Download Unit 1 Exam – Constitutional Underpinnings This conflict was the a

Unit 1 Exam – Constitutional Underpinnings
1. This conflict was the a turning point for the United States, due to the Articles of Confederation provided
to be too weak
a. Revolutionary War
b. French and Indian War
c. Shay’s Rebellion
d. Civil War
e. Boston Massacre.
2. During the Constitution Convention Area’s in which the delegates agreed?
I. Do away with the Articles of Confederation
II. A minor purpose of the Government is to protect property rights
III. Suffrage for property owners only
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. I and III only
e. II and III only
3. According to traditional Democratic theory, government is dependent upon
a. Bureaucrats
b. A system of several strong groups
c. Interest groups
d. The consent of the governed
e. A powerful elite
4. The 10th Amendment
a. States that power not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by the
states, are reserved to the states.
b. Establishes the constitution, laws of the national government, and treaties are the supreme law of
the land.
c. Declares that the national government is superior to the stats is every concern.
d. Establishes that Supreme court as the Final arbiter on all civil and criminal disputes
e. None of the above are true.
5. Where do we see evidence of the Virginia Plan in our Legislative system today?
a. President Pro Temp
b. Both the House of Representatives and the Senate
c. The Senate.
d. The House of Representatives
e. None of the above
6. Elements that were not accepted from the New Jersey Plan during the Constitutional Convention were
I. A Unicameral Legislature
II. Supreme Court Judges appointed for life
III. Equal representation among states
IV. Executive chosen by the Legislative Branch
a. I only
b. II only
c. I, IV only
d. II, III, IV only
e. I, II, III, IV
7. ______ is the process by which policy comes into being and evolves over time.
a. Democracy
b. The policymaking system
c. A constellation
d. The bureaucracy
e. Government
8. Which of the following is an example of a linkage institution?
a. Political parties
b. Interest groups
c. Elections
d. The media
e. All of these are examples of linkage institutions.
9. The documents published to aide in the ratification of the Constitution.
a. Speeches by Samuel Adams
b. Madison’s journal of the Constitutional Convention
c. Washington’s letters to the people
d. Anti – Federalist doctrine
e. Federalist Papers
10. Which of the following is NOT a policymaking institution according to your textbook?
a. Congress
b. The presidency
c. The courts
d. The bureaucracy
e. The media
11. Which of the following is TRUE of voter turnout in the United States?
a. The youth vote in 2008 erased the age gap in voter turnout between young Americans and older
Americans.
b. The youth surge in the 2008 election was due in large part to increased turnout among minorities;
for the first time ever, young African Americans had a higher turnout rate than did young whites.
c. Turnout rates for the young have generally been going up, while turnout among people over 65
years of age has generally been going down since 1972.
d. Young adults age 18–29 report higher levels of interest in keeping up with politics when
compared to older adults.
e. All of the above are true.
12. The basic principles of traditional democratic theory include all of the following EXCEPT
a. equality in voting.
b. effective participation.
c. government control of information.
d. inclusion.
e. citizen control of the agenda.
13. What Constitutional Article and Section outline the powers of the Legislative branch?
a. Article II section 2
b. Article I Section 2
c. Article III section 4
d. Article II section 8
e. None of the Above
14. Pluralist theory suggests that, in the United States,
a. society is governed by an upper-class elite.
b. too many influential groups cripple government’s ability to govern.
c. many groups vie for power with no one group dominating politics.
d. Congress is stronger and more influential than the presidency.
e. because most citizens fail to pay attention to serious issues, government has become an elite
institution.
15. The notion that, in politics, the desires of the people should be replicated in government through the
choices of elected officials is called
a. minority rights.
b. majority rules.
c. representation.
d. pluralism.
e. political participation.
16. Robert Dahl’s note that in the U.S. “all active and legitimate groups in the population can make
themselves heard at some crucial stage in the process” is an expression of which theory of democracy?
a. Pluralist theory
b. Elite theory
c. Class theory
d. Hyperpluralist theory
e. Bureaucratic theory
17. The importance of McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) was to
a. Establish the supremacy of the federal government over the states
b. Place limits on the power of Congress
c. Establish the doctrine of judicial review
d. Establish the doctrine of duel federalism
e. Give greater power to the states
18. All of the following are checks on the power of the legislative branch EXCEPT:
a. The courts mat rule legislative acts unconstitutional
b. The president mat appropriate finds for proposed legislation.
c. The president may call special sessions of Congress.
d. The president may veto acts of Congress.
e. The president make recommendations legislation.
19. The Madisonian requirement that each branch of government acquire the consent of the others for many
of its actions created a system of
a. separation of powers
b. checks and balances
c. constitutional republic
d. confederated government
e. democracy
20. The Type of aide that can be used for specific purposes is called?
a. Block Grants.
b. Project Grants.
c. Categorical Grants.
d. Formula Grants.
e. None of the Above are correct.
21. The British government stepped up its control over the American colonies with new taxes and stronger
commerce right after
a. King Philip’s War.
b. the assassination of the Duke of Windsor.
c. King George’s War.
d. the Civil War.
e. the French and Indian War.
22. The document approved by the American colonies in 1776 stating grievances against
the British monarch and declaring the colonies independence was the
a. Articles of Confederation.
b. Magna Carta.
c. Bill of Rights.
d. U.S. Constitution.
e. Declaration of Independence.
23. Which of the following characteristics do NOT apply to the 55 delegates who convened the Constitutional
Convention?
a. Most were residents of western frontiers.
b. They were all men.
c. A significant number were urbanites.
d. Many were college graduates.
e. They were mostly wealthy planters.
24. According to John Locke, natural rights are
a. inherent in human beings, not dependent on government.
b. given to individuals from governments.
c. secondary to the government’s primary purpose of protecting property.
d. inclusive of the right to free speech and gun ownership.
e. None of these is true.
25. The idea that there must be restrictions placed on government to protect the natural
rights of citizens is known as
a. limited government.
b. natural law.
c. the consent of the governed.
d. American republicanism.
e. a confederation.
26. Which of the following was favored by the Anti-Federalists?
a. Stronger state governments
b. Weaker state governments
c. Longer terms for elected officials
d. Indirect elections of elected officials
e. Weakened protections for individuals liberties
27. The Connecticut Compromise at the Constitutional Convention
a. resolved the impasse between those who favored the New Jersey Plan and those who preferred
the Virginia Plan.
b. added the Bill of Rights to the Constitution in order to lessen concerns about too much power for
the new government.
c. settled the dispute about whether slavery should be permitted in the final Constitution.
d. threw out the idea of having a monarch in the United States, opting instead for an indirectly
elected president.
28. In determining congressional representation and taxation, the Constitution
a. counted slaves as three-fifths of a person.
b. did not count slaves.
c. counted slaves as free persons.
d. was silent on the issue of how slaves would be counted, instead leaving the issue to each state to
decide.
e. counted slaves as one-half of a person.
29. Opposition to ratification of the Constitution was based on the belief that it would
a. provide for elite control, endanger liberty, and weaken the states.
b. produce more democratic elements than desirable for a strong central government.
c. give too much power to the states.
d. promote pluralism, which would threaten liberty.
e. All of the above are true.
30. Which of the following is NOT true of the Articles of Confederation?
a. They vested all meaningful power in the states.
b. They represented a “league of friendship” among the states.
c. They provided for no judiciary.
d. They gave the president too much power.
e. They provided for a unicameral national legislature.
31. Among the primary differences between Federalists and Anti-Federalists,
a. Federalists favored stronger state governments; Anti-Federalists favored a stronger national
government.
b. Federalists favored a stronger national government; Anti-Federalists favored stronger state
governments.
c. Federalists insisted on a Bill of Rights; Anti-Federalists opposed a Bill of Rights.
d. Federalists favored shorter terms for elected officials; Anti-Federalists favored longer terms for
elected officials.
e. All of these are primary differences between the Federalists and Anti-Federalists.
32. Which of these has no formal role in amending the Constitution?
a. The states
b. The House of Representatives
c. The president
d. The Senate
e. None of the above; they all have a formal role in amending the Constitution.
33. Constitutional amendments are usually ratified by
a. state conventions called by a two-thirds vote in Congress.
b. a national convention.
c. a majority of the Supreme Court.
d. a two-thirds vote in each house of Congress.
e. legislatures of three-fourths of the states.
34. Constitutional amendments are usually ratified by
a. state conventions called by a two-thirds vote in Congress.
b. a national convention.
c. a majority of the Supreme Court.
d. a two-thirds vote in each house of Congress.
e. legislatures of three-fourths of the states.
35. The power of the courts to determine whether acts of Congress and the executive branch are constitutional is
called
a. judicial review.
b. stare decisis.
c. precedent.
d. laissez-faire.
e. Liberalism.
36. Judicial review was established in
a. Marbury v. Madison.
b. McCulloch v. Maryland.
c. Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas.
d. U.S. v. Lopez.
e. Dred Scott v. Sandford.
37. The supremacy clause
a. establishes the Constitution, laws of the national government, and treaties as the supreme law of
the land.
b. establishes the Supreme Court as the final arbiter in all civil and criminal disputes.
c. declares that the national government is superior to the states in every concern.
d. states that powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by the
states, are reserved to the states.
e. states that the people are the supreme authority in the United States and that the government shall
be subservient to them.
38. A marriage license issued in one state is valid and honored in all states under the constitutional
provision of
a. separation of powers.
b. full faith and credit.
c. national supremacy.
d. national licensure.
e. privileges and immunities
39. The Fifteenth, Nineteenth, Twenty-third, Twenty-fourth, and Twenty-fifth Amendments to the U.S.
Constitution have what in common?
A. They each pertain to the voting rights of African Americans.
B. They each were a direct result of the Civil War.
C. They each contributed to the expansion of the electorate.
D. They each contributed to the shrinkage of the electorate.
E. They each are part of the Bill of Rights.
40. Some scholars have suggested that a consequence of separation of powers and checks and balances
has been
a. an inability of groups to get their grievances heard.
b. gridlock and inadequate policy.
c. tyranny of the majority.
d. streamlined but hasty government decision making.
e. political instability.
41. Which of the following is NOT true when it comes to federalism?
a. Few countries have federal systems.
b. Most federal systems are democracies.
c. Authoritarian regimes generally do not use federalist systems.
d. No unitary governments are democratic.
e. Only some democracies use federal systems.
42. Which of the following statements is TRUE when it comes to types of governments?
a. The American states have unitary governments.
b. Federalism is the typical way nations organize their governments.
c. Great Britain has a federal system.
d. Most European countries are confederations.
e. None of the above is true.
43. According to the ______ of Article IV of the U.S. Constitution, the Constitution, the laws of the
national government, and treaties constitute the supreme law of the land.
a. implied powers clause
b. elastic clause
c. necessary and proper clause
d. supremacy clause
e. Tenth Amendment
44. The Constitution grants the power to directly regulate such things as drinking ages, marriage and divorce,
and sexual behavior to
a. all governments by the Bill of Rights.
b. the national government.
c. the president.
d. state governments.
e. both the state and national governments.
45. Federal policies to regulate food and drugs, build interstate highways, protect consumers, try to clean up
dirty air and water, and do many other things are all justified as ________ of Congress.
a. implied powers
b. categorical grants
c. constitutionally specified powers
d. reserved powers
e. enumerated powers
46. The Constitution’s provision that Congress has the right to “make all laws necessary and proper for carrying
into execution” its powers is often referred to as the
a. enumerated powers.
b. heart of fiscal federalism.
c. Unwritten Amendment.
d. elastic clause.
e. privileges and immunities.
47. Enumerated powers are those that are
a. reserved for the states.
b. stated in the Constitution.
c. implied in the Constitution.
d. involving money matters.
e. granted specifically to the president.
48. In determining the power of Congress to regulate commerce in the case of Gibbons v. Ogden (1824),
the Supreme Court
a. prohibited Congress from regulating business activity on the grounds it violated private property
rights.
b. listed the implied powers of Congress and the national government.
c. defined commerce very narrowly in considering the right of Congress to regulate it.
d. listed the enumerated powers of Congress and the national government.
e. defined commerce very broadly, encompassing virtually every form of commercial activity.
49. In U.S. v. Lopez (1995), the Supreme Court held that the Gun Free School Zone Act was a(n)
a. constitutional extension of Congress’ interstate commerce power.
b. constitutional and implied power of Congress.
c. constitutional under Congress’ commerce power due to the economic impact of gun possession.
d. unconstitutional because it exceeded Congress’ constitutional authority to regulate commerce.
e. unconstitutional because it violated the Second Amendment’s guarantee to bear arms.
50. The set of interactions among national, state, and local governments is called
a. pluralism.
b. bicameralism.
c. hyperpluralism.
d. intergovernmental relations.
e. international relations
51. The fact that the legal drinking age is 21 across the 50 United States is a good example of
a. the weakness of the states compared to the federal government.
b. the tendency for the federal government to ignore state police powers.
c. the influence the national government can wield over state governments through the withholding
of federal funds, despite state police powers.
d. the ability of the federal government to get around limitations on its power as set forth in the
Tenth Amendment.
e. centralized public policy making.
52. The Defense of Marriage Act
a. permits states to disregard same-sex marriages or civil unions of same-sex partners issued in
other states.
b. prohibits states from issuing same-sex marriages or civil unions to same-sex partners.
c. requires states to issue same-sex marriages and civil unions to same-sex partners.
d. requires states to recognize same-sex marriage or civil unions issued in other states for same-sex
partners.
e. requires states to provide the same rights to same-sex couples that they provide to heterosexual
couples.
53. Which of the following is TRUE of intergovernmental relations in the United States over the past two
centuries?
a. There has been a gradual shift from dual federalism to cooperative federalism.
b. There is a greater sharing of powers between the national and state governments.
c. There has been an increase in federal grants-in-aid to the states and localities from the national
government.
d. Intergovernmental relations are increasingly characterized by fiscal federalism.
e. All of these are true of intergovernmental relations in the United States over the past two
centuries.
54. The national government has exclusive control over foreign and military policy, the postal system, and
monetary policy, while the states have exclusive control over other specific areas. This division of
responsibilities reflects
a. dual federalism.
b. divided government.
c. tripartite federalism.
d. cooperative federalism.
e. fiscal federalism.
55. Cooperative federalism refers to a system in which
a. the national government and the state governments share powers and policy assignments.
b. the national government and the state governments have clearly defined, distinct powers and
policy assignments.
c. the national government reigns supreme over the state governments.
d. the state governments reign supreme over the national government.
e. None of the above is true.
56. Federal policies to regulate food and drugs, build interstate highways, protect consumers, try to clean up
dirty air and water, and do many other things are all justified as ________ of Congress.
a. implied powers
b. categorical grants
c. constitutionally specified powers
d. reserved powers
e. enumerated powers
57. The national government has exclusive control over foreign and military policy, the postal system, and
monetary policy, while the states have exclusive control over other specific areas. This division of
responsibilities reflects
a dual federalism.
b. divided government.
c. tripartite federalism.
d. cooperative federalism.
e. fiscal federalism.
58. Devolution refers to
f. transferring responsibility for policies from the state governments to the national government.
g. transferring responsibility for policies from the national government to state governments.
h. returning to the politics of nineteenth-century federalism.
i. unwinding federalism and moving toward a unitary system.
j. a movement among liberal activist judges to expand Congress’ interstate commerce power.
59. The main instrument the national government uses to influence state governments is
a. grants-in-aid.
b. mandates.
c. judicial review.
d. the Tenth Amendment.
e. presidential decrees.
60. Which of the following events contributed to the accumulation of national over state power?
a. The Civil War
b. The struggle for civil rights and racial equality
c. The elaboration of the doctrine of implied powers
d. The definition of the commerce clause
e. All of these contributed to the accumulation of national over state power.