Download ap150 sample exam questions

AP150 EXAM 1 S’15
 Chose the best answer for each question
 Only the answers on your scantron count for grading purposes
 Be academically honest
 Good luck
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1.
The word “ventral” means the same thing as:
a. Posterior
b. Caudal
c. Proximal
d. Anterior
e. Profound
2.
What level of organization is made of two or more tissues working together?
a. Cellular level
b. Organ level
c. Organ system level
d. Supra-organ level
e. None of the above
3.
The study of the function of the human body and how it maintains homeostasis is:
a. Anatomy
b. physiology
c. cytology
d. pathology
4.
Proteins that allow the movement of substances from one side of the plasma membrane to the other are called:
a. Transport proteins
b. Enzymes
c. Anchoring proteins
d. Gap filling proteins
e. Glycoproteins
5. Proteins that extend completely through the plasma membrane so that they stick out of both the inner and outer
surface of the membrane are:
a. Integral proteins
b. Peripheral proteins
c. Penetrating proteins
d. Glycocatalytic proteins
e. Paramembrane proteins
6.
A body in anatomic position has:
a. Face, chest, and abdomen forward
b. Arms at side
c. Palms facing toward the rear (back)
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
7. What anatomical plane, or section, divides the body into superior and inferior parts?
a. Oblique
b. Longitudinal
c. Misaggital
d. Coronal (frontal)
e. Transverse (horizontal)
8.
The long, tube-like space extending the length of the back and containing the spinal cord is the:
a. Cranial cavity
b. Verterbral canal
c. Mediastinum
d. Paraverterbral cavity
e. Ventral cavity
9.
Which body cavity contains the lungs, heart, esophagus, AND trachea?
a. Thoracic
b. Mediastinum
c. abdominal
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C
10. Endocrine system uses neurotransmitters to signal cells and regulate body activities.
a. True
b. False
11. At the center of an atom there is a structure called the nucleus that contains protons and electrons.
a. True
b. False
12. The study of tissues is called:
a. Histology
b. Anatomy
c. Physiology
d. Gross anatomy
e. Surface anatomy
13. Which of the following anatomical planes can never pass through both lungs simultaneously (at the same time)?
a. Cross sectional
b. Transverse
c. Coronal
d. Oblique
e. Midsaggital
14. The word that means “at or toward the midline” is:
a. Anterior
b. Sacral
c. Lateral
d. Parasagital
e. Medial
15. The mediastinum is:
a. Part of the thoracic cavity
b. The space between the lungs
c. Part of the Abdominopelvic cavity
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C
16. Which of the following system(s) remove(s) waste from the body
a. Urinary
b. Respiratory
c. Both
d. Neither
17. Identify the anatomical term that means, “at or near the front”?
a. Superficial
b. Shallow
c. Superior
d. Ventral
18. Which organ system is responsible for the transport of oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and wastes within the body
and to and from different groups of cells or tissues?
a. urinary
b. digestive
c. cardiovascular
d. endocrine
e. the respiratory
19. Which organ systems function to control and regulate other organ systems?
a. integumentary and skeletal
b. reproductive and urinary
c. nervous and endocrine
d. cardiovascular and muscular
20. Which of the following is the basic/fundamental functional and structural unit of the human body?
a. Tissues
b. Organs
c. Atoms
d. Cells
e. Organelles
21. Which organ system stores minerals, provides protection, supports, produces blood cells, and assists in
movement?
a. endocrine
b. Muscular
c. Skeletal
d. Urinary
e. Integumentary
22. Which of the following organs is NOT found in the abdominal cavity?
a. gallbladder
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Intestines
e. Bronchi
23. Neurons:
a. Conduct electrical impulses and are used by the nervous system to signal other cells
b. Release hormones
c. Transport nutrients through the body
d. Remove wastes
e. None of the above
24. Capillaries are microscopic blood vessels in which substance are able to enter and exit blood
a. True
b. False
25. The dorsal/posterior body cavities are surrounded by protective bone, but cannot expand or increase in size.
a. True
b. false
26. Which of the following system(s) are needed for cells to receive oxygen?
a. Respiratory
b. Cardiovascular
c. Urinary
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C
27. Ions are molecules or atoms that have an electrical charge
a. True
b. false
28. The simplest, smallest type of carbohydrate, that are combined to make larger carbohydrates are:
a. microsaccharides
b. Amino acids
c. Monosaccharides
d. Fatty acids
e. Nucleic acids
29. Which of the following macromolecules has the characteristic of being non-polar
a. Amino acids
b. Nucleic acids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Lipids
30. Proteins are made by combining smaller molecules called ______ together in a chain.
a. monosaccharides
b. glyerols
c. amino acids
d. nucleic acids
e. fatty acids
31. Which of the following is a monosaccharide and important energy source for cell activity:
a. Glucose
b. Glycogen
c. Sucrose
d. Glycerol
e. Prostoglanin
32. Lipids:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Include fats, oils, triglycerides, cholesterol and some vitamins
Can be used as chemical signalers (hormones)
both
neither
33. Which of the following is NOT true of proteins?
a. Proteins include a group of molecules called enzymes which help chemical reactions happen
b. Proteins contain information on how to operate and repair cells
c. Proteins can function in transport of materials and movement of cells
d. Proteins can act as chemical signals/messengers and are sometime hormones
34. Polar substances are hydrophilic and generally mix well/easily with water
a. True
b. False
35. Which of the following is the universal energy molecule of cells
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. ATP
d. CDC
e. DRT
36. If a solution has a pH of 12 it would be:
a. acidic
b. alkaline (basic)
c. neutral
37. Which of the following macromolecules are commonly broken down as a source of energy for cells?
a. lipids
b. carbohydrates
c. both
d. neither
38. Which of these is an ion in the body?
a. Calcium (Ca+)
b. Water (H20)
c. Glucose (C6H12O6)
d. Starch
39. Which organelle makes ATP
a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi body (apparatus)
d. Proteosome
e. Ribosomes
40. The cytoplasm is:
a. The fluid inside a cell’s nucleus
b. The material external to the cell membrane
c. All the material contained within the plasma membrane
d. Another word for organelles
e. The liquid part of blood
41. Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane
a. Form a barrier to separate cellular material from the extracellular environment
b. To regulate movement of substances into and out of the cell
c. To hold the cell in place
d. To help the cell communicate and coordinate with other cells
e. All of the above
42. The plasma membrane is made:
a. Overwhelmingly of lipids
b. Overwhelmingly of Proteins
c. Of lipids and proteins in relatively equal amounts
d. Of proteins and carbohydrates in relatively equal amounts
e. Of lipids and carbohydrates in relatively equal amounts
43. What aspect of plasma membrane function are phospholipids involved with?
a. Selective permeability
b. Performing chemical reactions
c. Attaching the cell to adjacent structures
d. Receiving chemical signals
44. Phospholipids:
a. Have hydrophilic tails
b. Have non-polar heads
c. Are organized into two rows to form the plasma membrane
d. are molecules that include a carbohydrate and a lipid bonded together
45. What part of the plasma membrane prevents the movement of ions and most polar substances?
a. the hydrophilic heads of lipids
b. the hydrophobic tails of lipids
c. the membrane proteins
d. glycocalyx
e. cholesterol
46. The movement of a substance across the membrane from an area where it is in high concentration to an areas
where it is in lower concentration is:
a. Filtration
b. Diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Counter transport
e. Bulk flow
47. Which of the following functions are performed by the proteins on the plasma membrane.
a. Receive chemical signals that were sent by other cells
b. Help hold the cell in place
c. Transport substances across the plasma membrane
d. Performing chemical reactions
e. All of the above
48. The most common lipid on the plasma membrane is:
a. Cholesterol
b. Glycolipids
c. Fatty acids
d. Phospholipids
e. Bipolar lipids
49. The characteristic of the plasma membrane that allows some things through but not others is called:
a. selectively permeable
b. endomembrane systems
c. membrane flow
d. fluid mosaic
50. The “control center” of the cell that contains and protects DNA is the:
a. Nucleus
b. Cytoplasm
c. mitochondria
d. golgi complex
e. chromatin
51. Which of the following forms of transport uses/requires ATP
a. Diffusion
b. Filtration
c. Osmosis
d. Ion pumps
52. Which direction would you expect the sugar to move in the example diagramed below?
a. sugar would move out of the cell
b. Sugar would move into the cell
3% sugar
5% sugar
Cell
53. Simple diffusion takes place:
a. Directly across the lipids of the cell membrane
b. Through membrane proteins
c. Both
d. Neither
54. What membrane structure allows cells to communicate one another and detect chemical signals?
a. Transport proteins
b. Receptor proteins
c. Attachment proteins
d. Marker proteins
e. Enzymes
55. Which of the following helps promote chemical reactions and are commonly found on the surface of the
plasma membrane?
a. Cholesterol
b. Glycolipids
c. Marker proteins
d. Enzymes
e. Receptors
56. Which of the following are used for the diffusion of ions across the plasma membrane
a. Channels
b. channels
c. vessicles
d. Pumps
e. Enzymes
57. The movement of material across a membrane due to hydrostatic pressure (pressurized fluid) is:
a. Facilitated diffusion
b. Secondary active transport
c. Osmosis
d. Filtration
e. Simple diffusion
58. Which organelle is a series of flattened sacs that produces new phospholipid membrane, can detoxify
substances, and has ribosomes bound to a portion of its surface?
a. Vesicles
b. Endoplasmic Reticulum
c. Lysosomes
d. Golgi apparatus
e. Nuclear envelope
59. Which of the following organelles is used to transport materials from one place to another inside a cell and can
even merge with the PM to release/secrete its contents?
a. Cytoskeleton
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Ribosomes
d. Vesicles
e. Endoplasmic reticulum
60. Which of the following is NOT a membrane bound organelle
a. Vesicles
b. Peroxisomes
c. Cytoskeleton
d. mitochondria
e. Endoplasmic reticulum
61. Which of the following is the outermost (most external) structure of a cell, is made with carbohydrates bound to
proteins and lipids, and is involved with cellular recognition/identification?
a. lipid bilayer
b. microvilli
c. cytoskeleton
d. glycocalyx
e. cilia
62. What organelle makes proteins?
a. Ribosomes
b. Peroxisomes nucleus
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Lysosomes
63. Which of the following is surrounded by two membranes
a. Mitochondria
b. Ribosomes
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Peroxisomes
e. Golgi body (apparatus)
64. Which of the following structures help hold organelles in place, maintain cell shape and rigidity, and direct
organelle movement?
a. Endoplasmic cytokore
b. Centromeres
c. Nuclear pores
d. Cytoplasmic statins
e. Cytoskeleton
65. Mitochondria
a. Produce ATP
b. Consume O2
c. Create CO2
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
66. The means by which large molecules are ‘engulfed’ by the plasma membrane and brought into the cell
resulting in the formation of a vesicle is called _______________.
a. Endocytosis (phagocytosis)
b. Exocytosis
c. Filtration
d. Osmosis
e. Facilitated diffusion
67. Which of the following organelles is involved with breaking down wastes, debri, and other unwanted
substances within the cell?
a. mitochondria
b. Peroxisomes
c. Lysosomes
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
68. Which of the following tissues would be found lining a surface where substances are absorbed and is made of
a single layer of tall, thin cells?
a. psuedostratified ciliated columnar
b. simple squamous
c. simple cuboidal
d. simple columnar
e. stratified columnar
69. The surface of an epithelial tissue (cell) that connects to the underlying material (i.e., the material the ET
covers) is the:
a. Apical surface
b. Lateral surface
c. Basal surface
d. Free surface
70. A tissue is made of:
a. Cells
b. The substances that surround the cells
c. Both
d. Neither
71. Which of the following structures seals off the space between cells?
a. Gap junction
b. Desmosome
c. Hemidesmosome
d. Tight junction
e. Adhering junction
72. If an epithelial tissue is made of many layers of cells stacked on top of each other, it is a:
a. Simple epithelium
b. Stratified epithelium
c. Psuedostratified epithelium
d. Compound epithelium
e. Glandular epithelium
73. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue?
a. lacks blood vessels
b. actively divides (cells frequently divide by mitotic division)
c. usually has a free surface
d. has lots of extracellular matrix
e. held to adjacent material by a basement membrane
74. Which of the following CORRECTLY describes the characteristics (properties) of an epithelium with many cell
layers
a. It is protective
b. It is highly permeable (i.e., easily passed through)
c. it is specialized for absorption
d. all of the above
75. Which type of tissue is found lining capillaries and in the lungs where the ability of substances to move rapidly
across a cell layer by processes like diffusion is important?
a. simple squamous
b. simple cuboidal
c. simple columnar
d. psuedostratified ciliated columnar
e. transitional
76. Which of the following is NOT a function of the basement membrane?
a. Aid in the repair of the epithelium
b. Holds/fuses the epithelium to the underlying material
c. Influences what what substances can move into the epithelium
d. Destroys pathogens that make it through the epithelium
77. Which type of epithelial tissue(s) is/are designed for secretion and absorption
a. Simple squamous
b. Simple cuboidal
c. Simple columnar
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
78. Goblet cells produce:
a. Mucus (mucin)
b. amylase
c. matrix
d. ground substance
e. fibers
79. Endothelium is the special name for the simple squamous that lines the cardiovascular system
a. True
b. false
80. If there was more sodium outside than inside a cell, yet the cell needed to move more sodium to the outside,
which type of transport would it need to use.
a. Simple diffusion
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Filtration
d. Ion pumps
e. Osmosis
81. The ability of the endocrine system to work and signal cells is based on:
a. Hormones
b. The cardiovascular system
c. Membrane proteins
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
82. Simple cuboidal and columnar ET are relatively easy to pass through because:
a. They are made of only a single layer of cells
b. The cells have a large volume
c. They are sometimes ciliated
d. The cells have microvilli
83. Simple squamous ET is associated with passive process such as _______ because of _____
a) Absorption—its high cell volume
b) Protection—its thickness
c) Secretion—its low cell volume
d) Diffusion—its low cell volume
e) Filtration—the cells have holes in them
84. Exocrine glands are made of epithelial tissue and release their secretions into a tube or duct
a. True
b. False
85. Holocrine secretion is when an entire cell disintegrates in order to release secretions
a. True
b. false
86. Which of the following is the term that refers to the “head region” of the body?
a. Sacral
b. Cephalic
c. Mental
d. Brachial
e. Vertebral
87. Which type of epithelial tissue is diagramed to the right?
a. Simple squamous
b. Simple cuboidal
c. Simple columnar
d. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
e. transitional
88. In the diagram below, the arrow is pointing to the _______________ region.
a. Crural
b. Antecubital
c. Gluteal
d. Perineal
e. Pectoral
ab. Axial
ac. Cephalic
ad. Vertebral
ae. Radial
bc. Inguinal
88
89. In the diagram below the arrow is pointing to the ____ region.
a. femora
b. crural
c. radial
d. carpal
e. pectoral
ab. Sternal
ac. axillary
ad. cervical
ae. abdominal
bc. biceps
bd. Clavicular
be. brachial
89
1. Collagen fibers are _________________ and are made by ______________
a. Elastic—mast cells
b. Very Strong—plasma cells
c. Very strong---fibroblasts
d. Very strong—mast cells
e. Elastic—fibroblasts
2. Which of the following tissues functions to store energy, protect, and insulate?
a. Dense regular collagenous
b. Dense irregular collagenous
c. Areolar
d. Adipose
e. Stratified squamous
3. Which of the following connective tissues is found widely scattered throughout the body, provides a
loose supportive connection between structures, and contains loosely arranged collagen and elastic
fibers oriented in many directions?
a. Stratified squamous
b. Dense connective
c. Areolar
d. Adipose
4. If a body part was subjected to frequent, strong, pulling forces from a single direction, what tissue would
mostly likely be found holding that part/those parts together?
a. Areolar
b. Adipose
c. Elastic tissue
d. Dense regular CT (collagenous)
e. Dense irregular CT (collagenous)
5. Which of the following fiber types can stretch and recoil (return to its original length), but is not very
strong?
a. Reticular fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Collagen fibers
d. Elastorecoilic fibers
e. None of the above
6. Which of the following tissue types has a good blood supply
a. cartilage
b. Stratified squamous epithelium
c. Adipose
d. Dense regular CT
7. Which of the following cells is found in connective tissue such as areolar and is involved with fighting
and/or preventing infections?
a. Macrophages
b. Plasma cells
c. Both
d. Neither
8. Areolar and dense irregular connective tissue are similar in that:
a. Their fibers run/are oriented in many directions
b. Their primary cell type is a triploblastic fibromorph
c. Their fibers are tightly packed together
d. Their fibers run/are oriented in a single direction
9. What cells within connective tissue promote inflammation by producing histamine?
a. Macrophages
b. Mast cells
c. Adipocytes
d. Fibroblast
e. Plasma cells
10. Cells in the stratum corneum:
a. are dead
b. are constantly sloughing off/coming off the skin
c. filled with keratin
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
11. The SPECIFIC layer of the skin that produces more/new skin cells (keratinocytes) is the:
a. stratum spinosum
b. stratum basale
c. papillary layer
d. dermis
e. stratum corneum
12. The material called keratin functions to:
a. Eliminate waste from the body through the shedding of cells
b. Protect against ultra violet light
c. Increase your sense of touch
d. Destroy pathogens within the skin
e. Make cells tough, durable, and resistant to abrasion
13. Cells of the epidermis are supplied with nutrients and oxygen from blood vessels located in the:
a. papillary layer of the dermis
b.
c.
d.
e.
reticular layer of the dermis
hypodermis
Superficial fascia
epidermis
14. Which of the following integumentary system functions does the subcutaneous layer accomplish or
contribute to?
a. Protects against abrasion
b. Helps hold the skin together
c. Reduces water loss
d. Thermoregulation
e. Protection against UV light
15. Which of the following is the dominant tissue type in the dermis?
a. adipose
b. smooth muscle
c. stratified squamous
d. dense irregular
e. areolar
16. Which of the following tissues are common in the subcutaneous layer of the integument?
a. areolar and adipose
b. adipose and stratified squamous
c. smooth muscle and adipose
d. stratified squamous and dense CT
e. dense irregular and areolar
17. The correct order for the epidermal layers—from MOST SUPERFICIAL (i.e., on the surface of the skin)
TO MOST DEEP (i.e., the layer furthest from the surface of the skin) is::
a. stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
b. stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale, stratum spinousum
c. stratum basale, stratum spinousum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum
d. stratum spinousum, stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum
18. Skin color is influenced by:
a. blood supply to skin and chemical characteristics of the blood
b. amount of melanin in the epidermis
c. the number of melanocytes someone has
d. A and B
e. A and C
19. Which layer of the integument functions primarily as a protective boundary which prevents the entrance
of harmful things into the body and prevents the loss of water?
a. Dermis
b. hypodermis
c. superficial fascia
d. subcutaneous layer
e. Epidermis
20. The function of melanocytes and melanin is:
a. Protecting against pathogens
b. Detecting touch
c. Producing matrix fibers
d. Protecting against water loss
e. Blocking UV radiation
21. Thick skin is found:
a. Soles of feet
b. Palms of hands
c. Palms and sole of feet
d. The thigh and buttocks
e. The front and back of hands
22. If you body temperature was increasing the blood vessels of your integument would _______ resulting
in _______ flow of blood to your skin
a. Constrict --- increased
b. Dilate—decreased
c. Dilate—increased
d. Constrict—decreased
23. Which of the following are found widely scattered throughout the body and produce a watery sweat that
helps prevent the body from overheating?
a. Sebaceous glands
b. Endocrine glands
c. Holocrine glands
d. Merocrine/eccrine glands
e. Apocrine glands
24. What structures of the integument produce an oily material that coats skin and hair to protect it/them
from drying out?
a. Sebaceous glands
b. Arrector pili
c. Merocrine glands
d. Apocrine glands
e. Eccrine glands
25. Pain, touch and temperature are examples of senses that can be detected by free nerve endings
a. True
b. False
26. Which of the following receptors is located within the dermal papillae of the dermis and are light touch
receptors?
a. Ruffini corpusles
b. Hair follicle receptors
c. Merkel cells/tactile cells
d. Pacinian corpuscles/lamellated corpuscles
e. Meisners corpuscles/tactile corpuscles
27. If you were touched on the right arm which side of your brain would process the information:
a. The right side
b. The left side
c. Both sides
28. The portion of your brain that processes cutaneous sensation is the:
a. Temporal lobe
b. Hippocampus
c. Frontal lobe
d. Parietal lobe
e. Occipital lobe
29. The post-central gyrus (a.k.a. somatosensory homunculus & primary somatosensory cortex) is the part
of the brain that determines:
a. The location of the sensation being felt
b. How you feel about being touched
c. the type of sensation being felt
d. The meaning or associations with the sensation being felt
30. Merkle cells (tactile cells) and tactile corpuscles are examples of:
a. Thermoreceptors
b. Chemoreceptors
c. Proprioceptors
d. Nociceptors
e. Mechanoceptors
31. What nerve carries cutaneous sensory information from the anterior thigh and medial leg toward your
brain?
a. Median nerve
b. Tibial nerve
c. Common fibular nerve
d. Femoral nerve
e. Pedundal nerve
32. Which nerve carries cutaneous sensory information from the posterior arm, forearm, and portions of the
hands posterior surface toward your brain?
a. Axillary nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Radial nerve
e. Musculocuntaneous nerve
33. Which of the following openings does NOT have a part of the trigeminal nerve passing through it?
a. Hypoglossal canal
b. Superior orbital fissure
c. Foramen ovale
d. Foramen rotundum
34. When osteoclast activity is greater then osteoblast activity:
a. There is an overall/net increase in the amount of bone
b. There is an overall/net decrease in the amount of bone
c. Blood calcium levels increase
d. Both A and C
e. Both B and C
35. Tendons and ligaments are made mostly of:
a. Dense irregular Ct
b. Areolar CT
c. adipose tissue
d. dense regular CT
e. muscle tissue
36. Which of the following is characteristic of fibrocartilage?
a. matrix with equal portions of fibers and proteoglycans/ground substance
b. matrix composed of largely of hydroxyappitite/calcium phosphate
c. matrix with more collagen fibers than proteoglycans/ground substance
d. matrix with more elastic fibers than proteoglycans/ground substance
e. matrix with more proteoglycans/ground substance than fibers
37. Which of the following is responsible for the resiliency (ability to compress and spring back) of
cartilage?
a. Layers of calcium phosphate
b. Synovial fluid and its nutrients
c. lacunae that act like air cushions
d. Elastic fibers and proteoglycan based ground substance
e. The periosteum that surround the cartilage
38. Which of the following is the most abundant component/material of bone tissue:
a. proteoglycans
b. osteocytes
c. elastic fibers
d. collagen fibers
e. calcium phosphates (hydroxyapatite)
39. The cranium:
a. Is another word for the skull
b. Consists of the bones that create the forehead, cheek, jaw, and nasal cavity
c. Consists of the bones that surround the brain
d. Another word for the brain
40. The end of a long bone is called the:
a. medulla
b. diaphysis
c. epiphisis
d. trabeculae
e. metaphysic
41. Which of the following is a FALSE statement about cartilage:
a. It is usually surrounded by a perichondrium
b. It contains a mixture of collagen fiber, elastic fibers, and proteoglycans
c. It has a good blood supply
d. It has lacunae
e. It is make by chondroblasts
42. Which of the following cell produces new bone matrix
a. osteoclasts
b. osteocytes
c. osteoblasts
d. chondroblasts
e. osteoid progenitor cells
43. Bone remodeling is:
a. The creation and destruction of bone in response to compression and tension (stresses)
experienced by bone
b. Responsible for making bone features such as processes, spines, and tubercles
c. Constantly happening in the body
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
44. Canaliculi:
a. function in transport of materials through bone tissue
b. are very small passageway through bone matrix
c. are passageways for blood vessels
d. both A and B
e. both A and C
45. The most common type of cartilage in the body is?
a. Hyaline
b. Fibrocartilage
c. Elastic
d. Syndesmotic
e. Sutural
46. Which of the following is a correct statement about how bones store minerals (e.g., Ca+)?
a. They are stored in the medullary cavity
b. They are stored in the matrix of bone tissue
c. They are stored within vesicles inside osteocytes
d. They are stored in the spaces within spongy bone
e. They are stored in the periosteal sac
47. The perichondrium
a. Contains chondroblasts
b. Helps nourish cartilage
c. Physically supports/reinforces the cartilage
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
48. Bone is rigid and able to bear body weight and form hard protective structures because of:
a. Collagen fibers
b. Calcium phosphates/ hydroxyapatite
c. the periosteum
d. its high water content
e. proteoglycans
49. Endochondral ossification is when a bone forms from a pre-existing fibrous connective tissue
membrane:
a. True
b. False
50. If you were to insert a needle through the skin and into a synovial joint, which of the following options
represents the order in which the needle would pass the joint structures
a. Synovial membrane—synovial cavity—fibrous capsule
b. Synovial membrane—fibrous capsule—synovial cavity
c. Fibrous capsule—synovial membrane—synovial cavity
d. Fibrous capsule—synovial cavity—synovial membrane
51. The periosteum
a. Functions to connect muscle/tendons to bone
b. Is made of dense connective tissue
c. Contains osteoblast and osteoclasts
d. Is the site of bone growth and remodeling
e. All of the above
52. Articular cartilage is made of:
a. Osteoarticulate cartilage
b. Elastic cartilage
c. Fibrocartilage
d. Hyaline cartilage
53. Synovial fluid:
a. is secreted by synovial membranes
b. acts as a lubricant within a joint
c. helps transport and distribute nutrients and oxygen to cartilage
d. both A and B
e. All of the above
54. The fibrous portion of a joint capsule:
a. Is made of dense CT
b. Makes synovial fluid
c. Both
d. Neither
55. The hormone calcitonin helps increase blood Ca+.
a. True
b. false
56. Which of the following joint types would be described as having/allowing “slight” or “just a little”
movement?
a. Synovial
b. Synarthroses
c. Amphiarthrosis
d. Gomphosis
e. Diarthrosis
57. Which of the following are INCORRECT pairing:
a. Nerves and receptors in joints—enable the joint position to be detected
b. Articular cartilage—does not have a perichondrium
c. Extrinsic ligament—a ligament that is part of the joint capsule
d. Joint capsule—continuous with the periosteum and holds the articulating bones together.
58. Which of the following is NOT a function of the integumentary system
a. Protection against pathogens/infection
b. Reduction of water loss
c. Production of vitamin D
d. Thermoregulation
e. Storage of calcium
59. In adults, red bone marrow is found in _________ and functions to ______.
a. Spongy bone—produce red AND white blood cells
b. Medullary cavity—produce red AND white blood cells
c. Spongy bone – red blood cells
d. Medullary cavity—red blood cells
60. What part of an intervertebral disc absorbs shock
a. Periosteal layer
b. The annulus fibrosus
c. The nucleus pulposus
d. The longitudinal ligaments
61. Which of the following spinal regions are considered primary curvatures
a. The cervical only
b. The thoracic only
c. The thoracic and lumbar
d. The lumbar and cervical
e. The thoracic and sacral
62. The spine is able to transmit body weight and also show considerable mobility because it is made of
many bones linked together and a small amount of movement is capable between each bone.
a. True
b. False
63. Which of the following influences the stability and mobility of a joint
a. The shape of the articulating surfaces and surrounding bone structures
b. Ligaments and joint capsules
c. The muscles that cross the joint
d. All of the above
64. Which of the following describes a bursa?
a. It is a fluid filled membranous sac
b. They pad and reduce the friction experienced by tendons as they pass over sharp bony corners
c. Both
d. neither
65. Secondary curvatures of the spine are:
a. Present at birth
b. Develop due to use of muscles for sitting and standing upright
c. Help position/balance body weight for sitting and standing upright
d. A and B
e. B and C
66. The weight bearing portion of a vertebra is the:
a. Vertebral arch
b. Body
c. Spinous process
d. Transverse process
e. lamina
67-70 MATCHING: match the letter/bone to its description
67. The “shin”
68. The “collar bone”
69. The “knee cap”
70. The “heel bone”
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
calcaneus
Clavicle
Patella
Tibia
scapula
ab. fibula
ac. Femur
ad. Sternum
ae. xiphoid
71-75: MATCHING: use the options below to correctly identify the bones from the diagram
75
a. occipital
b. Parietal
c. Temporal
d. Frontal
e. maxilla
ab. Ethmoid
ac. Zygomatic
ad. sphenoid
ae. Nasals
bc. Mandible
bd. Lacrimal
be. Palatine
cd. vomer
ce. wormian
71
74
72
73
6-82 MATCHING: use the options below to correctly identify the numbered bones.
a. Scapula
b. Clavicle
c. Humerus
d. Radius
e. Ulna
ab. Carples
ac. Phalanges
ad. Femur
ae. Tibia
bc. Fibula
bd. Tarsals
be. Metatarsals
cd. Metacaples
ce. Ilium
de. ischium
81
76
77
82
78
79
80
71. Which of the following carries electrical impulses (action potentials) deep into a muscle cell?
a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Terminal cisternae
c. T-tubules
d. Myotubules
e. Myofibrils
72. The more distal and more movable point of muscle attachment that generally moves during muscle
contraction is the:
a. Synergist
b. Origin
c. Insertion
d. Agonist
e. Action
73. If someone used their deltoid to abduct the arm, then a muscle that adducted the arm would be
referred to as a:
a. Inverse agonist
b. Agonist
c. Synergist
d. Fixator
e. Antagonist
74. The connective tissue layer that surrounds individual muscle cells is the ____________ and is
made of ___________
a. Perimyium, dense CT
b. Epimysium, dense connective tissue
c. Perimysium, loose (areolar) CT
d. Endomysium, dense CT
e. Endomysium, loose (areolar) CT
75. The muscle system can function to:
a. Produce movement
b. Produce body heat
c. Maintain upright posture and stabilize joints
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
76. Which nerve innervates the muscles of the posterior thigh and leg such as the hamstrings and
plantar flexors?
a. Obtorator
b. Pedundal
c. Femoral
d. Sciatic
77. A muscle fiber is the same thing as a skeletal muscle cell.
a. True
b. False
78. Which nerve passes through the posterior portion of the upper limb and innervates muscles that
extend the wrist and elbow?
a. Musculocutanous
b. Axillary
c. Radial
d. Ulnar
e. median
79. At a neuromuscular junction, the space between a neuron and a muscle fiber is the:
a. neurotransmitter gap
b. synaptic cleft
c. neuromuscular capsule
d. motor end space
e. synaptic vesicle
80. Which part of a muscle cell stores and releases calcium?
a. Sarcolemma
b. Sarcoplasm
c. T-tubules
d. Motor end plate
e. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
81. A motor unit is:
a. a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
b. all the neurons that stimulate a given whole muscle
c. all the muscle fibers within a given whole muscle that contract when that muscle is active
d. another name for a muscle fiber
82. At a neuromuscular junction the synaptic knob releases ______ which __________.
a. Calcium---binds to actin
b. Sodium—binds to receptors on the motor end plate
c. Ach (Acetylcholine)—binds receptors on the motor end plate
d. Ach (acetylcholine)—travels through gated channels on the synaptic knob
e. Calcium—binds to myosin
83. Which lobe of the brain is primary center for voluntary muscle function/activity?
a. Insula
b. Frontal
c. Parietal
d. Temporal
e. Occipital
84. What nerve controls the muscles of mastication such as the masseter?
a. Median
b. Trigeminal
c. Facial
d. Accessory
e. Buccal
85. Which of the following is necessary in the cytoplasm of a muscle cell for contraction to occur:
a. Calcium
b. ATP
c. Both
d. Neither
86. Muscle cells are surrounded by collagen based connective tissue that then forms tendons and is
able to fuse to bone because the periosteum and bone tissue contain collagen fibers
a. True
b. False
87. What kind of muscle is typically found lining hollow organs of the body like blood vessels, the
intestines, bronchi, and the bladder?
a. Volatile muscle
b. Smooth muscle
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Skeletal muscle
88. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of skeletal muscle cells:
a. Filled with myofibrils
b. Multinucleated
c. Long and cylindrically shaped
d. Contain few mitochondria
89. A neuromuscular junction is a connection between:
a. A muscle cell and a receptor
b. Two neurons
c. A neuron and a muscle cell
d. A neuron and a receptor
90. At a neuromuscular junction, which cell has receptors for Ach?
a. Muscle cell
b. Motor neuron
c. Terminal cisternae
d. Presynaptic terminal
91. The basic function of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle tissue is to contract
a. True
b. False
92. Which of the following tissues is considered VOLUNTARY?
a. Smooth muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Skeletal muscle
93. Inflammation and swelling within a muscle compartment can be problematic because:
a. Collagenous tissue doesn’t stretch
b. The build up of pressure can irritate nerves
c. It can reduce or prevent blood flow to the cells within the compartment
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
94. Which of the following is TRUE
a. The cytoplasm of a muscle cells is called the myoplasm
b. The “A” band creates the light portion of a striation
c. The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle cell is called the sarcolemma
d. An aponeurosis is the connective tissue layer that surrounds fascicles
95. At a neuromuscular junction, after an action potential/electrical impulse reaches the synaptic knob of
a motor neuron the very next thing that happens is:
a. Calcium enters the cell
b. Ach (acetylcholine) is released
c. Sodium enters the cell
d. Ach bind receptors
96. Myosin filaments are also known as thin filaments
a. True
b. False
97. The right side of the brain controls the muscles on the right side of the body
a. True
b. false
98. When a muscle cell contracts:
a. Actin is activated/energized by ACh (acetylcholine) and binds myosin
b. Myosin is activated/energized by ACh (acetylcholine) to bind actin
c. Calcium allows the myosin head to release actin
d. Myosin is activated/energized by ATP and binds actin if calcium is present
e. Actin is bound by calcium and then activated by ATP and pulls on myosin
99. Which of the muscles below would be better capable to produce very precise, refined movements,
and in which the strength of muscle contraction could be very precisely controlled:
a. A muscle in which there were 100 muscle fibers in a motor unit
b. A muscle in which there were 10 muscle fibers in a motor unit
100.
Which of the following has the events of muscle contraction in the correct order?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Myosin binds actin and pulls
The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium
Calcium binds actin
ATP binds myosin and myosin releases the actin
The electrical impulse (action potential) travels down the t-tubule
5, 2, 3, 1, 4
4, 1, 3, 2, 5
3, 2, 4, 1, 5
5, 3, 2, 4, 1
101.
Which of the following options has the events that occur at a neuromuscular junction in the
correct order?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Synaptic vesicles release Ach
Calcium channels open
Sodium channels open
Ach diffuses across the cleft
Electrical impulse (action potential) reaches the synaptic knob of the motor neuron
ACh binds receptors
a. 2, 1, 4, 6, 3, 5
b. 5, 2, 1, 4, 6, 3
c. 6, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
d. 5, 3, 1, 4, 6, 3
e. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3, 6
102.
An afferent neuron is the same thing as a sensory neuron.
a. True
b. False
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The nervous system:
Collects information about the world around you
Collects information about the body’s internal conditions
Processes/integrates information
Controls glands and muscles
All of the above
104.
The portion of the nervous system that has voluntary control over skeletal muscles is
the _____________ division.
a. Autonomic motor (visceral motor)
b. Somatic sensory
c. Somatic motor
d. Visceral sensory
105.
Neurotransmitters are released from post-synaptic cells
a. True
b. False
106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes the:
Receptors and the brain
Brain and nerves
Brain and spinal cord
Spinal cord and nerves
Nerves and receptors
107.
The part of our nervous system that regulates and sends signals to our internal organs such
as heart, trachea, intestines, and kidneys is the:
a. Central nervous system
b. Sensory division
c. Somatic division
d. Autonomic nervous system
e. Reticular division
108.
An interneuron is a neuron that is entirely contained within the CNS
a. True
b. False
109.
a.
b.
c.
d.
110.
fluid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Schwann (neurolemmocytes) cells
Can create myelin sheaths
Electrically insulate axons from one another
Both
Neither
Which of the following cells line the inner surfaces of the brain and make cerebral spinal
Neurons
Astocytes
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Ependymal cells
111.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Gray matter is composed mostly of __________ and generally functions ___________.
Cell bodies and dendrites—in integration/processing of information
Cell bodies and dendrites—in the transmission of information/impulses
Myelinated axons—in integration/processing of information
Myelinated axons—in the transmission of information/impulses
Unmyelinted axons—in the transmission of information/impulses
112.
A synapse can occur/exist between:
a. Two neurons
b. A receptor and a neuron
c. An effector and a neuron
d. Both A and B
e. A, B, and C
113.
At a typical synapse between two neurons the _______ of one neuron forms a junction with
the _____ of another neuron.
a. Dendrites—cell body
b. Synaptic knob—axon
c. Synaptic knob—dendrite
d. Synaptic knob—dendrite and/or cell body
e. Dendrites—axon
114.
a.
b.
c.
d.
At a typical synapse, which of the following is NOT part of or found in the presynaptic cell:
Neurotransmitters
Gated calcium channels
Synaptic vesicles
Neurotransmitter receptors
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which is NOT characteristic of neurons?
Have a well developed internal transport system
They divide regularly to form new neurons
High metabolic rate
Require large amounts of oxygen
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following glial cells found within the CNS and phagocytizes pathogens?
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Satellite cells
Ependymal cells
Astrocytes
115.
116.
117.
Neurotransmitters are rapidly broken down within synaptic cleft or reabsorbed into
surrounding cells
a. True
b. False
118.
a.
b.
c.
d.
119.
Which of the following can occur as a result of neurotransmitters bind the post synaptic cell?
Excitation (the post synaptic cell is stimulated to produce an action potential)
Inhibition (the post synaptic cell is prevented from forming an action potential)
Either one can occur
None of the above
Synaptic knobs are located:
a. On the cell body of a neuron
b. At the end of axons
c. At the ends of dendrites
d. None of the above
120.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
121.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
122.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following cells is NOT found within the CNS?
Astrocytes
Satellite cells
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Epyndemal cells
Which part of a neuron generates “output” and produces action potentials?
Dendrites
Axons
Cell bodies
A and B
A and C
Myelin sheaths mainly consist _______ and have lots of _________?
Plasma membrane --- lipids
Plasma membrane – carbohydrates
Cypoplasm – proteins
Cytoplasm -- lipids
123.
An effector is any cell or tissue that can be signaled or controlled by the nervous system
such as a gland or muscle cell
a. True
b. False
124.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following would conduct an action potential (electrical impulse) the SLOWEST?
Wide myelinated axon
Wide unmyelinated axon
Narrow myelinated axon
Narrow unmyelinated axon
125.
The ___________ nervous system transmits information from receptors to the CNS, while
the ___________ nervous system transmits information from the CNS to the rest of the body.
a. sensory; motor
b. motor; sensory
c. autonomic; visceral
d. somatic; autonomic
126.
There are two types of synapses, based on how the post synaptic cell is signaled. What are
the two types of synapses?
a. Mechanical and chemical
b. Magnetic and physical
A
c. Physical and chemical
d. Chemical and electrical
e. Mechanical and electrical
B
127.
128.
In the diagram to the left, which letter indicates the post synaptic cell?
a. A
b. B
What causes the synaptic vesicles to release their neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
An action potential
Ca+ entering the synaptic knob
Na+ entering the synaptic knob
Neurotransmitter binding the synaptic knob
None of the above
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The hip joint is created by the _____ of the femur articulating with the _____ of the coxae
Head --- pubic symphysis
Greater trochanter --- auricular surface
Greater trochanter --- acetabulum
Head – auricular surface
Head --- acetabulum
129.
130.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
131.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following is FALSE of the hip joint?
it is stabilized by articular surfaces that form a deep ball and socket joint
it is stabilized by large muscles that cross the joint
the joint has a thin and poorly developed joint capsule and ligaments
the skeletal structures associated with the joint sometimes interfere with one another limiting
mobility
it is capable of many types of movements such as flexion, extension, abduction, adduction,
rotation and circumduction of the thigh
Which ligaments of the knee prevent lateral, side-to-side movement, if the knee?
Cruciate ligaments
Collateral ligaments
Anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments
Patellar ligament
The shape of the articulating bone surfaces
132.
The anterior cruciate ligament connects to the ________ surface of the tibia and prevents the
tibia from sliding ______relative to the femur.
a. Anterior---anteriorly
b. Anterior---posteriorly
c. Posterior----posteriorly
d. Posterior---anteriorly
133.
The menisci of the knee are made of fibrocartilage and help to disperse force across the
knee joint and to improve the “fit” of the articulating surfaces
a. True
b. False
134.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The shoulder joint (glenohumoral) is:
Made of a shallow ball and socket
Is highly mobile, but comparatively unstable
Stabilized/supported by the rotator cuff muscles
All of the above
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following are part of the sciatic nerve?
Obturator and tibial nerves
Tibial nerves and femoral nerves
Common fibular nerve and pedundal nerve
Common fibular nerve and tibial nerve
Femoral nerve and common fibular nerve
135.
136.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The knee joint is stabilized primarily by:
Muscles crossing the joint
Ligaments and joint capsule
The shapes of the articulating surfaces
Both A and B
A, B, and C
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Hyperextension of the knee is prevented partially by the
posterior cruciate ligament.
the thick posterior portion of the joint capsule
the patellar ligament.
the calcaneal tendon.
the collateral ligaments.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following joints is most mobile, but least stable?
Knee
Hip
Shoulder
Elbow
137.
138.
69-74 Muscle Matching:
a. trapezius
b. latissimus dorsi
c. deltoid
d. triceps brachii
e. gluteus maximus
ab. Hamstrings group
ac. Gastrocnemius
ad. Pectoralis major
ae. Rectus abdominis
bc. External obliques
bd. Biceps brachii
be. Quadriceps femoris group
cd. soleus
ce. Tensor fascia latae
de. Gluteus medius
69
70
74
73
72
71
More questions on next page
75—79 Muscle Matching:
a. trapezius
b. pectoralis minor
c. deltoid
d. serratus anterior
e. gluteus maximus
ab. Hamstrings group
ac. Gastrocnemius
ad. Pectoralis major
ae. Rectus abdominis
bc. External obliques
bd. Tibialis anterior
be. Quadriceps femoris group
cd. soleus
ce. Tensor fascia latae
de. Gluteus medius
75
79
78
76
77
1. Plasma is the part of blood that is made of water with dissolved molecules and ions.
a. True
b. False
2. Which white blood cells produces antibodies:
a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Eosinophils
e. basophyils
3. Which of the following is the LEAST common white blood cell:
a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Eosinophils
e. basophyils
4. What is the function of a RBC?
a. Carry oxygen
b. Carry carbon dioxide
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
5. That fact the red blood cells only last 120 days is due to:
a. The fact they don’t have nucleus
b. the damage caused by CO2
c. the fact that hemoglobin breaks down over time
d. their biconcave shape
6. Globulins are plasma proteins that can function to:
a. Transport oxygen
b. Phagocytize bacteria
c. Help keep water in the blood
d. Transport non-water soluble molecules through blood, and also fight infections
e. Help clot blood
7. Which of the following is a plasma protein and reduces blood loss by helping form clots?
a. Globulins
b. Albumin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Platelets
e. Composted elements
8. Upper motor neurons
a. Begin in the spinal cord and end at skeletal muscle
b. Begin in the cerebrum and end in the spinal cord
c. Begin in the cerebrum and end at skeletal muscle
9. A primary sensory neuron:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ends in the cerebral cortex
Begins at a receptor and enters the CNS
Synapses with a secondary neuron in the thalamus
Decussates in the spinal cord
10. Which of the following pathways carries action potentials about pain, temperature and crude touch
to the brain?
a. Corticospinal pathway
b. Anteriorlateral (spinothalamic) system
c. Dorsal column system
d. Spinocerebellar system
11. Which of the following does not decussate AND does not include a tertiary neuron?
a. Spinocerebellar pathway
b. Spinothalamic pathway
c. Dorsal column pathway
d. Corticospinal pathway
e. Rubrospinal pathway
12. Within the direct motor pathways (i.e., the pyramidal system) the majority of neurons decussate in
the:
a. Medulla
b. Thalamus
c. Spinal cord
d. Cerebrum
e. Pons
13. Neurons involved with fine and discriminatory touch pass through the:
a. Anterior column.
b. Posterior column
c. Lateral column
d. Inverted column
14. In what tract/pathway do primary neurons synapse with secondary neurons in the spinal cord?
a. Spinothalamic tract (anteriolateral system)
b. Dorsal column system
c. Spinocerebellar tract/pathway
d. Pyramidal system
e. Corticospinal tract/pathway
15. The synapse between secondary and tertiary neurons of sensory pathways is located in:
a. The thalamus
b. The spinal cord
c. The brain stem
d. The cerebral cortex
e. The dorsal root gangion
16. Which of the following is characterized by long preganglionic neurons and autonomic ganglia
located in or on the effector organs
a. Parasympthatic division
b. Sympathetic division
17. Pre-verterbal (collateral) ganglia are:
a. Located in front of (anterior to) the vertebral column
b. Located on either side of (lateral to) the vertebral column
c. Part of the sympathetic division of the ANS
d. Both A and C
e. Both B and C
18. Which portion of the ANS innervates the adrenal gland (adrenal medulla) and can cause the
release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
a. Sympathetic
b. Parasymphathetic
19. All sympathetic pathways pass through the sympathetic trunk (but don’t necessarily synapse
there).
a. True
b. False
20. The ANS consists of ___ neurons between the CNS and effector.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
21. Within the sympathetic division, synapses between preganglionic and ganglionic neurons occur in the:
a. sympathetic trunk/chain ganglia
b. pre-vertebral ganglia
c. the lateral horn of the spinal cord
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C
22. The parasympathetic division is also called the craniosacral division because its neurons arise from the
brainstem and sacral segments of the spinal cord.
a. True
b. False
23. Which is NOT true about the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
a. The ANS includes sensory neurons
b. ANS activity is involuntary
c. ANS motor neurons innervate cardiac muscle fibers, smooth muscle fibers, and glands.
d. Many organs are innervated by both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic division
24. Within the ANS, the motor neuron which begins in the spinal cord is the ______ neurons.
a. preganglionic
b. postganglionic
c. terminal
d. neuronal
e. posterior
25. Neurons passing from a spinal nerve into the sympathetic trunk pass through:
a. Gray rami
b. White rami
c. Dorsal rami
d. Splanchnic nerves
e. Sympathetic plexuses
26. ____________ are composed of preganglionic sympathetic axons that did not synapse in a sympathetic
chain ganglion
a. Splanchnic nerves
b. Autonomic rami
c. White rami
d. Sympathetic plexuses
e. Paravertebral nerves
27. Which of the following part(s) of the brain is the major site of somatic motor control including
Broca’s speech area, as well higher functions such as personality, problem solving, and abstract
thought:
a. occipital lobe insula
b. temporal lobe
c. frontal lobe
d. parietal lobe
28. Which of the following part(s) of the brain is the primary site of visual perception and
interpretation:
a. temporal lobe
b. insula
c. frontal lobe
d. parietal lobe
e. occipital lobe
29. Which of the following coordinates skeletal muscle activity at a subconscious level?
a. proprioceptive cortex
b. Precentral gyrus
c. cerebellum
d. frontal lobe
e. pyramids
30. What is the major commissure (structure) that allows the exchange of information between the two
cerebral hemispheres?
a. internal capsule
b. choroids plexuses
c. thalamus
d. hypothalamus
e. corpus callosum
31. Which of the following structures filters (edits) and directs afferent sensory information to the
appropriate part of the cerebral cortex:
a. hypothalamus
b. thalamus
c. corpus callosum
d. pons
e. cerebral peduncles
32. The part of the brain that is involved with control of heart rate, blood pressure, respiration,
swallowing, coughing, and vomiting is the:
a. cerebrum
b. medulla
c. midbrain
d. pons
e. cerebellum
33. The falx cerebri
a. Is made by folds(septa) of the dura mater
b. passes down through the longitudinal fissure
c. helps protect the brain from injury
d. both A and B
e. A, B, and C
34. The proper order of the cranial meninges and spaces from interior to exterior (i.e., from deepest to
most superficial) is:
a. Dura mater — sub arachnoid space — arachnoid mater — pia mater
b. Pia mater -- arachnoid mater — sub arachnoid space — dura mater
c. Dura mater — sub dural space — arachnoid mater — pia mater
d. Pia mater — dura mater — arachnoid mater — sub arachnoid space
e. Pia mater — sub arachnoid space — arachnoid mater — dura mater
35. Dural Sinuses:
a. Are spaces formed between the dura mater and the periosteum of cranial bones
b. Carry/contain blood
c. Both
d. neither
36. Which is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid?
a. CSF provides buoyancy so the brain floats within the cranium
b. CSF provides a liquid cushion to protect the brain from sudden movements.
c. CSF transports nutrients and chemicals to the brain.
d. CSF helps create the blood brain barrier
37. Which portion(s) of the brain play major roles in regulating autonomic activities (controlling the
activity of your organs and systems) of our body’s physiology?
a. thalamus
b. medulla oblongata
c. hypothalamus
d. both A and B
e. both B and C
38. The cerebral cortex is the thin outer layer of gray matter on the cerebrum
a. true
b. false
39. Which of the following protect the brain from physical harm
a. CSF
b. The cranium
c. The meninges
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
40. CSF is formed in:
a. the arachnoid granulations (villi) of the subarachnoid space
b. The dural sinuses
c. The choroid plexuses within the subarachnoid space
d. The granulations (villi) within the ventricles
e. The choroid plexuses within the ventricles
41. List these events in the correct order for CSF flow in the CNS.
a: CSF flows into the arachnoid villi
b: CSF enters the blood
c: CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct to the fourth ventricle
d: CSF flows into the subarachnoid space
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a, b, c, d
c, d, a, b
c, d, a, b
d, a, b, c
a, b, c, d
42. This portion of the brain secretes the hormone melatonin, which helps to regulate the body’s circadian
rhythm.
a. Anterior nucleus
b. Mammillary body
c. Paraventricular nucleus
d. Pineal gland
e. Habenular nucleus
43. The brain is supplied with blood by the :
a. Internal carotid arteries
b. Vertebral arteries
c. Both
d. neither
44. The elevated bumps on the surface of the cerebrum are:
a. Sulci
b. Gyri
c. Colliculi
d. Texturizations
e. Cerebral villi
45. The _________ connect the internal carotid arteries to the posterior cerebral arteries.
a. Anterior communicating artery
b. Middle cerebral arteries
c. Posterior communicating arteries
d. Mesencephalic collateral artery
e. Basilar artery
46. Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensory information about sound/hearing and balance
(equilibrium) from the inner ear to the brain?
a. Trochlear
b. Abducens
c. Vestibulocochlear
d. Occulomotor
47. Which of the following structures is the place where the optic nerves meet and where information from the
right eye is shared with the left side of the brain?
a. Optic tract
b. Optic nerve
c. Optic chiasma
d. Ocular decussation
48. Which of the following is found external (superficial to) the spinal dura matter?
a. The peridural space
b. The subvertebral space
c. Epidural space
d. Subdural space
e. Subarachnoid space
49. Which of the following allows the hypothalamus to signal the anterior pituitary gland?
a. Mamillary bodies
b. Pyramids
c. Fornix
d. Hypophyseal portal system
e. Reticular activating system
50. The olfactory nerves pass through the __________ and send action potentials/electrical impulses to the
______________.
a. Superior orbital fissure---olfactory tracts
b. Olfactory foramina---olfactory tracts
c. Superior orbital fissure---olfactory bulbs
d. Olfactory foramina---olfactory bulbs
51. In some parts of the body neurons release neurotransmitters into blood and in these situations the chemical
released by the neuron is considered a hormone
a. True
b. false
52. Which of the following is NOT part of the brainstem
a. Pons
b. Medulla
c. Midbrain
d. Cerebellum
53. Which of the following is NOT a nerve that controls extrinsic muscles that help move the eye?
a. Trochear
b. Abducense
c. Oculomotor
d. optic
54. The functions of the spinal cord include:
a. Processing information and generating motor responses
b. Carrying information to or from the brain
c. Both
d. Neither
55. The cell bodies of somatic motor neurons are located within the:
a. Gray commissure
b. Doral root ganglion
c. Posterior horn
d. Lateral horn
e. Anterior horn
56. The spinal cord:
a. Stops around level of the second lumbar vertebra
b. Stops around level of the 7th thoracic vertebra
c. Extends the entire length of the vertebral canal
d. Stops around level of the second sacral vertebra
57. In the withdrawal reflex the sensory neuron synapses with a _______________ and the motor neuron
innervates a ______________ muscle
a. Motor neuron---flexor
b. Interneuron---extensor
c. Motor neuron—extensor
d. Interneuron—flexor
58. Which of the following contain sensory neurons
a. Spinal nerves
b. Dorsal roots
c. Ventral roots
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C
59. The stretch/extensor reflex:
a. Utilizes only two neurons
b. Is monosynaptic
c. Requires the brain’s input to work
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
60. Sensory neurons enter the spinal cord at the:
a. Dorsal columns
b. Gray commisure
c. Anterior horn
d. Lateral horn
e. Posterior horn
61. Which of the following innervates the deep muscles posterior to the spine and the skin immediately
superficial to the spine?
a. Vertebral plexus
b. Anterior rami
c. Posterior rami
d. Rami communicantes
e. Posterior trunks
62. A network of interwoven, branching, and merging nerves arising from anterior rami from a
a. Plexus
b. Ramus
c. Communicans
d. Ganglion
e. Dermatome
63. The plexus that begins in the lower neck and supplies the upper limbs is the _________ plexus.
a. sacral
b. Cervical
c. Brachial
d. axillary
e. Lumbar
64. Ascending tracts contain______ and are located in the ______.
a. Sensory neurons—spinal cord white matter
b. Sensory neurons—spinal cord gray matter
c. Motor neurons—spinal cord white matter
d. Motor neurons—spinal cord gray matter
65. Which of the following is the correct pathway of an electrical impulse travelling along a sensory neuron to
the CNS from receptor located in the skin of the anterior surface of the chest?
a. Anterior ramus, spinal nerve, anterior root, anterior horn
b. Posterior horn, posterior root, spinal nerve, anterior ramus
c. Anterior horn, spinal nerve, anterior ramus, anterior root
d. Anterior ramus, spinal nerve, posterior root, posterior horn
e. Spinal nerve, posterior root, posterior horn, anterior root, anterior ramus
66. Which is true of the anterior horns of the spinal cord?
a. They house cell bodies of sensory neurons.
b. They house cell bodies of somatic motor neurons.
c. They serve as communication routes between left and right sides.
d. They house cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons.
67. Interneurons are not involved in a typical monosynaptic reflex.
a. True
b. False
68. What is the correct order for the events that occur during a reflex?
a: Impulse travels through sensory neuron to the CNS
b: A stimulus activates a receptor
c: Information is processed by interneurons
d: Motor neuron transmits impulse to effector
e: Effector responds
a. b, a, c, d, e
b. b, d, c, a, e
c. c, b, a, e, d
d. a, b, c, d, e
e. c, a, b, d, e
69. The tapered, pointed inferior end of the spinal cord is called the:
a. Conus finalis.
b. Cauda equine.
c. Conuscaudalis.
d. Cauda terminus
e. Conus medullaris.
70. The spinal cord is divided into an inner __________ matter region, and an outer ___________ matter region.
a. dura; denticulate
b. gray; white
c. white; gray
d. arachnoid; pia
71. A nerve is a bundle of axons surrounded by connective tissue and the outermost layer is called the
epineurium
a. True
b. false
72. The thin, fibrous strand extending of the inferior spinal cord that helps to anchor the spinal cord to the
sacrum and coccyx is the
a. cervical enlargement.
b. coccygeal tendon.
c. filum terminale.
d. terminus coccyx.
e. conus medullaris.
73. Association tracts
a. connect different regions of the cerebral cortex with the opposite hemisphere.
b. extend between the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
c. link the cerebral cortex to the caudal brain regions and the spinal cord.
d. connect different regions of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere.
e. None of the choices is correct.
74. Which midbrain region contains motor axons from primary motor cortex to the spinal cord?
a. Substantia nigra
b. Cerebral peduncles
c. Tegmentum
d. Tectum
75. A brain ventricle located in a cerebral hemisphere is the/a _____ ventricle.
a. third
d. falx
b. fourth
e. lateral
c. median
76. Which is NOT a general function of the hypothalamus?
a. Control of hunger and thirst
b. Regulation of body temperature
c. Links the brain to the endocrine system/controls the pituitary gland
d. Regulates breathing
77. The location of conscious thought processes and the origin of all complex intellectual functions is the
a. cerebellum.
d. corpus callosum.
b. cerebrum.
e. hypothalamus.
c. pons.
78. The __________ is/are includes parts of the cerebrum and diancephalon that collaboratively process and
experience emotions.
a. cerebellum
d. medulla oblongata
b. cerebellar peduncles
e. hypothalamus
c. limbic system
79. The infundibulum is attached to the
a. pineal gland.
b. pons.
c. pituitary gland.
d. thalamus.
e. epithalamus.
80. A person with damage to the premotor cortex area concerned with coordinating eye movements
a. cannot form proper images of words.
b. can read but cannot understand the words.
c. cannot read or understand the words.
d. cannot discriminate between letters and words.
e. can understand the words but cannot follow the lines on the page.
81. If a neuron passes through a plexus then it must also pass through an anterior ramus.
a. True
b. false
1. In which respiratory structure(s) does the exchange of gasses between blood and air occur?
a. alveoli
b. terminal bronchioles
c. bronchi
d. trachea
e. pleura
2. The nasal conchae:
a. Improve the filtering and warming of air as it passes through the nasal cavity
b. are grooves or depressions within the nasal cavity
c. both A and B
d. None of the above
3. The larynx (and its various components) functions to:
a. produce sound
b. prevent food from entering the trachea
c. both
d. neither
4. Sensory information to regulate breathing comes from _______ receptors and arrives at the brainstem
through the _____ nerve(s).
a. Chemoreceptors --- phrenic
b. Baroreceptors – phrenic
c. Chemoreceptors – vagus and glossopharyngeal
d. Barareceptors – vagus and glossopharyngeal
5. Which of the following structures helps prevents food and liquids from entering the lower respiratory
tract?
a. thyroid cartilage
b. cricoid cartilage
c. epiglottic cartilage/epiglottis
d. cuniform cartilage
e. tracheal cartilages
6. Which of the following is FALSE about the respiratory system:
a. Smooth muscle surrounding airways allows dilation and constriction of the airways
b. as you move from the trachea towards alveoli the amount of cartilage in the respiratory tract
increases
c. the respiratory membrane that oxygen diffuses across is only two cells thick
d. macrophages remove particles and pathogens within the alveoli
e. the upper respiratory tract and oral cavity shape/modify sound created at the larynx
7.
Respiratory centers of the brain that control breathing are located in the:
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Medulla
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus
e. Midbrain
8. How is air warmed in respiratory passageways:
a. the conchea cause the air to move faster, and increasing speed heats up the air
b. heat radiates from capillaries located in the respiratory mucosa
c. mucus is created by a heat releasing chemical reaction that then warms the air
d. vibrissae warm the air as it passes through the vestibule
e. type 2 cells of the respiratory mucosa heat up the air
9. The cartilage rings (tracheal cartilages) of the trachea:
a. hold the trachea open
b. allow the size of the trachea’s lumen to be changed
c. both
d. neither
10. The pressure in the pleural cavity is negative (lower than pressure in alveoli and the atmosphere) and this
helps keep the lungs expanded
a. True
b. False
11. When _____________ pressure is greater than _____________ pressure air moves _________ the lungs
a. atmospheric—alveolar—out of
b. atmospheric—alveolar—into
c. alveolar—atmospheric –into
d. none of the above
12. Constriction of bronchioles would cause airflow through them to:
a. Increase
b. decrease
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13. When the diaphragm contracts the volume (amount of space) of the thoracic cavity ___________ and the
pressure inside the cavity ________________.
a. increases, increases
b. decreases, decreases
c. increases, decreases
d. decreases, increases
14. The process of normal resting expiration is largely passive, resulting from the recoil of the lungs and the
diaphragm being moved by the pressure of compressed abdominal organs.
a. true
b. false
15. Diffusion across the respiratory membrane is rapid because:
a. The lungs have a large surface area for gas exchange
b. Alveoli are thin walled
c. O2 and CO2 are lipid soluble and pass directly through the phospholipid bilayer of cells
d. All of the choices are correct
16. Which of the following represents the correct order that a “drop of air” would pass during inhalation—NOTE:
just worry about proper order, some of the options are missing part of the tract don’t worry about that
a. nostrils, Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
b. nostrils, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
c. Pharynx, nostrils, trachea, larynx, bronchioles, bronchi
d. nostrils, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi
e. Trachea, nostrils, bronchioles, bronchi, pharynx, larynx.
17. There is one __________ for each __________
a. Primary bronchi -- segment of the lungs
b. Tertiary bronchi – each lobe of the lung
c. Bronchiole—each alveolus
d. Secondary bronchi—lobe of the lungs
18. The thickening of muscle at the junction of the stomach and esophagus that prevents stomach contents from reentering the esophagus is the:
a. pyloric sphincter
b. fundus
c. cardiac sphincter/lower esophageal sphincter
d. ileocecal valve
e. haustral sphincter
19. Which of the following structures is lined with simple columnar epithelium
a. stomach
b. small intestine
c. colon
d. A and B
e. All of the above
20. Within the digestive system cells secrete mucus that assists in/function to:
a. protecting the tissue of the digestive system wall from being damaged
b. helping substances move by lubricating surfaces
c. both
d. neither
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21. Which of the following is NOT part of the alimentary canal/digestive tract:
a. esophagus
b. duodenum
c. stomach
d. cecum
e. pancreas
22. The ______ duct from the gallbladder merges with the common hepatic duct to form the ________ duct.
a. Common Hepatic—cystic
b. Cystic—Common hepatic
c. Common hepatic—common bile
d. Common bile—cystic
e. Cystic—common bile
23. Where does MOST of the absorption of ingested nutrients occur?
a. oral cavity
b. stomach
c. esophagus
d. large intestine
e. small intestine
24. Where does MOST of the chemical digestion of food occur
a. oral cavity
b. stomach
c. esophagus
d. large intestine
e. small intestine
25. Which of the following increase the surface area of the small intestines
a. villi
b. microvilli
c. plicea circulares/circular folds
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
26. Which of the following list the portions of the small intestine in the order that ingested material would
pass through them?
a. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
b. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
c. Ileum, duodenum, jejunum
d. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
e. Jejunum, duodenum, ileum
27. The breakdown of food/nutrient molecules by enzymes is called:
a. Mastication
b. Mechanical digestion
c. Chemical digestion
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d. Absorption
e. Segmentation
28. Which of the following nutrients is absorbed into lymph rather than blood?
a. carbohydrates
b. amino acids
c. lipids
d. nucleic acids
e. none of the above
29. Bile is produced by the ________ but stored in the __________
a. Gallbladder—liver
b. Pancreas – liver
c. Liver – gallbladder
d. Pancreas – gallbladder
e. Liver – pancreas
30. Saliva contains:
a. Enzymes that begin the digestion of carbohydrates
b. Mucus that helps hold chewed food together
c. Both
d. Neither
31. Intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid are secreted by:
a. endocrine cells
b. granular cells
c. columnar absorptive cells
d. parietal cells
e. chief cells
32. Which of the following organs would contain (posses) parietal, enteroendocrine/gastroendocrine, and
chief cells
a. Colon
b. Small intestines
c. Stomach
d. Salivary glands
e. Esophagus
33. Venous blood traveling away from the intestines is nutrient ________ and is delivered immediately to the
________
a. Poor—heart
b. Rich—heart
c. Rich—liver
d. Poor—kidney
e. Poor—liver
34. Bile and pancreatic juice enters the digestive tract at the:
a. Pyloris
b. Fundus
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c. Ileum
d. Jejunum
e. duodenum
35. Which part of our digestive tract contains large amounts of bacteria that can provide us with vitamins and
have been recently found to influence our health and physiology
a. Esophagus
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Colon/large intestine
e. Anus
36. Which of the following is FALSE:
a. The pH within the oral cavity is approximately 7
b. The pH within the duodenum is approximately 14
c. The pH within the stomach is approximately 2.5
37. The pancreas:
a. Secretes the hormone insulin
b. Secretes the hormone glucagon
c. Both
d. neither
38. The stomach:
a. Absorbs very few nutrients
b. Is protected by a layer of mucus on its inner surface
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
39. Muscular movement responsible for the movement of food through the alimentary canal is called:
a. Churning
b. Segmentation
c. Deglutition
d. Peristalsis
e. Mastication
40. The esophagus passes through an opening in the diaphragm called the infraesophageal orifice.
a. True
b. False
41. The secretions of the pancreas that enter the digestive tract:
a. Help neutralize the acidic chyme in the intestines
b. Contain digestive enzymes for all macromolecules
c. Both
d. neither
42. A primary function of the large intestine is to reabsorb water, but it is not the part of the digestive tract
where most of the water is absorbed.
a. True
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b. False
43. Which of the following hormones are secreted/release by the small intestines
a. CCK (cholecystokinin)
b. Gastrin
c. Lysozyme
d. glucagon
44. The region of the kidney which contains the glomerular capsules and the convoluted tubules is the
_________________.
a. Medulla
b. Cortex
c. Capsule
d. Sinus
45. Pressure in the glomerulus is relatively high because the ________ is larger in diameter then the _______.
a. Efferent arteriole—peritubular capillaries
b. Peritubular capillaries—afferent arteriole
c. Afferent arteriole—efferent arteriole
d. Afferent arteriole—peritubular capillaries
e. Peritubular capillaries—afferent arteriole
46. Substances that the body wants to hold onto are transported out of a nephron by ______ and then enter
_______.
a. Secretion, blood of peritubular capillaries
b. Filtration, urine
c. Reabsorption, urine
d. Secretion, urine
e. Reabsorption, blood of peritubular capillaries
47. Which has the nephron structures in the order fluid would pass through them on the way to the collecting
duct?
a. proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, descending loop of henle; ascending loop of
henle
b. proximal convoluted tubule, descending loop of henle; ascending loop of henle, distal convoluted
tubule,
c. ascending loop of henle, descending loop of henle; proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted
tubule
d. distal convoluted tubule, ascending loop of henle, descending loop of henle; proximal convoluted
tubule
48. Filtrate is formed when substances are pushed out of the ___________ by blood pressure and into the
__________ of a nephron.
a. Peritubular capillaries—glomerular (bowmans) capsule
b. Glomerulus—glomerular (bowmans) capsule
c. Glomerulus—collecting duct
d. Peritubular capillaries—proximal convoluted tubule
e. Glomerular (bowmans capsule)--glomerulus
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49. The primary site of reabsorption in the nephron is the _______________ :
a. Distal convoluted tubule
b. Descending limb of the nephron loop
c. Proximal convoluted tubule
d. Ascending limb of the nephron loop
e. Collecting duct
50. If the afferent arteriole dilated then the amount of pressure in the glomerulus would increase:
a. True
b. False
51. Which part of the nephron is lined by simple squamous cells?
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Thin segment within the DESCENDING limb of the nephron loop
c. Thick segment within the ASCENDING limb of the nephron loop
d. Distal convoluted tubule
e. Collecting duct
52. The vasa recta are the capillaries that surround the nephron loop of JUXTAMEDULLARY NEPHRONS.
a. True
b. False
53. Which of the following structures reabsorb variable amounts of water under the influence of hormones?
a. Distal convoluted tubule
b. Proximal convoluted tubule
c. Ascending limb
d. Glomerular capsule
54. The hormone that makes the DCT and collecting duct more permeable to water is:
a. Renin
b. Angiotensin II
c. Aldosterone
d. ADH (antidiuretic hormone/vasopressing)
55. Lymph nodes
a. Are filled with macrophages and lymphocytes
b. Are surrounded by a connective tissue capsule
c. Are connected to lymphatic vessels
d. All of the above
56. Fluid lost from blood at capillaries is collected by lymph vessels and transported through the body and is
then added back to blood.
a. True
b. False
57. The spleen:
a. Remove old red blood cells
b. Produces T-cells
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c. Both
d. Neither
58. What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine, starting at the cecum and ending
at the rectum?
a: Left colic flexure
b: Ascending colon
c: Transverse colon
d: Right colic flexure
e: Sigmoid colon
f: Descending colon
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f, c, d, e, a, b
b, d, c, a, f, e
e, b, a, c, d, f
b, a, c, d, f, e
e, b, d, c, a, f
59. The heart makes “lub-dup” sounds as it beats. Which event causes the first heart sound (ie., the “lub”)?
a. closing of both atrioventricular valves
b. closing of both semilunar valves
c. closing of aortic valve only
d. closing of aortic sinus
e. closing of the pulmonary valve only
60. The two ventricles of the heart are separated from one another by the:
a. Fibrous skeleton
b. Purkinje fibers
c. Interventricular septum
d. Longitudinal septum
e. Septomarginal trabecula
61. What structures prevent back-flow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium?
a. interventricular valves
b. pulmonary semilunar valves
c. aortic semilunar valves
d. tricuspid valves
e. bicuspid (mitral) valves
62. When the ventricles contract their volume __________ and pressure within them __________.
a. Increases--increases
b. Increases—decreases
c. Decreases—increases
d. Decreases—decreases
63. The atria are electrically isolated from the ventricles by the
a. myocardium
b. fibrous skeleton
c. AV bundle
d. visceral pericardium
e. Purkinje fibers
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64. Which component of myocardial cells (myocytes) allows them to electrically stimulate adjoining cells (i.e., allow
electrical impulse to spread)?
a. tight junction
b. gap junctions
c. t-tubules
d. desmosomes
e. sarcoplasmic pores
65. Which of the following is non-elastic, made of dense connective tissue, helps hold the heart in place:
a. Visceral pericardium
b. Endocardium
c. Myocardium
d. Epicardium
e. Fibrous pericardium
66. Blood flows through the heart and the valves are open and closed primarily due to:
a. Changes in pressure within the pulmonary circuit
b. Changes in pressure within the atria
c. Changes in pressure within the ventricles
d. Changes in pressure within systemic veins
e. Changes in pressure within systemic arteries
67. Diastole refers to the contraction phase of ventricular activity
a. True
b. False
68. When the AV valves close:
a. pressure in the ventricle is greater than pressure in the atria
b. pressure in the ventricles is less than the pressure in the atria
c. pressure in the atria is greater than the pressure in the ventricles
69. 70-80% of ventricular filling is due to:
a. Atria contraction
b. Ventricular expansion/relaxation
70. The function of the papillary muscles and chordae tendoneae are to:
a. Reinforce the AV valves so they don’t allow backflow of blood
b. Reinforce the Semilunar valves so they don’t allow backflow of blood
c. Pull the AV valves closed
d. Pull the Semilunar valves closed
71. The __________________ nerve carries parasympathetic signals to the heart:
a. Glossopharyngeal
b. Vagus
c. Sympathetic
d. Cardiac spinal nerve
e. Phrenic nerve
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72. The myocardium of the heart is supplied by the ________ and blood returning from the myocardium drains
_________
a. Coronary arteries---directly into the right atrium through the coronary sinus
b. Coronary arteries—into the vena cavae thought the coronary sinus
c. Coronary sinus—into the vena cavae
d. Coronary sinus—directly into the right atrium
73. Which of the following blood vessels carry blood low in oxygen?
a. Pulmonary arteries
b. Systemic veins
c. Pulmonary veins
d. Systemic veins and pulmonary arteries
e. Systemic veins and pulmonary veins
74. Blood in the right ventricle flows through the ___ into the ____
a. Mitral valve---left ventricle
b. Vena cava – right ventricle
c. Tricuspid valve—pulmonary trunk
d. Bicuspid valve—pulmonary veins
75. What structure within the heart is the hearts “natural pacemaker” and initiates the electrical activity that causes
the heart to contract in a normal functioning heart?
a. Medulla
b. SA node
c. AV node
d. Moderator band
e. Thebesian loci
76. The left ventricle is ________ walled than the right ventricle and pumps blood into the _____ circuit.
a. Thinner – systemic
b. Thinner –pulmonary
c. Thicker –systemic
d. Thicker – pulmonary
77. During ventricular diastole
a. only the AV valves open.
b. only the AV valves close.
c. only the semilunar valves close.
d. the semilunar valves close and the AV valves open.
e. the semilunar valves open and the AV valves close.
78. The sequence of events in the transmission of an impulse through the heart muscle is
a: AV node
b: AV bundle
c: SA node
d: through the atria
e: through the ventricles
f: bundle branches
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g: Purkinje fibers
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
c, d, a, b, f, g, e
d, b, a, c, f, g, e
b, a, d, c, f, g, e
f, g, d, c, b, a, e
c, d, a, f, b, g, e
79. Increasing sympathetic innervation of the heart will cause the heart rate to increase
a. True
b. False
80. The cardiac control center in the ____________ receives information about _________ from baroreceptors.
a. Spinal cord – blood pH
b. Medulla – blood pH
c. Thalamus – blood pH
d. Medulla – blood pressure
e. Spinal cord – blood pressure
81. Which of the blood vessel wall layers is the outermost layer?
a. tunica externa
b. tunica intima/interna
c. tunica media
82. Which of the following is FALSE:
a. The medulla of the brainstem regulates vasoconstriction and dilation
b. Muscular arteries have less elastic tissue then elastic arteries
c. Capillaries only have an endothelium
d. As veins move toward/closer to the heart their diameter gets smaller
e. Veins carry low pressure blood
83. Materials cross capillary walls due to:
a. Filtration cause by blood pressure
b. Diffusion through the endothelium
c. Active transport
d. Both A and B
e. All of the above
84. The most common type of capillary that has a complete basement membrane and have no “openings” or
“pores” on their membranes are:
a. Continuous capillaries
b. Fenestrated capillaries
c. Sinusoidal capillaries
d. Sinusoids
e. Sieve capillaries
85. Which of the following are important in helping venous blood return to the heart?
a. Skeletal muscle contraction
b. Respiratory movements
c. Venous valves
d. Both A and B
52
e. A, B, and C
86. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Superficial veins function to carry waste rich blood to the heart without passing through sensitive organs
b. As blood travels further away from the heart it loses pressure
c. Blood travels through muscular arteries in order to get to arterioles
d. Vasoconstriction causes blood pressure to increase
e. Vasoconstriction and dilation is controlled by the sympathetic division of the ANS
87. The smooth muscle present in blood vessels in important in enabling vessels to:
a. Regulating blood pressure
b. Regulate the distribution of blood to different regions and tissues
c. Both
d. neither
88. Which of the following are the most important vessels in regulating blood pressure within the body?
a. Elastic arteries
b. Muscular arteries
c. Arterioles
d. Venules
e. Veins
89. Vasoconstriction increases the amount of blood travelling through a vessel.
a. True
b. false
90. The artery that branches into the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery is the
a. brachiocephalic artery.
b. right common iliac artery.
c. right brachial artery.
d. right coronary artery.
e. superior vena cava.
91. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the
a. kindeys
b. pelvis
c. testes and ovaries
d. liver
e. large intestine
92. An internal iliac vein and an external iliac vein merge to form:
a. A common iliac vein
b. A femoral vein
c. A pedundal vein
d. The inferior vena cava
e. An iliopelvic vein
93. Which of the following blood vessels would NOT be involved with carrying blood from the heart to the left
lower limb?
a. Descending aorta
b. Common iliac artery
53
c. Femoral artery
d. Internal iliac artery
e. External iliac artery
94. Which of the following is the correct route that blood would take into the left arm?
a. Aorta, brachiocephalic trunk, subclavian artery, axillary artery, brachial artery
b. Aorta, brachiocephalic trunk, axillary artery, subclavian artery, brachial artery
c. Aorta, subclavian artery, axillary artery, brachial artery
d. Aorta, subclavian artery, cephalic artery, axillary artery, brachial artery
95. The largest arteries of the body are classified as
a. muscular arteries.
b. arterioles.
c. elastic arteries.
d. muscular and elastic since they have the same dimensions
e. None of these answers is correct.
96. Which circuit of the cardiovascular system is responsible for sending blood to the kidneys, stomach, and pelvic
regions?
a. Pulmonary circuit
b. Innards circuit
c. Vagus circuit
d. Systemic circuit
e. Vanguard circuit
97.
98. Constriction and dilation of blood vessels is controlled primarily through the:
a. Somatic motor division
b. Sympathetic division
c. Parasympathetic division
99. What prevents venous blood from flowing back toward capillaries
a. Smooth muscle contraction
b. Venous valves
c. Colloidal pressure within the capillaries
d. None of the above
100.
Which analogy fits the human heart?
It is like a single pump.
It is like a double pump, each working side by side with the other.
It is like four pumps working in alternating cycles.
It is like a double pump, each working at its own rate determined by the needs of the body
served.
e.
It is like a single pump whose various chambers all work together at once.
a.
b.
c.
d.
101.
a.
b.
c.
d.
54
During a cardiac cycle, how many of the four chambers contract at any one time?
1
2
4
The number of chambers that contract at once changes depending on the heart rate
102.
In which choice list the components of the cardiac conduction system listed in the order that electrical
impulses would pass through them?
a. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle
b. SA node, AV bundle, AV node, Purkinje fibers
c. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers
d. AV node, AV bundle, SA node, Purkinje fibers
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
104.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Vasoconstriction of arterioles would:
Increase blood flow to the tissues they supply
Increase blood pressure
Both
Neither
The relaxation phase of a heart chamber is termed ________________.
diastole
systole
epistole
peristole
unstole
The artery pair that supplies the lower limbs are the
common carotid arteries.
internal iliac arteries.
subclavian arteries.
external iliac arteries.
vertebral arteries.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
The brachiocephalic veins are formed by the
a: Internal jugular veins
b: Right sigmoid sinus
c: Left sigmoid sinus
d: Subclavian veins
e: Traight sinus
a, b, e
a, c, d
b, c, e
→
a, d
b, d, e
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The superior vena cava is formed by the merging of the _______ veins.
internal thoracic
inferior epigastric
lumbar
brachiocephalic
internal jugular
a.
b.
c.
d.
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
106.
107.
108.
109.
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The ________ is composed of circularly arranged layers of smooth muscle cells.
tunica media
tunica externa
tunica intima
tunica interna
tunica adventitia
110.
Which sequence indicates the correct pathway for blood in the arterial flow of the upper appendage?
a.
Axillary artery - brachial artery - subclavian artery - ulnar artery
b.
Brachial artery - subclavian artery - axillary artery - radial artery
c.
Axillary artery - subclavian artery - radial artery - ulnar artery
d.
Subclavian artery - brachial artery - axillary artery - radial artery
e. →
Subclavian artery - axillary artery - brachial artery - ulnar artery
111.
Rather than having abundant elastic fibers in all the tunics, the muscular arteries have elastic confined
to two circumscribed rings, the internal and external elastic laminae.
a. True
b. False
112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
a.
b.
c.
114.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
115.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Blood pressure is highest in the ___________ and lowest in the _____________.
arteries; capillaries
arterioles, venules
brachial artery; capillaries
arteries closest to the heart; veins
As a venous pathway moves closer to the heart, the veins
get smaller.
get larger.
show no change in their lumen size.
The most common type of capillaries are
fenestrated.
sinusoids.
continuous.
venules.
discontinuous.
The middle layer of the heart that is made mostly of cardiac muscle tissue is the:
endocardium.
myocardium.
epicardium.
parietal pericardium.
116.
In a normal functioning heart, which structure typically initiates contraction and set the basic pace of
the heartbeat?
a.
atrioventricular (AV) node
b.
sinoatrial (SA) node
c.
atrioventricular (AV) bundle
d.
Purkinje cells
e.
Medulla
117.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
56
Which are functions performed by the fibrous skeleton of the heart?
a: Separates the atria and ventricles
b: Anchors the heart valves
c: Provides electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles
d: Provides the framework for the attachment of the myocardium
e: None of these are true functions of the fibrous skeleton of the heart.
a, d
b, d
a, c, d
a, b, c, d
e
118.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The heart valves
stabilize and hold the arteries leaving the heart.
permit the passage of blood in one direction.
separate the right and left sides of the heart.
are only used in the fetal heart.
direct the conduction impulse through the heart muscle.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which valve prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle when the ventricles relax?
Left atrioventricular valve
Aortic semilunar valve
Right atrioventricular valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve
None of these answers is correct.
119.
120.
Parasympathetic innervation of the heart occurs via
a. Trochelar Nerve (CN IV)
b. Abducens nerve (CN VI)
c. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
d. Vagus Nerve (CN X)
e. Hypoglossal (CN XII)
121.
The gap junctions of intercalated discs provide a low-resistance pathway across the membranes of
adjoining cardiac muscle fibers.
a. True
b. False
122.
Though the autonomic innervation by autonomic centers in the brainstem cannot initiate a heartbeat, it
can increase or decrease the heart rate.
a. True
b. False
123.
On each side of the chest, the _________ pleura lines the internal thoracic wall and the __________
pleura tightly covers the lung.
a.
thoracic; pulmonary
b.
parietal; visceral
c.
visceral; parietal
d.
respiratory; pleural
e.
fibrous; serous
124.
The openings into the nasal cavity are the
internal nares.
external nares.
fauces.
inferior nasal conchae.
paranasal sinuses.
125.
The ________ layer of the intestine wall propels materials while the ________ is in direct contact with
the contents of the digestive tract.
a. Serosa, mucosa
b. Mucosa, muscularis
c. Submucosa, mucosa
d. Muscularis, mucosa
e. Mucosa, serosa
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
57
126.
The structures created by two layers of peritoneum bonded together without any abdominal organ in
between and that help hold/support abdominal contents are:
a. Mesenteries
b. Falciforms
c. Intraperitoneal membranes
d. Epiplotic appendages
127.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Organs that are NOT surrounded by visceral peritoneum are said to be______:
Mesentery
Retroperitoneal
antedorsal
subparietal
intraparitoneal
128.
Serous cells produce a watery fluid that contains the digestive enzyme amylase that begins
carbohydrate digestion.
a. True
b. False
129.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Organs that are NOT surrounded by visceral peritoneum are said to be______:
Mesentery
Retroperitoneal
antedorsal
subparietal
intraparitoneal
130.
Serous cells produce a watery fluid that contains the digestive enzyme amylase that begins
carbohydrate digestion.
a. True
b. False
Reabsorption is the:
1. Which of the following is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium and has many microvilli:
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Ascending limb of the nephron loop
c. Descending limb of the nephron loop
d. Distal convoluted tubule
e. Collecting duct
131.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The roof of your mouth is the same thing as the:
soft palate
hard palate
uvula
fauces
choane
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The correct order for the layers of the GI tract wall, from innermost (next to lumen) to outermost is
mucosa - submucosa - adventitia/serosa - muscularis.
muscularis - mucosa - adventitia/serosa - submucosa.
adventitia/serosa - mucosa - submucosa - muscularis.
mucosa - submucosa - muscularis - adventitia/serosa.
adventitia/serosa - muscularis - mucosa - submucosa.
132.
58
133.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Where does exchange of gas, nutrients, wastes and hormones occur between the blood and tissues?
Arteries
Veins
arterioles
Capillaries
Exchange occurs in all of these vessels
134.
In the pulmonary circuit, blood leaves the ________ to pass through the lungs, then returns to the heart
by entering the ________.
a. right ventricle; left atrium
b. left ventricle; right atrium
c. right atrium; left ventricle
d. left atrium; right ventricle
135.
Which of the following helps clean and filter inspired air?
a. respiratory mucosa
b. respiratory membrane
c. olfactory mucosa
d. endothelium
e. serous membrane
136.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
What type of epithelium is found in the alveoli?
simple squamous
simple cuboidal
loose areolar
simple columnar
psuedostratified ciliated columnar
137.
Within the alveoli, which cell type is responsible for reducing surface tension so that alveoli do not
collapse and to reduce the amount of muscular effort is needed to inhale?
a. type 1 cells /pnuemocytes (simple squamous cells)
b. type 2 cells (surfactant producing cells)
c. elastic cells
d. macrophages (dust cells)
e. mesothelial cell
138.
The largest laryngeal cartilage is the ___________ and the only laryngeal cartilage that forms a
complete circle (ring) is the _____________.
a. thyroid, cricoid.
b. cricoid, epiglottis
c. thyroid, arytenoid
d. thyroid, epiglottis
139.
59
Thin strips of muscle that run the length of the colon are called the _________:
a. Flexures
b. Haustra
c. Teneia coli
140.
141.
d. Plicea circulareas
e. Villi
The hepatic portal vein carries blood _______ to the liver where it is mixed with blood from the ______.
a. high in oxygen, hepatic vein
b. low in oxygen, hepatic vein
c. high in absorbed nutrients, hepatic vein
d. high in absorbed nutrients, hepatic artery
e. high in oxygen, hepatic artery
Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system:
a. Obtain oxygen
b. Eliminate CO2
c. Filter inhaled air
d. Produce sound
e. Obtain nutrients
142.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
143.
a.
b.
c.
d.
144.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
145.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
146.
60
Which of the following helps accomplish forced exhalation?
contraction of the diaphragm
contraction of the external intercostals muscles
contraction of the abdominal muscles
closing of the glottis
Which statement is true regarding the location of the trachea?
It lies posterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs.
It lies anterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and inferior to the primary bronchi of the lungs.
It lies superior to the esophagus, superior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs.
It lies superior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs.
It lies anterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs.
Which of the following does NOT correctly describe the location and position of the heart.
The heart is medial to the lungs
The heart is posterior to the sternum
The heart is anterior to the esophagus
The heart is positioned with its apex facing directly toward the feet
The heart is within the mediastinum
Which of the following is NOT a correct statement:
Blood flows through the cardiovascular system in a single direction (unidirectional flow)
Veins carry blood toward the chambers of the heart
Arteries carry blood away from the chambers of the heart
The electrical impulse (action potential) slows as it passes through the AV node
During the cardiac cycle the left atrium and ventricle contract at the same time (simultaneously)
Which of the following is FALSE
a. Chemical and mechanical digestion occurs in the oral cavity
b. The small intestines chemically digest lipids, carbs, and proteins
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
147.
Which of the following structures are part of the respiratory tract AND the digestive tract
Nasal cavity
Oropharynx
Nasopharynx
Esophagus
Larynx
c. Bile is important in the digestion of lipids
d. The acids of the stomach kill ingested pathogens
e. The
148.
Which of the following is not part of the small intestine:
a. Cecum
b. Duodenum
c. Ileum
d. Jejunum
149.
Increased activity of most digestive organs is due to stimulation by ________ division of the ANS and
usually involves the _______ nerve
a. Parasympathetic -- Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)
b. Sympathetic—Vagus (CN X)
c. Parasympathetic—hypoglossal (XII)
d. Sympathetic—glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
e. Parasymphatetic—Vagus (CN X)
150.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The serous fluid within the pericardial cavity works to
lubricate the membranes of the serous pericardium.
slow the heart rate.
equalize the pressure in the great vessels.
eliminate blood pressure spikes.
The cell-to-cell contacts of the cardiac muscle fibers are called
Z discs.
T-tubules.
intercalated discs.
cardiac discs.
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
As blood is pumped into the arterial trunks past the semilunar valves, it
pushes against the cusps, forcing the valves open.
pushes against the cusps, forcing the valves closed.
fills the cusps, causing them to expand and block the backflow of blood.
fills the cusps, causing them to expand and open up for the flow of blood.
None of these answers is correct.
a.
b.
c.
d.
151.
152.
153.
Most coronary blood flow occurs during ventricular systole.
a. true
b. false
154.
Breathing assists venous by causing pressure changes in the abdominal and thoracic cavity.
a. True
b. false
155.
A network of small vessels called the ___________ provides a blood supply to the cells within the wall of
very large vessels.
a. vasa vasorum
b. companion vessels
c. distributing arteries
61
d. fenestrated arteries
e. thoroughfare channels
156.
As veins move closer to the heart, they:
a. get smaller
b. get larger
c. show no change in their lumen size (diameter)
157.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
158.
The artery located on the lateral side of your forearm is the:
Cephalic artery
Cubital artery
Ulnar artery
Radial artery
Brachial artery
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is NOT true about veins:
They have thinner walls than arteries
They contain about 60-70% of the blood in the body
Blood pulsates through veins due to vasomotion
The tunica externa (adventitia) is the thickest layer of their wall
The contraction of skeletal muscles plays an important role in the movement of blood in the veins.
True
False
The elastic in arteries functions to:
Allow the vessels to dilate and constrict
Creates a pressure reserve that propels blood during diastole
Allows the arteries to stretch with the body during physical activity
Prevent blood from flowing backwards through veins
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The brachiocephalic veins merge together to form the:
Superior vena cava
Inferior vena cava
Internal jugular veins
Subclavian vein
Subclavian artery
a.
b.
c.
d.
As you move away from the heart, a subclavian artery turns into the:
Brachiocephaic trunk
Axillary artery
Common carotid artery
Brachial artery
a.
b.
c.
d.
159.
a.
b.
160.
161.
162.
163.
BONUS QUESTION--ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTION IN THE GREEN SPACE ON THE
BACK OF YOUR SCANTRON. In 1 OR 2 sentences describe/explain one anatomical fact or concept
that was discussed in class, but you were not asked about on the exam.
62
END OF EXAM
63