Download 1 Basic Biology 1. Draw the structure of an eukaryotic cell and label

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Basic Biology
1. Draw the structure of an eukaryotic cell and label its different organelles
2. Write true or false. (Any four)
a) Main componenent of cell membrane is carbohydrate.
b) Ribosome helps in protein synthesis.
c) Cytoplasm contains water
d) Main function of mitochondria is to generate ATP.
e) Endoplasmic reticulum helps in trafficking of proteins.
f) DNA is present within the nucleus
g) Lysosome is also known as suicidal bags.
3 Points
1 x 4 Points
3. Complex traits are features whose properties are controlled by :
1 Point
a) Single gene b) Mendelian genetics
c) Many genes acting additively
d) Non-linearity between genotypes and phenotypes
e) Non- quantitive manner
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4. The order of related HOX genes in Drosophila and in mice are:
a) Same b) Different c) 50% same d) about 25% different
1 Point
5. Minimal Unit of Biological Development is
a) Cell
b) Organism c) Tissue
d) Organ
f) Nucleoprotein Complex
1 Point
6. Bicoid protein controls:
a) axis formation b) polarity
e) Bacteria
1 Point
c) growth
d) gastrulation
7. What is the area of an enzyme called where the chemical reactions occur? 1 Point
a) The Cofactor b) The Active Site
c) The Coenzyme
d) The Nucleus
8 . State True or False (Any Four)
4 Points
a) The reaction catalysed by the proteolytic enzymes is the hydrolysis of a peptide
bond.
(T/F)
b) Formation of an Enzyme-Substrate complex is the first step in enzymatic catalysis
(T/F)
c) Allosteric enzymes do not follow Michaelis-Menten Kinetics
(T/F)
d) Apoenzyme + Cofactor
Holoenzyme
(T/F)
e) Ribozymes are RNA and act as enzymes
(T/F)
f) Enzyme are highly specific both the reaction catalysed and in their choice of
reactants (substrates).
(T/F)
9. Fill in the blanks (Any One)
1 Point
a) Hydration of carbon dioxide is catalysed by ………………………………….
b) …………….. .. is an enzyme that binds to sucrose and breaks the disaccharide.
10. Dehydorgenases are classified as
a) Hydrolases
b) Ligases
c) Oxidoreductases
1 Point
d) Kinases
11. In the steady state of enzyme catalyzed substrate conversion, equilibrium exists
between the transition state and:
1 Point
a) Substrate
b) Enzyme
c) Enzyme and substrate d) Enzyme and product.
12. Enzymes are different from chemical catalysts in terms of:
1 Point
a) Lowering of Eact
b) Reversibility
c) Temperature dependency
d) Substrate specificity
13. The Arrhenius relation correlates between:
1 Point
a) Reaction rate and temperature b) Energy of activation and temperature
c) Energy of activation and reaction rate d)Entropy and reaction rate.
14. The Michaelis-Menten relation is commonly rearranged to yield:
1 Point
a) Dixon plot
b) Double reciprocal plot
c) Leher plot d) Stern-Volmer plot
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15. The maximum rate of an enzyme-substrate reaction is controlled by: 1 Point
a) Temperature b) Solvent viscosity c) Configuration of enzyme
d) Diffusion controlled process
16. The Double helix DNA model is based on
a) A-DNA b) B-DNA
c) C-DNA
d) Z-DNA
1 Point
17. If 20% of the base molecules are Guanine, how many Thymine molecules are present
in a DNA molecule with 1000 bases?
1 Point
a) 200
b) 300 c) 400 d) 700
18. The number of adenine bases in a DNA molecule equals the number of thymine bases
because
1 Point
a) DNA contains equal numbers of all four bases.
b) Thymine always follows adenine on each DNA strand.
c) DNA is made of alternating adenine and thymine bases.
d) Adenine on one strand bonds to thymine on the other strand.
19. What does the diagram below represent?
a) DNA transcription
b) c) tRNA synthesis
1 Point
b) mRNA elongation
d) DNA replication
20. A section of DNA has the following sequence of nitrogenous bases: CGATTACAG
Which of the following sequences would be produced as a result of transcription?
1 Point
a) CGTUUTCTG
b) GCTAATGTC
c) CGAUUACAG
d) GCUAAUGUC
21. Once transcribed, the eukaryotic mRNA typically undergoes substantial alteration
that results primarily from
1 Point
a)
b)
c)
d)
Excision of introns
Fusion into circular forms known as plasmid
Linkage to histone molecules
Fusion with other newly transcribed mRNA to form larger translatable unit
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22. What is the role of ribosome in protein synthesis
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Point
To split the two strands of DNA
To carry amino acids to the site of synthesis
To check and replace the faulty codons
To provide a site for mRNA and tRNA to work together
23. Choose the answer that has these events of protein synthesis in the proper sequence
1 Point
1. A tRNA binds to the first codon
2. A peptide bond forms
3. tRNA leaves ribosome
4. Ribosome associates with mRNA
5. Ribosome moves down the mRNA by three bases
a) 1,3,2,4,5
b) 4,1,2,5,3
c) 5,4,3,2,1
d) 4,1,3,2,5
24. What is the end product of Glycolysis?
e) 2,4,5,1,3
1 Point
25. Starting with 1 molecule of Glucose, how many ATP molecules are produced after
glycolysis?
1 Point
26. Name the cycle that occurs in bacteria and plants but not mammals which uses
Pyruvate as a starting material?
1 Point
27. Which sugar molecule acts as a precursor to important biomolecules such as ATP,
DNA, RNA, FAD etc?
1 Point
28. Which of the following molecules is NOT a “high energy” producing molecule with
respect to metabolism:
1 Point
(a) NADH
( b) QH2
(c) NADP
(d) ATP?
29. In what form are fatty acids stored as “fuel molecules”?
1 Point
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30. True or false: From one gram of fat, you can get more energy than the sum of one
gram of carbohydrate plus one gram of protein.
1 Point
31. What is the starting material for synthesis of long chain fatty acids?
1 Point
32. Which of the following products are NOT produced during degradation of proteins
and amino acids:
1 Point
a) Urea b) Pyruvate c) Carbon dioxide
d) Ammonia
33. What is drug target?
34. Name one proton pump inhibitor
1 Point
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35. Caspase-3 is activated only during mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis (T/F)
1 Point
36. Mention the approaches for drug target identification
1 Point
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37. Mention few essential qualifications for drug target
38. What is selectivity index (SI) in drug development
39. A drug target should have a high potential for the development
of resistance (T/F)
40. Mention important steps for drug target validation
2 Points
1 Point
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