Download chemistry review

Science 9
Chemistry
Midterm Review
Unit 2 Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. What is the name given to a substance that contains at least two kinds of particles uniformly scattered?
a. Pure substance
b. Solution
c. Mixture
d. Mechanical mixture
____
2. Which of the following is the best way to classify a solution?
a. Homogeneous pure substance
b. Heterogeneous mixture with particles too small to be seen
c. Homogeneous mixture with particles too small to be seen
d. Heterogeneous pure substance
____
3. Which of the following is not part of the particle model of matter?
a. All matter is made up of extremely tiny particles.
b. Particles are always moving and are attracted to each other.
c. Each pure substance has its own kind of particles, which are different from the particles of
other pure substances.
d. Some mixtures of particles will scatter light.
____
4. If any part of your body comes into contact with a harmful chemical during a science experiment, the first
thing you should do is:
a. go to the nearest hospital to see a doctor.
b. wash the affected area with water.
c. rinse the affected area with a dilute vinegar and water solution.
d. wait and see if there is a reaction.
____
5. Ravi is trying to determine whether an unknown homogeneous liquid is a solution or a pure substance. What
should Ravi do?
a. Evaporate the liquid to see if a solid remains.
b. Look at the liquid through a microscope to view the particles.
c. Filter the liquid to remove any impurities.
d. Freeze the liquid to cause any impurities to precipitate.
Jodi places a small amount of an unknown solid in a beaker full of water. After stirring, she notices that
particles of a grey solid remain on the bottom of the beaker. When she filters the mixture, the grey solid is
trapped in the filter paper. Jodi then evaporates the remaining liquid. A white solid remains.
____
6. Based on the description of Jodi’s experiment above, what type of matter was the original solid?
a. A pure substance.
b. A solution.
c. A mechanical mixture.
d. An emulsion.
____
7. In the experiment described above, when Jodi put the solid into the beaker full of water, she created
a. a homogeneous mixture.
b. a colloid.
c. a solution.
d. a heterogeneous mixture.
____
8. Which of the following are examples of mechanical mixtures?
I. Granola
II. Cement
III. Milk
IV. Water
a. I and II
b. I, II, and III
c. I, II, and IV
d. All are mechanical mixtures.
____
9.
When the above WHMIS safety symbol is present on a container, it indicates that the substance is
a. poisonous and infectious.
b. flammable and combustible.
c. corrosive.
d. dangerously reactive.
____ 10. Which of the following provides the best definition for the field of chemistry?
a. The study of properties of matter and the changes that matter undergoes.
b. The study of chemicals and their properties.
c. The study of chemicals in their varying forms.
d. The study of atoms, molecules, compounds, and elements.
____ 11. Copper(II) sulfate is a highly caustic substance. Which word below best defines the term caustic?
a. Combustible
b. Biohazardous
c. Infectious
d. Corrosive
____ 12. What does the acronym WHMIS stand for?
a. Workplace Hazardous Meanings & Information System
b. Workplace Hazardous Materials in Symbols
c. Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
d. Working Hazardous Materials in Systems
____ 13. Melina is making her great grandmother’s famous salad dressing for a family picnic. She is worried about
adding the mayonnaise too soon as she suspects that it may clump together. Melina does not have to worry
about this. Why?
a. Mayonnaise is a colloid so it does not clump.
b. Mayonnaise contains a suspension agent.
c. Mayonnaise is a suspension so its particles do not separate.
d. Mayonnaise contains an emulsifying agent.
____ 14. Why are emulsifying agents added to jelly before it is distributed to grocery stores?
a. To coat the liquid particles
b. To separate the particles
c. To reduce the size of the particles
d. To assist the particles in clumping together
____ 15. During heavy fog, the headlights of vehicles are barely visible. The best explanation for this is that the fog is
a(n)
a. suspension.
b. emulsion.
c. pure substance.
d. colloid.
____ 16. What is the name given to the light-scattering property of colloids?
a. The Tyndall effect
b. The Colloid effect
c. The Collophilic effect
d. The Turnball effect
____ 17. Which of the following is not a property of a suspension?
a. Settles if left undisturbed.
b. Is composed of fine particles evenly distributed throughout a second substance.
c. Scatters light.
d. Consists of particles that are uniformly mixed.
____ 18. Which of the following is not a mechanical mixture?
a. A suspension.
b. A heterogeneous mixture.
c. A homogeneous solution.
d. An emulsion.
____ 19. Michael is preparing for a science lab. Which of the following is a necessary piece of safety equipment for him
to have nearby?
a. Fire extinguisher
b. Broken glass container
c. WHMIS chart
d. All are necessary.
____ 20.
The labels on the bottles illustrated above tell you that as the percentage of H2O2 in water decreases, the
solution becomes
a. more flammable.
b. more concentrated.
c. more corrosive.
d. less poisonous.
____ 21. A filtering system keeps chlorine dissolved in the water of a swimming pool. What happens to the chlorine if
the system is turned off overnight?
a. It disperses and distills the water.
b. Its properties are altered.
c. It evenly distributes itself throughout the water.
d. Most of the chlorine separates from the water and escapes into the air.
____ 22. Hockey players are able to skate very quickly on ice. Which property of ice can be attributed to this?
a. Ice is highly viscous.
b. Ice is very dense.
c. Ice has a low melting point.
d. Ice has low electrical conductivity.
____ 23. Many rocks, particularly those exposed in Alberta’s mountains, contain carbonates. Which of the following
substances is most often used to test for the presence of carbonates in rock?
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Sodium carbonate
c. Calcium chloride
d. Phenol red
____ 24. During a physical change,
a. new substances are produced.
b. the particles are not changed.
c. heat is always released.
d. the products have different chemical properties from the reactants.
____ 25. Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
a. A match burns.
b. Dew on the lawn evaporates.
c. Hair is bleached.
d. Milk curdles.
____ 26. A student notices the following changes in matter. Which of these changes are chemical?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cement hardens.
An egg is fried.
Frost forms.
Food spoils.
I, II, and III
II, III, and IV
I, II, and IV
I, III, and IV
____ 27. Which of the following is not a chemical change?
a. Rusting
b. Burning
c. Baking
d. Dissolving
____ 28. Which of the following is not a physical property?
a. Combustibility
b. Colour
c. Density
d. Melting point
____ 29. During an experiment, a researcher noticed the following changes to a liquid. Which of these observations
suggest that a chemical change occurred?
I. A precipitate formed.
II. The liquid evaporated.
III. The colour changed.
IV. Gas bubbles formed
a. I, II, and III
b. I, II, and IV
c. I, III, and IV
d. II, III, and IV
____ 30. Which of the following questions is the most important one to ask when you are trying to determine if a change
is chemical or physical?
a. Has the colour changed?
b. Is a new substance produced?
c. Is heat or light given off?
d. Have bubbles of gas formed?
____ 31. Which of the following are chemical properties?
I. Malleability
II. Shape
III. Reactivity
IV. Toxicity
V. Tendency to rot
VI. Boiling temperature
a. I, III, and IV
b. II, IV, and VI
c. III, IV, and V
d. I, III, and V
____ 32. Which of the following are physical properties?
I.
Taste
II.
Density
III. Combustibility
IV. Melting Temperature
V. Reactivity
VI. Texture
VII. Stability
VIII. Shape
a. I, II, IV, VI, and VIII
b. I, II, III, IV, and VII
c. II, III, V, VI, and VII
d. I, II, IV, VII, and VIII
____ 33. Which of the following are qualitative properties?
a. Shape
b. Viscosity
c. Boiling temperature
d. Solubility
____ 34. A chemical change occurs when
a. a tomato is sliced.
b. an egg is boiled.
c. iced tea crystals are dissolved in water.
d. an ice cube melts.
____ 35. Which of the following is not a qualitative measure?
a. Malleability
b. Density
c. Crystal shape
d. Ductility
____ 36. Which of the following are chemical properties?
I. Electrical conductivity
II. Toxicity
III. Solubility
IV. Ductility
V. Combustibility
VI. Reaction with acids
a. I, V, and VI
b. III, IV, and V
c. II, V, and VI
d. All are chemical properties.
____ 37. A chemical change
a. alters all properties of a substance.
b. can usually be reversed.
c. results in a rearrangement of properties.
d. is difficult or impossible to reverse.
____ 38. Combustibility is not a physical property because
a. it can be observed but not measured.
b. combustion creates new substances.
c. it can be measured without forming a new substance.
d. combustion can be reversed.
____ 39. The landscape of Alberta may be attributed to which of the following?
a. Chemical changes
b. Physical changes
c. Chemical and physical changes
d. The fact that Alberta was once covered by ocean water
____ 40. “The manner in which a substance behaves” would best define which of the following terms?
a. Chemical reactions
b. Physical properties
c. Chemical properties
d. Properties
____ 41. If you were to do an experiment to verify the law of conservation of mass, which of the following would be
most important?
a. Accurately record the mass of the reactants and products.
b. Select reactants that are in a solid state.
c. Choose the amount of reactants to be used.
d. Determine the correct proportions of reactants.
____ 42. Which of the following is not part of Dalton’s atomic theory?
a. All matter is made up of small particles called atoms.
b. Atoms cannot be created or destroyed.
c. All atoms of the same element are identical.
d. Elements react with one another without a loss in mass.
____ 43. A team of scientists has developed a new hypothesis. What should they do if an experiment supports this
hypothesis?
a. Turn the hypothesis into a law.
b. Repeat the experiment.
c. Revise the hypothesis and repeat the experiment.
d. Alter the hypothesis.
____ 44. When an experiment produces observations that do not agree with current theories,
a. the theory is proved wrong.
b. the experiment must be wrong.
c. the experiment should be repeated.
d. the theory should be revised.
The following diagram illustrates an electrolysis experiment.
____ 45. Which of the following is true of the apparatus shown above?
I. This can be used to produce an element from a compound.
II. This uses electricity to carry out a chemical change.
III. Rods called electrolytes are placed in a solution called the electrode.
IV. Pure water is being used as the electrolyte.
a. I and II
b. I, II, and III
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
____ 46. In what way is the apparatus shown above a useful tool for scientists?
a. It assists in combining elements.
b. It separates compounds from elements.
c. It assists in isolating elements.
d. It measures the proportions of elements in a compound.
____ 47. The illustration above represents the results of the experiment after about 10 min. Ten minutes earlier,
a. the test tubes were full of air.
b. the test tubes were full of oxygen.
c. the test tubes were full of hydrogen.
d. the test tubes were full of water.
____ 48. The apparatus shown above can be used to demonstrate that
a. water is an element.
b. water is a compound.
c. electricity can be used to form water.
d. water conducts electricity.
____ 49. All matter is composed of atoms. Atoms can combine to form particles. Which theory do these statements
belong to?
a. Atomic theory
b. Particle theory
c. Chemical theory
d. Molecular theory
____ 50. Which of the following is an element?
a. Salt
b. Sugar
c. Sulphur
d. Water
____ 51. Which of the following scientists first distinguished between elements and compounds?
a. Antoine Lavoisier
b. John Dalton
c. Sir Francis Bacon
d. Robert Boyle
____ 52. Thomson’s “plum pudding” atomic model states that
a. negatively charged electrons are embedded in a mass that is positively charged.
b. the centre of an atom is called the atomic nucleus.
c. most electrons are found near the nucleus.
d. most of an atom is occupied by very small electrons.
____ 53. What are the positively charged particles of an atom called?
a. Neutrons
b. Electrons
c. Atomic nucleus
d. Protons
____ 54. Water contains the elements hydrogen and oxygen. These elements are always combined in the same
proportions. Which of the following best describes this?
a. The atomic theory
b. The particle model of matter
c. The law of definite composition
d. The law of conservation of mass
____ 55. Which of the following of Dalton’s original ideas has been revised in the years since Dalton first developed his
atomic theory?
a. Compounds are created when atoms link together in definite proportions.
b. Atoms cannot be divided into smaller particles.
c. All atoms of the same element are identical in size and mass.
d. The atoms of one element differ in mass and size from the atoms of other elements.
____ 56. Which of the following is the best explanation for differences between elements?
a. Each pure substance has its own kind of particle.
b. Each element has a different number of particles.
c. Each element is made up of its own unique atoms.
d. All elements are the same. It is compounds that are different.
____ 57. In science, what does a law do?
a. Explains the results of an experiment.
b. Revises a theory.
c. Tests a hypothesis.
d. Describes what happens in an experiment.
____ 58. Of what purpose are scientific models?
a. They allow scientists to observe aspects of atomic behaviour.
b. They provide explanations of things that cannot be seen.
c. They provide a basis for hypotheses.
d. They describe the observations of scientists.
____ 59.
Which atomic model does the illustration above depict?
a. Rutherford’s planetary model
b. The electron cloud model
c. Dalton’s billiard ball model
d. Bohr’s atomic model
____ 60. Which of the following statements are true?
I. A compound is always a pure substance.
II. A pure substance is always an element.
III. An element is always a pure substance.
IV. Some compounds are elements.
a. II and III
b. I and IV
c. I and III
d. III only
____ 61. Which of the following is a noble gas?
a. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen
c. Helium
d. Florine
____ 62. Which of the following is the best description of the noble gases?
a. They are very reactive because they have many paired electrons.
b. They are very unreactive because they have no unpaired electrons.
c. They are very reactive because they have no unpaired electrons.
d. They are very unreactive because they have many unpaired electrons.
____ 63. What property of gold makes it a useful component of fillings, crowns, and braces?
a. It reacts readily with acids and gases in the mouth.
b. It is very malleable.
c. It is unreactive with mild acids.
d. Both A and B
____ 64. Which of the following is not a chemical family?
I. Alkaline earth metals
II. Noble gases
III. Halogen
IV. Alkali metals
a. I and IV
b. II and III
c. None is a chemical family.
d. All are chemical families.
____ 65. Which of the following are noble gases?
I. Helium
II. Argon
III. Krypton
IV. Bromine
V. Xenon
VI. Astatine
a. I, II, III, and V
b. II, III, IV, and VI
c. III, IV, V, and VI
d. All are noble gases.
____ 66. What do halogens and alkali metals have in common?
a. Both tend to lose an electron when forming a compound.
b. Both have an unpaired electron.
c. Both are unlikely to take part in chemical changes.
d. Both tend to gain an electron when forming a compound.
____ 67. Which of the following is true of element symbols?
a. They indicate the first letter in the name of the element they represent.
b. Different countries spell the symbols differently.
c. Some elements have more than one symbol.
d. They are used by scientists all over the world.
____ 68. Which of the following element symbols is not correct?
I. S for sulfur
II. Ag for silver
III. So for sodium
IV. Pb for lead
V. F for fluorine
VI. Zi for zinc
a. III and VI
b. I and V
c. II and IV
d. I and VI
____ 69. Non-metals and metalloids have many common characteristics. Which of the following is not a property that
they share?
a. Both are poor conductors of heat.
b. Both are quite brittle.
c. Both are not ductile.
d. Both are poor conductors of electricity.
____ 70. You are given four non-metals, all at room temperature. Three of the non-metals are in solid state while one is
a liquid. Which is the liquid?
a. Oxygen
b. Bromine
c. Sulfur
d. Phosphorous
____ 71. Which of the following is true of alkaline earth metals?
a. They are highly reactive with most elements.
b. They are unreactive with other elements.
c. They are less reactive than alkali metals.
d. They form a chemical family with alkali metals.
____ 72. Which of the following events will cause a light bulb to burn out?
a. Electrons from the tungsten filament are transferred to oxygen atoms.
b. An unpaired electron escapes from the bulb.
c. Oxygen escapes from the bulb.
d. Argon gas seeps into the bulb.
____ 73. Fluorine is a halogen, which is a corrosive and harmful substance. Even so, fluorine compounds are added to
many toothpastes. Which is the best explanation for the fact that the general public is not harmed by fluorine?
a. The harmful properties of fluorine are neutralized by acids in the mouth.
b. The harmful properties are neutralized when fluorine forms compounds with other
substances in toothpaste.
c. Fluorine is added in such minute amounts that it is not harmful.
d. There are different types of fluorines and some are less harmful than others.
____ 74. What type of gas would you use in a light bulb to help keep the tungsten filament from burning out?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Helium
Oxygen
Halogen
Argon
____ 75. You are given a sample of a metal and want to determine its chemical family. Which of the following
properties would indicate that it is a coinage element?
a. It reacts with acids to produce hydrogen gas.
b. It is very brittle.
c. It reacts readily with oxygen.
d. It is an excellent conductor of electricity.
____ 76. Halogen atoms react quite vigorously with almost every other element. Which of the following is not a
halogen?
a. Fluorine
b. Krypton
c. Iodine
d. Chlorine
____ 77. An unknown element has the following properties: its melting point is greater than 1200°C, it is brittle, and it
appears very dull. Which of the following is true?
I. The element could be a non-metal.
II. The element could be a metal.
III. The element could be a metalloid.
a. I
b. I and III
c. II
d. III
The following graph illustrates the composition of Earth’s crust.
____ 78. The graph above displays the principal elements present in Earth’s crust. Which of the elements are nonmetals?
a. Oxygen
b. Sodium
c. Potassium and magnesium
d. Oxygen and calcium
____ 79. Based on the graph above, which type of element is the most common in Earth’s crust?
a. Metalloids
b. Non-Metals
c. Metals
d. Alkaline Earth Metals
____ 80. According to the graph above, which of the following is the only non-metal among the principal elements in
Earth’s crust?
a. Iron
b. Aluminum
c. Silicon
d. Oxygen
____ 81. A family of elements is
a. located in a vertical column in the periodic table.
b. located in a horizontal row in the periodic table.
c. a group of elements related by atomic mass.
d. another name for a period in the periodic table.
____ 82. What criteria did Mendeleev use to organize the elements in the first periodic table?
a. Atomic masses
b. Chemical properties
c. Physical properties
d. All of the above
____ 83. The element sodium has the following properties: silver lustre, reactivity, electrical conductivity, malleability.
Potassium is found directly below sodium in the periodic table. You can expect potassium to
a. have similar properties to sodium since they are in the same family.
b. have very different properties from sodium since it is in a different period.
c. be malleable and a good conductor, but to be unreactive.
d. have fewer electrons than sodium.
____ 84.
From the information presented in the partial periodic table above, which of the following properties could you
predict of the missing element?
I. An atomic number of 35
II. An atomic mass of 81.2
III.
IV.
V.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The presence of 35 electrons
The presence of 35 neutrons
The presence of an unpaired electron
I and III
I, II, and III
I, III, and V
I, II, and IV
____ 85. What does the atomic number of an element represent?
a. The number of electrons in the atom
b. The number of protons in the nucleus
c. The number of neutrons in the nucleus
d. The number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
____ 86. Mendeleev discovered repetition of the properties of elements when he arranged the elements in which of the
following ways?
a. According to the number of neutrons present in the nucleus.
b. In order of reactivity.
c. In order of increasing atomic mass.
d. Placing metals, metalloids, and non-metals in separate rows.
____ 87. The element tin has a mass number of 119. Its atomic number is 50. How many electrons does an atom of tin
have?
a. 50
b. 119
c. 69
d. 19
____ 88. One atom of mercury possesses 80 protons, 80 electrons, and 121 neutrons. What is the mass number of
mercury?
a. 160
b. 201
c. 281
d. 41
____ 89. Phosphorous has a mass number of 31 and its atomic number is 15. How many neutrons are in an atom of
phosphorous?
a. 16
b. 15
c. 46
d. 31
____ 90. Each atom contains an equal number of
a. electrons and protons.
b. protons and neutrons.
c. electrons and neutrons.
d. electrons, protons, and neutrons.
____ 91. When the periodic table was reorganized to focus on atomic structure rather than just on atomic mass, what
happened?
a. No changes resulted.
b. Very few changes occurred.
c. Many changes occurred.
d. Mendeleev developed the new table.
____ 92. When the “staircase” is drawn into the periodic table, where are the metals found?
a. The metals are separated by the staircase.
b. The metals are found to the right of the staircase.
c. The metals are found along the top row of the staircase.
d. The metals are found to the left of the staircase.
____ 93. How many different groups are in the periodic table?
a. 7
b. 18
c. 103
d. 16
____ 94. Which of the following chemical families lies in Group 2?
a. Alkali metals
b. Alkaline earth metals
c. Noble gases
d. Halogens
____ 95. When two elements combine to form a compound, the properties of the compound
a. can be predicted by averaging the properties of the original elements.
b. will be similar to at least one of the original elements.
c. may be very different from those of the original elements.
d. can be predicted by finding the compound’s location in the periodic table.
____ 96. The halogens are among the most reactive elements. In the periodic table, this chemical family is found
a. next to the chemical family containing the least reactive elements.
b. on the left hand side.
c. above the noble gases.
d. on either side of the “staircase” that separates the metals and the non-metals.
____ 97. In the periodic table, how are the metalloids arranged?
a. In a row across the middle of the table
b. In a column towards the right hand side of the table
c. In a column on the left hand side of the table
d. Diagonally toward the right hand side of the table
____ 98. The mass number of an element is
a. calculated by adding the total number of protons in an atom.
b. an approximation of the atomic mass.
c. another word for the atomic number.
d. identical to the atomic mass.
____ 99. Which of the following is an excellent example of a scientific prediction being confirmed through experimental
evidence?
a. The discovery of synthetic elements
b. The discovery of atomic structure
c. The rearrangement of the periodic table according to the atomic structure of each element
d. The discovery of new elements
____
100.
The element card above is similar to those prepared by Mendeleev. Which of the pieces of data on the card are
present on the modern day periodic table?
I. Symbol
II. Element
III. Atomic mass
IV. Density
V. Colour
VI. Melting point
VII. Boiling point
a. I, II, and IV
b. I, II, III, and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. All are part of the modern day periodic table.
____ 101. Which of the following describes the chemical composition of water?
a. Oxygen and hydrogen are in a 1 to 1 ratio.
b. Hydrogen and oxygen are in a 1 to 2 ratio.
c. Oxygen and hydrogen are in a 1 to 2 ratio.
d. Hydrogen and oxygen are in a 1 to 3 ratio.
____ 102. Elements are held together by chemical bonds. Which of the following is not an event that produces a chemical
bond?
a. Two atoms come together and share an electron.
b. One atom gains an electron from another atom.
c. Two atoms come together to gain an electron.
d. One atom loses an electron to another atom.
____ 103. Which of the following are diatomic molecules?
I. Oxygen
II. Nitrogen
III. Sodium
IV. Hydrogen
V. Sulfur
a. I, II, and IV
b. IV and V
c. I, III and IV
d. III, IV, and V
____ 104. Which of the following is not a characteristic of diatomic molecules?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Each molecule is comprised of two atoms of the same element.
Most of them exist as gases at room temperature.
They are molecular compounds comprised of two elements.
The atoms remain linked even when the element is boiled.
____ 105. In the chemical formula CaCO3 , there are
a. 3 atoms of carbon.
b. 2 atoms of calcium.
c. 3 atoms of carbonate.
d. 3 atoms of oxygen.
____ 106. Which of the following is true of a molecular compound?
a. The attraction between the molecules is strong.
b. The bonding between the molecules is strong.
c. The attraction between the atoms is weak.
d. The bonding between the atoms is strong.
____ 107. Which is the best explanation for water being a poor electrical conductor?
a. Water is a molecular compound.
b. One of the elements in water is oxygen.
c. All liquids are poor electrical conductors.
d. Water is an ionic compound.
____ 108. Which of the following is not a property of ionic compounds?
a. They conduct electricity when dissolved in water.
b. They are liquid at room temperature.
c. They contain both metallic and non-metallic elements.
d. They can be separated into charged atoms.
____ 109. Which of the following are binary compounds?
I. CO
II. H2O
III. CO2
IV. CaCO3
V. CuNO3
a. I, II, and III
b. II and III
c. I and IV
d. II, III, IV, and V
The following molecule has one carbon atom (light) and four hydrogen atoms (dark).
____ 110. The correct chemical name for the compound shown above is
a. tetrahydrogen carbide.
b. tetrahydrogen monocarbide.
c. carbon tetrahydride.
d. monocarbon tetrahydride.
____ 111. The molecule shown above is
a. a molecular compound.
b. an ionic compound.
c. a molecular atom.
d. an ionic atom.
____ 112. The substance shown above is a gas at room temperature. Which of the following statements best explains why
this substance has a low boiling point?
a. Heat increases the attraction between the molecules.
b. There is a strong bond between the atoms.
c. The attraction between the molecules is weak.
d. The bonding between the atoms is weak.
____ 113. A sodium atom loses one electron. Which of the following is not true as a result of the loss?
a. The sodium atom loses its original properties.
b. The atom becomes an ion.
c. The atom loses its electrical conductivity.
d. The atom loses its neutrality.
____ 114. The correct chemical name for water is
a. hydrogen oxide.
b. dihydrogen oxide.
c. dihydrogen monoxide.
d. oxygen dihydride.
____ 115. Binary ionic compounds
a. are comprised of two atoms bound together.
b. will not separate even when the compound is dissolved.
c. are comprised of both metallic and non-metallic elements.
d. usually have a low melting point.
____ 116. You are examining an unknown compound. It is liquid at room temperature. What can you conclude about this
compound?
a. It is probably made up of only non-metallic elements.
b. It will probably be a good conductor of electricity.
c. It probably contains both metallic and non-metallic elements.
d. It is probably made up of diatomic molecules.
____ 117. Lye has the chemical formula NaOH. Which of the following are characteristics of lye?
I. It conducts electricity when dissolved in water.
II. It is formed from non-metallic elements only.
III. It will dissolve in water.
IV. It is a solid at room temperature.
a. I, II, and III
b. I, III, and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. All of the above
____ 118. Carbon tetrachloride has the chemical symbol CCl4. Which of the following is true of this compound?
I. It is a poor conductor of electricity.
II. It will not form ions in solution.
III. It is used as an organic solvent.
IV. It is a liquid at room temperature.
a. I, II, and III
b. I, III, and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. All of the above
____ 119. The chemical formula for propane is C3H8. Which of the following accurately depicts the ratio of elements in
this compound?
a. 3 atoms of carbon, 8 atoms of helium.
b. 3 atoms of calcium, 8 atoms of helium.
c. 3 atoms of carbon, 8 atoms of hydrogen.
d. 3 atoms of chlorine, 8 atoms of hydrogen.
____ 120. The subscripts in binary ionic compound formulas
a. identify the total number of atoms in the element.
b. identify the definite proportions of elements in the compound.
c. identify the type of element in the compound.
d. identify the definite proportions of molecules in the element.
____ 121. Hydrogen gas and zinc sulfate are produced from the reaction of zinc and sulfuric acid. Which word equation
correctly represents this reaction?
a. zinc + sulfuric acid zinc sulfate + hydrogen
b. hydrogen + sulfuric acid zinc + zinc sulfate
c. zinc sulfate + zinc sulfuric acid + hydrogen
d. zinc sulfate + hydrogen zinc + sulfuric acid
____ 122. Which of the following changes is always evidence of a chemical reaction?
a. The reactants change state.
b. The product has physical properties that differ from those of the reactants.
c. The product has chemical properties that differ from those of the reactants.
d. A gas is released.
____ 123. You conduct an experiment. The mass of the products is slightly greater than the mass of the reactants. Which
question should you ask?
a. Why was mass not conserved in this reaction?
b. What gas might have escaped from the reaction mixture?
c. What reactant(s) was(were) not accounted for in the results?
d. What product(s) was(were) not accounted for in the results?
____ 124. You conduct an experiment. The mass of the products appears to be much less than the mass of the reactants.
Which question should you explore next?
a. Why was energy released in the experiment?
b. Why was energy absorbed in the experiment?
c. What reactant(s) was(were) not accounted for in the results?
d. What product(s) was(were) not accounted for in the results?
____ 125. The reaction between iron and oxygen produces iron oxide. Different types of iron oxide result from different
combinations of iron and oxygen. Based on the equation below, what is the formula for the type of iron oxide
produced in this particular reaction?
4 Fe + 3 O2 ?
a. 12 FeO
b. 4 Fe2O3
c. 2 Fe2O3
d. 7 FeO
____ 126. Exhaust from vehicles may form acid rain through the following reaction: nitrogen dioxide (NO2) created in
the engine mixes with water vapour (H2O) in the air to form nitric acid (HNO3) and nitrous acid (HNO2).
What are the products in this reaction?
a. Nitrogen dioxide and water vapour
b. Nitric acid and nitrous acid
c. Nitrogen dioxide and nitric acid
d. Water vapour and nitric acid
____ 127. Underwater divers often carry sodium flares. A reaction between the sodium and the water causes the flare to
glow brightly, allowing the diver to see. What type of reaction occurs between the sodium and the water?
a. A chemical change in which energy is absorbed.
b. A physical change in which energy is released.
c. A chemical change in which energy is released.
d. A physical change in which energy is absorbed.
____ 128. You are frying an egg over a campfire. Which of the following reactions taking place is endothermic?
a. The fire burning
b. The egg frying
c. Both the fire burning and the egg frying
d. Neither the fire burning nor the egg frying
____ 129. You are mixing two unknown substances together in a beaker. What would indicate that an exothermic
reaction was occurring?
a. A thermometer inserted into the beaker shows a decrease in temperature.
b. A gas forms.
c. A thermometer inserted into the beaker shows an increase in temperature.
d. Condensation forms on the outside of the beaker.
____ 130. In a chemical reaction,
a. new reactants are produced.
b. either gas bubbles or a precipitate are produced.
c. new atoms are created.
d. atoms are reorganized to form new substances.
Methane gas burns in the presence of oxygen as shown by the following equation.
CH4 + 2 O2  CO2 + 2 H2O + energy (heat)
____ 131. Based on the equation for the combustion of methane shown above, how many molecules of carbon dioxide
will be produced for every 10 molecules of methane that burn?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 2
d. 1
____ 132. Based on the equation for the combustion of methane shown above, how many molecules of methane would
have to burn to produce 12 molecules of water?
a. 24
b. 6
c. 3
d. 2
____ 133. Based on the equation for the combustion of methane shown above, what can you conclude about this
reaction?
a. It is exothermic.
b. It is endothermic.
c. The products will be in a different state from the reactants.
d. The reaction causes an increase in the number of hydrogen atoms.
____ 134. Based on the equation for the combustion of methane shown above, how many atoms of oxygen would be
required to burn 10 molecules of methane?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40
____ 135. Based on the equation for the combustion of methane shown above, which of the following is not true?
a. All of the hydrogen atoms have changed partners from carbon to oxygen.
b. All of the carbon atoms have changed partners from hydrogen to oxygen.
c. All of the oxygen atoms have changed partners from carbon to hydrogen.
d. All of the diatomic oxygen molecules have been split.
____ 136. One equation for the combustion of propane is as follows:
2 C3H8 + X O2  6 CO2 + 8 H2O + energy (heat)
In this equation, X is:
a. 5
b. 10
c. 4
d. 8
____ 137. Oxygen reacts with hydrogen to produce water in the following equation:
2 H2 + O2 + a little energy  2 H2O + a lot of energy
Which of the following statements are true?
I. This reaction is exothermic.
II. The number of molecules of product is less than the number of molecules of reactant.
III. All diatomic molecules have been split.
IV. There are twice as many oxygen atoms in the product than in the reactants.
V. Ten molecules of hydrogen react with oxygen to produce ten molecules of water.
a. I, II, and V
b. III, IV, and V
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, III, and V
____ 138. In word equations, the reactants are always
a. produced as a result of energy being added.
b. to the left of the reaction arrow.
c. elements.
d. to the right of the reaction arrow.
____ 139. In a chemical reaction, the state of the substances involved
a. may change.
b. always changes.
c. never changes.
d. is slightly altered.
____ 140. Which of the following is not true of exothermic reactions?
a. Atoms are rearranged.
b. Energy is either produced or absorbed.
c. Chemical bonds are broken.
d. Heat, light, or other forms of energy may be produced.
____ 141. Rust tends to spread through a piece of iron because
a. as one layer of iron corrodes, the next layer is exposed to oxygen and carbon dioxide.
b. as one layer of iron corrodes, the next layer is exposed to oxygen and paint.
c. as one layer of iron corrodes, the next layer is exposed to salt.
d. as one layer of iron corrodes, the next layer is exposed to oxygen and moisture.
____ 142. Iron can be completely protected from rusting. This is accomplished by protecting the iron from which of the
following?
a. Oxygen
b. Moisture
c. Salt
d. Paint
____ 143. Which of the following best describes the effect of crushing an antacid tablet?
a. The surface area is increased and the particles increase in size.
b. The surface area is increased and the particles decrease in size.
c. The surface area is decreased and the particles increase in size.
d. The surface area is decreased and the particles decrease in size.
____ 144. Vehicles parked in heated garages rust more quickly than vehicles parked in unheated garages. Which of the
following factors has the greatest effect on the rate of the rusting reaction?
a. The moisture on the vehicle
b. The temperature in the garage
c. The location of the vehicle
d. The size of the vehicle
____ 145. A gardener notices that the metal flower pots she painted five years ago are rusting more quickly than those she
painted one year ago. Which variable affects the rate of rusting in this case?
a. The amount of moisture in the air
b. The age of the iron in the flower pot
c. The surface area of iron that is exposed to the air
d. The exposure of the pots to heat in the summer
____ 146. Magnesium reacts in the presence of hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen magnesium oxide. Which of the
following steps could slow this reaction?
a. Increase the surface area of the magnesium metal.
b. Decrease the concentration of the hydrochloric acid.
c. Increase the concentration of the hydrogen magnesium oxide.
d. Increase the surrounding temperature.
____ 147. Four equal masses of calcium carbonate (chalk) are placed into hydrochloric acid solutions. Samples A and B
are unbroken pieces and samples C and D are powdered masses. Samples A and C are placed in weak
solutions. Samples B and D are placed in highly concentrated solutions. Which sample undergoes the most
rapid rate of reaction?
a. Sample A
b. Sample B
c. Sample C
d. Sample D
____ 148. Which of the following is not a measure of the reaction rate?
a. How quickly one of the products disappears
b. How the amount of a substance in the reaction changes per unit of time
c. The speed at which one of the reactants disappears
d. The amount of energy produced or consumed per unit of time
____ 149. You are conducting an experiment on involving a chemical reaction. Your observations indicate that 3 g of
product are produced every 20 s. How long will it take for the reaction to produce 42 g of the product?
a. 5 min
b.
min
c.
min
d.
min
____ 150. Which of the following best explains the distinction between an enzyme and a catalyst?
a. A catalyst speeds up reaction rates while an enzyme slows them down.
b. An enzyme is a form of catalyst.
c. A catalyst is a form of enzyme.
d. An enzyme speeds up reaction rates while a catalyst slows them down.
____ 151. The purpose of a catalyst is to
a. increase the speed of a chemical reaction.
b. increase the amount of product in a chemical reaction.
c. balance the products and the reactants.
d. increase the surface area for a chemical reaction.
____ 152. Car manufacturers often add a layer of chromium onto the bumpers of new cars. Which of the following are
improved in the metal through this procedure?
I. Texture
II. Ductility
III. Hardness
IV. Stability
V. Malleability
a. III and IV
b. I, II, and V
c. III, IV, and V
d. All of the above
____ 153. Which of the following is not true of combustion?
a. It is always an exothermic reaction.
b. It may produce carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.
c. Its products may be harmful.
d. It always requires heat, carbon dioxide, and fuel.
____ 154. Which phrase best describes an enzyme?
a. A natural substance that prevents molecules from decomposing too quickly.
b. A substance produced by a living organism to speed up chemical reactions.
c. A naturally occurring substance that causes a chemical reaction.
d. A substance that speeds up natural reactions.
____ 155. After a long, snowy winter, you notice a small rust spot above the wheel rim on the passenger side of your car.
Why should you attempt to repair the rust spot as soon as possible?
a. This area is causing strain on this area of the car.
b. If not removed, combustion may occur.
c. A greater surface area is now exposed to air.
d. Rust spots will cause the value of your vehicle to depreciate.
____ 156. Rust is the product of which of the following reactants?
a. Oxygen, moisture, and iron.
b. Carbon dioxide, oxygen, and ion.
c. Iron oxide, oxygen, and moisture.
d. Oxygen and moisture.
____ 157. Carpenters often use galvanized zinc nails when building. For which of the following building projects would
the use of galvanized zinc nails be most important?
a. A bookcase
b. A fence
c. A bed frame
d. A metal step ladder
____ 158. You burn a steak on the barbecue. Which of the following explains the layer of crisp black carbon on the
steak?
a. The heat has caused carbon dioxide in the air to bind to the surface of the meat.
b. The heat has caused carbon in the fuel to bind to the surface of the steak.
c. The heat has caused organic compounds in the steak to react with carbon dioxide in the
surface of the steak.
d. The heat has caused a chemical change in organic compounds in the steak.
Unit 2 Review
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
B
C
D
B
A
C
D
B
A
A
D
C
D
A
D
A
B
C
D
D
D
C
A
B
B
C
D
A
C
B
C
A
A
B
B
C
D
A
C
D
A
D
B
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
C
A
C
D
B
A
C
D
A
D
C
B
C
D
B
D
C
C
B
C
D
A
B
D
A
D
B
C
A
B
D
D
B
A
A
B
D
A
D
A
C
B
C
A
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
B
A
A
B
D
B
B
C
A
D
B
D
C
C
C
A
B
D
D
A
B
A
C
A
C
C
A
C
A
B
D
C
B
A
C
C
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
D
C
B
C
B
C
D
A
B
A
D
C
B
D
B
A
B
D
A
B
B
C
B
D
A
D
B
A
A
D
B
C
A
B
D