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Practice Final
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Matter is defined as anything that
a. can be seen and touched.
b. has mass and takes up space.
c.
d.
can be weighed.
contains kinetic or potential energy.
2. The chemical symbol for sulfuric acid is H2SO4. How many atoms are contained in each molecule of sulfuric acid?
a. 3
c. 6
b. 5
d. 7
3. How many oxygen atoms are in one molecule of table sugar (C 12H22O11)?
a. 2
c. 12
b. 11
d. 22
4. A material that can be represented by a chemical formula is
a. an element.
c. a homogeneous solution.
b. a mixture.
d. a pure substance.
5. Which of the following is an example of a gas-liquid mixture?
a. the air we breathe
c. a helium balloon
b. a carbonated drink
d. ice cubes
6. Which state of matter will hold its shape without a container?
a. solid
c. gas
b. liquid
d. plasma
7. A liquid changes rapidly into a gas at the liquid’s
a. boiling point.
c.
b. freezing point.
d.
melting point.
condensation point.
8. Lead has a density of 11.3 g/cm 3 and a mass of 282.5 g. What is its volume?
c. 250 cm3
a. 2.5 cm3
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b. 25 cm
d. 2500 cm3
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
9. A substance has a mass of 360 g and a volume of 7.5 cm3. What is its density?
c. 480 g/cm3
a. 2700 g/cm3
b. 270 g/cm3
d. 48 g/cm3
10. Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
a. dissolving salt in water
c. cooking an egg
b. burning wood into charcoal
d. rusting iron
11. Digesting food is an example of
a. physical change.
b. change of state.
c.
d.
chemical change.
buoyancy.
12. Which of the following is an example of chemical change?
a. strumming a guitar
c. grilling a burger
b. converting matter into energy
d. melting of copper
13. Temperature is a measure of the average _____ energy of the particles in the object.
a. thermal
c. potential
b. kinetic
d. chemical
14. The process of a liquid becoming a gas is called
a. sublimation.
c.
b. condensation.
d.
evaporation.
freezing.
15. The process of a liquid becoming a solid is called
a. condensation.
c.
b. freezing.
d.
evaporation.
melting.
16. Which state of matter has a definite volume, but not shape?
a. plasma
c. liquid
b. gas
d. solid
17. Archimedes’ principle states that the buoyant force on a(n) _____ is equal to the weight of the displaced volume of
fluid.
a. object in the fluid
c. fluid mixing with another liquid
b. object floating on the fluid
d. substance dissolving into the fluid
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
18. Pascal’s principle states that a fluid in equilibrium enclosed by a vessel exerts pressure
a. upwards.
c. equally in all directions.
b. towards the vessel’s opening.
d. downwards.
19. The resistance of a fluid to flow is referred to as
a. pressure.
c.
b. energy.
d.
viscosity.
shape.
20. The kinetic theory states that the higher the temperature, the faster the
a. particles that make up a substance move.
b. bonds between atoms break down.
c. molecules of gas rush together.
d. lighter particles within a substance clump together.
21. The change of a substance from a solid directly to a gas is called
a. condensation.
c. melting.
b. evaporation.
d. sublimation.
22. The law of conservation of mass states that mass cannot be
a. burned.
c. created or destroyed.
b. changed in form.
d. heated or cooled.
23. Ice floats in water because it is
a. more dense than water.
b. less dense than water.
c.
d.
24. Boyle’s law relates the pressure of a gas to its
a. container.
c.
b. volume.
d.
colder than water.
warmer than water.
molecular composition.
temperature.
25. When a fixed sample of gas increases in volume, it must also
a. decrease in pressure.
c. Either (a) or (b)
b. increase in temperature.
d. Both (a) and (b)
26. Charles’s law relates the volume of a gas to its
a. container.
c.
b. pressure.
d.
molecular composition.
temperature.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
27. Gay-Lussac’s law relates the temperature of a gas to its
a. container.
c. molecular composition.
b. volume.
d. pressure.
28. Pressure is calculated by dividing force by the _____ over which the force is exerted.
a. mass
c. volume
b. area
d. None of the above
29. Bernoulli’s principle describes the property of a(n)
a. fluid at rest.
c. object in a fluid.
b. fluid in motion.
d. object floating in a fluid.
30. Buoyant force is the _____ force exerted on an object immersed or floating on a liquid.
a. lateral
c. downward
b. upward
d. tensile
31. As the volume of a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature decreases, its pressure
a. decreases.
c. increases.
b. stays the same.
d. Insufficent data to answer question
32. Which statement is true according to Dalton’s theory?
a. Atoms of different elements can join to form larger atoms.
b. Atoms can be subdivided into smaller particles.
c. Atoms of the same element differ in electric charge.
d. Atoms of the same element are exactly alike.
33. Which statement about the atomic nucleus is correct?
a. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative charge.
b. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive charge.
c. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge.
d. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge.
34. The charge of an electron is
a. −2.
b. −1.
c.
d.
0.
+1.
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ID: A
35. Atoms have no electric charge because they
a. have an equal number of charged and noncharged particles.
b. have neutrons in their nuclei.
c. have an equal number of electrons and protons.
d. have an equal number of neutrons and protons.
36. According to Bohr’s model of the atom, electrons behave like
a. planets orbiting the sun.
c. light energy in a vacuum.
b. waves on a vibrating string.
d. planets rotating on their axes.
37. According to modern atomic theory, it is nearly impossible to determine an electron’s exact
a. color.
c. charge
b. position.
d. mass.
38. The order of elements in the periodic table is based on
a. the number of protons in the nucleus.
c. the number of neutrons in the nucleus.
b. the electric charge of the nucleus.
d. atomic mass.
39. Atoms of elements that are in the same group have the same number of
a. protons.
c. valence electrons.
b. neutrons.
d. protons and neutrons.
40. Valence electrons determine an atom’s
a. mass.
b. chemical properties.
c.
d.
electric charge.
period.
41. Ionization refers to the process of
a. changing from one period to another.
b. losing or gaining protons.
c.
d.
turning lithium into fluorine.
losing or gaining electrons.
42. Oxygen’s atomic number is 8. This means that an oxygen atom has
a. eight neutrons in its nucleus.
c. eight protons in its nucleus.
b. a total of eight protons and neutrons.
d. a total of eight neutrons and electrons.
43. An atom’s mass number equals the number of
a. protons plus the number of electrons.
c.
b. protons plus the number of neutrons.
d.
protons.
neutrons.
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ID: A
44. Alkali metals are extremely reactive because they
a. have very small atomic masses.
b. are not solids at room temperature.
c. have one valence electron that is easily removed to form a positive ion.
d. have two valence electrons that form compounds with calcium and magnesium.
45. Which statement about noble gases is correct?
a. They form compounds with very bright colors.
b. They exist as single atoms rather than as molecules.
c. They are highly reactive with both metals and nonmetals.
d. They are extremely rare in nature.
46. Semiconductors are elements that
a. have large atomic masses but small atomic numbers.
b. do not form compounds.
c. can conduct heat and electricity under certain conditions.
d. are extremely hard.
47. Most halogens form compounds by
a. gaining an electron to form a negative ion.
b. losing an electron to form a positive ion.
c. losing protons.
d. joining with both calcium and carbon.
48. Group 18 noble gases are inert because
a. they readily form positive ions.
b. they can have either a positive or a negative charge.
c. their outermost energy level is missing one electron.
d. their outermost energy level is full.
49. Carbon and other nonmetals are found in which area of the periodic table?
a. on the left-most side
b. on the right side
c. in the middle column of the periodic table
d. in the bottom rows
50. A mole is an SI base unit that describes the
a. mass of a substance.
b. amount of a substance.
c.
d.
volume of a substance.
electric charge of a substance.
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ID: A
51. If the atomic mass of carbon is 12 amu, 1 mole of pure carbon will have a mass of
a. 6 g.
c. 12 g.
b. 6 mol.
d. 12 mol.
52. Avogadro’s constant is defined as the number of particles in
a. one mole of a pure substance.
c. one gram of a pure substance.
b. one liter of a pure substance.
d. one kilogram of a pure substance.
53. Molar mass is defined as
a. the number of particles in 1 mole of a substance.
b. the SI base unit that describes the amount of a substance.
c. the amount of a substance necessary to have a positive charge.
d. the mass in grams of 1 mole of a substance.
54. The average atomic mass of potassium is approximately 39 amu. What is the mass of 2.0 mol of potassium?
a. 0.39 g
c. 39 g
b. 0.78 g
d. 78 g
55. The average atomic mass of the element cesium is approximately 133 amu. What is the mass of 3.00 mol of
cesium?
a. 0.133 g
c. 266 g
b. 133 g
d. 399 g
56. You have 6.50 mol of chromium, which has a molar mass of approximately 52 g/mol. What is the mass in grams of
this amount of chromium?
a. 3.38 g
c. 338 g
b. 33.8 g
d. 3.38 kg
57. What is the mass in grams of 0.75 mol of sulfur, which has a molar mass of approximately 32 g/mol?
a. 16 g
c. 32 g
b. 24 g
d. 240 g
58. You have 85.5 g of fluorine, which has a molar mass of approximately 19 g/mol. How many moles of fluorine do
you have?
a. 4.5 mol
c. 45 mol
b. 19 mol
d. 85 mol
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
59. The forces that hold different atoms or ions together are
a. electric currents.
c. physical bonds.
b. chemical bonds.
d. nuclear forces.
60. A mixture is different from a compound because each substance in a mixture
a. retains its own properties.
c. forms an ion.
b. changes its electric charge.
d. changes from a solid to a liquid.
61. A compound differs from a mixture because it
a. always remains frozen even at high temperatures.
b. is formed from two cations.
c. always contains the same elements in the same proportion.
d. can form only in the presence of heat energy.
62. Often atoms join so that each atom will have
a. an even number of electrons.
b. an outermost energy level that is full of electrons.
c. an equal number of protons and electrons.
d. more electrons than either protons or neutrons.
63. An ionic bond is a bond that forms between
a. ions with opposite charges.
b. atoms with neutral charges.
c. one atom’s nucleus and another atom’s electrons.
d. the electrons of two different atoms.
64. Covalent bonds are formed between
a. ions.
b. metal atoms.
c.
d.
nonmetal atoms.
compounds.
65. In a metallic bond, the nucleus of one atom is attracted by a nearby atom’s
a. nucleus.
c. energy structure.
b. negative ion.
d. electrons.
66. In which type of bond do atoms share electrons?
a. covalent bonds
c.
b. metallic bonds
d.
ionic bonds
polyatomic bonds
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
67. The anion formed from an oxygen atom is called a(n)
a. oxygen ion.
c. carbon dioxide.
b. oxide ion.
d. nitrous oxide.
68. The name dinitrogen tetroxide tells you that this compound contains
a. two nitrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
b. four nitrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
c. two nitrogen atoms and four oxygen atoms.
d. four nitrogen atoms and four oxygen atoms.
69. Fe2O3 is named iron (III) oxide because it contains
a. three oxygen atoms.
c. three iron atoms.
d. O3+ ions.
b. Fe3+ ions.
70. When copper combines with oxygen to form copper (II) oxide, the charge of the copper ion is
a. Cu1+.
c. Cu3+.
2+
b. Cu .
d. Cu4+.
71. When nickel combines with fluorine to form nickel (III) fluoride, the charge of the nickel ion is
a. Ni1+.
c. Ni3+.
b. Ni2+.
d. Ni4+.
72. The name for the compound with the formula CuBr2 would be written as
a. copper(II) bromide.
c. copper bromine.
b. copper(I) bromide.
d. copper(III) bromide.
73. A change in the color of a solution is a sign that
a. a chemical change is taking place.
c.
b. a physical change has just occurred.
d.
oxygen is present.
organic chemicals are present.
74. A substance that undergoes a change in a chemical reaction is
a. a product.
c. a reactant.
b. a chemical.
d. an enzyme.
75. What happens in a chemical reaction?
a. Atoms are destroyed.
b. Atoms are created.
c.
d.
Molecules are created.
Atoms are rearranged.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
76. In an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred from
a. the reactants to the surroundings.
c. one reactant to another.
b. the surroundings to the reactants.
d. the container to the chemicals.
77. Which statement about endothermic reactions is correct?
a. Energy is always created in the form of heat.
b. Energy is transferred from the surroundings to the reactants.
c. Energy is used to force electrons to move to higher energy levels.
d. Energy is transferred from the reactants to the surroundings.
78. A synthesis reaction is a reaction between at least two compounds in which
a. one breaks down into at least two products.
b. a compound is decomposed by an electric current.
c. a compound burns in the presence of oxygen.
d. a new, more complex compound is formed.
79. Which of the following is an example of a decomposition reaction?
a. photosynthesis
b. digestion
c. polymerization
d. exchange of ions between two compounds
80. A chemical equation is balanced by changing or adding
a. chemical symbols.
c. coefficients.
b. subscripts.
d. reactants.
81. A balanced chemical equation shows the proportions of reactants and products necessary for
a. the reaction to occur.
c. energy use to be minimized.
b. mass to be conserved.
d. electrolysis to occur.
82. In the reaction 2H2O → 2H2 + O2, if you start with 2 mol of water, how many moles of hydrogen gas are
produced?
a. 1 mol
c. 3 mol
b. 2 mol
d. 4 mol
83. In a balanced chemical reaction, the total mass of the products always equals the
a. molar mass of the reactants.
c. total mass of the reactants.
b. atomic mass of the reactants.
d. proportional masses of the reactants.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
84. A balanced chemical equation indicates both the number of particles of reactants and products and the number of
a. orbits.
c. nuclei.
b. electrons.
d. moles.
85. An enzyme is a special kind of catalyst that works to
a. speed up a specific biochemical reaction.
b. break down chemical elements.
c. slow down a chemical reaction.
d. maintain the correct temperature for a reaction.
86. The distance traveled by an object divided by the time it takes to travel that distance is called
a. average velocity.
c. average acceleration.
b. average speed.
d. activity.
87. What is the speed of an object at rest?
a. 15 km/h
b. 0 km/h
c. 1 km/h
d. This cannot be determined without further information.
88. The difference between speed and velocity is that velocity includes
a. direction.
c. time.
b. distance.
d. weight.
89. An airplane is flying at 635 km per hour at an altitude of 35 000 m. It is currently over Kansas and is
approximately 16 minutes ahead of its scheduled arrival time. What is its velocity?
a. 635 km/h
b. 16 m/min
c. 35 000 m/s
d. This cannot be determined without further information about its direction.
90. Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity divided by
a. speed.
c. time.
b. final velocity.
d. distance.
91. The SI unit for acceleration is
a. mph.
b. ft/s2.
c.
d.
m/s2.
Δv / t.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
92. On a velocity-time graph, a line with a negative slope indicates that the object is
a. speeding up.
c. not moving.
b. slowing down.
d. traveling at a constant speed.
93. When the velocity of an object changes, it is acted upon by a(n)
a. force.
c. momentum.
b. inertia.
d. deceleration.
94. The combination of all of the forces acting on an object is called the
a. total force.
c. super force.
b. union of forces.
d. net force.
95. If the net force acting on a stationary object is zero, then the object will
a. accelerate in the direction of the strongest force.
b. remain at rest.
c. begin moving backwards.
d. decelerate at a steady rate of speed.
96. Which of the following best illustrates balanced forces?
a. a rock falling to the ground
b. a stretched rubber band being held between two hands
c. a person lifting a heavy box off of the ground
d. a crash between a large truck and a train
97. Friction is defined as
a. force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are touching.
b. rate at which velocity changes.
c. resistance of an object to a change in its velocity.
d. speed of an object in a particular direction.
98. Which of the following is not a factor in calculating momentum?
a. mass
c. acceleration
b. direction
d. speed
99. If you divide momentum by velocity, the result is the value of the object’s
a. mass.
c. energy.
b. direction.
d. speed.
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ID: A
100. A 10.0 kg dog chasing a rabbit north at 6.0 m/s has a momentum of
a. 0.6 kg • m/s.
c. 60.0 m/s.
b. 60.0 kg • m/s north.
d. 60.0 kg/s.
101. If you are given the mass of an object in pounds, the time in seconds, and the distance in feet, what must you do
before you can calculate the momentum in SI units?
a. convert the mass to kilograms
c. Both (a) and (b)
b. convert the distance to meters
d. None of the above
102. Weight is best described as
a. an object’s resistance to acceleration.
b. what causes an object to fall.
c. the downward force exerted on objects due to gravity.
d. a force solely dependent on an object’s mass.
103. When objects are moved further apart from each other, the force of gravity
a. increases.
c. decreases.
b. stays the same.
d. decreases at first and then increases.
104. The law that states that every object maintains constant velocity unless acted on by an unbalanced force is
a. Newton’s first law of motion.
c. Newton’s third law of motion.
b. Newton’s second law of motion.
d. the law of conservation of momentum.
105. The law that states that for every action force there is an equal and opposite reaction force is
a. Newton’s first law of motion.
c. Newton’s third law of motion.
b. Newton’s second law of motion.
d. the law of conservation of momentum.
106. The law that states that the unbalanced force acting on an object equals the object’s mass times its acceleration is
a. Newton’s first law of motion.
c. Newton’s third law of motion.
b. Newton’s second law of motion.
d. the law of conservation of momentum.
107. The SI unit of force, named for the scientist who described the relationship between motion and force, is called the
a. newton.
c. curie.
b. einstein.
d. pasteur.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
108. Which of the following units is used to measure acceleration in free fall?
a. m/s
c. m/s2
b. m • s
d. m2/s2
109. Which of the following equations is correct?
a. w = mg
b. w = m/g
c.
d.
w = g/m
w=g+m
110. Earth pulls on the moon and holds the moon in its orbit. The moon pulls on Earth with an equal and opposite force.
This is an example of
a. Newton’s first law.
c. Newton’s third law.
b. Newton’s second law.
d. None of the above
111. Express the following as an equation: One newton is the force that can give an object with a mass of 1 kg an
acceleration of 1 m/s2.
c. 1 N = 1 m/s2 ÷ 1 kg
a. 1 N = 1 kg ÷ 1 m/s2
b. 1 N × 1 kg = 1 m/s2
d. 1 N = 1 kg × 1 m/s2
112. A boy pushes on a parked car with a force of 200 N. The car does not move. How much work does the boy do on
the car?
a. 200 N
c. zero
b. 200 J
d. can’t be determined
113. What are the units of work?
a. J
b. N•m
c.
d.
kg•m2/s2
All of the above
114. A man pushes a crate along a factory floor by exerting a force of 55 N. If the crate moves a distance of 4.0 m, how
much work does the man perform?
a. 165 N
c. zero
b. 220 N
d. 145 J
115. What are the units of power?
a. watts
b. horsepower
c.
d.
joules per second
All of the above
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
116. A weightlifter presses a 400 N weight 0.5 m over his head in 2 seconds. What is the power of the weightlifter?
a. 100 N
c. 400 watts
b. 25 watts
d. 100 watts
117. What is the mechanical advantage of a ramp that is 10 meters long and 2 meters high?
a. 20
c. 8
b. 5
d. 15
118. A machine is a device that
a. requires less work to do a given task.
b. decreases the amount of work done by a given force.
c. increases energy.
d. can multiply and change the direction of an input force.
119. Which of the following is not a simple machine?
a. a lever
c.
b. a pair of scissors
d.
a screw
a wheel and axle
120. What is the mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley?
a. 1
c. 2
b. 1.5
d. 3
121. What is the gravitational potential energy of a 55 kg box that is 8.0 m above the ground?
a. 5500 J
c. 4300 J
b. 3400 J
d. 550 J
122. Gravitational potential energy depends on the
a. the mass of the object.
b. the height of the object.
c.
d.
the acceleration due to gravity.
All of the above
123. A medicine ball has a mass of 5 kg and is thrown with a speed of 2 m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
a. 100 J
c. 2000 J
b. 10 J
d. 500 J
124. The efficiency of a ramp is 75%. If the amount of work input is 240 J, what is the amount of useful work output?
a. 320 J
c. 240 J
b. 310 J
d. 180 J
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
125. The brakes on a car exert a frictional force of 6000 N in getting the car to stop. If the work done by the brakes is
120 000 J in coming to a stop, how many meters did the car travel after the driver applied the brakes?
a. 6 m
c. 12 m
b. 20 m
d. 40 m
126. An object has a kinetic energy of 810 J after falling a certain distance. If the mass of the object is 20 kg, what is the
speed of the object at this time?
a. cannot be determined
c. 8 m/s
b. 9 m/s
d. 7 m/s
127. The law of conservation of energy states that
a. the energy of a system can disappear.
b. it is impossible to make a perpetual motion machine.
c. energy cannot change form.
d. energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
128. There is a repulsive force between two charged objects when
a. their charges are of unlike sign.
b. they have the same number of protons.
c. their charges are of like sign.
d. they have the same number of electrons.
129. There is an attractive force between two charged objects when
a. their charges are of unlike sign.
b. they have the same number of protons.
c. their charges are of like sign.
d. they have the same number of electrons.
130. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk and becomes positively charged,
a. electrons are removed from the rod.
c. protons are removed from the silk.
b. protons are added to the silk.
d. the silk remains neutral.
131. When there is an equal amount of positive and negative charges on an object, the object is
a. positively charged.
c. neutral.
b. negatively charged.
d. supercharged.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
132. Potential difference is measured in
a. amperes.
b. volts.
c.
d.
coulombs.
joules.
133. Batteries typically have
a. two positive terminals.
b. two negative terminals.
c.
d.
one positive and one negative terminal.
no terminals.
134. An electric current is produced when charges are accelerated by an electric field to move to a position of potential
energy that is
a. higher.
c. equal.
b. lower.
d. infinite.
135. Current is the rate at which charges move through a(n)
a. conductor.
c. voltage.
b. insulator.
d. joule.
136. Potential differences cause
a. electrons to move from the positive terminal to the negative terminal.
b. electrons to move from the negative terminal to the positive terminal.
c. protons to move from the positive terminal to the negative terminal.
d. protons to move from the negative terminal to the positive terminal.
137. Resistance is caused by
a. internal friction.
b. electron charge.
c.
d.
proton charge.
a heat source.
138. The SI unit of resistance is the
a. volt.
b. ampere.
c.
d.
ohm.
joule.
139. Whether or not charges will move in a material depends partly on how tightly _____ are held in the atoms of the
material.
a. electrons
c. protons
b. neutrons
d. resistors
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
140. A flashlight bulb with a potential difference of 4.5 V across its filament has a power output of 8.0 W. How much
current is in the bulb filament?
a. 3.7 A
c. 0.23 A
b. 1.8 A
d. 0.56 A
141. What is the potential difference across a resistor that dissipates 5.00 W of power and has a current of 5.0 A?
a. 1.0 V
c. 4.00 V
b. 125 V
d. 0.20 V
142. There is a potential difference of 12 V across a resistor with 0.25 A of current in it. The resistance of the resistor is
a. 48 Ω.
c. 12 Ω.
b. 24 Ω.
d. 0.021 Ω.
143. A 13 Ω resistor has 0.050 A of current in it. What is the potential difference across the resistor?
a. 6.5 V
c. 0.065 V
b. 0.65 V
d. 0.0065 V
144. The resistance of an insulator is
a. absent.
b. very low.
c.
d.
moderate.
high.
145. Appliances connected so that they form a single pathway for charges to flow are connected in a(n)
a. series circuit.
c. open circuit.
b. parallel circuit.
d. closed circuit.
146. A device that protects a circuit from current overload is called a(n)
a. resistor.
c. circuit breaker.
b. capacitor.
d. closed circuit.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
Short Answer
147. Identify the types of elements in the schematic diagram above and the number of each type.
148. Identify the types of elements in the schematic diagram above and the number of each type.
149. Does the schematic diagram above represent a series or parallel circuit?
150. Does the schematic diagram above represent a series or parallel circuit?
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