Download 2006 Student SEATA Competencies in Athletic Training Written Exam

2006 Student SEATA Competencies in Athletic Training Written Exam
1. The LisFranc joint is composed of which of the following:
A. Articulation between the 1st metatarsal and 1st cuneiform
B. Articulation between the 1st metatarsal, 1st cuneiform, and navicular
C. All 5 tarsometatarsal joints (TMT)
D. Only the 1 st and 2nd tarsometatarsal joints
E. None of the above
2. The "cervical" ligament in the ankle has been implicated in chronic ankle dysfunction. This
ligament connects the:
A. Talus and tibia
B. Talus and navicular
C. Tibia and fibula
D. Talus and calcaneus
E. Cuboid and navicular
3. All of the following are factors in lower extremity overuse syndromes in runners except:
A. Short stride length
B. Poor posture
C. Change in surface
D. Poor footwear
E. None of the above
4. In 1902 Sir Robert Jones was the first to describe a "Jones" transverse fracture at the junction of
the diaphysis and metaphysis. This fracture specifically involves:
A. Distal head of the 5th metatarsal
B. A point distal to the base of the 5th metatarsal
C. An avulsion to the base of the 5th metatarsal
D. Shaft of the 5th metatarsal
E. Both the 4th and 5th metatarsals
5. All of the following are considered factors contributing to Achilles tendon ruptures except:
A. Ongoing microtrauma and chronic inflammation
B. Age
C. Steroid usage
D. Leg dominance
E. Athletic ability
6. All of the following would be considered appropriate in the non-operative management of a
syndesmotic ankle sprain, except for:
A. Application of a non-weight bearing cast for 6-8 weeks
B. Physician prescribed anti-inflammatory medications
C. Cryotherapy in the acute stage to control inflammation
D. Instruction on proper crutch walking
E. Application of low-dye taping technique to stabilize the arch
7. The Kleiger (external rotation) Test first described in 1974 is used in the assessment of:
A. Turf toe injuries
B. Lisfranc fractures
C. Spring ligament injuries
D. Morton's neuroma
E. Syndesmotic ankle sprains
1
8. In a closed kinetic chain (CKC) what happens to the bones of the subtalar joint during supination?
A. Calcaneus everts, while the talus ad ducts and plantarflexes
B. Calcaneus inverts, while the talus abducts and dorsiflexes
C. Calcaneus abducts, while the talus adducts and dorsiflexes
D. Calcaneus inverts, while the talus remains stationary
E. Calcaneus everts, while the talus inverts
9. Which of the following best describes a "swing-through" gait pattern?
A. The crutches are moved forward simultaneously while the body weight is momentarily on
both lower extremities
B. Alternate and reciprocal forward movement of the crutches and the patient's opposite
lower extremity - i.e., right crutch, left crutch, right foot.
C. The crutches are brought forward as weight is momentarily borne on both lower
extremities, followed by shifting of weight to the hands.
D. This pattern describes how to use crutches to ascend stairs, with the injured leg following
the uninjured leg up on the step as you push upward on the crutches.
E. None of the above is correct.
10. Proprioceptive exercises such as using the balance board increase the athlete's awareness of lower
extremity structures.
A. Kinematic
B. Spacial
C. Visual
D. Cognitive
E. Kinesthetic
11. When there is pain on both sides of the ankle following a severe inversion injury, one side might
be sprained, while the other might:
A. Have a contusion to the articular surface of the joint
B. Have most of the vascular damage
C. Be inflamed with bursitis
D. Be fractures
E. Have compression to the ligaments and tendons
12. In the case of injury to the lateral ankle ligaments, the strength of which muscles should be
emphasized to compensate for any residual laxity?
A. Anterior tibial, posterior tibial
B. Anterior tibial, long flexor of the great toe
C. Gastrocnemius, posterior tibial
D. Long peroneal, short peroneal
E. All of the above are important
13. All of the following may cause nerve compression pathologies and involve narrowing of the
intervertebral foramen, except
A. Disc herniations/prolapse
B. Forward subluxation of the intervertebral body with stage III or IV spondylolisthesis
C. Facet joint degeneration
D. Degeneration with osteophytes
E. Low back strain
2
14. The sacroiliac joint is which type of joint?
A. Synchondrosis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Synovial
D. Both A & C are correct
E. Both B & C are correct
15. A "step-off deformity may indicate which of the following conditions?
A. Low back sprain
B. Disc herniation
C. Stenosis
D. Spondylolithesis
E. Spondylolysis
16. Which of the following muscles is most frequently associated with sciatica?
A. Biceps femoris
B. Quadratus femoris
C. Piriformis
D. Gluteus minimus
E. Semimembranosus
17. This ligament contains a high amount of elastin and prevents separation of adjacent lamina.
A. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament
B. Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
C. Ligamentum Flavum
D. Supraspinous Ligament
E. Interspinous Ligament
18. The collar on the Scotty dog" as viewed with radiography describes which of the following
conditions?
A. Spondylolysis
B. Spondylitis
C. Spondylosis
D. Spondylolithesis
E. None of the above is correct.
19. This special test assesses sciatic nerve pathology through the application of pressure by the
examiner in the popliteal space of the involved lower extremity.
A. Lasague Test
B. Bowstring Test
C. Hoover Test
D. Quadrant Test
E. Brudzinski Test
20. Stress on the intervertebal disc is influenced by lumbar position, with the highest stress occurring
in which of the following positions:
A. Supine
B. Standing
C. Sitting with back support
D. Sitting and leaning forward
E. Sidelying
3
21. Early rehabilitation for a patient with facet joint pathology should avoid which of the following
position(s):
A. Extension
B. Flexion
C. Rotation
D. Both A & C are correct.
E. Both B & C are correct.
22. The
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
muscle is more of a stabilizer than a powerful trunk extensor.
Longissimus
Iliocostalis
Multifidus
Latissimus dorsi
Gluteus maximus
23. Which of the following is a motor test for the S1nerve root?
A. Resisted ankle plantar flexion
B. Resisted hip flexion
C. Resisted ankle dorsiflexion
D. Resisted knee extension
E. Resisted great toe extension
24. Which of the following muscles contributes most to spinal stability?
A. Transversus abdominis
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Quadratus lumborum
D. External oblique
E. Internal oblique
25. Removal of a tick by
A. 6 hrs
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
E. 72
hours greatly reduces the transmission of Lyme disease.
26. Insulin resistance is the most likely etiology in:
A. Type I diabetes
B. Type II diabetes
C. Pancreatitis
D. Graves' disease
E. Buerger's disease
27. Which is not a common transmission mechanism for infectious disease?
A. Airborne
B. Water borne
C. Direct contact
D. Blood borne
E. Neoplastic
4
28. Which is not a common initial symptom of diabetes?
A. Polynephritis
B. Polydipsia
C. Polyuria
D. Polyphagia
29. The most effective method of preventing an infectious disease is:
A. Immunizations
B. Personal hygiene
C. Antibiotics
D. Quarantine
E. Proper hydration
30. Which is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the United States?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Genital warts
E. Gonorrhea
31. Asthma is considered a(n)
A. Restrictive
B. Obstructive
C. Infectious
D. Neoplastic
E. Cholinergic
disease:
32. Symptoms of exercise-induced asthma usually occur:
A. During the refractory period
B. During warm-up
C. 10-15 minutes into exercise
D. At peak exercise
E. 1- 2 hours after exercise
33. Acute bronchitis is most commonly caused by:
A. Viral infections
B. Bacterial infections
C. Asthma
D. Tobacco use
E. Neoplasms
34. A cough productive of dark, discolored sputum is most suggestive of:
A. URI
B. Asthma
C. Pleurisy
D. Pneumonia
E. Croup
5
35. The rapid onset of symptoms is most suggestive of:
A. URI
B. Asthma
C. Influenza
D. Tuberculosis
E. Orthopnea
36. Acute gastroenteritis usually:
A. Is viral in origin
B. Lasts only 2-3 days
C. Has a fever
D. Only needs supportive treatment
E. All of the above
37. Anemia:
A. Is a RBC volume less than the 5th percentile for age
B. Can be a result of malnutrition
C. Impairs oxygen transport
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
38. A deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is concerning because it may cause a:
A. Stroke
B. Claudication
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Venous occlusion
E. Pulmonary embolus
39. Mid-abdominal pain that migrates to the right lower quadrant is suggestive of:
A. Jaundice
B. Gastritis
C. Splenic rupture
D. Appendicitis
E. Gastric ulcer
40. Helicobacter pylori has been associated with:
A. Jaundice
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Splenic rupture
D. Appendicitis
E. Infectious mononucleosis
41. Psychophysical stress and a poor diet may result in:
A. Crohn's disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
D. Appendicitis
42. Sudden onset of acute testicular pain suggests:
A. Varicocele
B. Hematocele
C. Monorchidism
D. testicular torsion
6
43. Referred pain to the left shoulder (Kehr's sign) is suggestive of an injury to the:
A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Gall bladder
D. Pancreas
E. Appendix
44. Menarche is:
A. Blood in the sperm
B. First menstruation
C. Bladder infection
D. Lack of menstrual periods
E. A twisted testicle
45. An observable indication of pathology, usually found during a physical exam, is:
A. a sign
B. a symptom
C. an assessment
D. an etiology
E. the biomedical model
46. Any abnormal function, appearance, sensation experienced by the patient is:
A. a sign
B. a symptom
C. an assessment
D. an etiology
E. the biomedical model
47. Symptoms that cause a patient to seek medical attention are:
A. signs
B. an etiology
C. clinical decision making
D. a prognosis
E. chief complaints
48. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Trichophyton
D. Quillan-Barre virus
E. Candida albicans
49. Repeated stress on the pubic symphysis and adjacent bony structures by the pull of muscles in the
area causes:
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Osteitis pubis
C. Pubic apophysitis
D. Osteochondrosis
E. Myositis ossificans
7
50. An avulsion fracture at the anterior superior iliac spine may involve which muscle?
A. Pectineus
B. Rectus femoris
C. Sartorius
D. Vastus intermedius
E. Gluteus medius
51. The acetabulum labrum deepens the hip socket and
A. enhances movement
B. adds stability
C. limits movement
D. decreases stability
E. none of the above are correct
52. Muscle atrophy of the
instability.
A. Biceps femoris
B. Semitendinosus
C. Semimembranosus
D. Rectus femoris
E. Gracilis
to the joint.
during chronic hamstring strains can lead to anterolateral knee
53. In a femoral shaft fracture, the thigh appears:
A. Shortened and externally rotated
B. Shortened and internally rotated
C. Is the same length, but externally rotated
D. Is the same length, but internally rotated
E. None of the above are correct
54. An injury that results from a blow to an inadequately protected iliac crest and produces an
extremely handicapping injury known as a:
A. Hip pointer.
B. Groin strain
C. Dislocated hip
D. Quadriceps strain
E. Charley horse
55. When performing manual muscle testing for hip extension, you determine the patient is a grade 3.
What does this mean?
A. They have partial ROM against gravity
B. They have full ROM against gravity
C. They have partial ROM without gravity
D. They have full ROM with full resistance
E. They have full ROM with some resistance
56. When rehabilitating an athlete who is suffering from a laterally subluxing patella secondary to an
increased Q angle, which muscle should be emphasized?
A. Tensor muscle of the fascia latae
B. Gracilis
C. Rectus muscle of the thigh
D. Pes anserine
E. Oblique medial vastus muscle
8
57. The peroneal and tibial nerves are branches of the
A. axillary nerve, brachial plexus
B. long thoracic nerve, thoracic plexus
C. sciatic nerve, lumbar plexus
D. sciatic nerve, sacral plexus
E. femoral nerve, lumbar plexus
which is part of the
58. The iliopsoas (iliac and psoas major) muscle primarily acts in hip
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Abduction
D. Adduction
E. Supination
59. Which of the Williams' flexion exercises stretches the opposite hip flexor?
A. Pelvic tilt
B. Curl up
C. Both knees to chest
D. Alternate knee to chest
E. Both legs straight up
60. The Patrick test detects pathological conditions of the:
A. Iliotibial band
B. Hip and sacroiliac joint
C. True leg-length discrepancy
D. Flexion contractures
E. None of the above is correct
61. To test for flexion contracture of the hip,
A. Thompson's
B. Kendall's
C. Thomas'
D. Lasegue's
E. Bowstring
test can be used.
62. The principal organ for biotransformation of drugs is the:
A. Kidney
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Skin
63. The principal organ for excretion of drugs is the:
A. Kidney
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Lungs
64. The first-pass effect occurs in the:
A. Kidney
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Skin
9
.
.
65. A metabolite can be:
A. an inactive form of a drug
B. an active form of a drug
C. a and b
D. none of the above
66. Which metabolite will be excreted by the kidney?
A. protein bound water soluble drug
B. unbound water soluble drug
C. protein bound fat soluble drug
D. unbound fat soluble drug
67. Which is not a selection criteria for the therapeutic, effect of a drug?
A. cure a disease
B. decrease disease symptoms
C. disease idiosyncracy
D. prevent a disease
68. The specific area of the body that a drug's therapeutic effect is directed toward is:
A. the side organ
B. the therapeutic organ
C. antigen organ
D. the target organ
69. Which is not a type of name for medication?
A. Trade name
B. Elemental name
C. Generic name
D. Chemical name
70. An allergic reaction requires a(n):
A. Antigen
B. Agonist
C. Plasma protein
D. Competitive antagonist
71. Receptors are:
A. Protein molecules
B. Albumins
C. Lipid molecules
D. carbohydrate molecules
72. A drug that can activate a receptor to produce an effect is an:
A. Antagonist
B. Agonist
C. Allergen
D. Blocker
73. Drugs that fit a receptor but do not activate the receptor are:
A. Antagonists
B. Agonists
C. Antibodies
D. Anaphylactics
10
74. With which of the following structural rib dysfunctions is intercostals neuralgia often noted?
A. Rib torsion
B. Rib subluxation
C. Rib compression
D. Laterally flexed rib
75. The presence of air within the chest cavity but outside the lung is called:
A. Dispnea
B. Pneumothorax
C. Pulmonary contusion
D. Subcutaneous emphysema
76. A biomechanical function of the rib cage related to the thoracic spine is to:
A. Protect the spine
B. Increase the mobility of the spine
C. Allow displacement during trauma
D. Decrease the transverse dimension of the thoracic spine
77. Which of the following organs regulates blood glucose levels by balancing insulin and glucagons
secretion:
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Stomach
D. Pancreas
78. Increasingly severe abdominal pain localized to the right lower quadrant of the abdomen,
associated with loss of appetite and nausea, is typical of:
A. Pancreatitis
B. Appendicitis
C. Cholocystitis
D. Gastroenteritis
79. Which of the following is a congenital or acquired abdominal wall defect that permits intestinal
extrusion?
A. Hernia
B. Peritonitis
C. Splenomegaly
D. Retroperitoneal tethering
80. In order to palpate the abdomen, the athlete should be positioned
muscles are relaxed.
A. Supine
B. Hook lying
C. Sidelying
D. Seated
81. Blood enters the lungs from which chamber of the heart?
A. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
11
so the abdominal
82. Sudden death in athletes older than 30 years is most often related to:
A. Cardiac anomalies
B. Marfan's syndrome
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
83. Pes planus, scoliosis, and hyperextensible joints may be indications of:
A. Hypertension
B. Arteriosclerosis
C. Marfan's syndrome
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy\
84. To treat an open chest wound, the athletic trainer should:
A. Cover the wound with an occlusive dressing and secure it tightly to the chest
B. Attempt to control the bleeding but do not cover the wound
C. Activate EMS and treat for shock only
D. Cover the wound with an occlusive dressing securing 3 sides only
85. An athlete who presents with nausea, vomiting, rigidity of the back muscles, hematuria, and signs
and symptoms of shock may have:
A. A contused kidney
B. Kidney stones
C. Pancreatitis
D. Cystitis
86. Outward signs of an athlete overreacting to an injury include:
A. Non-emotional
B. Weakness
C. Perspiration
D. Hyperactivity
87. Athletes who sustain injuries that disable them from performing for long periods of time may
experience:
A. Fear
B. Depression
C. Anger
D. All of the above
88. Deterioration in the usual standard of performance, chronic fatigue, indigestion, and inability to
sleep often accompany:
A. Complacency
B. Malingering
C. Staleness
D. Laziness
89. Which of the following reactions to injury is typically present during the middle stage of
rehabilitation when the length of rehabilitation is greater than 4 weeks?
A. Anger
B. Acceptance
C. Denial
D. Depression
12
90. One of the most common mental and emotional stress producers is:
A. Anxiety
B. Fear
C. Staleness
D. Complacency
91. Coping with injury or illness as a possible stressor depends on an athlete's:
A. Sport skill level
B. Cognitive appraisal
C. Intellectual ability
D. Age and maturity level
92. During meditation all of the following are practiced except:
A. Muscles are tensed and then relaxed
B. Several deep breaths are taken
C. A word is repeated several times
D. Eyes are closed
93. All of the following are signs of sudden exercise abstinence syndrome except:
A. Irregular respiratory rate
B. Irregular heartbeat
C. Depression
D. Sleep disorders
94. Which of the following is the final of Kubler-Ross's stages?
A. Acceptance
B. Anger
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
95. Which of the following is characterized by depression that can be treated with light therapy?
A. Panic attacks
B. Post traumatic stress disorder
C. Phobia
D. Seasonal affective disorder
96. During
A.
B.
C.
D.
stress the threat is immediate and the body's response is instantaneous.
Chronic
Acute
Anxiety
Exhaustive
97. A relaxation instrument used to subdue an active mind is:
A. Progressive muscle relaxation
B. "Fight or flight" response
C. Meditation
D. Psychoanalysis
98. A blood clot located outside the dura matter is called:
A. Diffuse axonal injury
B. Epidural hematoma
C. Intercerebral hematoma
D. Subdural hematoma
13
99. What structures are layers of the non-nervous tissue that forms the venous drainage system that
surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord?
A. Dura, archnoid, pia maters
B. Cerebrum, cerebellum
C. Cerebrospinal fluid, brain stem, pia mater
D. Cerebral cortex, parietal bone, scalp
100. Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell?
A. IX
B. VII
C. V
D. III
E. I
101. When testing an athlete for retrograde amnesia the clinician should ask the athlete about:
A. Time of day and the place
B. His/her name
C. The name of team being played
D. The first thing they remember after the injury
102. Which of the following statements about return to play criteria for an athlete with a concussion
is true?
A. Return to restricted play is allowed if symptoms resolves after 45 minutes
B. Return to full participation is allowed if symptoms resolved within 45 minutes
C. An athlete who loses consciousness will not return to play the same day
D. An athlete who loses consciousness is out for the remainder of the season.
103. For an athlete with a concussion, which medication could be used?
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Darvon
D. Ibuprofen
104. Which concussion grading scale would a grade I injury be described as transient confusion, no
LOC and symptoms resolved in less than 15 minutes
A. Torg
B. Cantu Revised (2001)
C. American Academy of Neurology
D. National Athletic Trainers' Association
105. Which of the following would not be included in your sideline evaluation of a concussed
athlete?
A. Assessment of Symptoms
B. Standardized Assessment of Concussion
C. Computerized Neuropsychological Test
D. Romberg Test
106. Which of the following muscles is the primer mover for the production of supination at the
proximal radioulnar joint?
A. Biceps brachii
B. Brachioradialis
C. Brachialis
D. Supinator
14
107. What is the innervation of the prime mover of elbow flexion?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Radial nerve
108. Which of the following structures provides stabilization between the humerus and the ulna
thereby stabilizing the humeroulnar joint against valgus forces?
A. Ulnar collateral ligament
B. Interosseous membrane
C. Annular ligament
D. Transverse bundle
109. Complaints of numbness and tingling that is primarily focused in a cutaneous distribution
around the index finger would correspond to a proximal injury to which of the following
nerves?
A. Radial nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Musculocutaneous nerve
D. Ulnar nerve
110. Which of the following is the most appropriate pressure point to apply when there is a laceration
on the hypothenar eminence?
A. Cubital fossa
B. Radial artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Ulnar artery
111. Which of the following compartment-to-primary innervation relationships are correct?
A. Anterior compartment of forearm = ulnar
B. Posterior compartment of forearm = radial
C. Anterior compartment of arm = radial
D. Posterior compartment of arm = musculocutaneous
112. Which of the following special test-to-positive sign relationships are correct?
A. Tinel's sign = tingling and numbness in C6 dermatome
B. Medial epicondylitis = pain at muscle group insertion
C. Valgus test = significant "opening up" of joint
D. Pinch grip test = index finger and thumb touch tip-to-tip
113. Which of the following therapeutic modality techniques would be contraindicated following an
ulnar nerve transposition surgery?
A. Cool whirlpool
B. Moist heat pack
C. Transverse friction massage
D. Pulsed ultrasound
114. Which of the following special tests is used to assess for end feel condition of the radial
collateral ligament?
A. Medial epicondylitis test
B. Valgus stress test
C. Varus teres syndrome test
D. Lateral epicondylitis test
15
115. Which of the following is NOT a special test for neurological pathology at the elbow?
A. Wartenberg's test
B. Elbow flexion test
C. Tinel's test
D. Medial epicondylitis test
116. Passive extension of the elbow with the forearm in pronation and the radiocarpal joint held in
flexion is a test for which of the following conditions?
A. Lateral epicondylitis
\
B. Tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicus longus muscle
C. Medial epicondylitis
D. Ligamentous instability at the carpometacarpal joint
117. A patient that presents with signs of inflammation at the lateral elbow with symptoms that
include nagging, aching pain during the night would benefit most from which brand name
medication?
A. Bayer
B. Aleve
C. Sudafed
D. Afrin
118. Which of the following statements concerning the knee menisci is false?
A. Peripheral meniscus lesions have the greatest healing potential
B. The menisci enhance knee joint stability
C. Both menisci have an attachment to the adjacent knee collateral ligament
D. Both A and B are false
E. Both A and C are false
119. A reported history of knee "catching" or "locking" is sometimes associated with which of the
following conditions?
A. Medial Collateral Ligament Sprain
B. Osteochondritis Dissecans
C. Osgood-Schlatter's Syndrome
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
120. The force vector created by quadriceps tension that is transmitted through the patellar tendon
has an anterior translatory component when the lower leg is extended against open-chain
resistance through which of the following ranges of motion?
A. 90 degrees to full extension
B. 90 to 45 degrees of extension
C. 45 degrees to full extension
D. 120 to 90 degrees of extension
E. 120 degrees to full extension
121. Following ACL reconstruction, strengthening of which of the following muscle groups should
be prioritized?
A. Hamstrings
B. Quadriceps
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
16
122. Which of the following is a primary concern during the earliest phase of ACL reconstruction
rehabilitation?
A. Greater than 90 degrees passive flexion
B. Full weight-bearing gait without assistive device
C. Ability to actively flex greater than 45 degrees
D. Full passive knee extension
E. Full revolutions on stationary cycle
123. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate for evaluation of damage to the
posterior cruciate ligament?
A. McMurray's Test
B. Tibial Sag Test
C. Pivot Shift Test
D. Apley's Test
E. Lachman's Test
124. Which of the following is a condition affecting the attachment of the patellar tendon to the distal
pole of the patella?
A. Osgood-Schlatter's Syndrome
B. Sever's Disease
C. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson Syndrome
D. Knee Plica Syndrome
E. Chondralmalacia
125. Lower extremity alignment that is commonly referred to as "knock-kneed" is properly
designated by which of the following terms?
A. Genu Varum
B. Genu Valgum
C. Genu Recurvatum
D. Femoral Retroversion
E. Femoral Anteversion
126. Which of the following factors might predispose an athlete to patellar subluxation?
A. Foot Pronation
B. Genu Varum
C. Genu Valgum
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
127. Which of the following ligaments may be torn as a result of knee hyperextension?
A. Anterior Cruciate Ligament
B. Medial Collateral Ligament
C. Posterior Cruciate Ligament
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
128. Which of the following is should be a primary concern in relation to the use of ice, compression,
and elevation for immediate care for any knee injury?
A. Development of a deep vein thrombosis from knee joint compression
B. Risk of increased knee swelling from failure to maintain continuous elevation
C. Susceptibility of the peroneal nerve to cold-induced injury
D. Risk offrostbite associated with direct contact between ice bag and skin
E. Utilization of an adequate level of compression to resist joint distension
17
129. Hemarthrosis is often associated with which of the following conditions?
A. ACL Tear
B. Medial Collateral Ligament Sprain
C. Osteochrondral Fracture
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
130. Which is not true concerning all forms of radiant energy?
A. They are produced by applying electrical chemical and other forces to the various forms
of matter
B. Their velocity of travel is equal in a vacuum
C. Some type of medium is required for transmission
D. Their direction of propagation is normally a straight line
131. Skin impedance usually decreases during treatment, meaning
avoid pain and burning.
A. Current intensity
B. Electode size
C. Treatment time
D. Ion dosage
should be decreased to
132. Which of the following is true concerning the acoustic spectrum?
A. The velocity of transmission of acoustic energy is greatest when penetrating solids of low
density
B. Sound of any wavelength is transmitted very well through a vacuum
C. Ultrasonic waves are close to but shorter than those waves which stimulate the human ear
D. The depth of penetration of acoustic radiation in biological tissue is greater than with any
type of electromagnetic radiation
133. At what minimum frequency will a pulsed DC current result in a tetanic response in a normally
innervated muscle
A. 120 Hz
B. 80 Hz
C. 10Hz
D. 50 Hz
134. Which of the following statements is true concerning electrical stimulation of acupuncture and
trigger points for pain modulation?
A. The current of choice is low voltage high frequency continuous DC
B. The reduction of pain is due to a reduction of impulses traveling in ascending spinal
tracts
C. The stimulation of these points is best accomplished by using duration, high voltage
current
D. The most effective results may be obtained by using a high voltage, low frequency pulsed
DC current
135. The complete muscle contraction spectrum involves all muscles functioning to eccentrically
decelerate, dynamically stabilize, and concentrically accelerate the kinetic chain. The best form
of training to incorporate the complete muscle contraction spectrum is:
A. Neuromuscular stabilization training
B. Integrated training
C. Integrated flexibility training
D. Maximal strength training
18
136. Which of the follow would not be a clinical application for electrically induced muscle
contraction?
A. Re-education
B. Strengthening
C. Edema reduction
D. Pain control
137. Which ofthe following portions of the EMS has the lowest frequency?
A. Microwave diathermy
B. Infrared
C. Nerve and muscle stimulating currents
D. Ultraviolet
138. When setting up an iontophoresis treatment which of the following is true?
A. Maximum current intensity should be determined by the size of the active electrode and
should be between 0.1 - 0.5 mA/cm2
B. The lead wire from the generator to the active electrode is attached such that the polarity
is opposite from the ion in solution.
C. Higher amperage currents are more effective than lower intensity currents as a driving
force for ions
D. Iontophoresis generators must be capable of producing continuous alternating current.
139. Some biofeedback instruments measure peripheral skin temperature. Which of the following do
they also measure?
A. Finger phototransmission
B. Skin conductance activity
C. Electromyographic activity
D. All of the above
140. Raw EMG must be converted to a visual or audio format. What is the order of conversion?
A. integrated. rectified, smoothed
B. smoothed, rectified, integrated
C. rectified, smoothed, integrated
D. rectified, integrated, smoothed
141. the PNF technique which involves an isometric contraction of the antagonist during the push
phase followed by an isotonic contraction of the agonist with relaxation of the antagonist during
the relax phase is known as
A. Contract-relax
B. Slow-reversal-hold
C. Hold-relax
D. Contract-hold-relax
142. The ability of the neuromuscular system to enable agonists, antagonists, synergists, and
stabilizers to work together to work synergistically to reduce force, dynamically stabilize and
produce force throughout the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion is:
A. Core strength
B. Neuromuscular efficiency
C. Neuromuscular stabilization
D. Reactive neuromuscular training
19
143. You can achieve non-thermal effects with minimal thermal effects by using all but which of the
following treatment settings?
A. 1 w/cm2 at 50% duty cycle
B. 0.4 w/cm2 at 50% duty cycle
C. 0.2w/cm2 at 100% duty cycle
D. 1 w/cm2 at 20% duty cycle
144. The time period between an eccentric contraction and a concentric contraction is the:
A. Ground reaction phase
B. Amortization phase
C. Hypertrophy phase
D. Stabilization phase
145. Therapeutic ultrasound at a frequency of 1 MHz
A. Is absorbed more superficially and has a less divergent beam than at 3 MHz.
B. Is absorbed more superficially and has a more divergent beam than at 3 MHz.
C. Has a greater depth of penetration and is less divergent than at 3 MHz.
D. Has a greater depth of penetration and is more divergent than at 3 MHz.
146. The phenomenon of autogeneic inhibition
A. results from excitatory impulses occurring after initial stretch reflex has occurred.
B. is not affected by impulses traveling down the corticospinal tract
C. is moderated by both the muscle spindle and the Golgi tendon organ
D. protects the muscle from reflex contractions resulting from excessive stretch
147. In a sustained activity (continuous) training program what is the minimum program for
improvement of cardiovascular fitness.
A. 3 sessions/week for 45 min. at about 70% of VO2max
B. 2 sessions/week for 30 min. at about 60% of VO2max
C. 3 sessions/week for 20 min. at about 60% of VO2max
D. 4 sessions/week for 15 min. at about 70% of VO2max
148. To increase the visibility of the stair-step sign the examiner may
A. Use downward traction on the arm
B. Apply weight to the clavicle
C. Push the arm in a superior direction
D. None of the above
149. The usual mechanism of posterior glenohumeral subluxation/dislocation is
A. Abduction & external rotation
B. Adduction & internal rotation
C. 90 degrees forward flexion & internal rotation
D. Adduction & external rotation
150. "Frozen Shoulder" is a common name for
A. Adhesive capsulitis
B. Rotator cuff tendonitis
C. Subacromial bursitis
D. Deltoid myositis
20