Download Unit 1 Review Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that

Unit 1 Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
The following illustration shows the varieties of finches that Charles Darwin identified on the Galápagos Islands.
____
1. The differences in the beaks of the finches shown above likely arose as a result of differences in the
a. species of birds on each island.
b. temperatures on each island.
c. predators preying on the finches on each island.
d. sources of food available on each island.
____
2. The finches shown above are distinct species. This means that
a. finches have a high diversity index.
b. they will not interbreed.
c. they live on different islands.
d. there is no variation within each species.
____
3. The differences in the shape of the beaks of the finches shown above is an example of
a. a behavioural adaptation.
b. a physical adaptation.
c. variation within a species.
d. biological diversity.
____
4. If all of the finches shown above were found on the island of Floreana,
a. Floreana would have a relatively low diversity index.
b. they would soon become a single species.
c. the ecosystem on Floreana would be relatively intolerant of environmental change.
d. Floreana would have a relatively high diversity index.
____
5. Biological diversity is
a. distinctive characteristics of individuals within a species.
b. the number and variety of organisms.
c. distinctive characteristics of individuals between species.
d. common between most species.
The following diagram illustrates a run of seven trees in an area under study.
____
6. If you were surveying this group of trees to produce a diversity index, you would record it as
a. AABCCAA
b. AABCCDD
c. ABAABAA
d. ABCDEFG
____
7. The diversity index of the stand of trees shown above is
a. 0.75.
b. 1.33.
c. 0.57.
d. 1.75.
____
8. A stand of trees that had a diversity index of 0.76 would have
a. more diversity than the stand illustrated above.
b. less diversity than the stand illustrated above.
c. a higher rate of structural adaptation than the stand illustrated above.
d. a lower rate of structural adaptation than the stand illustrated above.
____
9. An adaptation is best defined as
a. a characteristic that increases an organism’s chances of survival and reproduction.
b. a structural or behavioural difference found within a group of organisms.
c. an organism’s stage of development.
d. the evolution of one species into similar yet separate species.
____ 10. Which of the following is an example of a behavioural adaptation?
I. An owl being nocturnal.
II. A gecko using setae to walk on the underside of leaves.
III. Geese migrating south for the winter.
IV. A plant catching insects in a pitcher-shaped leaf.
a. II and IV
b. I and IV
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III
____ 11. Areas with greater biological diversity
a. are more tolerant of changes in the environment.
b. are less tolerant of changes in the environment.
c. have a relatively low diversity index.
d. None of the above.
____ 12. The diversity index measures
a. the amount of variation within a species in relation to the number of species in the area.
b. the total number of species within a particular area.
c. the health of a species in a particular area.
d. the diversity of species in relation to the total number of specimens in the area.
____ 13. Which of the following could not be measured by the diversity index?
a. The general health of a particular species.
b. The total number of insects in an area compared to the total number of houseflies.
c. The number of trout in a polluted river.
d. None of the above.
____ 14. A new species is introduced to a grassland ecosystem. How will this affect the diversity index of the ecosystem?
a. It may increase or decrease the index depending on the interaction of the new species with
the other species.
b. The diversity index will be unaffected, since new species simply take the place of other
species.
c. It will increase the diversity index.
d. It will decrease the diversity index.
____ 15. Which is not true of species?
a. Organisms of the same species are usually similar in appearance.
b. It is not always easy for biologists to determine if two similar groups of organisms belong
to the same species.
c. Similar species likely came from a common ancestor.
d. When one species evolves into a variety of similar yet separate species, variation has
occurred.
____ 16. An ecosystem with a diversity index of 0.82 is
a. probably healthy, because it will be able to tolerate changes in the environment.
b. probably unhealthy, because it will be unable to tolerate changes in the environment.
c. probably healthy, because of the wide variation within each species.
d. probably unhealthy, because the population of a single type of organism is too large.
____ 17. The American woodcock’s eyes are located near the top of its head, yet it feeds on worms in the soil. This is an
example of
a. how structural adaptations take longer to occur than behavioural adaptations.
b. a behavioural adaptation that allows the bird to obtain the nutrients it requires.
c. a structural adaptation that allows the bird to watch for prey while it feeds.
d. biological diversity within a species.
____ 18. You are given two dogs. One has short black fur and weighs 46 kg. The other has fluffy white fur and weighs 2.6
kg. By looking at these two dogs you could conclude that
a. they are members of the same species.
b. they are members of different species.
c. they share a common ancestor.
d. None of the above.
____ 19. A large number of different species in a healthy ecosystem
a. prevents the population of any one type of organism from becoming too great.
b. indicates a high diversity index.
c. indicates a high tolerance to environmental changes.
d. All of the above.
____ 20. Which of the following is an example of variation within a species?
a. An ostrich cannot fly, but an eagle can.
b. Birds lay eggs, while mammals give birth to live young.
c. Both penguins and seals can swim.
d. A litter of kittens includes three grey kittens and one that is black and white.
____ 21. Which of the following is not a role that adaptations serve?
a. They enable the organism to survive in its environment.
b. They help the organism to compete with other organisms.
c. They increase competition among different organisms.
d. They allow organisms to play a specific role in their environment.
____ 22. When two organisms are competing for resources,
a. one may have more favourable adaptations.
b. the better adapted organism will win.
c. variations become very important.
d. All of the above.
____ 23. Which of the following best explains why ecosystems in the Canadian north have relatively low diversity?
a. Not all organisms can readily adapt to the temperature changes.
b. The species that do exist there have very large populations so other species cannot
compete.
c. The diversity index is low.
d. The niche is too specialized for many organisms.
____ 24. The “trap of specialization” refers to
a. the challenge of ongoing competition between organisms.
b. the difficulty of becoming well adapted for a particular environment.
c. the inability of some organisms to adapt to changes in the environment.
d. the advantage that generalists have over specialists.
____ 25. Which of the following best explains why tropical rain forests are thought to contain many undiscovered species?
a. Many specialists live in rain forests, indicating the presence of even more specialists.
b. Generalists are likely to be found in areas that have not yet been explored.
c. Many areas have not yet been explored by scientists, and may contain specialist species
not found elsewhere.
d. Numbers indicate that it is a diverse area.
The following diagram illustrates fungi infecting the root cell of a plant.
____ 26. The plant cell shown in the illustration above is being infected by specialized fungi. The fungi will provide a
number of benefits to the plant. The fungi are
a. mycorrhizae.
b. symbiosis.
c. rhizobia.
d. archaebacteria.
____ 27. The fungi in the illustration above provide a number of benefits to the plant cell, and the plant cell provides a
habitat for the fungi. This is an example of
a. a specialized niche.
b. a generalized niche.
c. competition.
d. mutualism.
____ 28. If the plant in the illustration above were treated with a chemical that kills fungi, which of the following would
likely result?
a. The plant would grow faster because its roots would be better able to collect nutrients
from the soil.
b. A new variety of fungi would move into this niche.
c. The plant would die because it could no longer collect nutrients from the soil.
d. The plant would be able to compete better with other plant species that have not been
treated with the fungicide.
____ 29. An example of mutualism is
a.
b.
c.
d.
a tapeworm living in the stomach of a person.
honeybees pollinating flowers.
a remora fish feeding off scraps of food left behind by a shark.
fleas feeding on a dog.
____ 30. Which of the following is not an example of a symbiotic relationship?
a. Mycorrhizae infect the root of a plant and help the plant absorb nutrients.
b. Bacteria in the stomach of a cow help the cow to digest grass.
c. A cowbird lays its egg in a sparrow’s nest, and the sparrow raises the cowbird chick.
d. Microscopic mites live on your skin.
____ 31. What is a disadvantage of being a generalist?
a. A generalist may not have enough specialized adaptions to compete well with other
organisms.
b. Generalists are unable to survive varying temperatures.
c. Generalists have to eat a variety of seasonal plants or animals to survive.
d. Generalists have to live in the same area all year round, regardless of the conditions in that
area.
____ 32. Which of the following make up an organism’s niche?
I. The amount of competition from other organisms.
II. The habitat of the organism.
III. The functions performed by the organism in the environment.
IV. The country in which the organism is found.
V. The size of the organism’s population.
a. I, II, and V
b. II and III
c. II, III, and V
d. II, IV, and V
____ 33. Rainforests have much greater diversity than the Canadian north. Why?
a. Most Canadian species are generalists.
b. The species that live in rainforests have a broader niche.
c. Most Canadian species are specialists.
d. The rainforests have more niches.
____ 34. A generalist
a. is able to live on a variety of food sources.
b. will always force out specialized species.
c. is usually found in small populations.
d. All of the above.
____ 35. In a competition for resources, the less successful species may be required to
a. move to another habitat.
b. conserve a less desirable food source.
c. alter its behaviour.
d. All of the above.
____ 36. What do some species do that helps them avoid competition with a more dominant species?
a. They rely on a different food source.
b. They alter their niche.
c. They develop new habits.
d. All of the above.
____ 37. When organisms change their niche,
a. they no longer need to compete with a more dominant species.
b. the variation within or between the species is increased.
c. they have moved to a new habitat.
d. the degree of variation within the species is decreased.
____ 38. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. A specialist has a narrow niche.
b. A generalist has a broad niche.
c. A generalist has many different specializations.
d. Several specialists can occupy the same area without competing.
____ 39. Which of the following statements is not true of the “trap of specialization”?
a. A specialist is suited to one particular environment.
b. As species compete, they acquire more useful adaptations.
c. Specialized populations may not be diverse, but their numbers are high.
d. Specialized species may be unable to live in other environments.
____ 40.
The illustration above shows the location of the primary food source for several species of warbler. This is an
example of
a. competition.
b. a symbiotic relationship.
c. mutualism.
d. specialization.
The following diagram illustrates the embryo development of a seed.
____ 41. Which of the structures in the illustration above supplies food to the embryo?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 42. Which of the following took place immediately before the development of the embryo illustrated above?
a. The zygote underwent a series of cellular divisions.
b. Germination took place.
c. A pollen was tube formed.
d. The sperm fertilized the egg.
____ 43. Which of the following must be present in order for the embryo in the illustration above to germinate?
a. A warm environment
b. Moisture
c. The presence of oxygen in the soil
d. All of the above
____ 44. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of internal fertilization?
a. The gametes are protected from a harsh environment.
b. The sperm has a better chance of reaching the egg.
c. A larger number of gametes are produced.
d. The gametes are protected from predators.
____ 45. Which of the following best describes binary fission?
a. A form of asexual reproduction in which spores are created
b. The transfer of genetic material directly from one cell to another
c. The fusing together of two cells to form one
d. A form of asexual reproduction through cell division
____ 46. The plant cell that is responsible for asexual reproduction is called the
a. cotyledon.
b. bud.
c. meristem.
d. runner.
____ 47. Sexual reproduction
a. creates variations among individuals.
b. produces genetically identical individuals.
c. enables organisms to produce many offspring very quickly.
d. is only found in animals.
____ 48. What do the ovaries in a flower contain?
a. Eggs
b. Sperm
c. Pollen
d. Stamens
____ 49. A spider plant sends out runners that carry offspring of the parent plant. This is an example of
a. sexual reproduction.
b. species variation.
c. asexual reproduction.
d. conjugation.
____ 50. A zygote is
a. a reproductive cell.
b. formed when embryo cells divide.
c. a fertilized cell.
d. contained within the pollen of a plant.
____ 51. Asexual and sexual reproduction are different in that
a. asexual reproduction involves two parents while sexual reproduction involves only one.
b. asexual reproduction involves one parent while sexual reproduction involves two parents.
c. asexual reproduction results in many offspring while sexual reproduction usually produces
only one or two offspring.
d. asexual offspring are different than their parents and sexual offspring are identical to their
parents.
____ 52. The part of the plant that produces seeds is called the
a. pistil.
b. anther.
c. stamen.
d. None of the above.
____ 53. Which of the following is true of spores?
I. They are very light and can be carried great distances.
II. They can survive unfavourable conditions.
III. They are produced in the ovary of a plant.
IV. They can remain dormant for a period of time.
a. I and IV
b. III and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, and IV
____ 54. How do mosses reproduce?
a. By budding
b. Sexually
c. Asexually
d. Both asexually and sexually
____ 55. What form of reproduction helps a species adapt to a changing environment?
a. Sexual reproduction
b. Asexual reproduction
c. Binary fission
d. Spore formation
____ 56. Which organisms reproduce asexually through the process of binary fission?
a. Yeast cells
b. Fungi
c. Bacteria
d. Mosses
____ 57. When an organism undergoes binary fission,
a. many offspring may be produced.
b. each of the offspring is identical to the parent organism.
c. each new cell has half of the genetic material of the parent.
d. the result is genetic recombination but not reproduction.
____ 58. Bacterial conjugation
a. is a form of sexual reproduction.
b. transfers genetic material between cells.
c. does not result in the development of new cells.
d. All of the above.
The following diagram illustrates the reproductive structure of a flower.
____ 59. In the structure illustrated above, when does fertilization occur?
a. When the pollen grain is formed.
b. When the pollen grain lands on the stigma.
c. When the sperm from the pollen grain enters the ovary and reaches an egg.
d. When the sperm from the pollen grain reaches the base of the filament.
____ 60. In the structure illustrated above, where would you find pollen grains during pollination?
a. The stigma
b. The petals
c. The stamen
d. The ovary
____ 61. In which part of the structure illustrated above are seeds formed?
a. The stigma
b. The pollen tube
c. The anther
d. The ovary
____ 62. Which of the following are examples of traits that show continuous variation?
I. Height
II. Blood groups
III. Hair color
IV. Polydactyly
a. I and III
b. I, III, and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. I and IV
____ 63. Which of the following are examples of traits that show discrete variation?
I. Skin color
II. Nose shape
III. Weight
IV. Hair texture
V. Tongue rolling
a. I and V
b. I, II, and IV
c. III and IV
d. V only
____ 64. Characteristics that are discrete
a. are studied by geneticists more often than continuous traits.
b. have a limited number of possible forms.
c. include the ABO blood group.
d. All of the above.
____ 65. If a particular trait has a high frequency in a population, you can conclude that it
a. is dominant.
b. is recessive.
c. shows continuous variation.
d. None of the above.
____ 66. Cancer is an example of
a. the effect of a genetic mutation in body cells.
b. a trait that shows continuous variation.
c. a recessive trait.
d. a dominant trait.
____ 67. Weight is an example of a characteristic that is
a. determined by genetics only.
b. determined by an interaction between genetics and the environment.
c. inherited from the mother and father.
d. determined by the environment and by individual choices.
____ 68. The nature versus nurture debate
a. is ongoing.
b. states that heredity is responsible for all traits.
c. states that environment determines most traits.
d. has been resolved.
____ 69. A recessive trait will not be shown when
a. both parents show the recessive trait.
b. both parents pass on recessive genes.
c. one parent passes on a dominant gene.
d. it is blended with a very common trait.
____ 70. A trait that may be hidden by another trait is said to be
a. mutated.
b. recessive.
c. dominant.
d. inherited.
____ 71. If the height of students in a class were measured, the measurements would show many
a. variations.
b. adaptations.
c. genetic alterations.
d. mutations.
____ 72. Which of the following is not an example of a mutagen?
a. X rays
b. Cosmic rays
c. Polydactyly
d. Pesticides
____ 73. Each inherited characteristic is determined by genes passed on from
a. the mother and her parents.
b. the father and his parents.
c. the father and mother.
d. the mother only.
____ 74. Two brown-eyed parents have a blue-eyed daughter. You can conclude that
a. One parent passed on a recessive gene for blue eyes.
b. One parent passed on a dominant gene for blue eyes.
c. Both parents passed on a recessive gene for blue eyes.
d. Both parents passed on a dominant gene for blue eyes.
The following graph illustrates the variation in height of corn plants within the same species.
____ 75. From the graph above you can infer that the height of corn plants shows
a. discrete variation.
b. dominant variation.
c. continuous variation.
d. recessive variation.
____ 76. From the graph above you can conclude that
a. Medium height is a dominant trait in corn.
b. A tall corn plant will only have tall offspring.
c. Environment has more of an effect than heredity in determining height in corn.
d. None of the above.
____ 77. A second population of corn plants from the same species as that shown in the graph above is grown in a field
next to the first. The corn in the second field received more sunlight than the corn in the first field. The heights of
these plants are measured and plotted on a graph like the one above. The graph has the same shape, but the plants
are an average of 0.25 m taller than the first population. Which of the following could explain this result?
a. The shortest plants did not survive in the new location.
b. Environmental factors influence the inheritance of corn genes.
c. Environmental factors interact with hereditary factors to determine corn height.
d. The taller plants had more dominant genes.
____ 78. The study of identical twins separated at birth helps scientists to understand
a. which characteristics show discrete variation and which show continuous variation.
b. which characteristics are dominant and which are recessive.
c. how environmental factors can determine which traits are inherited.
d. how environment can influence a person’s characteristics.
____ 79. Identical twins are often studied by researchers interested in the relationship between heredity and environment
because
a. they have different genetic information, so any similarities are likely the result of
environmental influences.
b. they have the same genetic information, so any differences are likely the result of
mutations.
c. they have different genetic information, so any similarities are likely the result of
hereditary influences.
d. they have the same genetic information, so any differences are likely the result of
environmental influences.
____ 80. Which of the following is not true of mutations?
a. They can take place in body cells or in reproductive cells.
b. They often lead to beneficial variations.
c. They can be caused by X rays.
d. They involve changes to genetic information.
____ 81. The population of a small island nation is made up entirely of people with blue eyes. In this population
a. blue eyes are probably dominant over brown eyes.
b. many people may carry a gene for brown eyes, but it is not shown.
c. nobody carries a gene for brown eyes.
d. the environment interacts with genetic information to turn eyes blue.
Examine the following diagram.
____ 82. Which process is shown in the illustration above?
a. Mitosis
b. Formation of somatic cells
c. Meiosis
d. Genetic engineering
____ 83. What happens prior to the event at point A in the illustration above?
a. A copy of each chromosome is made.
b. The cell is fertilized.
c. Egg and sperm cells are formed.
d. All of the above.
____ 84. Another name for the cells produced at point E in the illustration above is
a. somatic cells.
b. gametes.
c. zygotes.
d. chromosomes.
____ 85. The main difference between the cells at point E and the cells at point C are
a. The cells at point C have half as much genetic material as the cells at point E.
b. The cells at point C are the result of meiosis, and the cells at point E are the result of
mitosis.
c. The cells at point E have half as much genetic material as the cells at point C.
d. The cells at point C are gametes while the cells at point E are somatic cells.
____ 86. A cell had 32 chromosomes just prior to point A. How many chromosomes are present in the cells shown at point
C?
a. 16
b. 32
c. 64
d. It depends on the random division of chromosomes between daughter cells.
____ 87. Which of the following is not true of the structure of DNA?
a. The backbone is made up of alternating sugars and phosphates.
b. Each nucleotide contains a phosphate, a sugar, and a pair of nitrogen bases.
c. Nitrogen bases A and T bond together, and bases C and G bond together.
d. The molecule has the shape of a coiled ladder.
____ 88. One of the first uses of modern biotechnology was
a. the cloning of a mammal.
b. the insertion of a bacterial insulin gene into human cells.
c. the insertion of a human insulin gene into bacteria.
d. the insertion of an antifreeze gene into a fish.
Examine the following cycle.
____ 89. At which point(s) in the cycle illustrated above does meiosis occur?
a. Between A and B, and between B and C
b. Between A and B, and between C and D
c. Only between B and C
d. Only between C and D
____ 90. What type of cellular division takes place in the cycle illustrated above?
a. Only meiosis
b. Only mitosis
c. Meiosis to produce the individual from the zygote, and mitosis to produce the gametes
from the grown individual
d. Mitosis to produce the individual from the zygote, and meiosis to produce the gametes
from the grown individual
____ 91. If the embryo shown above had four chromosomes in each of its cells, how many different combinations of
chromosomes could be found in its gametes?
a. 2
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
____ 92. How many chromosomes do human beings have in each of their body cells?
a. 23
b. 46
c. 52
d. 92
____ 93. Which process produces gametes?
a. Meiosis
b. Mitosis
c. Fertilization
d. Variation
____ 94. How many chromosomes are there in the nucleus of a human sperm cell?
a. 3
b. 22
c. 23
d. 46
____ 95. A gene is
a. another name for a chromosome.
b. a section of DNA that codes for a specific protein.
c. a tightly coiled strand of DNA.
d. the result of meiosis.
____ 96. In the DNA molecule, the nitrogen bases are always found in pairs. The base A pairs with
a. the base C.
b. the base T.
c. the base G.
d. another base A.
____ 97. The researcher(s) who first isolated and studied DNA is
a. Johann Miescher.
b. James Watson and Francis Crick.
c. Carolus Linnaeus.
d. Charles Darwin.
____ 98. Which of the following is a source of variation in sexual reproduction?
a. The random division of chromosome pairs into gametes
b. The duplication of genetic material before mitosis
c. The combination of gametes from two parents
d. Both A and C
____ 99. Which of the following is not a feature of DNA?
a. It can reproduce itself.
b. It can be passed from parent to offspring.
c. It codes for specific chromosomes in the cell.
d. It is stored in the cell nucleus.
____ 100. The “genetic code” is made up of
a. the arrangement of sugar and phosphate groups along the DNA molecule.
b. the sequence of bases along the DNA molecule.
c. the pairs of chromosomes in a cell.
d. the proteins that make up a particular stretch of DNA.
____ 101. A mutation causes a bacterial cell to begin producing a new protein. The mutation probably
a. changed the number of chromosomes in the bacterial cell.
b. led to a new combination of chromosomes in the bacterial cell.
c. changed the sequence of nucleotides within part of the bacterial DNA.
d. will not be passed on to daughter cells when the bacterial cell divides.
____ 102. The outcome of natural selection is that
a. undesirable organisms become less fit and eventually die.
b. species adapt to their environments.
c. the population of a species increases steadily over time.
d. the same characteristics are retained over the generations.
____ 103. Each year, a farmer collects seeds from the vines that produced the largest pumpkins, and uses only these seeds
when he sows his next crop. Which of the following methods is he using in an effort to grow larger pumpkins?
a. Natural selection
b. Natural adaptation
c. Artificial selection
d. Artificial adaptation
____ 104. Which of the following is not part of Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
a. Organisms produce more offspring than can survive.
b. There is always variation among the offspring of an organism.
c. Some changes that take place in an organism during its lifetime may be passed on to its
offspring.
d. Some variations increase the chance of an organism surviving to reproduce.
____ 105. Of the following, which provides the best description of the theory of natural selection?
a. It describes how organisms are arranged into different species.
b. It describes how the characteristics of a species change over a period of generations.
c. It describes how the characteristics of a particular organism change to make it more or less
likely to reproduce.
d. It describes why offspring are never exactly like their parents.
____ 106. Which of the following contribute to variation within a species?
I. Natural selection
II. Asexual reproduction
III. Artificial selection
IV. Mutations
a. II, III, and IV
b. I, II, and III
c. I, III, and IV
d. All of the above
____ 107. Which of the following questions can be correctly answered with this statement: “The intentional alteration of the
characteristics of a species by allowing only those individuals with desirable traits to reproduce.”
a. What is natural selection?
b. What was Charles Darwin's theory based upon?
c. What is the role of evolution?
d. What is artificial selection?
____ 108. Which of the following provides the best example of the use of artificial selection on a farm?
a. The farmer sows only the seeds of plants that had a high yield in the previous crop.
b. The farmer sows only seeds from the previous year’s crop.
c. The farmer sows a combination of seeds from the previous year’s crop and seeds from a
neighboring farmer’s crop.
d. The farmer sows a larger number of seeds than normal.
____ 109. Selective breeding may also be referred to as
a. sexual reproduction.
b. natural selection.
c. artificial selection.
d. asexual reproduction.
____ 110. Which of the following is a risk that comes with many generations of selective breeding?
a. The genetic diversity of the population is diminished, so the population is more vulnerable
to environmental changes.
b. Some undesirable characteristics of the population may increase in frequency along with
desirable characteristics.
c. Some offspring may not survive after the selection.
d. Both A and B.
There are two varieties of peppered moth, one black and one speckled grey. The flecked moths are hard to see
when they rest on lichen-covered tree bark, but show up well against a dark background. The black moths are
easily seen against the pale lichen but are hard to see when the tree bark is covered with soot. The moths’ main
predators are birds, which catch the moths while they rest on trees.
____ 111. With reference to the peppered moths described above, which of the following could be an example of natural
selection?
a. A light-coloured moth changes colour to black when the trees in its environment become
sooty.
b. Over many years, the proportion of black moths in a population gradually increases when
the trees in the environment become sooty.
c. One fall, an infestation of beetles eats half of all the moth eggs laid in one region.
d. When the two varieties of moths interbreed, black colour is dominant over light colour.
____ 112. In one region populated by the moths described above, a coal factory shuts down. Over a period of a few years,
the trees lose their coating of soot and become covered with white lichen. The frequency of white moths in the
population gradually increases. Which of the following best describes the change taking place?
a. The moths are producing more light-coloured offspring in order to match the light-colored
habitat.
b. More of the dark-coloured moths are becoming light-coloured to match their habitat.
c. More of the light-coloured moths are surviving to reproduce in this environment.
d. Each generation of dark moths is becoming paler to match the environment.
____ 113. A human community settles in a region populated by the moths described above. Industrial development as a
result of the human activity causes the trees in the region to become sooty. Over time, the dark-coloured moths
become more common. This is an example of
a. human activity causing artificial selection by changing the environment.
b. human activity influencing natural selection by causing changes in the environment.
c. human activity altering the breeding pattern of the moths.
d. human activity reducing the genetic variation within the moth population.
____ 114. The ancestor of the giraffe competed with other herbivores for food. Eventually giraffes became adapted to
feeding on leaves high above the ground. Which of the following best explains how the giraffe came to have a
long neck?
a. Each generation of giraffes had to stretch their necks up to reach the leaves high above the
ground. Each generation of offspring therefore tended to have longer necks than the last
generation.
b. As the supply of leaves moved higher above the ground, shorter-necked giraffes became
longer-necked giraffes and passed this trait on to their offspring.
c. As the giraffe population started to feed on the higher leaves, each generation of giraffes
tended to produce more long-necked offspring that were better adapted to the new
environment.
d. As the giraffe population started to feed on the higher leaves, the offspring with longer
necks had an advantage over offspring with shorter necks. More of the longer-necked
offspring survived to reproduce and passed this trait on to their offspring.
____ 115. The development of the many breeds of domestic dog from one ancestral dog species is the result of
a. natural selection.
b. artificial selection.
c. genetic variation within one species.
d. genetic diversity within one species.
____ 116. A mule is a cross between a donkey and a horse. In one case, a farmer selects a female horse for her size and
strength and breeds her with a male donkey chosen for his endurance. This is an example of
a. natural selection.
b. artificial selection.
c. genetic engineering.
d. genetic variation.
____ 117. Which of the following is an example of artificial selection?
a. A plant disperses its seeds in the wind.
b. A farmer sells his largest cucumbers for a high price at a market.
c. A snowberry bush will grow only if its seeds pass through the digestive system of a bird.
d. A dog breeder keeps only the smallest puppy from each litter for breeding.
____ 118. The theory of natural selection explains
a. why complex organisms are more evolved than simple organisms.
b. how an organism can change to adapt to its environment over time.
c. what factors give rise to genetic variation.
d. how a species can become adapted to a particular environment over time.
____ 119. Which of the following is not an observation that supports the theory of natural selection?
a. Offspring inherit their traits from their parents.
b. Not all members of a species survive to reproduce.
c. Different species do not interbreed.
d. There is wide variation within each species.
____ 120. The theory that explains how the characteristics of a species change over generations is called the
a. theory of inheritance.
b. theory of speciation.
c. theory of natural selection.
d. theory of diversification.
____ 121. Which of the following statements is true of natural selection?
a. Genetics has a greater influence than environment in determining how a species changes
over time.
b. Environment has a greater influence than genetics in determining how a species changes
over time.
c. Environment and genetics have an equal influence in determining how a species changes
over time.
d. It is competition, rather than environment or genetics, that influences how a species
changes over time.
____ 122. The inability of a species to adapt to changes in its environment will eventually result in its
a. cross-breeding.
b. migration.
c. extinction.
d. artificial selection.
____ 123. Which of the following increases the chance that a species will become extinct?
a. A low level of habitat disturbance from human activity.
b. A low level of genetic variation within that species.
c. A low number of predators for that species.
d. Little change in the food supply for that species.
____ 124. A species that once lived on Earth but has since died out is said to be
a. extinct.
b. endangered.
c. extirpated.
d. eliminated.
____ 125. There are very few breeding populations of orangutan left on Earth, and soon there may be none. The orangutan is
said to be
a. extinct.
b. endangered.
c. extirpated.
d. eliminated.
____ 126. When the total population of a particular organism decreases to the point that the species is in danger of
disappearing completely from Earth, the species is said to be
a. extirpated.
b. eliminated.
c. extinct.
d. endangered.
____ 127. What would happen to the population of aphids if a pesticide were used in one area of its habitat?
a. Most of the aphids in that area would be killed.
b. All of the aphids in that area would be killed.
c. A few of the aphids in that areas would be killed.
d. All of the aphids in that area would be killed over time.
____ 128. The woolly mammoth is an example of an animal that
a. has been extirpated from its normal range.
b. was hunted to extinction.
c. died out when a giant meteor hit Earth.
d. is part of a newly-discovered mammalian species.
____ 129. The total number of organisms in a specific area is known as its
a. range.
b. species.
c. population.
d. biodiversity.
____ 130. Which of the following can be linked to the extinction of particular species of animals?
a. Hunting
b. Human population growth
c. Advances in technology
d. All of the above
____ 131. Which of the following statements about the human impact on biological diversity is true?
a. The passenger pigeon was the first known species to become extinct as a result of
pollution from human activity.
b. Advances in technology have increased our potential to affect biological diversity by using
up natural resources.
c. Clearing areas of tropical rainforest makes way for new species and helps to increase
biological diversity.
d. None of the above.
____ 132. Scientists are concerned about the current rate of extinction because
a. a major wave of extinction like this has never happened before on Earth.
b. the rate of new species being formed is higher than the rate of extinction.
c. there is now a trend toward decreasing biological diversity.
d. the current level of extinction is higher than when the dinosaurs died out.
____ 133. A bioindicator species is one that
a. is sensitive to human impacts on the environment.
b. has been forced out of its normal range.
c. is widely hunted.
d. lives near human settlements.
____ 134. Which of the following contribute to a decline in biological diversity?
I. Clearing land for farming.
II. Increased demand for consumer products.
III. Human population growth.
IV. Increased genetic variation.
a. I, II, and III
b. I, III, and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. All of the above
____ 135. The most dramatic example of humans hunting a species into extinction occurred in the late nineteenth century.
Which species was this?
a. The woolly mammoth
b. The Tasmanian wolf
c. The passenger pigeon
d. The orangutan
____ 136. Grizzlies once roamed over almost all of western North America. Today they are found only in the northern
portion of their historic range. The best explanation for this is that
a. climate change caused a warming trend, so the grizzlies moved north.
b. their food sources moved, so the grizzlies followed.
c. the grizzlies were wiped out by hunting in the southern part of their range.
d. human settlement destroyed the grizzlies’ habitat in the southern part of their range.
____ 137. Which of the following types of animals are the most abundant on Earth?
a. Mollusks
b. Birds
c. Insects
d. Fish
____ 138. Which of the following shows the correct link among factors related to biodiversity?
a. Heat, light, and rainfall promote biodiversity, which in turn results in more plant species.
b. Heat, light, and rainfall promote the growth of many different plants, which results in a
more complex food chain and therefore more biodiversity.
c. An increase in rainfall promotes the growth of more plants, which causes shade and cooler
temperatures and therefore results in lower biodiversity.
d. Heat, light, and rainfall promote the growth of more plants. The increase in competition
means that the less-adapted species are forced out and the result is lower biodiversity.
____ 139. Populations of large carnivores tend to decline when there is an increase in the level of human activity in the
region. This is evidence that
a. these animals are afraid of people.
b. these animals are always hunted to extinction.
c. these animals are very sensitive to changes in their habitat.
d. these animals compete with humans for food sources.
____ 140. Which of the following factors do not contribute to a higher rate of extinction?
I. An increased demand for manufactured products.
II. Higher levels of pollution.
III. An increasing population of insects.
IV. Clearing forested land for farming.
V. An increase in the number of bioindicator species.
a. I, II, and IV
b. III and V
c. II, IV, and V
d. I and V
____ 141. One of the first effects of human interference in an ecosystem is
a. a loss of insect species.
b. a decline in populations of plant pests.
c. a decline in populations of large carnivores.
d. in increase in domestic animal breeds.
____ 142. Which of the following is not one of the roles of the Calgary Zoo?
a. It exchanges animals with other zoos to maintain genetic diversity.
b. It initiates and supports research on biodiversity.
c. It is an educational institution.
d. It collects seeds for the Royal Botanic Gardens seed bank.
____ 143. The seed collection of the Royal Botanic Garden in London, England, contains seeds gathered from
a. seed-bearing plants in North America.
b. seed-bearing plants around the world.
c. seed-bearing plants in England.
d. all plants in the world.
____ 144. Which of the following best describes the role of the Eastern Slopes Grizzly Bear Project?
a. It raises abandoned grizzly cubs and re-introduces them to the wild.
b. It studies how human activities affect grizzly bears.
c. It prevents people from hunting grizzly bears.
d. It breeds grizzlies to increase their population.
____ 145. The acronym CITES stands for
a. Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species
b. Canadian Imports and Trade in Endangered Species
c. Conference of Issues and Topics on Endangered Species
d. Canadian and International Trade in Endangered Species
____ 146. Which of the following is not one of the goals of CITES?
I. To stop the sale of leopard skins.
II. To capture endangered animals for zoos around the world.
III. To prevent people from buying rhinoceros horns.
IV. To prevent rare birds from being transported between countries.
a. I, III, and IV
b. IV only
c. II only
d. II and IV
____ 147. Why is it sometimes difficult to compare the effectiveness of different protected areas at preserving wildlife and
habitat?
a. Each protected area has different types of endangered species.
b. Different types of protected areas offer different levels of protection.
c. The environment is different in each area.
d. Some species in each area are more endangered than others.
The following table compares land area to the number of extinctions in three island nations of the South Pacific.
Estimates of the initial number of species are based on historical research and fossil evidence.
Island
Area in km2
Borneo
Java
Bali
751 709
126 806
5443
Initial number
of species
153
113
66
Extinctions
30
39
47
____ 148. Based on the table above, which island nation has lost the greatest percentage of its initial biodiversity?
a. Borneo
b. Java
c. Bali
d. Borneo and Java have lost an equal percentage of their initial biodiversity.
____ 149. Based on the table above, what percentage of Java’s initial biodiversity has been lost?
a. 29
b. 39
c. 35
d. 25
____ 150. From the table above, you can conclude that
a. a smaller land area is linked to a higher risk to biodiversity.
b. a larger land area is linked to a higher risk to biodiversity.
c. there is no connection between the land area and the risk to biodiversity.
d. larger islands tend to have a higher initial level of biodiversity than smaller islands.
____ 151. You are developing a plan for wilderness areas to preserve wildlife in southern Alberta. From the information in
the table above, you can infer that
a. many small wilderness areas would be better than a few large ones.
b. a few large wilderness areas would be better than many small ones.
c. the size of the wilderness area does not matter as long as the initial level of biodiversity is
high.
d. the size of the wilderness area does not matter as long as the initial level of biodiversity is
low.
____ 152. The table above shows the number of extinctions that have taken place in Bali. Which of the following strategies
would probably not help Bali to protect its remaining species?
a. Establishing a breeding program for endangered animals
b. Establishing new protected areas
c. Joining the CITES convention
d. Bringing in animals from other islands to make up for the loss of native species
The burrowing owl is a species of owl that nests in the ground rather than in trees. The bird nests and raises its
young in Alberta during the summer, and then migrates south during the winter. Only a few hundred breeding
pairs of these birds are known to exist.
Operation Grassland Community is an Alberta-based program to preserve habitat for this endangered owl.
Since 1989, the program has negotiated agreements with private land-owners and governments to set aside land
that will be protected from development. The table below shows how much land was set aside each year from
1989 to 1995.
1989
Number of
Agreements
51
1990
83
4763
1991
1992
1993
1994
1995
63
20
16
7
3
3127
2468
391
3730
2048
Year
Total land set aside (ha)
9843
____ 153. Based on the information above, which of the following strategies could best help Operation Grassland
Community save the burrowing owl?
a. Putting the remaining owls in a zoo.
b. Working with people in other countries to preserve the owl’s winter habitat.
c. Breeding the burrowing owl with owls of other species to increase the owls’ genetic
diversity.
d. Preventing the owls from migrating in the winter.
____ 154. Based on the information above, which year had the highest average amount of land set aside per agreement?
a. 1994
b. 1992
c. 1995
d. 1985
____ 155. Which of the following is not something that the Calgary zoo would likely do in order to support the work of
Operation Grasslands Community described above?
a. Run school programs to educate people about the burrowing owl.
b. Breed burrowing owls in captivity.
c. Initiate and support research about the burrowing owl.
d. Pass laws to prevent international trade in burrowing owls.
____ 156. How might CITES help the work of Operation Grasslands Community described above?
a. By running school programs about the burrowing owl.
b. By breeding burrowing owls in captivity.
c. By preventing people from selling burrowing owl feathers.
d. CITES could not help since it does not operate in Canada.
____ 157. From the information above, you can infer that
a. burrowing owls need a great deal of habitat.
b. burrowing owls need many small areas of habitat.
c. efforts to protect the burrowing owl must involve people both in Alberta and in the owl’s
winter habitat.
d. efforts to protect the burrowing owl have been successful.
The condor is a critically endangered bird of prey. Its natural habitat includes California and other southwestern
portions of the United States and northern Mexico. Today, there are fewer than 200 condors in existence and of
these, about 130 live in zoos. For many years, efforts have been under way to raise condors in captivity and to reintroduce young birds to the wild. The hope is that eventually enough birds will be returned to the wild to
establish a healthy breeding population once again.
____ 158. The efforts described above to re-establish a healthy population of wild condors will only be successful if
a. steps are also taken to protect the bird’s natural habitat.
b. some birds are also kept in zoos to increase biodiversity.
c. people continue to feed the wild condors.
d. people from other countries can come to see the condors in their natural setting.
____ 159. Which of the following is one of the challenges that is faced by the condor breeding program described above?
a. The need to import condors from other countries.
b. Competition between wild condors and the breeding population.
c. The lack of genetic diversity in the condor species.
d. The lack of genetic variation between condors and other birds.
____ 160. An aquarium has established a breeding program to try to save a population of endangered beluga whales. As part
of this program, they occasionally exchange adult beluga whales with other aquariums around the world. The
purpose of this exchange is probably to
a. increase the biodiversity of the beluga whale species.
b. increase the level of genetic variation within this beluga whale population.
c. raise money to support whale research.
d. let the public see beluga whales from different populations.
____ 161. One way to protect the genetic diversity of tree plantations is to
a. plant imported exotic species.
b. develop new strains of trees and plant seeds from these trees.
c. replant using seeds found on the forest floor at that location.
d. choose the best trees at each site and plant only the seeds from those trees.
Unit 1 Review
Answer Section
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