Download 07 Test question bank

07 Test question bank
1.
Which of the following is a function of skeletal muscle?
a. produce movement
b. maintain posture
c. maintain body temperature
d. a and b only
e. all of the above
5.
The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n)
a. fascicle
b. tendon
c. ligament
d. epimysium
e. myofibril
6.
Skeletal muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that these muscle fibers
a. lack a cell membrane
b. have many nuclei
c. are very small
d. lack mitochondria
e. all of the above
7.
The cell membrane of skeletal muscle is called the
a. sarcolemma
b. sarcomere
c. sarcosome
d. sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. sarcoplasm
Page 2
8.
The cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the
a. sarcolemma
b. sarcomere
c. sarcosome
d. sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. sarcoplasm
9.
The membranous network of channels within a muscle fiber is the
a. sarcolemma
b. sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. myolemma
d. sarcoplasm
e. none of the above
10.
The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the
a. sarcolemma
b. sarcomere
c. sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. myofibril
e. myofilament
11.
Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
a. muscle fatigue
b. the conduction of neural information to the muscle fiber
c. muscle contraction
d. muscle relaxation
e. the striped appearance of skeletal muscle
12.
Thin filaments at either end of the sarcomere are attached to the
a. Z line
b. M line
c. H band
d. A band
e. I band
13.
The area of the sarcomere containing the thick filaments is the
a. Z line
b. M line
c. H band
d. A band
e. I band
f.
The area of the sarcomere that contains only thin filaments is the
a. Z line
b. M line
c. H band
d. A band
e. I band
14.
Page 3
15.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores
a. oxygen
b. glycogen
c. ATP
d. calcium ions
e. glucose
16.
Cross-bridges are located on
a. actin molecules
b. myosin molecules
c. troponin molecules
d. tropomyosin molecules
e. calcium ions
18.
The space between the neuron and the muscle is the
a. synaptic knob
b. motor end plate
c. motor unit
d. synaptic cleft
e. I band
19.
Active sites on actin become available for binding when
a. actin binds to troponin
b.
c.
d.
e.
troponin binds to tropomyosin
calcium binds to troponin
calcium binds to tropomyosin
myosin binds to troponin
24.
Creatine phosphate
a. is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration
b. can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction
c. acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
d. is only formed during strenuous exercise
e. cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP
25.
When energy reserves in a muscle are exhausted or lactic acid levels increase
a. an oxygen debt is repaid
b. fatigue occurs
c. relaxation occurs
d. tetany occurs
e. atrophy occurs
26.
Fast fibers
a. have high resistance to fatigue
b. have a high concentration of myoglobin
c. have many mitochondria
d. contract quickly
e. all of the above
27.
The type of muscle fiber that is best adapted for endurance is the
a. fast fiber
b. slow fiber
c. intermediate fiber
d. anaerobic fiber
e. high density fiber
29.
Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?
a. Smooth muscle fibers are uninucleate.
b. Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under voluntary control.
c. Smooth muscles are not striated.
d. Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres.
e. Smooth muscles may be tetanized.
30.
Which of the following is not characteristic of cardiac muscle?
a. Cardiac muscles are not striated.
b. Cardiac muscles cannot be tetanized.
c. Cardiac muscle fibers are uninucleate.
d. Cardiac muscles contain sarcomeres.
e. Neurons that innervate cardiac muscles are under involuntary control.
35.
How would blocking the activity of acetylcholinesterase affect skeletal muscle?
a. It would make the muscles less excitable.
b.
c.
d.
e.
It would produce muscle weakness.
It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax).
It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract).
It would have no affect on skeletal muscles.
38.
A person whose genetic makeup makes them a better marathon runner than a sprinter probably has more
__________ in their leg muscles.
a. fast fibers
b. intermediate fibers
c. slow fibers
d. dark fibers
e. noncontractile fibers
40.
Rigor mortis occurs at death due to a lack of
a. cAMP
b. DNA
c. RNA
d. ATP
e. TRNA
1. The peripheral nervous system consists of :
A. spinal cord and spinal nerves B. cranial nerves and spinal cord
C. spinal nerves and cranial nerves
D. spinal nerves and the brain
2. __________ neurons carry nerve impulses from the CNS to the muscles or glands.
A. sensory
B. motor
C. association
D. insulate
3. A synapse is:
A. a neuron cell division resulting in two cells
B. a junction between two neurons
C. the part of the neuron releasing neurotransmitters
D. a synonym for cell body
4. Which of the following regarding the autonomic nervous system is true?
A. It is made up of those neurons that go to skeletal muscle.
B. There are only sensory neurons in this system.
C. It is physiologically and anatomically separate from the CNS.
D. It consists of afferent neurons to glands, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle.
5. Which is correct concerning neuroglea?
A. These are only cells of the ANS.
B. These are highly specialized for impulse conduction.
C. They protect and support neurons.
D. They are outnumbered by neurons in the brain.
6. The dendrites of a neuron:
A. conducts impulses toward the cell body
B. is the single main cytoplasmic process of a neuron
C. conducts impulses away from the cell body
D. none of the above
7. The myelin sheath of a neuron is associated with:
A. nutrition of a neuron
B. the speed of impulse conduction
C. regeneration or nerve tissue
D. support of a neuron
8. A resting nerve potential refers to:
A. a depolarized membrane
B. being permeable to all ions
C. having a charge of 7 millivolts
D. a polarized membrane
9. When a membrane is depolarized, the membrane:
A. is more permeable to Na+1
B. changes voltage to –70 millivolts
C. is negative on the inside
D. allows negative ions to escape
10. The time it takes for the ion movement to be restored between impulses is called:
A. rest
B. refractory period
C. repolarization
D. restoration
11. A threshold stimulus is one that:
A. causes a maximum strength impulse
B. initiates a slow impulse
C. transmits an action according to the all or none principle
D. both a and c
12. Which of the following is closely related to saltatory conduction?
A. unmyelinated fibers
B. myelinated fibers
C. slow step by step depolarization
D. greater energy requirement
13. Which of the following neuron fibers will conduct the impulses at the fastest rate?
A. cold fibers
B. small fibers
C. large unmyelinated fibers
D. large myelinated fibers
14. Hyperpolarization is:
A. a condition in which a neuron cannot generate an action potential
B. a condition in which the resting level is more negative than –70mV
C. a condition that results in an inhibitory effect instead of an excitatory effect.
D. All of the above
15. The primary function of the nervous system is:
A. sensory
B. integration
C. response
D. all of the above
16. A nerve impulse would propagate fastest along a _______, ________, ________ axon.
A. Small, warm, myelinated
B. Large, myelinated, warm
C. Small, unmyelinated, cold
D. Large, myelinated, cold
17. Efferent neural fibers carry nerve impulses __________ the central nervous system.
A. Towards
B. Away from
C. Parallel to
D. Perpendicular to
18. Intracellular fluids (inside the cell) contain more ________ and _________ than the extracellular fluids (outside
the cell).
A. Sodium cations (Na+), Potassium cations (K+)
B. Protein anions (A-), Sodium cations (Na+)
C. Chlorine anions (Cl-), Sodium cations (Na+)
D. Potassium cations (K+), Protein anions (A-)
19. Alkalosis is defined as a(n) ________ in blood pH, while acidosis is defined as a(n) _________ in blood pH.
A. Increase, Decrease
B. Increase,Maintenance
C. Maintenance, Decrease
D. Decrease, Increase
20.A group of cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system is known as a __________.
A. Neuron
B. Nuclei
C. Soma
D. Ganglia
21. The ion needed to initiate the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
A.sodium
B. potassium
C. calcium
D. chloride
22. The division of the spinal cord responsible for voluntary movements is the _______.
A. Sympathetic Nervous System B. Autonomic Nervous System
C. Somatic Nervous System
D. Parasympathetic Nervous System
23.The division of the nervous system responsible for the “fight or flight” response is the __________,
which increases energy expenditure and increases heart rate.
A. Sympathetic Nervous System B. Autonomic Nervous System
C. Somatic Nervous System
D. Parasympathetic Nervous System
1. The ascending tracts of the CNS:
A. contain only motor neurons
B. contain both sensory and motor neurons
C. are spinal tracts carrying sensory neurons
D. are located in the spinal cord and brain
2. The subarachnoid space:
A. contains fat, blood vessels, and connective tissues
B. is the location of circulating cerebrospinal fluid
C. lies between the dura mater and arachnoid layer
D. is between the pia mater and the brain
3. Which of the following are general features of the spinal cord?
A. it is an average of 42-45 cm. In length
B. it only extends to the 2nd lumbar vertebrae
C. it has 31 spinal segments
D. all of the above
4. The correct sequence for the reflex arc is:
A. sensory neuron, receptor, integration center, motor neuron, effector
B. effector, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, receptor
C. receptor, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, effector
D. receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector
5. Thoracic nerves 2 – 11 (T2- T-11):
A. are called intercostals nerves
B. form the thoracic plexus
C. contain only motor fibers
D. all of the above
6. Which of the following concerning the human brain is correct?
A. has a diencephalon made of a cerebrum and a cerebellum
B. consists of a brain stem, diencephalon, cerebellum, and cerebrum
C. weighs about 3 lbs.
D. both B&C
7. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebrospinal fluid?
A. serves as a direct source of neurotransmitters
B. acts as a buoyant fluid “floating” the brain
C. delivers nutritive materials to the CNS cells
D. carries away toxic substances and wastes from brain cells
8. To which substance is the BBB most impermeable?
A. insulin
B. urea
C. glucose
D. antibiotics
9. The medulla oblongata:
A. contains all of the ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord
B. is made up of entirely descending tracts of the spinal cord
C. is the superior part of the brain stem
D. contains only ascending tracts of the spinal cord
10. The pons:
A. contains transverse fibers that connect the spinal cord to the cerebellum
B. means bridge
C. helps regulate breathing
D. all of the above
11. The thalamus:
A. is considered part of the midbrain
B. is the main relay station for sensory impulses
C. functions to relay cerebral impulses to lower brain centers
D. none of the above
12. Which part of the brain is responsible for monitoring and controlling hormone concentrations
and body temperature
A. thalamus
B. medulla
C. hypothalamus
D. midbrain
13. The ________ is the delicate connective tissue membrane closely attached to the brain
and spinal cord.
A. dura mater
B. arachnoid layer
C. pia mater
D. epidural space
14. Cranial nerve I is responsible for:
A. sensory for sight
B. motor for olfaction
C. motor for mastication
D. sensory for olfaction
15. The longitudinal fissure:
A. separates the left and the right hemispheres
B. separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum
C. lies between the parietal and frontal lobes
D. separates the parietal and the occipital lobes
16. Blood vessels servicing the spinal cord are found in the
a. pia mater
b. dura mater
c. epidural space
d. subdural space
e. subarachnoid space
17. The following are the "layers" of meninges
1. subarachnoid space
2. pia mater
3. arachnoid mater
4. epidural space
5. dura mater
The correct order superficial to deep is:
a. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
b. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
c. 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
d. 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
e. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
18. The projections of gray matter toward the outer surface of the spinal cord are called
a. wings
b. horns
c. pyramids
d. fibers
e. tracts
19. Major centers concerned with autonomic control of breathing, blood pressure, heart rate, and digestive activities
are located in the
a. medulla oblongata
b. pons
c. midbrain
d. diencephalon
e. cerebellum
20. What structure is highly vascular and closely adheres to the surface of the brain?
a. pia mater
b. arachnoid
c. dura mater
d. cortex
e. choroid plexus
21. The region of the brain that is involved in conscious thought and intellectual function as well as processing
somatic sensory and motor information is the
a. medulla
b. pons
c. midbrain
d. cerebellum
e. cerebrum
22. The major communication between cerebral hemispheres occurs through the
a. corpus spongiosum
b. prefrontal gyrus
c. corpus callosum
d. postcentral gyrus
e. hypothalamus
23. Stimulation of the RAS results in
a. sleep
b. increased consciousness
c. coma
d. decreased cerebral function
e. none of the above
24. Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium
are functions of the
a. cerebrum
b. midbrain
c. cerebellum
d. pons
e. medulla
25. Bundles of axons in the spinal cord are called
a. nerves
b. tracts
c. centers
d. nuclei
e. ganglia
26. Ascending tracts
a. carry sensory information to the brain
b. carry motor information to the brain
c. carry sensory information from the brain
d. carry motor information from the brain
e. none of the above
27. If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is severed,
a. motor control of skeletal muscles would be impaired
b. motor control of visceral organs would be impaired
c. the spinal cord would not be able to process information at that level
d. the brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord
e. incoming sensory information would be disrupted
28. After suffering a stroke, Cindy finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke
damage is in the area of the
a. right frontal lobe
b. left frontal lobe
c. right temporal lobe
d. left temporal lobe
e. occipital lobe
1. This is the only artery within your body that does not carry oxygen rich blood.
a. Aorta
b. Carotid
c. Pulmonary
d. Superior Vena Cava
2. These vessels are the exchange vessels within your circulatory system, where oxygen is dropped off to the
tissues and carbon dioxide is picked up for removal.
e. Venules
f. Capillaries
g. Arterioles
h. Arteries
i. Veins
2. Veins carry blood _____________ the heart, whereas arteries carry blood ______________ the heart.
a. To and from, to and from
b. Towards, away from
c. Away from, towards
d. Up to, down to
3. All blood vessels are composed of three concentric layers. The inner most of those layers, the layer in
direct contact with the blood is the _______________.
a. Tunica Intima
b. Tunica Externa
c. Tunica Media
4. According to class discussion, if blood pressure within the cardiovascular system is increased, blood flow
will _________________.
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Cease
d. Stay the same
5. Arterioles are known as the resistance vessels within your body, what is the effect on blood flow as it
passes through these vessels?
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Ceases
d. Stays the same
6. What major vessel leaving the base of the heart delivers oxygenated blood to the body?
a. Aorta
b. Superior Vena Cava
c. Inferior Vena Cava
d. Pulmonary Artery
e. Pulmonary Veins
7. All oxygen poor blood returning from the body empties into this chamber of the heart.
a. Right Atrium
b. Right Ventricle
c. Left Atrium
d. Left Ventricle
8. Your atrium are _________________ chambers, whereas your ventricles are _______________ chambers.
a. Receiving, pumping
b. Pumping, receiving
9. The atrioventricular (cuspid) valve on the right side of the heart is also known as the ______________
valve.
a. Pulmonary
b. Aortic
c. Bicuspid
d. Tricuspid
10. These major vessels are the only veins within the body that carry oxygen rich blood.
a. Superior Vena Cava
b. Inferior Vena Cave
c. Pulmonary Veins
d. Jugular Veins
11. Of the heart wall, this layer is composed of involuntary, cardiac muscle.
a. Epicardium
b. Myocardium
c. Endocardium
d. Pericardium
12. Of the major vessels, this/these vessels empty directly into the right atrium.
a. Superior Vena Cava
b. Inferior Vena Cava
c. Pulmonary Veins
d. A and B
e. A and C
13. The heart is self activated, meaning that it needs no outside nerve innervations to stimulate the heart tissue
contraction. What collection of special cells is responsible for initiating the heart beat and is often referred
to as the pacemaker?
a. SA Node
b. AV Node
c. AV Bundles
d. Bundle Branches
e. Purkinje Fibers
14. When measuring your blood pressure, you are measuring what?
a. Pressure exerted by blood on vessel walls
b. Contraction and relaxation of the left ventricle
c. Contraction and relaxation of the right ventricle
d. A and B
e. A and C
15. When talking about the heart, systole refers to heart ______________.
a. Contraction
b. Relaxation
c. Repolarization
16. The average blood pressure for an adult male is ________/________.
a. 80/120
b. 120/80
c. 100/100
d. 80/60
17. Why do heart murmurs occur?
a. Because someone has a weak heart
b. Because someone’s hematocrit is too high
c. Because of faulty valves and/or cordae tendinae
d. Because it has something important to say
18. A sphygnomometer measures a person’s ________________.
a. Cardiac Output
b. Heart Rate
c. Blood Pressure
d. Electrical activity of the heart
19. Tom is an elite endurance athlete. After training for years, he has a resting heart rate of 65 beats/min and a
stroke volume of 100 ml/beat. What is Tom’s cardiac output in liters/min?
a. 1.5
b. 6500
c. 4.5
d. 6.5
31. People with AB blood type have :
a. both kinds of antibodies in their blood
b. have no antigens in their blood
c. have agglutinogens A and B on their erythrocytes
d. an inability to agglutinate with any other blood type
32. People with type O blood :
a.
can only receive type O blood in transfusions
b.
occur in equal frequency with those of type AB blood
c. are called “universal recipients” regarding blood transfusion
d. will only have children with type O blood
33. The formed elements of blood with the shortest life span are :
a. erythroctes
b. leucocytes
c. thrombocytes
d. hemophilocytes
1. Lymphatic tissue:
A. called diffuse lymphatic tissue is not enclosed in a capsule.
B. is a liquid tissue called lymph.
C. includes lymph nodes and the thymus gland
D. all of the above
2. Which of the following is not a component of the lymphatic system?
A.thymus
B. spleen
C. liver
D. bone marrow
3. The lymph vessels in comparison with the veins of the circulatory system:
A. have thinner walls
B. have more valves
C. contain nodes throughout
D. all of these are true
4. The lymph exits a node through:
A. afferent lymphatic vessels
B. efferent lymphatic vessels
C. blood vessels
D. through a vessel called the Hilus
5. The spleen functions in production of the:
A. T cells
B. macrophages
C. B cells
D. D cells
6. Which of the following is not a type of tonsils?
A. pharyngeal
B. nasal
C. palatine
D. lingual
7. Lymph from the left side of the head, chest, left arm, and entire lower body:
A. returns to the vascular system through the left jugular vein
B. filters through the spleen
C. drains into the thoracic duct
D. all of the above
8. Which of the body’s defenses is the most important against viruses?
A. properdin
B. complement
C. interferon
D. chicken soup
9. Histamine causes which of the following inflammatory responses?
A. vasodilation
B. phagocyte migration
C. repair
D. none of the above
10. Which of these would most likely be the same as a pimple?
A. boil
B. edema
C. fibrin
D. abscess
11. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Natural acquired immunity is produced by B cells.
B. Vaccination of polio is called naturally acquired passive immunity.
C. Human antibodies may be transferred from one person to another.
D. Acquired immunity only lasts a few years.
12. Which of these is necessary in order for B cells and T cells to recognize
specific antigens?
A. fibrinogen
B. macrophages
C. plasma cells
D. interferons
13. The body’s first line of defense against infection is a physical barrier called:
A. mucous membranes
B. epidermis
C. NK cells
D. Cilia
14. Accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues is called:
A. edema
B. abscess
C. boil
D. zit
15. The HIV virus initially attacks the:
A. suppressor T cells
B. helper T cells
C. killer T cells
D. memory T cells
1.
Functions of the respiratory system include
a. protecting respiratory surfaces from dehydration, temperature changes, or other environmental variations
b. defending the respiratory system and other tissues from pathogenic invasion
c. providing an extensive area for gas exchange between air and circulating blood
d. a and c only
e. all of the above
2.
Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the
a. upper respiratory tract
b. lower respiratory tract
c. lungs
d. alveoli
e. all of the above
3.
Surfactant
a. protects the surface of the lungs
b. phagocytizes small particulates
c. replaces mucus in the alveoli
d. helps prevent the alveoli from collapsing
e. is not found in healthy lung tissue
4.
The function of the nasal conchae is
a. to divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side
b. to provide an opening into the pharynx
c. to provide a surface for the sense of smell
d. to create turbulence in the air so as to trap small particulates in mucus
e. to provide an opening to the outside of the body
5.
Functions of the nose include
a. filtering the air
b. warming the air
c. humidifying the air
d. acting as a resonating chamber in speech
e. all of the above
6.
The openings to the nostrils are the
a. external nares
b.
c.
d.
e.
internal nares
vestibules
turbinates
palates
7.
The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the
a. nasopharynx
b. oropharynx
c. laryngopharynx
d. vestibule
e. internal pharynx
8.
The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
a. larynx
b. glottis
c. vestibule
d. pharynx
e. trachea
9.
The openings to the Eustachian tube are located in the
a. nasopharynx
b. oropharynx
c. laryngopharynx
d. larynx
e. nasal cavity
10.
The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the
a. nasopharynx
b. oropharynx
c. laryngopharynx
d. larynx
e. nasal cavity
11.
The glottis is
a. the inferior margin of the soft palate
b. a flap of elastic cartilage
c. the opening to the larynx
d. the opening to the pharynx
e. part of the hard palate
12.
The vocal folds are located in the
a. nasopharynx
b. oropharynx
c. larynx
d. trachea
e. bronchi
13.
The cartilage that serves as a base for the larynx is
a. thyroid cartilage
b. cuneiform cartilage
c. corniculate cartilage
d. cricoid cartilage
e. arytenoid cartilage
14.
The trachea
a. is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
b. is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages
c. contains many mucous glands
d. can alter its diameter when stimulated by the autonomic nervous system
e. all of the above
15.
The airway between the larynx and the primary bronchi is the
a. pharynx
b. bronchiole
c. trachea
d. alveolar duct
e. laryngeal duct
16.
Secondary bronchi supply air to the
a. lungs
b. lobes of the lungs
c. lobules of the lungs
d. alveoli
e. alveolar ducts
17.
The following is a list of some of the structures of the respiratory tree.
1. secondary bronchi
2. bronchioles
3. alveolar ducts
4. primary bronchi
5. respiratory bronchioles
6. alveoli
7. terminal bronchioles
The order in which air passes through these structures beginning at the trachea is:
a. 4,1,2,7,5,3,6
b. 4,1,2,5,7,3,6
c. 1,4,2,5,7,3,6
d. 1,4,2,7,5,3,6
e. 2,4,1,7,5,3,6
18.
The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
a. bronchioles
b. alveolar ducts
c. pleural spaces
d. alveoli
e. terminal sacs
19.
Air moves into the lungs because
a. the gas pressure in the lungs is less than outside pressure
b. the volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration
c. the thorax is muscular
d. contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity
e. all of the above
20.
Air moves out of the lungs because
a. the gas pressure in the lungs is less than outside pressure
b. the volume of the lungs decreases with expiration
c. contraction of the diaphragm increases the volume of the pleural cavity
d. a and c only
e. all of the above
21.
Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the
a. scalenes
b. diaphragm
c. internal intercostals
d. external intercostals
e. serratus anterior
22.
When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract
a. the volume of the thoracic cavity increases
b. the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases
c. the volume of the lungs decreases
d. the lungs collapse
e. expiration occurs
23.
Pulmonary ventilation refers to
a. the movement of air into and out of the lungs
b. the movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood
c. the movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space
d. the movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells
e. the utilization of oxygen
24.
The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is
a. pulmonary ventilation
b. external respiration
c. internal respiration
d. cellular respiration
e. breathing
25.
Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
a. dissolved in plasma
b. bound to hemoglobin
c. in ionic form as solute in the plasma
d. bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide
e. carried by white blood cells
26.
Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
a. solute dissolved in the plasma
b. carbaminohemoglobin
c. bicarbonate ions
d. solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells
e. carbonic acid
27.
The average respiratory rate in a normal adult is
a. less than 10 per minute
b. 12 to 18 per minute
c. 20 to 25 per minute
d. 30 per minute
e. none of the above
28.
The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the
a. dorsal respiratory group
b. inspiratory center
c. ventral respiratory group
d. expiratory center
e. respiratory rhythmicity center
29.
External respiration involves
a. the movement of air into and out of the lungs
b. the diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood
c. the exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid
d. the binding of oxygen by hemoglobin
e. the utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism
30.
If a student inhales as deeply as possible and then blows the air out until he cannot exhale any more, the
amount of air that he expelled would be his/her
a. tidal volume
b. inspiratory reserve volume
c. expiratory reserve volume
d. minimal volume
e. vital capacity
31.
Damage to the surfactant cells of the lungs would result in
a. a thickening of the respiratory membrane
b. an increased rate of gas exchange
c. alveolar rupture
d. alveolar collapse
e. decreased surface tension in the water lining the alveoli
32.
In this procedure, an incision is made through the anterior tracheal wall and a tube is inserted.
a. tracheostomy
b. tracheotomy
c. bronchoscopy
d. laryngotomy
e. none of the above