Download 2017 Final Exam Practice C - Lewis

2017 Final Exam Practice C
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. William James was a prominent American
a. psychoanalyst.
b. behaviorist.
c. functionalist.
d. structuralist.
e. gestaltist.
____
2. Charles Darwin believed that behaviors, such as the emotional expressions associated with human
rage, could be explained by natural selection. Which early psychologist would be most likely to
agree with Darwin's assessment?
a. William James
b. Edward B. Titchener
c. Wilhelm Wundt
d. John B. Watson
e. Ivan Pavlov
____
3. Mrs. Thompson believes that her son has become an excellent student because she consistently uses
praise and affection to stimulate his learning efforts. Her belief best illustrates a ________
perspective.
a. humanistic
b. cognitive
c. biological
d. psychodynamic
e. behavioral
____
4. Akira believes that her son has become a good student because she always praises his learning
efforts. Her belief best illustrates a ________ perspective.
a. biopsychosocial
b. biological
c. psychodynamic
d. behavioral
e. structural
____
5. Dr. Mills conducts research on why individuals conform to the behaviors and opinions of others.
Which specialty area does his research best represent?
a. cognitive psychology
b. social psychology
c. developmental psychology
d. clinical psychology
e. industrial-organizational psychology
____
6. Mr. Kay is interested in whether individual differences affect learning. Mr. Kay is most likely a(n)
________ psychologist.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
human factors
developmental
educational
social
clinical
____
7. According to the text, the SQ3R study method is effective because it
a. demonstrates the power of unconscious processing.
b. allows us to challenge our preconceptions.
c. utilizes active processing of the text information.
d. engages the whole brain, not just a small percentage.
e. increases the investment you are making in studying psychology.
____
8. Replication involves
a. the selection of random samples.
b. perceiving order in random events.
c. repeating an earlier research study.
d. rejecting ideas that cannot be scientifically tested.
e. overestimating the extent to which others share our views.
____
9. What is the primary limitation of the case study research method?
a. It is not an empirical method.
b. The case study is not part of the scientific method.
c. Random sampling must be used to ensure representative findings.
d. Individual cases can be misleading and result in false generalizations.
e. Correlational findings from case studies cannot be interpreted as causal.
____ 10. To study the development of relationships, Dr. Rajiv carefully observed and recorded patterns of
verbal and nonverbal behaviors among boys and girls in the school yard. Which research method did
Dr. Rajiv employ?
a. naturalistic observation
b. replication
c. the survey
d. the case study
e. experimentation
____ 11. A correlation coefficient is a measure of the
a. difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution.
b. average squared deviation of scores from a sample mean.
c. direction and strength of the relationship between two variables.
d. statistical significance of a difference between two sample means.
e. frequency of scores at each level of some measure.
____ 12. In a drug treatment study, participants given a pill containing no actual drug are receiving a(n)
a. random sample.
b. experimental treatment.
c. double-blind.
d. replication.
e. placebo.
____ 13. To provide a baseline against which they can evaluate the effects of a specific treatment,
experimenters make use of a(n)
a. dependent variable.
b. random sample.
c. independent variable.
d. control condition.
e. experimental condition.
____ 14. Bar graphs allow researchers to
a. compare groups.
b. generalize from samples.
c. demonstrate significance.
d. visualize correlation.
e. avoid bias.
____ 15. Why would the median, rather than the mean, be the appropriate measure of central tendency in
determining housing values in a particular community?
a. The median is useful for measuring how much values deviate from one another.
b. The median is minimally affected by extreme scores.
c. The median is best used to sort values into groups.
d. The median allows you to examine the gap between the lowest and highest value.
e. The median allows you to generalize from representative samples to the general
population.
____ 16. On a 10-item test, three students in Professor Hsin's advanced chemistry seminar received scores of
2, 5, and 8, respectively. For this distribution of test scores, the standard deviation is equal to the
square root of
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.
d. 6.
e. 9.
____ 17. What does the effect size of research findings tell you that statistical significance does not?
a. whether or not the result is due to random factors or the experimental treatment
b. if the independent variable had an impact on the dependent variable
c. if the confounding variables influenced the result of the study
d. the magnitude of the finding
e. validity of the results
____ 18. In 1963, Stanley Milgram reported that 65% of research participants, at the request of the
experimenter, would administer phony shocks that they considered real, to a stranger. He
demonstrated how obedient humans can be to authority figures. Some critics contend that Milgram's
findings cannot be used to predict behavior in real life. How might Milgram respond to this
criticism?
a. “Laboratory research is like 'real life' so results can be used to predict such
behavior.”
b. “It's impossible to study obedience in the 'real world' so laboratory research is the
only option.”
c. “Laboratory research allows you to identify general principles that do generalize to
other 'real world' contexts.”
d. “All valuable psychological research is conducted in the lab. ”
e. “The situation was not artificial, but justifiable in demonstrating the impact of the
situation on human behavior.”
____ 19. The nineteenth-century theory that bumps on the skull reveal a person's abilities and traits is called
a. evolutionary psychology.
b. behavior genetics.
c. molecular biology.
d. biological psychology.
e. phrenology.
____ 20. Transferring messages from a motor neuron to a leg muscle requires the neurotransmitter known as
a. dopamine.
b. epinephrine.
c. acetylcholine.
d. insulin.
e. endorphin.
____ 21. The somatic nervous system is a component of the ________ nervous system.
a. peripheral
b. autonomic
c. central
d. sympathetic
e. parasympathetic
____ 22. The best way to detect enlarged fluid-filled brain regions in some patients who have schizophrenia is
to use a(n)
a. EEG.
b. MRI.
c. PET scan.
d. brain lesion.
e. X-ray.
____ 23. When the cat's amygdala is electrically stimulated the cat prepares to attack by hissing and arching
its back. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is activated by such stimulation?
a. somatic
b. parasympathetic
c. central
d. sympathetic
e. sensorimotor
____ 24. An area at the rear of the frontal lobes that controls voluntary movements is called the
a. angular gyrus.
b.
c.
d.
e.
hypothalamus.
motor cortex.
reticular formation.
frontal association area.
____ 25. To trigger a person's hand to make a fist, José Delgado stimulated the individual's
a. motor cortex.
b. hypothalamus.
c. sensory cortex.
d. reticular formation.
e. limbic system.
____ 26. A PET scan of a patient looking at a photograph of a painting would most likely indicate high levels
of activity in which brain structure?
a. sensory cortex
b. Broca's area
c. corpus callosum
d. occipital lobes
e. frontal lobes
____ 27. The cortical regions that are not directly involved in sensory or motor functions are known as
a. interneurons.
b. Broca's area.
c. frontal lobes.
d. association areas.
e. parietal lobes.
____ 28. When asked to describe a picture that showed two boys stealing cookies behind a woman's back, a
patient replied, “Mother is away her working her work to get her better, but when she's looking the
two boys looking the other part.” Which brain region has most likely been damaged?
a. Broca's area
b. angular gyrus
c. corpus callosum
d. Wernicke's area
e. parietal lobes
____ 29. Studies of identical twins who had been reared apart most clearly highlight the importance of
________ in personality development.
a. natural selection
b. mutation
c. adoptive relatives
d. home environments
e. genetic predispositions
____ 30. Gender differences in heritable personality traits cannot necessarily be attributed to male-female
genetic differences because
a. physical maturation proceeds at a different rate for males and females.
b. variations in personality contribute to gender differences.
c. heritable traits can be influenced by social environments.
d. males and females are also affected by their different sex hormones.
e. chromosomal adaptation has not been accounted for.
____ 31. Molecular behavior geneticists seek links between __________ and specific disorders.
a. chromosomes
b. proteins
c. genes
d. environment
e. behavior
____ 32. Evolutionary psychology studies the evolution of behavior and the mind using principles of
a. humanism.
b. behaviorism.
c. naturalistic observation.
d. natural selection.
e. genome mapping.
____ 33. Evolutionary psychologists are most likely to emphasize that human adaptiveness to a variety of
different environments has contributed to human
a. naturalistic observation.
b. genetic mutations.
c. behavior correlations.
d. reproductive success.
e. prenatal development.
____ 34. Professor Archibald suggests that men are more likely than women to initiate recreational sex
because this has historically served to be a more successful reproductive strategy for men than for
women. The professor's suggestion best illustrates a(n) ________ theory.
a. social learning
b. evolutionary
c. behaviorist
d. Freudian
e. cognitive
____ 35. Women are most likely to be sexually attracted to men who seem
a. shy and reserved.
b. emotionally reactive and intense.
c. interested in recreational sex.
d. mature and affluent.
e. extraverted and dependent.
____ 36. As you look at an apple, its reflected light travels to the eye. The rods and cones absorb the light and
help transmit the information to the brain. This process best illustrates
a. sensation.
b. top-down processing.
c. perception.
d. selective attention.
e. psychophysics.
____ 37. Patients' negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure can increase their
postoperative experience of pain. This best illustrates the importance of
a. transduction.
b. accommodation.
c. sensory adaptation.
d. difference thresholds.
e. top-down processing.
____ 38. Although Manuel was sitting right next to his parents, he smelled a skunk minutes before they did.
Apparently, Manuel has a lower ________ for skunk odor than his parents have.
a. accommodation level
b. absolute threshold
c. tolerance level
d. olfactory saturation level
e. adaptation level
____ 39. Which theory can best explain why people respond differently to the same stimuli?
a. signal detection theory
b. frequency theory
c. opponent-process theory
d. the Young-Helmholtz theory
e. bottom-up theory
____ 40. Sensory adaptation refers to
a. the process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural impulses.
b. diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
c. the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information.
d. changes in the shape of the lens as it focuses on objects.
e. increasing perception of a constant, annoying stimuli.
____ 41. The receptor cells that convert light energy into neural signals are called
a. bipolar cells.
b. ganglion cells.
c. rods and cones.
d. feature detectors.
e. opponent processors.
____ 42. Which receptor cells most directly enable us to distinguish different wavelengths of light?
a. rods
b. cones
c. bipolar cells
d. feature detectors
e. optic nerves
____ 43. Visual information is processed by
a. feature detectors before it is processed by rods and cones.
b. ganglion cells before it is processed by feature detectors.
c. bipolar cells before it is processed by rods and cones.
d. feature detectors before it is processed by bipolar cells.
e. the optic nerve before it is processed by ganglion cells.
____ 44. The fact that people who are colorblind to red and green may still see yellow is most easily
explained by
a. the Young-Helmholtz theory.
b. the gate-control theory.
c. place theory.
d. frequency theory.
e. the opponent-process theory.
____ 45. Current research suggests that
a. the Young-Helmholtz theory best explains how we experience color.
b. opponent-process theory is the most comprehensive theory for explaining color
vision.
c. both the trichromatic and opponent-process theories are valid in explaining color
vision.
d. both the Young-Helmholtz and the opponent-process theories are wrong in
explaining color vision.
e. frequency theory shows promise in explaining how we experience color vision.
____ 46. Which of the following sensory receptors detect hurtful temperatures, pressure, or chemicals?
a. bipolar
b. hair cells
c. nociceptors
d. ganglion
e. olfactory
____ 47. If Jared watches a nurse give him an injection, he experiences more pain than if he closes his eyes
during the procedure and thinks about his favorite food. This illustrates the value of ________ for
pain control.
a. sensory adaptation
b. perceptual adaptation
c. subliminal stimulation
d. distraction
e. blindsight
____ 48. When given a placebo that is said to relieve pain, we are likely to be soothed by the brain's release of
a. umami.
b. nociceptors.
c. endorphins.
d. feature detectors.
e. synapses.
____ 49. The role of central nervous system activity for the experience of pain is best highlighted by
a. prosopagnosia.
b. frequency theory.
c. phantom limb sensations.
d. the opponent-process theory.
e. perceptual adaptation.
____ 50. Tinnitus is a phantom ________ sensation.
a. visual
b. auditory
c. taste
d. touch
e. kinesthetic
____ 51. Our experience of pain may be intensified when we perceive that others are experiencing pain. This
best illustrates the importance of
a. sensory adaptation.
b. accommodation.
c. top-down processing.
d. kinesthesis.
e. difference thresholds.
____ 52. The biopsychosocial approach to pain is likely to emphasize the importance of both
a. top-down and bottom-up processing.
b. frequency and place theories.
c. kinesthesis and psychokinesis.
d. telepathy and clairvoyance.
e. opponent and process theories.
____ 53. Which of the following best explains why children are more likely to resist eating strong-tasting
foods?
a. Sensory interaction makes certain foods more unpleasant to taste.
b. Young children have more taste receptors, so their sensitivity to taste is greater.
c. Children are more strongly influenced by the McGurk effect than adults are.
d. Receptor cells on a child's tongue are replaced more slowly than those of adults.
e. Only children are deterred from eating foods with aversive tastes.
____ 54. A gestalt is best described as a(n)
a. binocular cue.
b. illusion.
c. perceptual adaptation.
d. organized whole.
e. perceptual set.
____ 55. Knowing about the effects of the perceived distance of objects on their perceived size helps us to
understand
a. the Moon illusion.
b. the McGurk effect.
c. prosopagnosia.
d. phantom limb sensations.
e. parallel processing.
____ 56. Paradoxical sleep is to slow-wave sleep as ________ sleep is to ________ sleep.
a. REM; Stage 1
b. Stage 1; REM
c. REM; Stage 2
d. Stage 2; REM
e. REM; Stage 4
____ 57. Which of the following is evidence for cultural influences on sleep patterns?
a. The sleep patterns of identical twins are usually similar.
b. Brain waves are generally elevated and variable during REM sleep.
c. Sleep patterns reflect differences in latent and manifest dream content.
d. People in countries without electric lights generally sleep longer.
e. Newborn babies spend more time in REM sleep than in NREM sleep.
____ 58. As Inge recalled her dream, she was dancing with a tall, dark gentleman when suddenly the music
shifted to loud rock and the man disappeared. According to Freud, Inge's account represents the
________ content of her dream.
a. paradoxical
b. manifest
c. latent
d. hypnagogic
e. hallucinatory
____ 59. According to Freud, the latent content of a dream refers to
a. its accompanying brain-wave pattern.
b. the previous day's events that prompted the dream.
c. the sensory stimuli in the sleeping environment that are incorporated into the
dream.
d. its underlying but censored meaning.
e. the story line of our dreams.
____ 60. Greg remembered a recent dream in which his girlfriend suddenly grabbed the wheel of his speeding
car. Greg's therapist suggested that the dream might be a representation of the girlfriend's efforts to
avoid sexual intimacy. According to Freud, the therapist was attempting to reveal the ________ of
Greg's dream.
a. neuroadaptation
b. circadian rhythm
c. latent content
d. manifest content
e. NREM cycle
____ 61. Some researchers suggest that the brain activity associated with REM sleep provides the sleeping
brain with periodic stimulation. This finding supports which of the following dream theories?
a. wish-fulfillment
b. information-processing
c. physiological
d. activation-synthesis
e. developmental
____ 62. Ernest Hilgard suggested that participants felt little pain when their arms were lowered into ice baths
because
a. being caught up in playing the role of a “good subject” they could ignore the pain.
b. the presence of a hypnotist they liked and trusted led them to adopt the “pain
control” suggestions.
c. they expected that the ice baths would not cause pain.
d. hypnosis dissociates the pain sensation from the emotional suffering that people
expect from pain.
e. most hypnotized people are consciously faking hypnosis.
____ 63. After a stressful day at the office, Arthur has five or six drinks at a local bar before going home for
dinner. Research suggests that Arthur's heavy drinking will have the most adverse effect on his
ability to remember
a. at the time he is drinking the names of the people he has just met.
b. the next day the names of the people he talked to and what he said while drinking.
c. at the time he is drinking the name of his employer and his own home address.
d. the next day the names of the business associates he talked to before going to the
bar.
e. at the time he is drinking how to do long division.
____ 64. Sodium pentothal has sometimes been called a “truth serum” because it relaxes people and enables
them to more freely disclose personally embarrassing experiences. It is most likely that sodium
pentothal is a(n)
a. barbiturate.
b. amphetamine.
c. hallucinogen.
d. form of cocaine.
e. opiate.
____ 65. One of the immediate effects of Ecstasy is
a. increased appetite.
b. dehydration.
c. lethargy.
d. pupil constriction.
e. decreased blood pressure.
____ 66. Mrs. Roberts, who suffers from AIDS, has been given an ordinarily illegal drug at the university
hospital. Considering her specific medical condition, it is likely that she has received
a. LSD.
b. cocaine.
c. marijuana.
d. heroin.
e. Ecstasy.
____ 67. If a ringing bell causes a dog to salivate because the bell has been regularly associated with food in
the mouth, the UR is the
a. ringing bell.
b. salivation to the ringing bell.
c. food in the mouth.
d. salivation to the food in the mouth.
e. dog's hunger.
____ 68. Which of the following is an unconditioned response?
a. salivating at the sight of a lemon
b. raising your hand to ask a question
c. jerking your hand off a very hot stove
d. walking into a restaurant to eat
e. working for money.
____ 69. In Pavlov's experiments, the taste of food triggered salivation in a dog. The food in the dog's mouth
was the
a. US.
b. UR.
c. CS.
d. CR.
e. SR.
____ 70. Researchers condition a flatworm to contract its body to a light by repeatedly pairing the light with
electric shock. The stage in which the flatworm's contraction response to light is established and
gradually strengthened is called
a. shaping.
b. acquisition.
c. generalization.
d. spontaneous recovery.
e. latent learning.
____ 71. For the most rapid acquisition of a CR, the CS should be presented
a. shortly after the CR.
b. shortly after the US.
c. shortly before the US.
d. at the same time as the US.
e. shortly before the CR.
____ 72. Which of the following provides evidence that a CR is not completely eliminated during extinction?
a. latent learning
b. partial reinforcement
c. spontaneous recovery
d. generalization
e. discrimination
____ 73. Monica's psychotherapist reminds her so much of her own father that she has many of the same
mixed emotional reactions to him that she has to her own dad. Her reactions to her therapist best
illustrate the importance of
a. habituation.
b. latent learning.
c. generalization.
d. delayed reinforcement.
e. shaping.
____ 74. After repeatedly taking alcohol spiked with a nausea-producing drug, people with alcohol
dependence may fail to develop an aversive reaction to alcohol because they blame their nausea on
the drug. This illustrates the importance of ________ in classical conditioning.
a. biological predispositions
b. generalization
c. negative reinforcement
d. cognitive processes
e. spontaneous recovery
____ 75. Little Albert developed a fear of rats after a white rat was paired with a loud noise. In this case, the
loud noise was the
a. unconditioned stimulus.
b. conditioned stimulus.
c. conditioned reinforcer.
d. delayed reinforcer.
e. primary reinforcer.
____ 76. The law of effect refers to the tendency to
a. learn associations between consecutive stimuli.
b. learn in the absence of reinforcement.
c. repeat behaviors that are rewarded.
d. lose intrinsic interest in an over-rewarded activity.
e. enhance conditioning using strict responses.
____ 77. The removal of electric shock is to the receipt of good grades as ________ is to ________.
a. delayed reinforcer; immediate reinforcer
b. primary reinforcer; conditioned reinforcer
c. discrimination; generalization
d. partial reinforcement; continuous reinforcement
e. operant conditioning; classical conditioning
____ 78. A slow but steady rate of operant responding is associated with the ________ schedule of
reinforcement.
a. fixed-ratio
b. immediate-interval
c. variable-ratio
d. variable-interval
e. fixed-interval
____ 79. For purposes of effective child-rearing, most psychologists favor the use of
a. shaping over modeling.
b. reinforcement over punishment.
c. spontaneous recovery over extinction.
d. classical conditioning over operant conditioning.
e. primary reinforcers over secondary reinforcers.
____ 80. Two years ago, the de Castellane Manufacturing Company included its employees in a profit-sharing
plan in which workers receive semi-annual bonuses based on the company's profits. Since this plan
was initiated, worker productivity at de Castellane has nearly doubled. This productivity increase is
best explained in terms of
a. observational learning.
b. latent learning.
c. operant conditioning.
d. classical conditioning.
e. spontaneous recovery.
____ 81. After being classically conditioned to salivate to a tone, a dog continues to hear a tone but does not
receive food; as a result, salivation will decrease, then disappear. A dog owner may use operant
conditioning to train a dog to “sit” by presenting a treat each time the dog sits. However, the
behavior may diminish if the treats are discontinued. Both examples illustrate
a. spontaneous recovery.
b. generalization.
c. discrimination.
d. cognitive processes.
e. extinction.
____ 82. Which of the following become active both when people watch an action being performed and when
they perform that action themselves?
a. cognitive maps
b. fixed-ratio schedules
c. mirror neurons
d. operant chambers
e. biofeedback systems
____ 83. In his classic study, Albert Bandura found that children exposed to an adult model who behaved
aggressively by beating up a Bobo doll
a. imitated the adult’s actions.
b. acted aggressively in the presence of other children.
c. behaved aggressively in the presence of their parents.
d. did not demonstrate prosocial behavior even when such behavior was modeled
later.
e. displayed little interest in the experimental situation.
____ 84. Like European Christians who risked their lives to rescue Jews from the Nazis, civil rights activists
of the 1960s had parents who
a. consistently used reinforcement in combination with punishment to shape their
children's moral behavior.
b. modeled a strong moral or humanitarian concern.
c. consistently used psychological punishment rather than physical punishment in
shaping their children's behavior.
d. consistently used permissive rather than authoritarian child-rearing practices.
e. consistently explained to their children the harsh consequences of immoral
behavior.
____ 85. Experiments suggest that children exposed to a model who says one thing and does another will
a. ignore both what the model says and does.
b. ignore what the model does but talk in ways consistent with what the model says.
c. ignore what the model says but act in ways consistent with what the model does.
d. talk in ways consistent with what the model says and act in ways consistent with
what the model does.
e. talk in ways that contradict the model in order to match the observed behavior.
____ 86. The serial position effect best illustrates the importance of
a. rehearsal.
b. chunking.
c. visual imagery.
d. automatic processing.
e. flashbulb memory.
____ 87. Sherry easily remembers the telephone reservation number for Holiday Inns by using the mnemonic
1-800-HOLIDAY. She is using a memory aid known as
a. chunking.
b. imagination inflation.
c. the serial position effect.
d. the peg-word system.
e. implicit memory.
____ 88. Explicit memory is to long-term memory as iconic memory is to ________ memory.
a. sensory
b. short-term
c. flashbulb
d. implicit
e. state-dependent
____ 89. Sounds and words that are not immediately attended to can still be recalled a couple of seconds later
because of our ________ memory.
a. flashbulb
b. echoic
c. implicit
d. state-dependent
e. iconic
____ 90. “The magical number seven, plus or minus two” refers to the storage capacity of ________ memory.
a. short-term
b. explicit
c. flashbulb
d. implicit
e. sensory
____ 91. Déjà vu refers to the
a. emotional arousal produced by events that prime us to recall associated events.
b. tendency to remember experiences that are consistent with our current mood.
c. unconscious activation of particular associations in memory.
d. eerie sense of having previously experienced a situation or event.
e. involuntary activation of the hippocampus.
____ 92. Using nonsense syllables to study memory, Hermann Ebbinghaus found that
a. our sensory memory capacity is essentially unlimited.
b. iconic memory fades more rapidly than echoic memory.
c. what is learned in one mood is most easily retrieved while in that same mood.
d. the most rapid memory loss for new information occurs shortly after it is learned.
e. syllables that were meaningful to the participants were recalled best.
____ 93. Repression most clearly involves a failure in
a. encoding.
b. retrieval.
c. storage.
d. iconic memory.
e. long-term potentiation.
____ 94. Incest survivors who lack conscious memories of their sexual abuse may sometimes be told that they
are simply in a stage of “denial” and “repression.” This explanation for their lack of abuse memories
emphasizes
a. proactive interference.
b. encoding failure.
c. the misinformation effect.
d. source amnesia.
e. retrieval failure.
____ 95. By taking text and class notes in your own words you are improving memory by
a. encoding memory semantically.
b. preventing proactive interference.
c. avoiding source amnesia.
d. creating implicit memories.
e. encouraging parallel processing.
____ 96. Which term refers to all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and
communicating?
a. schema
b. heuristic
c. cognition
d. syntax
e. language
____ 97. A chess-playing computer program that routinely calculates all possible outcomes of all possible
game moves best illustrates problem solving by means of
a. the availability heuristic.
b. belief perseverance.
c. an algorithm.
d. the representativeness heuristic.
e. functional fixedness.
____ 98. Unlike the use of algorithms or heuristics, insight does not involve
a. concepts.
b. prototypes.
c. cognition.
d. strategy-based solutions.
e. confirmation bias.
____ 99. A mental set is a
a. methodical step-by-step procedure for solving problems.
b. mental grouping of similar objects, events, or people.
c. tendency to approach a problem in a way that has been successful in the past.
d. group of conclusions derived from certain assumptions or general principles.
e. specific way an issue is described that can significantly alter decisions.
____ 100. Judging the likelihood that things fall into a certain category on the basis of how well they seem to
match a particular prototype refers to the use of the
a. framing effect.
b. availability heuristic.
c. confirmation bias.
d. belief perseverance phenomenon.
e. representativeness heuristic.
____ 101. By encouraging people to imagine their homes being destroyed by a fire, insurance salespeople are
especially successful at selling large homeowners' policies. They are most clearly exploiting the
influence of
a. belief perseverance.
b. the representativeness heuristic.
c. overconfidence.
d. the availability heuristic.
e. functional fixedness.
____ 102. Stockbrokers often believe that their own expertise will enable them to select stocks that will
outperform the market average. This belief best illustrates
a. functional fixedness.
b. the framing effect.
c. the representativeness heuristic.
d. overconfidence.
e. belief perseverance.
____ 103. Despite overwhelming and highly publicized evidence that Senator McEwan was guilty of serious
political corruption and misconduct, many who had supported her in past elections remained
convinced of her political integrity. Their reaction best illustrates
a. functional fixedness.
b. the representativeness heuristic.
c. belief perseverance.
d. the availability heuristic.
e. the framing effect.
____ 104. Although intuition can at times hinder rationality, it is often valuable because it facilitates
a. framing.
b. quick decisions.
c. belief perseverance.
d. functional fixedness.
e. confirmation bias.
____ 105. Spoken, written, or signed words and the ways they are combined to communicate meaning
constitute
a. algorithms.
b. syntax.
c. heuristics.
d. language.
e. phonemes.
____ 106. The beginning of babies' receptive language development is best illustrated by their capacity to
a. recognize the distinctive sound of their own voice.
b. match another person's distinctive mouth movements with the appropriate sounds.
c. babble only sounds that are part of the household language.
d. comprehend the meaning of languages they have never experienced.
e. speak in short, telegraphic sentences.
____ 107. Infants are first able to discriminate speech sounds during the ________ stage.
a. one-word
b. telegraphic
c. babbling
d. syntactic
e. grammar
____ 108. At 17 months of age, Julie says “wada” whenever she wants a drink of water. Julie is most likely in
the ________ stage of language development.
a. semantic
b. babbling
c. one-word
d. telegraphic speech
e. phonetic
____ 109. The best evidence that there is a critical period for language acquisition is the fact that
a. infants babble sounds that occur in their parents' native language.
b. toddlers maintain a capacity to discriminate language sounds they have never
heard.
c. people most easily master the grammar of a second language during childhood.
d. preschoolers typically fail to use proper syntax.
e. grammatical systems are similar in all languages.
____ 110. Blood glucose levels are regulated by secretions of ________ by the pancreas.
a. PYY
b.
c.
d.
e.
leptin
orexin
insulin
thyroxin
____ 111. Dr. Milosz electrically stimulates the lateral hypothalamus of a well-fed laboratory rat. This
procedure is likely to
a. cause the rat to begin eating.
b. decrease the rat's basal metabolic rate.
c. facilitate conversion of the rat's blood glucose to fat.
d. permanently lower the rat's set point.
e. increase the incentives for food but decrease motivation to eat.
____ 112. Brain scans of people viewing erotic material reveal a more active ________ in men than in women.
a. thalamus
b. medulla
c. amygdala
d. cerebellum
e. hippocampus
____ 113. Premarital sexual activity is higher among American teens who
a. have college-educated rather than high school-educated parents.
b. frequently rather than seldom attend religious services.
c. earn high rather than low grades in school.
d. consume rather than abstain from alcohol.
e. underestimate rather than overestimate their peers' sexual activity.
____ 114. Lower rates of teen pregnancy have been observed among adolescents
a. who have lower-than-average intelligence scores.
b. who are actively religious.
c. whose father is absent from the home.
d. who watch more television.
e. who consume alcohol.
____ 115. Gender differences in erotic plasticity are best illustrated by the fact that women
a. have longer refractory periods than men do.
b. tend to be more changeable than men in sexual orientation.
c. are less likely than men to be equally aroused by male and female erotic stimuli.
d. become aware of their sexual orientation much earlier in life than men do.
e. experience a sexual response cycle that responds to homeostasis levels.
____ 116. Research on the accuracy of lie detector tests indicates that they
a. are rarely wrong.
b. err about 10 percent of the time.
c. err about one-third of the time.
d. are no more accurate than a 50-50 coin toss.
e. are more accurate when used on children rather than adults.
____ 117. A polygraph examination of a suspected murderer included an assessment of his reaction to a
detailed description of the victim's clothing and death wounds—details that would be known only to
a person at the scene of the crime. The investigators were using the
a. catharsis hypothesis.
b. facial feedback effect.
c. guilty knowledge test.
d. adaptation-level phenomenon.
e. two-factor theory.
____ 118. Evidence that people can develop an emotional preference for stimuli to which they have been
unknowingly exposed has convinced Robert Zajonc that
a. our thoughts are not influenced by our emotional states.
b. our normal feelings of love and anger are typically irrational.
c. the two-factor theory of emotion is essentially correct.
d. sometimes emotions precede cognition.
e. emotional reactions bias our perceptions of the world.
____ 119. Research on the nonverbal expression of emotion indicates that
a. the body movements and gestures used to express emotions are the same
b.
c.
d.
e.
throughout the world.
it is difficult to use nonverbal cues to mislead others about one's true emotions.
introverts are better than extraverts at recognizing nonverbal expressions of
emotion in others.
accurately identifying emotional facial expressions in people from different
cultures requires personal experience with those cultures.
people who have a large social group are better at judging nonverbal
communication.
____ 120. Repeatedly saying the word “me” puts people in a better mood than repeatedly saying “you.” This
best illustrates the
a. catharsis hypothesis.
b. feel-good, do-good phenomenon.
c. adaptation-level phenomenon.
d. facial feedback effect.
e. relative deprivation principle.
____ 121. Research on human fear indicates that
a. fear is more often a poisonous emotion than an adaptive one.
b. people but not animals may acquire fear through observational learning.
c. people seem to be biologically predisposed to learn some fears more quickly than
others.
d. genetic factors are unimportant in understanding fearfulness.
e. human fears are conditioned rather than predisposed.
____ 122. Scientists have isolated a gene that influences the amygdala's response to frightening situations.
People with a short version of this gene have high levels of ________ available to activate amygdala
neurons.
a. serotonin
b.
c.
d.
e.
dopamine
acetylcholine
endorphins
adrenalin
____ 123. A 21-year-old student undergoing treatment for Hodgkins disease was elated when he learned that he
was cancer-free. Although his subsequent day-to-day emotions fluctuated in response to daily
events, during the ensuing month, on average, his emotions
a. became even more positive than they were on the day he received the good news.
b. remained just as positive as they were on the day he received the good news.
c. returned to nearly the same level as they were during the month before the good
news.
d. became more negative than they were during the month before the good news.
e. became more and more elevated and achieved a higher level of “normal”
happiness.
____ 124. People are likely to experience higher levels of ________ if they seek to contribute to their
communities rather than simply strive for personal wealth and power.
a. relative deprivation
b. facial feedback
c. well-being
d. the general adaptation syndrome
e. catharsis
____ 125. Which of the following best explains why both million-dollar lottery winners and paraplegics report
similar levels of happiness?
a. the facial feedback effect
b. the relative deprivation principle
c. the spillover effect
d. the adaptation-level phenomenon
e. James-Lange theory
____ 126. During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome are organisms best able to physically cope
with stress?
a. resistance
b. appraisal
c. adjustment
d. resolution
e. adaptation
____ 127. Which of the following is considered the most significant source of stress for most people?
a. large-scale catastrophes
b. significant life changes
c. personality characteristics
d. psychosomatic symptoms
e. daily hassles
____ 128. Studying initially healthy men over a 10-year period, researchers found that pessimistic adult men
were more than twice as likely as optimistic men to experience
a. a proliferation of lymphocytes.
b. coronary heart disease.
c. low blood sugar levels.
d. spontaneous remission.
e. relative deprivation.
____ 129. Wild animals placed in zoos sometimes die shortly thereafter. These deaths are likely to result from
a(n)
a. decrease in the animals' production of lymphocytes.
b. increase in the animals' production of oxytocin.
c. decrease in the animals' production of cortisol.
d. increase in the animals' production of serotonin.
e. decrease in the animals' production of dopamine.
____ 130. As compared with the production of egg cells, sperm cell production
a. begins later in life.
b. involves a jellylike outer covering.
c. begins earlier in life.
d. involves differentiation prior to fusion with the egg.
e. begins shortly after conception.
____ 131. Darlene smoked heavily during the entire 9 months of her pregnancy. Her newborn baby will most
likely be
a. underweight.
b. autistic.
c. hyperactive.
d. hearing impaired.
e. insecurely attached.
____ 132. The association areas are the last cortical areas to fully develop their
a. schemas.
b. teratogens.
c. neural networks.
d. primary sex characteristics.
e. habituation.
____ 133. Mr. and Mrs. Batson can't wait to begin toilet training their year-old daughter. The Batsons most
clearly need to be informed about the importance of
a. imprinting.
b. habituation.
c. fluid intelligence.
d. maturation.
e. object permanence.
____ 134. Piaget was convinced that the mind of a child
a. is like a blank slate at birth.
b.
c.
d.
e.
is not heavily influenced by maturation.
develops through a series of stages.
is heavily dependent on the child's personality.
develops due to psycho-social conflict resolution.
____ 135. A concept or framework that organizes and interprets information is called a(n)
a. assimilation.
b. attachment.
c. temperament.
d. schema.
e. neural network.
____ 136. According to Piaget, accommodation refers to
a. parental efforts to include new children in the existing family structure.
b. incorporating new experiences into existing schemas.
c. developmental changes in a child's behavior that facilitate social acceptance by
family and peers.
d. adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences.
e. the maturation of newborn reflexes into more mature ways of thinking and acting.
____ 137. Which of the following represents the correct order of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?
a. preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor
b. sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational
c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational
d. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational
e. concrete operational, sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational
____ 138. When people with autism watch another person's hand movements, they display less ________ than
most others.
a. habituation
b. egocentrism
c. mirror neuron activity
d. stranger anxiety
e. imprinting
____ 139. Providing children with a safe haven in times of stress contributes most directly to
a. habituation.
b. stranger anxiety.
c. object permanence.
d. secure attachment.
e. egocentrism.
____ 140. The presence of a secure base and safe haven infants can use when distressed has the greatest effect
on the development of which of the following?
a. attachment
b. maturation
c. self-concept
d. critical period
e. temperament
____ 141. Securely attached people exhibit less
a. habituation.
b. object permanence.
c. authoritative parenting.
d. fear of failure.
e. gender typing.
____ 142. Children from families in which fathers were most involved in parenting tended to
a. achieve more in school.
b. develop stronger gender typing.
c. accommodate more diverse schema.
d. reason at the postconventional stage.
e. have shorter critical periods.
____ 143. Foster care that moves a young child through a series of foster families is most likely to result in the
disruption of
a. the rooting reflex.
b. habituation.
c. attachment.
d. object permanence.
e. assimilation.
____ 144. In considering day-care opportunities for their four children, Mr. and Mrs. Taylor should be most
concerned about whether the experience will influence
a. egocentrism in their 3-year-old son, James.
b. object permanence in their 2-year-old son, Billy.
c. secure attachment in their 6-month-old daughter, Julia.
d. maturation in their 4-year-old daughter, Sandra.
e. theory of mind in their 1-month-old son, Marco.
____ 145. Combined data from 88 studies indicate that there are no differences in the self-esteem scores of
children who are
a. adoptees rather than nonadoptees.
b. securely rather than insecurely attached.
c. raised by authoritative rather than by authoritarian parents.
d. in their early rather than their late teens.
e. imprinted on grandparents rather than on biological parents.
____ 146. Two characteristics of authoritarian parents are that they
a. expect obedience but are responsive to their children's needs.
b. submit to their children's desires but are unresponsive in times of need.
c. impose rules and expect obedience.
d. exert control by setting rules and explaining the reasons for those rules.
e. are emotionally abusive and overly demanding.
____ 147. Compared with men, women experience a greater risk of
a. autism.
b.
c.
d.
e.
color blindness.
eating disorders.
antisocial personality disorders.
addictions.
____ 148. Prenatal testosterone secretions exert one of their earliest influences on
a. genes.
b. teratogens.
c. gender schemas.
d. brain organization.
e. menarche.
____ 149. Unused neural connections in the brain are reduced through a process of
a. assimilation.
b. accommodation.
c. conservation.
d. pruning.
e. imprinting.
____ 150. The remarkable academic and vocational successes of the children of refugee “boat people” from
Vietnam and Cambodia best illustrate the importance of
a. individualism.
b. temperament.
c. family environment.
d. personal space.
e. predisposition.
____ 151. Which of the following phases of development extends from the beginning of sexual maturity to
independent adulthood?
a. puberty
b. adolescence
c. menopause
d. menarche
e. formal operational stage
____ 152. Nonreproductive sexual characteristics such as the deepened male voice and male facial hair are
called
a. masculine prototypes.
b. secondary sex characteristics.
c. primary sex characteristics.
d. teratogens.
e. schema.
____ 153. Jean Piaget is to cognitive development as Lawrence Kohlberg is to ________ development.
a. emotional
b. physical
c. moral
d. social
e. language
____ 154. The corrupt behavior of many ordinary people who served as Nazi concentration camp guards best
illustrates that immorality often results from
a. social influence.
b. crystallized intelligence.
c. abnormal cognitive development.
d. postconventional moral thinking.
e. biological predispositions.
____ 155. As individuals progress through their teen years into early adulthood, their self-concepts typically
become
a. less personalized and unique.
b. more fluid and changeable.
c. less integrated.
d. more positive.
e. more fluid and less crystallized.
____ 156. Research on teen social relationships indicates that most adolescents
a. like their parents.
b. seldom experience feelings of loneliness.
c. want to avoid emotionally close relationships with peers.
d. experience positive relationships with peers and negative relationships with
parents.
e. experience attachment difficulties with their parents.
____ 157. The ratio of males to females first begins declining during
a. adulthood.
b. infancy.
c. childhood.
d. adolescence.
e. prenatal development.
____ 158. Older adults outperformed younger adults in their responses to New York Times crossword puzzles.
The superior performance of these older adults best illustrates the value of
a. habituation.
b. fluid intelligence.
c. concrete operational thought.
d. crystallized intelligence.
e. conservation.
____ 159. The age at which people are expected to leave home, get a job, and marry has changed dramatically
in Wallonia over the past 50 years. Developmentalists would say that the country's ________ has
been altered.
a. social clock
b. developmental norm
c. maturation cycle
d. family calendar
e. social identity
____ 160. There is very little relationship between the age of an adult and his or her
a. fluid intelligence.
b. ability to recall meaningless information.
c. level of life satisfaction.
d. susceptibility to accidental physical injury.
e. susceptibility to colds and flu.
____ 161. When 16-year-old Hafez received a large inheritance from his grandfather, he was tempted to
purchase an expensive new car. He decided, instead, to deposit all the money into a savings account
for his college education. Hafez shows signs of a
a. weak superego.
b. weak id.
c. strong collective unconscious.
d. strong ego.
e. weak collective unconscious.
____ 162. One-year-old Melissa derives great pleasure from putting everything she touches in her mouth—
toys, balls, Mom's keys, for example. Freud would have suggested that Melissa is going through the
________ stage of development.
a. phallic
b. anal
c. genital
d. latency
e. oral
____ 163. Byron is always looking to others for advice, approval, and affection. According to the
psychoanalytic perspective, Byron is most likely fixated at the ________ stage.
a. phallic
b. anal
c. latency
d. genital
e. oral
____ 164. According to Freud, defense mechanisms are used by the
a. id to defend against the accusations and guilt feelings produced by the superego.
b. ego to prevent threatening impulses from being consciously recognized.
c. superego to prevent expression of sexual and aggressive drives.
d. id, ego, and superego in a repetitive sequence of internal conflicts.
e. unconscious to avoid the self-serving bias.
____ 165. Bruce has unconscious impulses toward violent aggression, but his ego channels these impulses into
his work as a district attorney, putting violent criminals in jail. Which defense mechanism is Bruce's
ego employing?
a. repression
b. reaction formation
c. rationalization
d. displacement
e. sublimation
____ 166. Both Karen Horney and Alfred Adler placed greater emphasis than did Freud on the role of
________ in personality development.
a. defense mechanisms
b. social interactions
c. the collective unconscious
d. genetic predispositions
e. psychosexual stages
____ 167. Karen Horney, a prominent neo-Freudian, disputed Freud's assumption that women
a. have weak superegos.
b. suffer an Electra complex.
c. often experience learned helplessness.
d. have stronger sexual instincts than men.
e. never experience a phallic stage of development.
____ 168. Which of the following Freudian ideas is most consistent with contemporary psychological research
findings?
a. The conscience is largely formed in the process of resolving the Oedipus complex.
b. People generally protect themselves by projecting their own undesirable traits onto
others.
c. Most memory loss results from unconsciously motivated repression.
d. Conscious awareness of what goes on in our own minds is very limited.
e. Children mature through distinct psychosexual stages.
____ 169. People who break speed limits tend to think that many others do the same. This best illustrates
a. the spotlight effect.
b. self-transcendence.
c. the false consensus effect.
d. unconditional positive regard.
e. external locus of control.
____ 170. According to terror-management theory, anxiety about our own mortality motivates our pursuit of
a. self-esteem.
b. parallel processing.
c. reciprocal determinism.
d. the collective unconscious.
e. an external locus of control.
____ 171. Which theorist emphasized that an individual's personal growth is promoted by interactions with
others who are genuine, accepting, and empathic?
a. Gordon Allport
b. Carl Jung
c. Carl Rogers
d. Sigmund Freud
e. Albert Bandura
____ 172. Carl Rogers believed that in order to be a fully-functioning individual, you must
a. have a strong ego.
b. possess an optimistic explanatory style.
c. challenge your feelings of inferiority.
d. receive unconditional positive regard.
e. perceive an internal locus of control.
____ 173. Over the last few years, Mr. Helmus has been obsessed with bizarre thoughts and has become
increasingly agitated and socially withdrawn. Which personality inventory would be most helpful for
assessing the nature and severity of his symptoms?
a. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
b. TAT
c. Rorschach inkblot test
d. MMPI
e. locus of control test
____ 174. The tendency to accept favorable descriptions of one's personality that could really be applied to
almost anyone is known as
a. the halo effect.
b. the Barnum effect.
c. projection.
d. the self-reference phenomenon.
e. unconditional positive regard.
____ 175. The stability of personality traits over time is greatest among
a. children.
b. college students.
c. 30-year olds.
d. 60-year olds.
e. women.
____ 176. Compared with European-American students, Asian-American students express a somewhat greater
________ about their future performance, which may help to explain their impressive academic
achievements.
a. unconditional positive regard
b. self-serving bias
c. false consensus effect
d. pessimism
e. optimism
____ 177. The best indicator of a person's level of optimism is his or her
a. ideal self.
b. gender identity.
c. attributional style.
d. unconditional positive regard.
e. self-esteem.
____ 178. Erik Erikson's theory predicted that adolescents are focused on forming a stable identity. This focus
may explain why adolescents are especially prone to
a. the spotlight effect.
b. projection.
c. free association.
d. reciprocal determinism.
e. external locus of control.
____ 179. When people compare their personal qualities with those of the average person, they are most likely
to experience
a. the Barnum effect.
b. an external locus of control.
c. the spotlight effect.
d. high self-esteem.
e. reciprocal determinism.
____ 180. Bonnie thinks her school has the best teachers in the county. Her belief best illustrates
a. self-transcendence.
b. the spotlight effect.
c. reaction formation.
d. unconditional positive regard.
e. self-serving bias.
____ 181. A collectivist culture is especially likely to emphasize the importance of
a. social harmony.
b. personal privacy.
c. innovation and creativity.
d. racial diversity.
e. self-actualization.
____ 182. Individualism is to collectivism as ________ is to ________.
a. responsibility; freedom
b. industrialization; democracy
c. empathy; self-serving bias
d. self-flattery; personal modesty
e. pleasure principle; reality principle
____ 183. Because intelligence is defined according to the attributes that enable success in a culture,
psychologists consider intelligence to be
a. neurologically determined.
b. socially constructed.
c. based on brain structure.
d. a form of neural plasticity.
e. genetically predetermined.
____ 184. In 8 to 10 seconds, memory whiz Kim Peek can read and remember the contents of a book page.
Yet, he has little capacity for understanding abstract concepts. Kim's mental capacities best illustrate
a. autism.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Down syndrome.
emotional intelligence.
savant syndrome.
stereotype threat.
____ 185. Of the following, who best illustrates Sternberg's concept of analytical intelligence?
a. Trudy, a high school student who receives lower grades in physical education than
in any other course
b. Freda, a business executive who effectively motivates her sales staff
c. Wilma, a schoolteacher who refuses to pay taxes because they are used to develop
new weapons
d. Selma, a fifth-grader who solves complicated mathematical problems in record
time
e. Nicole, a teenager who completes the road test for her driver's license without a
single error
____ 186. When Andy becomes upset about getting a poor grade, he typically fails to realize that he feels
scared. This lack of self-insight best illustrates an inadequate level of
a. the g factor.
b. analytical intelligence.
c. factor analysis.
d. emotional intelligence.
e. predictive validity.
____ 187. The ability to deal effectively with social conflict is not likely to be reflected in one's performance
on the WAIS. This best illustrates that intelligence is
a. impossible to measure with any reliability.
b. unrelated to the speed of cognitive processing.
c. a collection of distinctly different abilities.
d. a joint function of nature and nurture.
e. affected by stereotype threat.
____ 188. The Wilsons note that their 6-month-old daughter Beth seems to be developing more slowly and is
not as playful as other infants her age. Research suggests that
a. Beth's intelligence score will be below average in childhood but not necessarily in
adulthood.
b. Beth's intelligence score will be below average in both childhood and adulthood.
c. casual observation of Beth's behavior cannot be used to predict her later
intelligence score.
d. Beth's performance intelligence score but not necessarily her verbal intelligence
score will be below average in both childhood and adulthood.
e. observations of Beth's early behavior may be highly predictive of the later
development of Down syndrome.
____ 189. The percentage of people diagnosed with an intellectual disability has ________ over the past 80
years because intelligence tests have been ________.
a. increased; factor analyzed
b. remained the same; factor analyzed
c. increased; restandardized
d. decreased; restandardized
e. decreased; factor analyzed
____ 190. The intelligence test scores of adopted children are LEAST likely to be positively correlated with the
scores of their adoptive siblings during
a. early childhood.
b. middle childhood.
c. early adolescence.
d. middle adolescence.
e. early adulthood.
____ 191. Twin and adoption studies are helpful for assessing the ________ of intelligence.
a. predictive validity
b. reliability
c. heritability
d. standardization
e. content validity
____ 192. Interventions that promote intelligence teach early teens that the brain is like a muscle that
strengthens with use. This idea is designed to encourage the teens to view intelligence as
a. a reflection of the g factor.
b. a biologically determined capacity.
c. changeable over time.
d. distributed in a bell-shaped pattern.
e. an inborn trait with strengths and weaknesses.
____ 193. Boys are most likely to outperform girls in a(n)
a. essay contest.
b. chess tournament.
c. speed-reading tournament.
d. spelling bee.
e. speech-giving contest.
____ 194. Research on racial differences in intelligence indicates that
a. Black Americans typically receive higher scores than White Americans on
nonverbal intelligence test questions.
b. there is currently no difference in the average academic aptitude test scores
received by Black and White Americans.
c. on average, Black Americans perform less well than White Americans on
intelligence tests.
d. among Black Americans, those with the most African ancestry receive the highest
intelligence scores.
e. stereotype threat affects students of all races equally.
____ 195. Jim, age 55, plays basketball with much younger adults and is concerned that his teammates might
consider his age to be a detriment to their game outcome. His concern actually undermines his
athletic performance. This best illustrates the impact of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the Flynn effect.
predictive validity.
the normal curve.
stereotype threat.
reliability.
____ 196. Inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity are major symptoms of
a. OCD.
b. PTSD.
c. ADHD.
d. DID.
e. DSM.
____ 197. Mira claims that alcohol dependence is a disease that, like pneumonia or meningitis, can be cured or
prevented with proper treatment. Her belief is most clearly consistent with
a. the biopsychosocial approach.
b. psychoanalytic theory.
c. the medical model.
d. the social-cognitive perspective.
e. the learning perspective.
____ 198. The DSM-IV-TR was developed in coordination with the tenth edition of the
a. OCD.
b. DID.
c. ICD.
d. PTSD.
e. ADHD.
____ 199. Which of the following disorders is characterized by the most sudden and unpredictable episodes of
distress?
a. social phobia
b. panic disorder
c. bipolar disorder
d. alcohol dependence
e. personality disorder
____ 200. Phobias are most likely to be characterized by
a. a persistent, irrational fear of a specific object or situation.
b. offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy the person.
c. the misinterpretation of normal physical sensations as signs of a disease.
d. a continuous state of tension, apprehension, and autonomic nervous system
arousal.
e. alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism.
____ 201. Incapacitating efforts to avoid specific anxiety-producing situations is most indicative of certain
a. delusions.
b. hallucinations.
c. phobias.
d. obsessions.
e. manias.
____ 202. After watching her sister's fearful response to the sight of a spider, Kerri became intensely fearful of
spiders. This best illustrates that a specific phobia can be learned through
a. reinforcement.
b. classical conditioning.
c. linkage analysis.
d. observational learning.
e. genetic predispositions.
____ 203. Evidence that many DID patients have suffered abuse as children leads some psychologists to
include dissociative disorders under the umbrella of
a. panic disorder.
b. social phobia.
c. generalized anxiety disorder.
d. post-traumatic stress disorder.
e. personality disorders.
____ 204. The experience of depression ________ risk taking and ________ aggression.
a. has little effect on; stimulates
b. stimulates; inhibits
c. inhibits; inhibits
d. stimulates; has little effect on
e. inhibits; has little effect on
____ 205. Cognitive changes that accompany depression include a(n)
a. decrease in self-focused thinking.
b. increased expectation of negative outcomes.
c. increased externalization of blame.
d. increased obsession with experiencing physical pleasure.
e. decrease in pessimistic explanatory style.
____ 206. Inanna suffers from chronic depression. According to the social-cognitive perspective, how is she
most likely to respond when told that she performed very poorly on a test she took the previous day?
a. “The teacher in this course is probably one of the poorest teachers I have ever had.
”
b. “I'm academically incompetent and always will be. ”
c. “Yesterday was just my unlucky day.”
d. “I suspect that none of the students in my class did well on that test.”
e. “Hardly any of the teachers in this school are effective classroom teachers.”
____ 207. A therapist suggests that Margaret is depressed because she attributes her failures to her own
incompetence instead of blaming her parents and teachers for the unreasonable demands they place
on her. The therapist's interpretation most clearly reflects a ________ perspective.
a. biological
b. psychoanalytic
c. humanistic
d. social-cognitive
e. trait
____ 208. One of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia is
a. an expressionless face.
b. loud and meaningless talking.
c. inappropriate laughter.
d. uncontrollable outbursts of rage.
e. feelings of supreme importance and paranoia.
____ 209. A schizoid personality disorder is most likely to be characterized by
a. a detachment from social relationships.
b. shallow, attention-getting emotional displays.
c. a sense of self-importance.
d. an insatiable desire for attention.
e. a fear of social rejection.
____ 210. Which of the following disorders is more common among men than women?
a. bipolar disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
d. dissociative identity disorder
e. schizophrenia
____ 211. Which approach emphasizes the importance of providing patients with feelings of unconditional
acceptance?
a. cognitive therapy
b. psychoanalysis
c. biomedical therapy
d. client-centered therapy
e. systematic desensitization
____ 212. Two counterconditioning techniques for replacing unwanted responses include
a. systematic desensitization and free association.
b. spontaneous recovery and stress inoculation training.
c. unconditional positive regard and transference.
d. aversive conditioning and exposure therapy.
e. token economy and meta-analysis.
____ 213. Relaxing one muscle group after another until one achieves a completely relaxed state of comfort is
called ________ relaxation.
a. simulated
b. systematic
c. progressive
d. unconditional
e. active
____ 214. To encourage Mrs. Coleman, a withdrawn schizophrenia patient, to be more socially active,
institutional staff members give her small plastic cards whenever she talks to someone. She is
allowed to exchange these cards for candy and cigarettes. Staff members are making use of
a. active listening.
b. systematic desensitization.
c. a token economy.
d. free association.
e. classical conditioning.
____ 215. Although originally trained in Freudian techniques, Aaron Beck developed a ________ therapy for
depression.
a. behavior
b. cognitive
c. client-centered
d. biomedical
e. eclectic
____ 216. The placebo effect refers to
a. relief from symptoms without psychotherapy.
b. the alleviation of depression and anxiety by means of aerobic exercise.
c. the use of drugs in the therapeutic treatment of psychological disorders.
d. the beneficial consequences of merely expecting that a treatment will be effective.
e. the use of a variety of psychological theories and therapeutic methods.
____ 217. Statistical summaries of psychotherapy outcome studies indicate that
a. psychotherapy is no more effective than talking to a friend.
b. no single form of therapy proves consistently superior to the others.
c. psychotherapy actually harms just as many people as it helps.
d. it is impossible to measure the effectiveness of psychotherapy.
e. cognitive therapies are incompatible with behavioral therapies.
____ 218. Kammy vividly imagines being abused by her own mother while her therapist triggers eye
movements by waving a finger in front of Kammy's eyes. The therapist is apparently using a
technique known as
a. EMDR.
b. transference.
c. meta-analysis.
d. virtual reality exposure therapy.
e. systematic desensitization.
____ 219. Dr. Volz is a researcher who wants to distinguish between the direct effects of a new antianxiety
medication and effects arising from expectations of the drug's effectiveness. Dr. Volz is most likely
to use
a. the double-blind procedure.
b. meta-analysis.
c. EMDR.
d. virtual reality exposure therapy.
e. systematic desensitization.
____ 220. To help an adult client overcome fears of venturing out of his own home, Dr. Ricci plans to use
behavior therapy in combination with drug therapy. Which of the following drugs would Dr. Ricci
be most likely to prescribe?
a. lithium
b. Clozaril
c. Ativan
d. Thorazine
e. Zoloft
____ 221. Prozac, Zoloft, and Paxil are called
a. antipsychotic drugs.
b. mood-stabilizing drugs.
c. antianxiety drugs.
d. SSRIs.
e. lithium derivatives.
____ 222. Edith, a 45-year-old journalist, alternates between extreme sadness and lethargy and extreme
euphoria and overactivity. The drug most likely to prove beneficial to her is
a. lithium.
b. Xanax.
c. Clozaril.
d. Thorazine.
e. Paxil.
____ 223. Which of the following individuals is most likely to benefit from electroconvulsive therapy?
a. Mark, who feels so depressed that he recently tried to commit suicide
b. Mary, who suffers from amnesia and has lost her sense of identity
c. Jim, who experiences visual hallucinations and suffers from a delusion that enemy
spies are following him
d. Luke, who suffers from a compulsion to wash his hands at least once every 15
minutes
e. Sarah, who always feels the need to be the center of attention in any group setting
____ 224. Deep-brain stimulation involves the implantation of ________ into the cortex.
a. DNA
b. lithium
c. electrodes
d. stem cells
e. rTMS
____ 225. A dispositional attribution is to ________ as a situational attribution is to ________.
a. normative influence; informational influence
b. high ability; low motivation
c. personality traits; assigned roles
d. politically liberal; politically conservative
e. introversion; extraversion
____ 226. In explaining our own behavior or the behavior of those we know well, we often resort to
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
deindividuation.
social facilitation.
social loafing.
situational attributions.
self-disclosure theory.
____ 227. Having observed participants in his simulated prison study, Philip Zimbardo offered an explanation
for the destructive behavior of U.S. military guards at Iraq's Abu Ghraib Prison. Zimbardo's
explanation best exemplified
a. the catharsis hypothesis.
b. the two-factor theory.
c. a situational attribution.
d. mirror-image perceptions.
e. a dispositional attribution.
____ 228. Mr. Jones is a member of the faculty committee on academic standards at a local private school. He
personally disagrees with the other committee members' proposed plan to begin accepting students
with below-average grades. Mr. Jones is most likely, however, to vote in favor of their plan if
a. the other committee members are unanimous in their opinion.
b. he stated his personal opinion early in the committee's discussion.
c. committee voting is done by private ballot.
d. he has a high level of self-esteem.
e. he personally dislikes the other committee members and wishes he were on a more
prestigious college committee.
____ 229. Luella publicly agrees with her seventh-grade classmates that parents should allow 13-year-olds to
date. Later that day, she writes in her diary that she actually believes parents should prohibit kids
from dating until they are at least 15 years old. Luella's public conformity to her classmates' opinion
best illustrates the power of
a. deindividuation.
b. normative social influence.
c. the mere exposure effect.
d. informational social influence.
e. social facilitation.
____ 230. When the task of correctly identifying an individual in a slide of a four-person lineup was both
difficult and important, participants in an experiment were especially likely to conform to others'
wrong answers. This best illustrates the impact of
a. the fundamental attribution error.
b. informational social influence.
c. the mere exposure effect.
d. normative social influence.
e. ingroup bias.
____ 231. Conformity resulting from the acceptance of others' opinions about reality is said to be a response to
a. group polarization.
b. social facilitation.
c. informational social influence.
d. normative social influence.
e. deindividuation.
____ 232. When the participants in Milgram's study were later surveyed about taking part in the research, most
reported that they
a. did not believe they were actually delivering shock to the “learner.”
b. had actually enjoyed shocking the “learner.”
c. did not regret taking part in the experiment.
d. did not believe the study should be repeated.
e. had actually believed that Milgram would stop the experiment before shocks were
delivered.
____ 233. The impact of the foot-in-the-door phenomenon is most clearly illustrated by
a. the increased number of suicides shortly after Marilyn Monroe's highly publicized
b.
c.
d.
e.
death.
President John F. Kennedy's ill-fated decision to invade Cuba.
the tragic murder of Kitty Genovese just outside her New York apartment.
the destructive obedience of participants in the Milgram experiments.
the conforming opinions expressed in Asch's experiments.
____ 234. Cultural diversity best illustrates our
a. superordinate goals.
b. gene complexes.
c. attributions.
d. adaptive capacities.
e. group polarization.
____ 235. People are most likely to notice the impact of environmental influences on behavior when
confronted by
a. identical twins.
b. social scripts.
c. cultural diversity.
d. the social-responsibility norm.
e. the other-race effect.
____ 236. Frans avoids talking with food in his mouth because other people think it is crude and inappropriate.
This best illustrates the impact of
a. individualism.
b. altruism.
c. stereotypes.
d. norms.
e. deindividuation.
____ 237. Refusing to hire qualified job applicants because of the color of their skin is to engage in
a. stereotyping.
b. deindividuation.
c. discrimination.
d. the fundamental attribution error.
e. confirmation bias.
____ 238. Cross-cultural research on gender relations indicates that
a. the majority of the world's children without basic schooling are boys.
b. in most countries men and women share equally in the duties of child-rearing.
c. people perceive their fathers as more intelligent than their mothers despite gender
equality in intelligence scores.
d. there is little evidence that females are more likely to be aborted than males.
e. women are more likely than man to engage in multi-tasking behaviors and are
more capable of performing these kinds of tasks.
____ 239. Studies have revealed diminished activity in the ________ of violent criminals.
a. amygdala
b. hypothalamus
c. frontal lobes
d. sensory cortex
e. medulla
____ 240. Stress often generates a readiness to be aggressive that is associated with
a. stereotyping.
b. ingroup bias.
c. social facilitation.
d. the fight-or-flight reaction.
e. the fundamental attribution error.
____ 241. Professor Lindsten emphasized that aggressive behavior often involves the interactive influence of
personal frustration, exposure to aggressive models, and heightened levels of arousal. The
professor's emphasis best illustrates
a. attribution theory.
b. the reciprocity norm.
c. social facilitation.
d. a biopsychosocial approach.
e. social exchange theory.
____ 242. An increased liking for an unfamiliar stimulus following repeated experience with it is known as
a. social facilitation.
b. companionate love.
c. the mere exposure effect.
d. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
e. mirror-image perceptions.
____ 243. Research on physical attractiveness indicates that
a. babies prefer attractive over unattractive faces.
b. most children perceive themselves to be physically unattractive.
c. young adults' physical attractiveness fails to predict their frequency of dating.
d. adults' incomes are unrelated to whether they are plain looking or very attractive.
e. babies do not show preferences for any particular facial characteristics.
____ 244. Women are attracted to healthy-looking men, but especially to those who seem to be
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
submissive.
insecure.
mature.
less attractive than themselves.
more attractive than themselves.
____ 245. Research on physical attractiveness indicates that men are more likely than women to
a. express dissatisfaction with their own physical appearance.
b. deny that their liking for physically attractive dates is influenced by good looks.
c. judge members of the opposite sex as more attractive if they have a youthful
appearance.
d. marry someone who is less physically attractive than themselves.
e. be attracted to dating partners whose hips are narrower than their waists.
____ 246. The two-factor theory of emotion has been used to explain
a. the bystander effect.
b. passionate love.
c. social facilitation.
d. the mere exposure effect.
e. the just-world phenomenon.
____ 247. Which of the following people would be most likely to help Gita study for her history exam?
a. Gita's older brother, who probably has nothing better to do that evening
b. Gita's mother, who is excited about the unexpected bonus she just received from
her employer
c. Gita's father, who always points out how differently men and women think and act
d. Gita's younger sister, whose boyfriend just canceled their date for the next evening
e. Gita's co-worker, who stayed late after work to chat with Gita.
____ 248. As Arlette walks through a shopping mall, she happens to pass an older woman who is sitting on a
bench, clutching her arm, and moaning in pain. The presence of many other shoppers in the mall will
most likely increase the probability that Arlette will
a. experience contempt for the older woman.
b. help the woman by calling an ambulance.
c. experience a sense of empathy for the older woman.
d. fail to notice the older woman's problem.
e. experience the emotional benefits of altruism by helping the older woman.
____ 249. In most desegregated schools, ethnic groups resegregate themselves in the lunchrooms. People in
each group often think they would welcome more contact with the other group, but they assume that
the other group does not reciprocate the wish. This pattern of thinking best illustrates
a. mirror-image perceptions.
b. implicit prejudice.
c. the other-race effect.
d. deindividuation.
e. a social trap.
____ 250. The concept of a superordinate goal is best illustrated by
a. the plan of a university freshman to enter medical school and eventually become a
physician.
b. the intent of management and labor to produce a fuel-efficient automobile that will
outsell any car on the market.
c. the desire of a social worker to do volunteer work in the inner city in order to
improve race relations.
d. a university president's plan to give students two extra days of spring vacation.
e. the motivation of a student to achieve the highest test average in the class.
2017 Final Exam Practice C
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 5 | Section- Psychology's History and Approaches
2. ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 8 | Section- Psychology's History and Approaches
3. ANS: E
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 10 | Page 11 | Section- Psychology's History and Approaches
4. ANS: D
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 10 | Page 11 | Section- Psychology's History and Approaches
5. ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 13 | Section- Psychology's History and Approaches
6. ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 13 | Section- Psychology's History and Approaches
7. ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 14 | Section- Psychology's History and Approaches
8. ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 26 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
9. ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 27 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
10. ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 28 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
11. ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 29 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
12. ANS: E
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 35 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
13. ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 35 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
14. ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 37 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
15. ANS: B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 38 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
16. ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 39 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
17. ANS: D
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 41 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
18. ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 42 | Section- Research Methods: Thinking Critically With Psychological Science
19. ANS: E
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 51 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3A—Neural Processing and the Endocrine System
20. ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 56 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3A—Neural Processing and the Endocrine System
21. ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 59 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3A—Neural Processing and the Endocrine System
22. ANS: B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 68 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3B—The Brain
23. ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 71 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3B—The Brain
24. ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 75 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3B—The Brain
25. ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 75 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3B—The Brain
26. ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 78 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3B—The Brain
27. ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 78 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3B—The Brain
28. ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 80 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3B—The Brain
29. ANS: E
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 97 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3C—Genetics-Evolutionary Psychology-and
Behavior
30. ANS: C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 100 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3C—Genetics-Evolutionary Psychology-and
Behavior
31. ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 102 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3C—Genetics-Evolutionary Psychology-and
Behavior
32. ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 103 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3C—Genetics-Evolutionary Psychology-and
Behavior
33. ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 103 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3C—Genetics-Evolutionary Psychology-and
Behavior
34. ANS: B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 106 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3C—Genetics-Evolutionary Psychology-and
Behavior
35. ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 106 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3C—Genetics-Evolutionary Psychology-and
Behavior
36. ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 116 | Section- Sensation and Perception
37. ANS: E
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 116 | Section- Sensation and Perception
38. ANS: B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 120 | Section- Sensation and Perception
39. ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 121 | Section- Sensation and Perception
40. ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 123 | Section- Sensation and Perception
41. ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 126 | Section- Sensation and Perception
42. ANS: B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 126 | Section- Sensation and Perception
43. ANS: B
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 129 | Section- Sensation and Perception
44. ANS: E
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 133 | Section- Sensation and Perception
45. ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 133 | Section- Sensation and Perception
46. ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 143 | Section- Sensation and Perception
47. ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 144 | Section- Sensation and Perception
48. ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 144 | Section- Sensation and Perception
49. ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 144 | Section- Sensation and Perception
50. ANS: B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 144 | Section- Sensation and Perception
51. ANS: C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 145 | Section- Sensation and Perception
52. ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 145 | Section- Sensation and Perception
53. ANS: B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 147 | Section- Sensation and Perception
54. ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 151 | Section- Sensation and Perception
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
ANS:
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ANS:
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ANS:
REF:
97. ANS:
REF:
98. ANS:
REF:
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 157 | Section- Sensation and Perception
E
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 180 | Section- States of Consciousness
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 181 | Section- States of Consciousness
B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 188 | Section- States of Consciousness
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 189 | Section- States of Consciousness
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 189 | Section- States of Consciousness
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 190 | Section- States of Consciousness
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 195 | Section- States of Consciousness
B
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 199 | Section- States of Consciousness
A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 200 | Section- States of Consciousness
B
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 205 | Section- States of Consciousness
C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 207 | Section- States of Consciousness
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 219 | Section- Learning
C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 219 | Section- Learning
A
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 219 | Section- Learning
B
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 220 | Section- Learning
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 220 | Section- Learning
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 221 | Section- Learning
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 222 | Section- Learning
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 223 | Section- Learning
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 227 | Section- Learning
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 229 | Section- Learning
B
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 231 | Section- Learning
D
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 233 | Section- Learning
B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 234 | Section- Learning
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 239 | Section- Learning
E
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 241 | Section- Learning
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 243 | Section- Learning
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 245 | Section- Learning
B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 246 | Section- Learning
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 246 | Section- Learning
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 260 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 264 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 266 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
B
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 266 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
A
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 266 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
D
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 276 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 281 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
B
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 284 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
E
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 290 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
A
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 294 | Section- Cognition: 7A—Memory
C
DIF: Easy
Page 298 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
C
DIF: Medium
Page 300 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
D
DIF: Medium
Page 300 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
99. ANS:
REF:
100. ANS:
REF:
101. ANS:
REF:
102. ANS:
REF:
103. ANS:
REF:
104. ANS:
REF:
105. ANS:
REF:
106. ANS:
REF:
107. ANS:
REF:
108. ANS:
REF:
109. ANS:
REF:
110. ANS:
REF:
111. ANS:
REF:
112. ANS:
REF:
113. ANS:
REF:
114. ANS:
REF:
115. ANS:
REF:
116. ANS:
REF:
117. ANS:
REF:
118. ANS:
REF:
119. ANS:
REF:
120. ANS:
REF:
121. ANS:
REF:
122. ANS:
REF:
123. ANS:
C
DIF: Medium
Page 303 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
E
DIF: Medium
Page 304 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
D
DIF: Medium
Page 305 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
D
DIF: Easy
Page 307 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
C
DIF: Medium
Page 307 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
B
DIF: Easy
Page 309 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
D
DIF: Easy
Page 313 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
B
DIF: Medium
Page 315 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
C
DIF: Medium
Page 315 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
C
DIF: Medium
Page 316 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
C
DIF: Medium
Page 318 | Section- Cognition: 7B—Thinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
D
DIF: Medium
Page 333 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8A—Motivation
A
DIF: Medium
Page 333 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8A—Motivation
C
DIF: Difficult
Page 351 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8A—Motivation
D
DIF: Easy
Page 353 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8A—Motivation
B
DIF: Medium
Page 354 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8A—Motivation
B
DIF: Medium
Page 355 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8A—Motivation
C
DIF: Difficult
Page 372 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
C
DIF: Easy
Page 372 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
D
DIF: Medium
Page 374 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
C
DIF: Difficult
Page 378 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
D
DIF: Difficult
Page 383 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
C
DIF: Medium
Page 386 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
A
DIF: Difficult
Page 387 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
C
DIF: Medium
REF:
124. ANS:
REF:
125. ANS:
REF:
126. ANS:
REF:
127. ANS:
REF:
128. ANS:
REF:
129. ANS:
REF:
130. ANS:
131. ANS:
132. ANS:
133. ANS:
134. ANS:
135. ANS:
136. ANS:
137. ANS:
138. ANS:
139. ANS:
140. ANS:
141. ANS:
142. ANS:
143. ANS:
144. ANS:
145. ANS:
146. ANS:
147. ANS:
148. ANS:
149. ANS:
150. ANS:
151. ANS:
152. ANS:
153. ANS:
154. ANS:
155. ANS:
156. ANS:
157. ANS:
158. ANS:
159. ANS:
160. ANS:
161. ANS:
162. ANS:
163. ANS:
Page 390 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
C
DIF: Easy
Page 392 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
D
DIF: Medium
Page 394 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
A
DIF: Medium
Page 399 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
E
DIF: Easy
Page 401 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
B
DIF: Medium
Page 402 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
A
DIF: Difficult
Page 404 | Section- Motivation and Emotion: 8B—Emotions-Stress-and Health
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 411 | Section- Developmental Psychology
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 413 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 416 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 416 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 418 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 418 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 418 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 420 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 425 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 427 | Section- Developmental Psychology
A
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 426 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 428 | Section- Developmental Psychology
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 430 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 431 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 431 | Section- Developmental Psychology
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 433 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 433 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 435 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 438 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 442 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 444 | Section- Developmental Psychology
B
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 445 | Section- Developmental Psychology
B
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 446 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 449 | Section- Developmental Psychology
A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 450 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 452 | Section- Developmental Psychology
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 452 | Section- Developmental Psychology
A
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 455 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 464 | Section- Developmental Psychology
A
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 465 | Section- Developmental Psychology
C
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 469 | Section- Developmental Psychology
D
DIF: Medium
REF: Page 482 | Section- Personality
E
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 482 | Section- Personality
E
DIF: Difficult
REF: Page 483 | Section- Personality
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
B
E
B
A
D
C
A
C
D
D
B
D
D
C
A
D
E
A
D
B
D
D
D
C
C
C
E
C
C
B
C
D
C
C
C
B
A
C
D
D
C
B
B
D
A
A
C
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Difficult
Medium
Medium
Difficult
Medium
Medium
Easy
Difficult
Difficult
Easy
Medium
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Easy
Medium
Difficult
Easy
Easy
Difficult
Easy
Medium
Easy
Medium
Difficult
Medium
Medium
Medium
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
Page 483 | Section- Personality
Page 484 | Section- Personality
Page 484 | Section- Personality
Page 484 | Section- Personality
Page 488 | Section- Personality
Page 488 | Section- Personality
Page 489 | Section- Personality
Page 491 | Section- Personality
Page 491 | Section- Personality
Page 496 | Section- Personality
Page 499 | Section- Personality
Page 498 | Section- Personality
Page 507 | Section- Personality
Page 507 | Section- Personality
Page 512 | Section- Personality
Page 513 | Section- Personality
Page 515 | Section- Personality
Page 517 | Section- Personality
Page 517 | Section- Personality
Page 524 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 525 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 527 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 528 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 529 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 540 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 542 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 545 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 546 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 548 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 549 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 552 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 555 | Section- Testing and Individual Differences
Page 563 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 564 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 565 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 570 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 571 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 571 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 574 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 579 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 580 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 586 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 587 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 587 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 591 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 596 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
Page 597 | Section- Abnormal Psychology
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
229.
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
247.
248.
249.
250.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
D
D
C
C
B
D
B
A
A
C
D
A
A
C
C
D
C
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
C
D
C
C
C
D
D
C
A
C
C
B
B
D
A
B
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Medium
Easy
Easy
Easy
Easy
Easy
Medium
Medium
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Medium
Medium
Difficult
Easy
Difficult
Medium
Difficult
Difficult
Easy
Medium
Difficult
Medium
Medium
Medium
Easy
Medium
Medium
Easy
Difficult
Easy
Medium
Easy
Difficult
Easy
Medium
Difficult
Medium
Medium
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
Page 610 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 611 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 612 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 614 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 615 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 621 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 622 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 624 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 629 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 630 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 630 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 632 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 633 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 635 | Section- Treatment of Psychological Disorders
Page 644 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 644 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 649 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 652 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 653 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 653 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 653 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 655 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 656 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 661 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 662 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 662 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 664 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 665 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 671 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 673 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 677 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 678 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 680 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 681 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 681 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 683 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 685 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 685 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 690 | Section- Social Psychology
Page 690 | Section- Social Psychology