c. Increase in heart rate of the patient
d. Patient weakness and acute apprehension
____ 33. Which of the following is true regarding PVCs?
a. They are common with mitral valve prolapse
b. They are one of the most common rhythm disturbances
c. A wide and distorted QRS complex is present
d. They may be caused by anxiety, smoking, and caffeine
e. All of the above
____ 34. Which of the following is considered the most serious cardiac dysrhythmia?
a. Atrial flutter
b. Ventricular tachycardia
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Ventricular fibrillation
____ 35. The purpose of pulmonary function testing is to:
a. Dilate the bronchial tubes to increase airflow
b. Remove mucus from the bronchial tubes
c. Detect cardiac dysrhythmias
d. Assess lung functioning
____ 36. All of the following are examples of pulmonary function tests EXCEPT:
a. Exercise tolerance test
b. Diffusion capacity
c. Arterial blood gas studies
d. Pulse oximetry
____ 37. Which of the following devices measures how much air is exhaled by the lungs and how fast it is
____ 38.
____ 39.
____ 40.
____ 41.
____ 42.
Matching
exhaled?
a. Tympanogram
b. Spirometer
c. Pulse oximeter
d. Blood gas analyzer
In spirometry, the predicted value means:
a. What the results should be if the patient’s lungs are healthy
b. What the results should be for a patient with COPD
c. The amount of air that can be pushed out of the lungs in 1 second
d. How much damage has been done to the lungs
What is the purpose of calibrating the spirometer?
a. To prevent abnormal test results
b. To ensure all pathogens have been removed from the device
c. To make it easier for the patient to perform the breathing maneuvers
d. To ensure accurate and valid test results
All of the following patients are likely candidates for spirometry EXCEPT:
a. A patient complaining of dyspnea
b. A patient with emphysema
c. A patient who has worked in the coal mines for 20 years
d. A patient with an upper respiratory infection
What is the term for the maximal volume of air that can be expired when the patient exhales as
forcefully and rapidly as possible and for as long as possible?
a. FEV1
b. FVC
c. FEV1/FVC ratio
d. Exhalation
All of the following are patient preparation requirements for spirometry EXCEPT:
a. Do not eat a heavy meal for 8 hours before the test
b. Wear loose, nonrestrictive clothing
c. Do not take aspirin for 4 hours before the test
d. Stop smoking at least 8 hours before the test
Directions: Match each of the following components of the ECG graph cycle with its definition.
a. Represents the time interval from the e. Represents the contraction of the atria
beginning of ventricular depolarization
to the end of repolarization of the
ventricles
b. Represents the electrical recovery of
f. Represents the time from the end of
the ventricles
atrial depolarization to the beginning
of ventricular depolarization
c. Represents the contraction of the
g. Represents the time from the
ventricles
beginning of atrial depolarization to
the beginning of ventricular
depolarization
d. Represents the time from the end of
h. Represents the period of time when the
ventricular depolarization to the
heart rests
beginning of repolarization of the
ventricles
____
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____
____
____
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____
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
43. P wave
44. QRS complex
45. T wave
46. P-R interval
47. Q-T interval
48. P-R segment
49. ST segment
50. Baseline