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DIRECTIONS: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five
suggested answers or completions. Select the ONE that is BEST in each case.
1. The resistance to flow through a mesentric artery will be increased by all of the following
EXCEPT:
(A) A change in the pattern of flow from laminar to turbulent.
(B) A lengthening of the artery due to stretching of the mesentery
An increase in the hematocrit of the blood- flowing through the artery.
(D) An increase in the gradient of mean end pressure causing the flow.
(E) Contraction of its smooth muscle.
2. If ventricular and systolic pressure equals 90 mm Hg, aortic pulse pressure equals 40 mm
Hg, and aortic diastolic pressure equals 70 mm Hg, then
(A) aortic systolic pressure would be 90 mm Hg.
(B) the aortic value would close at an intraventricular pressure of 70 mm Hg.
(C) aortic systolic pressure would equal 110 mm Hg.
(D) the mitral valve would open at an intraventricular pressure of 70 mm Hg.
(B) ventricular isovolumetric relaxation would end at an intraventricular pressure of 70 mmHg.
3. If ventricular end diastolic volume and ventricular contractility both remained unchanged,
and contractile force is applied for exactly the serve length of time during each cycle, an
increase in resistance would
(A) increase ventricular pressure.
(B) shift the cardiac function dawn and to the right
(C) decrease mean circulatory filling pressure (MCFP)
(D) double heart rate.
(E) increase venous return.
4. In a Starling heart-lung preparation, heart rate, venous return and total peripheral resistance
are held constant while ventricular contractility is reduced. At the new steady-state.. One can
conclude that
(A) mean circulatory filling pressured increased.
(B) unstressed volume decreased.
(C) mean aortic pressure decreased.
(D) cardiac output decreased
(E) central venous pressure increased.
5. If mean circulatory filling pressure (MCFP) remains unchanged while blood volume
increases, on can conclude that
(A) total peripheral resistance decreased.
(B) ventricular preload increased.
(C) ventricular end diastolic pressure increased.
(D) venodilation occurred.
(E) ventricular end systolic pressure increased
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6. The vasculature is connected to a mechanical pump that has an output of 5 L/min. and
steady state flow is established. Mean circulatory filling pressure is then increased from 7 to
10 mm of Hg where it is maintained with no change in TPR. A new steady is reached where
(A) venous return is decreased.
(B) Central venous and mean arterial pressure both increase by 3 mm Hg.
(C) pressure difference across the TPR increase
(D) mean arterial pressure is decreased
(E) central venous pressure is decreased
7. A decrease in mean arterial pressure from 100 to 90 mm Hg would result in a(n)
(A) decrease in venoconstriction.
(B) decrease in total peripheral resistant
(C) increase in the firing cast of cardiac sympathetic efferent fibers.
(D)decrease in coronary blood flow.
(E) increase in the firing cast of aortic baroreceptor
8. Coronary blood flow
(A) demonstrates pronounced autoregulation.
(B) is not regulated by active hyperemia
(C) is not altered daring a single cycle by myocardial activity.
(D) is highly regulated by sympathetic fibers to its arterioles.
(B) is maximal during systole.
9. The new cardiovascular state in the proceeding figure could be produced by
(A) cutting the carotid sinus nerve.
(B) electrical stimulation of cardiac parasympathetic effect fibers
(C) intravenous infusion of a beta agonist.
(D) intravenous infusion of an alpha antagonist.
(E) none of the above
10. If the force of ventricular contractions remains constant as central venous pressure
decreases, one can conclude that
(A) venous return has decreased
(H) ventricular end diastolic pressure remains unchanged
(C) stroke volume remains unchanged
(D) stroke work will decrease.
(E) ventricular myocardial contractility has increased.
11. Severe intracranial hemorrhage will
(A) decrease the firing rate of afferent carotid sinus nerves.
(B) increase mean arterial pressure significantly above 100 mm Hg.
(C) decrease the firing rate of aortic baroreceptors.
(D) increase renal blood flow.
(B) decrease total peripheral resistance.
12. Tissue beds that decrease their arteriolar constriction in response to increased metabolic
activity are demonstrating
(A) extrinsic control.
(B) autoregulation.
(C)active hyperemia.
(D) reactive hyperemia
(E) edema.
2
13. A patient experiencing diarrhea of small intestinal origin, but normal colonic function,
would most likely exhibit
(A) decreased fluid absorption by the colon
(B) decreased NaCI secretion by crypt epithelial cells in the small intestine.
(C) decreased proportion of segmenting contractions in the small intestine
(D) increased micelle formation in the human of the small intestine.
(E) increased NACl absorption by villous epithelial cells in the small intestine.
14. The relatively slow gastric emptying of a meal rich in lipids is associated with a(n)
(A) decrease in contractions of the pylorus.
(B) increase in the force of gastric antral contractions
(C) decrease in plasma CCK levels
(D) decrease in segmenting contractions of the duodenum.
(E) decrease in tone of the oral region of the stomach
15. A patient who has evidence of damage to nerve cell bodice in the intrinsic (enteric) nerves of
the esophagus would exhibit
(A) abnormal contractions of the proximal half of the esophagus
(B) failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter upon swallowing.
(C) failure of relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter upon swallowing.
(D) loss of tone between swallows in the lower esophageal sphincter.
(E) loss of tone between swallows in the upper esophageal sphincter
16. Continuous recording of membrane electrical activity from a region of the gut demonstrates
a stable resting membrane potential. Periodically, a short burst of action potentials are
recorded while the muscle undergoes a phasic contraction. Histological examination of a
biopsy fin this muscle reveals direct innervation of each muscle cell by nerves that contain
acetylcholine. The muscle most likely is located in the
(A) aborad stomach.
(B) duodenum.
(C) ileocecal sphincter
(D) transverse colon.
(E )upper regions of the body of the esophagus.
17. If peristaltic contractions of the aborad stomach (antrum) are impaired, a patient will
experience all of the following EXCEPT;
(A) Impaired digestion of fats.
(B) Decreased gastric emptying of a moat.
(C) Loss of receptive relaxation during ingestion of a meal.
(D) Retention of undigested residue in the stomach.
(B) Decreased mixing of gastric contents.
18. Two regions of the gastrointestinal tract in which the predominant patter of contractions is
peristaltic are
(A) colon and esophagus.
(B) colon and small intestine.
(C) (aborad) stomach and esophagus.
(D) distal (aborad) stomach and small intestine.
(E) esophagus and small intestine.
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19. Which of the following is absorbed by a secondary active transport system?
(A) Potassium ions
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Triglyceride
(E) Short chain fatty acid
20. Which of the following is a blush border enzyme?
(A) Colipase
(B) Alpha dextrinase
(C) Trypsin
(A) Pepsin
(E) Amylese
21. Micelles are necessary for absorption of
(A) palmitic acid
(B) fructose
(C) trehalose
(D) peptides
(E) propionate
22. Which of the following is secreted as a proenzyme from its cells of origin?
(A) Trypsin
(B) sucrose
(C) Pancreatic Amylas
(D) Lipase
(E) Enterokinase
23. All of the fallowing statements about histamine are true EXCEPT:
(A) Histamine stimulates parietal cell adenylate cyclase activity.
(B) Histamine has a paracrine action on parietal cells
(C) Histamine binds to H-2 receptor an ECL cells
(D) Histamine stimulation results in the opening of Cl- channes in parietal cells.
(B) Histamine induced stimulation of gastric acid secretion is reduced by somatostation
24. All the following statements about cholecystokinin (CCK) are true EXCEPT:
(A) CCK is found in both endocrine and neural tissue.
(B) CCK induces the relaxation of the Sphincter of Oddi
(C) CCK stimulated pancreatic enzyme secretion is blocked by trypsin.
(D) CCK induces the secretion of bile acids into the intestinal lumen
(B) CCK has the same active site at its carboxy terminus as gastrin
25. Acidification of the GI lumen to a pH of 2.5 or less will do all of the following, EXCEPT:
(A) Stimulate pepsinogen secretion.
(B) Stimulate biliary HCO3- secretionz
(C) Inhibit gastrin release from antral G cells
(D) Denature pepsin in the gastric lumen.
(E) Stimulate secretin release from duodenal endocrine cells.
4
26. The membranes of tubulovesicles contain
(A) Na+/K+ ATPase.
(B) Cl- channels.
(C) K+ channels.
(D) both K+ and Cl- channels
(E) H+/K+ ATPase.
27. All of the following statement about bile salts art true EXCEPT:
(A) Fifty or greater percentage of bile flow is dependent on bile acid output into the
canalicular lumen.
(B)The secretion of conjugated bile salts into the canalicular lumen is regulated by an
ATP-dependent export pump
(C) Bile salt uptake from the ileum predominantly due to the passive absorption of
deconjugated bile salts
(D) Bile salts interact with each other, phospholipids and cholesterol in both the canalicular
lumen and the gall bladder to form mixed micelles.
(E) Bile salts returning to the liver via tine portal blood inhibit bile acid synthesis from
cholesterol in hepatocytcs.
DIRECTIONS: Each group of questions below consists of five-lettered heading, or a diagram
or table with five lettered components, followed by a list of numbered words, phrases, of
statements. For each numbered question, select the ONE lettered heading or component that is
MOST CLOSELY ASSOCIATED WITH IT. Each lettered component or beading may be
selected once, more than once, or not at all.
(A) GIP
(B) VIP
(C) Gastrin
(D) Secretin
(E) Motilin
28. An inhibitor of lower esophageal sphincter (LES) tone.
29. Its release is stimulated by intestinal glucose.
30. Stimulates the release of histamine from gastric ECL cells.
31. Its secretion into the blood is stimulated by sham feeding.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------(A) large arteries
(B) arterioles
(C) capillaries
(D) venules
(E) large veins
32. Location of the highest velocity of blood flow
33. Location of the lowest and pressure in a recumbent patient
34. Location of the greatest resistance to blood flow
5
ANSWERS:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
D
C
B
E
D
B
C
A
E
E
B
C
C
E
B
E
C
C
B
B
A
A
C
C
D
E
C
B
A
C
C
A
E
B
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