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Dr. Vince Scialli
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REV 8/1/07
EXAM 3 – STUDY GUIDE
This guide is intended to provide you with direction into areas of importance. The questions included are the
type you will see on your exam. Some questions include answer choices while others are intended for you to
figure out. Try and understand why a particular choice is incorrect or why a particular choice is correct. Do
not memorize answers since some choices and answer sequence order will be changed on the exam. This
guide is intended to complement your lecture attendance, and reading and note taking, not replace it.
Muscle Tissue
1.
The connective tissue coverings of a skeletal muscle, listed from superficial to deep, are?
Answer not given
2.
The contraction of a muscle exerts a pull on a bone because?
muscles are attached to bone by tendons
3.
The detachment of the mysoin head cross-bridge is directly triggered by?
Answer not given
4.
The term used to describe a muscle producing maximum tension during rapid cycles of complete contraction and
complete relaxation, is?
treppe
5.
The I bands of the sarcomere are composed primarily of?
Answer not given
6.
The A bands of the sarcomere are composed primarily of?
Answer not given
7.
The type of contraction in which the tension rises, but the resistance does not change?
isometric
8.
Large bulky, well toned muscles with densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria,
usually have?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
9.
fast fibers causing soft or flaccid paralysis
slow fibers with many motor units firing at rest
no glycogen stores
no mitochondria
less actin & myosin
Action potentials and ions can travel quickly through cardiac muscle cell channels because of the presence of?
intercalcated discs and gap junctions
10. Slow fibers, which are usually found in very large, bulky muscles would not be found in?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
back muscles
eye and hand muscles
chest and abdomen muscles
thigh and gluteal muscles
shoulder muscles
11. When contraction occurs in skeletal muscle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the H zone get smaller
the Z lines move closer together
the width of the A band remains constant
cross-bridging and pivoting of filaments occurs
all of the above occurs during contraction
12. The amount of tension produced during a contraction is affected by?
the number of cross-bridge interactions in a muscle fiber and the frequency of stimulation
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Dr. Vince Scialli
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13. Which one of the following does not contain muscle fibers?
Answer not given
14. All of the following are a part of skeletal muscle except?
Answer not given
15. What structural feature of skeletal muscle fiber is responsible for carrying action potentials into the interior of the
cell from the membrane?
t-tubules or transverse tubules
16. Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscle tissue?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
produce skeletal movement and maintain posture
maintain body temperature
support soft tissues and visceral organs
provide voluntary control over swallowing, defecation, and urination
all the above are functions of skeletal muscle
17. During muscle contraction, what two globular proteins are involved in sliding or overlaping?
Answer not given
18. The correct order of events occurring in excitation contraction coupling, and resulting from the release of calcium
ion from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, is?
attachment cross bridging, pivoting heads, ATP caused detachment, relaxation
19. What neurotransmitter and enzyme is involved in muscle contraction?
acetylcholine and acetylcholinesterase
20. What two mechanisms are used to generate ATP from glucose in muscle cells?
anaerobic and aerobic metabolism
21. Which is not one of the activities that occur at a NMJ during muscle contraction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
acetylcholine is released by exocytosis from axonal vesicles into synaptic cleft
excess acetylcholine is neutralized by cholinesterase in the synaptic cleft
sodium enters cell activated by acetylcholine binding to receptors at motor end plate
calcium is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum and binds to troponin
action potential is propagated down the t-tubules of the sarcolemma
22. What happens to muscles that are not used on a regular basis?
Answer not given
23. Increased surface area of the motor end plate of the MNJ is due to the presence of?
junctional folds
24. The connective tissue layer(s) of bone that interweave(s) with the connective tissue layer(s) of muscle is/are is
called?
periosteum
25. Which associated grouping(s) below is not completely correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
skeletal muscle ~ striated, somatic, voluntary, involuntary, multinucleated
cardiac muscle ~ cardiocytes, striated, involuntary, gap junctions, intercalated discs
smooth muscle ~ non-striated, surrounds organs, voluntary, intercalated discs
skeletal muscle ~ striated, voluntary and involuntary, locomotion, maintains body temperature
skeletal muscle ~ striated, mostly voluntary, locomotion, maintains body temperature, support
26. The unique characteristic(s) of cardiac muscle that allows the heart to continue to contract without direct
influence by the nervous system, is due to?
Answer not given
27. A fan shaped tendon sheet that attaches muscles typically to flat bone are?
aponeurosis
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28. Which order of organization below is correct, from largest to smallest?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, sarcomeres, thick and thin filaments
thick and thin filaments, sarcomeres, myofibrils, muscle cell, fascicle, muscle
muscle fiber, fascicle, muscle, myofibril, sarcomeres, thick and thin filaments
muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, muscle cell, sarcomeres, filaments
muscle, fascicle , sarcomeres, muscle cell, myofilaments
29. Immature muscle stem cells that differentiate into new muscle cells during regeneration are called?
Answer not given
30. An action potential or nerve impulse from a neuron results in contraction of muscle by involving which cellular
level structures, in order from first to last?
MEP, sarcolemma, t-tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, sarcoplasma, sarcomeres
31. The muscle fiber organelle that is the site of most energy production is the?
Answer not given
32. Botulism toxin, a weapon of mass destruction used in Iraq, prevents release of acetylcholine at the synaptic
terminal and MNJ. How does this toxin affect muscular activity?
causes flaccid paralysis due to inability of muscle to contract
33. Cholinesterase inhibitors are common ingredients in insecticides and weapons of mass destruction? How do
cholinesterase inhibitors affect muscular activity?
causes spastic paralysis due to continuous release of ACH & over stimulation of muscle
34. Duration of muscle contraction depends on all the following except?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
duration of stimulation at MNJ by ACH
presence of free calcium ion in the sarcoplasma
availability of ATP to break cross-bridges
availability of cholinesterase to neutralize ACH and stop the process
the amount of sodium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
35. Tension is the pull or active force on a muscle tendon needed to overcome resistance.
It results from?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
sarcomeres becoming shorter during contraction
thick and thin filaments becoming shorter during contraction
shortening of the overall muscle fiber
tendons becoming shorter during contraction
a and c
36. A myogram is a graph of tension in muscle fibers. The myogram phases, in correct order of
occurrence, from pre-stimulus to post-stimulus, are?
resting phase, stimulus, latent period, contraction phase, relaxation phase
37. A single stimulation that produces a very short, unsustained, single contraction and relaxation cycle is called?
twitch
38. A common repeated stimulation of muscle before the relaxation phase ends where each
contraction becomes stronger than the previous one is called?
wave summation
39. Another name for wave summation where tension peaks due to frequent & continuous
stimulation where muscle does not completely relax, is?
Incomplete tetanus or fasciculation or convulsive tension
40. Continuous muscle stimulation due to buildup of calcium ion in the sarcoplasm where the
relaxation phase is eliminated, results in?
complete tetanus or spastic paralysis
41. The act of summation of multiple motor units resulting in a smooth, steady increase in
muscle tension, is called?
recruitment
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42. Multiple motor unit summation that results in rotation of different motor units contracting and
resting, is called?
asynchronous motor unit summation
43. Muscle tone is the resting tension in skeletal muscle. Which association (s) is/are correct?
a.
flaccid
firm
= limp tone, many motor units active during rest, higher metabolism
= solid tone, few motor units active during rest, lower metabolism
b.
flaccid
firm
= limp tone, few motor units active during rest, lower metabolism
= solid tone, many motor units active during rest, higher metabolism
c.
flaccid
firm
= solid tone, few motor units active during rest,
= limp tone, many motor units active during rest
d.
flaccid
firm
= solid tone, few motor units active during rest
= limp tone, many motor units active during rest
e.
flaccid
firm
= limp tone, few motor units active during rest, higher metabolism
= solid tone, many motor units active during rest, lower metabolism
44. Which is/are not correct about isotonic muscle contraction?
a. isotonic contraction is a normal muscle activity
b. tension exceeds resistance
c. resistance is never overcome
d. length of muscle remains constant
e. c and d
45. Which is/are not correct about isometric muscle contraction?
a. isometric contraction is a normal muscle activity
b. tension does not exceed resistance
c. length of muscle becomes shorter
d. length of muscle remains constant
e. b and c
46. First resort energy (ATP) production in muscle cells during rest that lasts only about 15 seconds involves all of
the following except?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
aerobic metabolism
creatine phosphate
anaerobic metabolism
fatty acid catabolism in mitochondria
conversion of ADP to ATP
47. Which is not correct about anaerobic metabolism in muscle cells?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
ATP production occurs in the sarcoplasm only and lasts only 30-60 seconds
ATP production requires oxygen and occurs in mitochondria
each glucose molecule results in 2 ATP produced
provides 70% of ATP demand for highly active or peak active cells
involves glycolysis breakdown to pyruvic acid and significant lactic acid production
48. Which is not correct about aerobic metabolism in muscle cells?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
ATP production results in large amounts of lactic acid production
most ATP production occurs in mitochondria
each glucose molecule results in 36 ATP produced and lasts for hours
provides 75% or more of ATP demand for moderately active cells
involves catabolism of glucose (glycolysis) to pyruvic acid
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Dr. Vince Scialli
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49. Normal muscle function requires all of the following except?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
energy reserves of ATP
normal circulation
normal blood oxygen
high levels of lactic acid
normal blood pH
50. Fatigued muscle cannot contract due to?
Answer not given
51. The process in which lactic acid is converted back to pyruvic acid in the mitochondria or liver, is called?
Answer not given
52. The amount of oxygen required during muscle recovery to restore muscle to normal metabolic conditions
following exercise, is called?
Answer not given
53. Muscle hypertrophy is muscle enlargement where the diameter of muscle fiber increases.
Which statement is not correct regarding the hypertrophy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
number of muscle fibers or cells increase in hypertrophy
hypertrophied muscles have more mitochondria
hypertrophy muscles have larger glycogen reserves
number of myofibrils increase
number of thick and thin filaments increases
54. A skeletal muscle(s) that is influenced by both voluntary and involuntary control mechanisms is/are?
Answer not given
Neural Tissue
55. Regulation of the nervous system provides?
swift, but brief, responses to stimuli from electric impulses
56. The afferent or ascending division of the peripheral nervous system?
bring sensory information to the CNS
57. What nervous system division controls voluntary skeletal muscle contraction (SM)?
somatic nervous system
58. Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands and visceral organs are effectors or targets of the?
autonomic nervous system
59. A neuron receives incoming stimulatory information at it’s?
Answer not given
60. Neuroglia responsible for maintaining the blood-brain barrier are the?
Astrocytes
61. Phagocytic cells in neural tissue of the CNS are?
microglia
62. Substances within a nerve cell that are abnormally transported backwards from an axonal terminal to the cell
body of the same neuron are delivered by?
retrograde flow
63. Motor neurons that most commonly control skeletal muscles are usually?
multipolar neurons
64. Neurons that inter-connect between other neurons and are responsible for the analysis of
sensory inputs and coordination of motor outputs, are?
interneurons
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65. Depolarization of a “resting” cell membrane is any positive deflection that shifts the
membrane potential toward?
a. – 60 mV
b. 0 mV
c. – 70 mV
d. – 90 mV
e. a and b
66. The primary determinant in restoring the resting membrane following depolarization to ---70 mV or lower (repolarization & hyperpolarization)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the membrane permeability and influx of sodium
the membrane permeability and efflux of potassium
the intracellular negatively charged proteins
the negative charge of the interstitial fluid
the positively charged cellular cytoplasm
67. Receptors that attract chemical neurotransmitters such acetylcholine at neural membrane channel gates are?
chemically regulated
68. Gated channels that open or close in response to a change in the electric charge or
transmembrane potential are?
voltage regulated channels
69. Changes in the transmembrane potential that are not restricted to the area surrounding the site of stimulation,
are?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
graded potentials
inhibitory potentials
hyperpolarizing potentials
action potentials
repolarizing potentials
70. A transient hyperpolarization (further from threshold) of the post-synaptic membrane is?
an inhibitory post-synaptic potential (IPSP)
71. A neuron that is brought closer to threshold is considered to be?
facilitated
72. If the resting membrane potential is – 70 mV and the threshold is – 55 mV, a membrane of – 60 mV will?
make it easier to produce an action potential
73. A graded potential?
decreases with the distance from the point of stimulation, and loses intensity or leads to an action
potential
74. For an action potential to begin, the membrane?
may be in the relative refractory period & must be depolarized to threshold level
75. During the absolute refractory period, the membrane?
cannot respond to further stimulation
76. What type of stimulus does a neuron exhibiting facilitation (an EPSP closer to threshold such as what occurs with
caffeine or uppers), require?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
smaller depolarizing stimulus needed to trigger an action potential
additional larger depolarizing stimulus required to trigger an action potential
smaller hyperpolarizing stimulus required to trigger an action potential
additional larger hyperpolarizing stimulus required to trigger an action potential
a facilitated neuron can never be stimulated
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77. The cellular loss of positive charged ions (i.e. potassium) in a resting cell (-70mV) results in the cell becoming
even more negative. This results in?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the neuron cell membrane opening more sodium channels causing sodium efflux
depolarization with a resulting action potential being generated
hyperpolarization and a cell that is further from threshold
threshold to be reached with a resulting action potential being generated
the neuron cell membrane becoming more facilitated
78. The rapid saltatory propagation or hopping of an action potential down the axon occurs only in?
myelinated type A axons
79. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSP’s)?
result in hyperpolarization due to potassium efflux or moving out of the cell
80. Opening of the sodium channels allowing sodium to flow into a neuron cell results in?
a decreased negative charge inside the cell and depolarization
81. Specialized support tissue of the nervous system that are not a part of neurons, are called?
Answer not given
82. Components of the central nervous system (CNS) include all of the following, except?
Answer not given
83. Components of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) include all of the following, except?
Answer not given
84. Starting with the receptor end, the normal flow of information through a nerve cell occurs in the following
sequence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
dendrites, axons, cell body, synaptic terminal, axon hillock, synapse
dendrites, axon hillock, cell body, synaptic terminal, axon, synapse
synapse, synaptic terminal, axon, axon hillock, cell body, dendrites
dendrites, cell body, axon hillock, axon, pre-synaptic terminal, synapse
dendrites, cell body, axon, axon hillock, synapse, pre-synaptic terminal
85. The part of the neuron that generates and propagates an action potentials is?
axolemma and axon
86. What statement below is not correct about neurotransmitters such as Acetylcholine (ACH)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
ACH is released by exocytosis at the synapse between pre and post synaptic cells
ACH is stored in pre-synaptic vesicles of neuron cell axonal terminal
ACH is secreted by neurons at neuromuscular junctions of synapses
ACH is a chemical neurotransmitted that performs important intercellular communication
ACH attaches to sodium receptors of the post-synaptic cell allowing receptors to enter the cell
87. The normal inter-neuron flow or nerve impulse movement from pre-synaptic axons to post-synaptic dendrites
is?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
retrograde transport
caused by rabies
axoplasmic or anterograde transport
reverse flow
dendritic flow
88. The most common type of neuron characterized by having two or more groups of dendrites and innervating
skeletal muscle is?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
anaxonic neuron
bipolar neuron
unipolar neuron
multipolar neuron
axoplasmic neuron
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Dr. Vince Scialli
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89. Which association grouping or statement regarding sensory neurons is/are not correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
exteroceptors ~ visceral sensory, touch, temperature, pressure, internal organs
exteroceptors ~ somatic sensory, touch, temperature, pressure, special senses
proprioceptors ~ somatic sensory, position & movement, skeletal muscle & joints
interoceptors, ~ visceral sensory, internal organs, pain, pressure, temperature
exteroceptors ~ somatic sensory, skin & skeletal muscle, external environment
90. Which association grouping or statement regarding motor neurons is not correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
motor neurons form the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system
somatic motor neurons carry motor commands from the CNS to skeletal muscle
somatic motor neurons carry commands for involuntary control of some skeletal muscle
visceral motor neurons carry commands for voluntary control of smooth muscle & internal organs
visceral motor neurons carry commands for involuntary control of internal organs
91. Neurons found only in the CNS between sensory and motor components and involved with higher order
functions, are called?c
Answer not given
92. Neuroglia of the peripheral nervous system involved with gas and nutrient regulation; and myelination and repair,
include?
Answer not given
93. Which association grouping or statement, regarding CNS neuroglia cells, is not correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
microglia ~ phagocytosis
oligodendrocytes ~ myelination of CNS axons
astrocytes ~ maintain blood brain barrier
ependymal cells ~ line CNS cavities and secrete cerebral spinal fluid
schwann cells ~ myelination of PNS axons
94. A whitish-yellow membrane sheath wrapping surrounding nerve cells that insulates the cells and increases the
speed of action potentials is?
Answer not given
95. Primary brain cancers usually involve what type of non-neuronal brain cells?
Answer not given
96. A demyelination autoimmune disorder caused by progressive destruction of the myelin sheath in the CNS and
PNS, and resulting in pain or a numbing paralysis is known as?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
rabies
multiple sclerosis
muscular dystrophy
spastic paralysis
flaccid paralysis
97. Peripheral nerve regeneration is very limited and rare due to?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the unlikeliness of obtaining normal or precise alignment of axons
permanent scar tissue that affects normal nerve impulse conduction
wallerian degeneration of axons distal to the point of injury
lack of centrioles in neural tissue
all of the above are correct
98. The continuous propagation or free flow of an action potential occurs only in?
type C unmyelinated axons
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Dr. Vince Scialli
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99. Which association below is not correct regarding classification of axons?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
type A fibers = fastest, largest, myelinated, saltatory propagation
type B fibers = myelinated, smaller than type A, saltatory propagation
type A fibers = fastest, smallest, myelinated, continuous propagation
type C fibers, smallest, slowest, unmyelinated, continuous propagation
type A & B = fast, myelinated, salutatory propagation
100. The most common type of synapse is the?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
electric synapse
chemical synapse
mechanical synapse
electrochemical synapse
voltage synapse
101. ACH is a common chemical neurotransmitter secreted from a cholinergic synapse.
Which statement below is not correct regarding activities occurring at a cholinergic synapse?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Calcium influx into an axon terminal stimulates the release of ACH from terminal vesicles
ACH is stimulatory to skeletal muscle causing depolarization and muscle contraction
ACH is secreted from cholinergic synapses only
Excess ACH is removed by ACH-E in the synaptic cleft, thus inhibiting its effects
ACH is secreted from post-synaptic neurons and affects pre-synaptic neurons
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