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Chapter 5 – Answer Key – Worksheets Face Sheet, Patient Assessment & Reassessment, History, Physical Examination, Admission/Discharge Record Admission/Discharge Record 1. “Face Sheet” is also known as: Clinical, Demographic, and Financial 2. The face sheet contains three types of information. Name them. Patient Name, Address, Phone Number, etc. Insurance Company Name, Policy Number, etc. 3. Identify 4 common data elements collected on the face sheet. History 4. The chief complaint is documented on the: Provisional Diagnosis 5. The physician uses the above to establish the _____ diagnosis. Review of Systems 6. The physician's assessment of all body systems is called the: 30 days 7. According to the JCAHO, a physician's office history can be copied and placed on an inpatient record if it dated within _____ of admission. General (includes vital signs) HEENT, Chest, etc., Lab Data, Plan for Admission, Impression, etc. 8. List three contents of a physical exam report. 24 9. According to the JCAHO, the physical exam is to be completed within the first _____hours of admission to the hospital Interval 10. When a patient is readmitted within 30 days for the same or a related problem, which type of physical examination can be written? Comorbidity 11. A coexisting condition is a(n): Complication 12. A condition which occurs during the hospitalization is the: Physician’s Orders & Progress Notes To direct the patient's care during the hospitalization 13. What is the function of physician's orders? Standing Orders 14. Name the type of orders physicians utilize for routine patient care. Discharge Order 15. Which order is written to release the patient from the facility? Against Medical Advice (AMA) 16. The patient who leaves the facility against express physician orders leaves: Telephone (Phone) 17. Physicians are required to sign verbal orders within 24 hours after they have been recorded in the patient's record. What other types of orders must be signed within 24 hours of being recorded? Communication 18. What do progress notes serve as among members of the health care team? Integrated 19. When ancillary professionals document on the same progress notes as physicians, what are these type of progress notes called? Discharge Note 20. Physician progress notes should include an admission note, follow-up progress notes and: Admission 21. The admission note summarizes the general condition of the patient at the time of: Condition 22. Follow-up progress notes are to be written as frequently as required by the patient's: TRUE 23. If the patient dies while in the hospital, the physician must still document a final progress note. TRUE or FALSE. Opinion 24. The consultation report documents services rendered by a physician whose ____ is requested. Attending Physician 25. Who is responsible for ordering a consultation? (1) Patient whose diagnosis is unclear. (2) Patient who needs medical clearance for surgery, etc. 26. Provide two examples of a patient who would need to have a consultation ordered. Documentation that record was reviewed, physical examination of patient, opinion, and recommendations 27. Name four of the content items that the consultation report should contain. Consultation Reports Laboratory and Radiology Reports, and Nursing Documentation Laboratory Report 28. Which report involves the examination of materials, fluid and tissues obtained from patients to aid in diagnosis and treatment? Nuclear Medicine Imaging Report 29. Which report describes diagnostic studies and therapeutic procedures performed using radiopharmaceutical agents? Radiographic (X-ray) Report 30. Which report documents the interpretation of fluoroscopic diagnostic services. Attending Physician or Consulting Physician 31. Who orders diagnostic studies? FALSE 32. If a laboratory report is performed by an outside laboratory (i.e., MDS of Olean), the original report is housed at the outside laboratory and a copy of the report is placed on the patient's record. TRUE or FALSE Radiologist 24 Hours 33. Radiologic reports are signed by the patient's record within: 5 years 34. The AOA/Conditions of Participation require Nuclear Medicine Reports be retained for how many years? Dosage 35. When radiopharmaceutical agents are utilized to perform a test, the agent, date and _____ of the radiopharmaceutical are to be documented in the report. Technologist 36. The professionals responsible for signing the laboratory report include the bacteriologist or _____ who performed the test. Nurses Notes 37. Which report "describes nursing observations of the patient, care and treatment given, and the patient's response to treatment"? Assessment/evaluation, nursing diagnosis, nursing care provided, discharge preparations, nursing interventions 38. State three of the six elements required in the nursing process of documenting patient care. Graphic Sheet 39. Which provides for the nursing documentation of vital signs? TPR 40. What is the abbreviation for "temperature, pulse and respiration"? MAR (medication administration record) 41. Medications administered orally, topically, by injection, inhalation or infusion are documented on the: and filed in the Nutrition Notes & Consent Forms Dietary Technician 42. The qualified dietitian or authorized designee is responsible for documenting observations in the health record. Give an example of the "authorized designee." Progress Notes 43. In which report would the dietitian document information pertaining to a patient's dietary needs? TRUE 44. The JCAHO requires diet orders to be recorded in the patient's record prior to serving the diet to the patient. TRUE or FALSE. Battery 45. If a patient undergoes treatment without having signed a consent form, this is considered "unlawful touching" and is called _____. Liability 46. If the patient is not required to sign a consent form prior to treatment, this may result in _____ on the part of the facility. Informed Consent 47. The patient or representative should indicate in writing that (s)he has been informed of the nature of the treatment, risks, complications, alternate treatments and consequences of treatment. This is called: Operative Report, Anesthesia Record, Recovery Room Record and Pathology Report Operative Report 48. The "operating room report" is also known as the: Timely 49. Documentation of surgical procedures must be complete and: TRUE 50. An operative record must be created for each procedure or operation performed in the surgical suite. TRUE or FALSE. Progress Note 51. When there is a transcription delay, the Joint Commission requires the surgeon to document an operative: Condition of patient, unusual events, operative findings, specimens removed, procedure performed, preop/postop dx 52. List 3 surgical items documented on the operating room report. Preoperative Medications 53. The anesthesia record documents anesthetic agents administered during the operation and: Evaluation of patient's physical status, diagnostic study results, choice of anesthesia, procedure to be performed, potential anesthesia problems 54. State 3 items documented on the preanesthetic evaluation. Anesthesia Record (as well as the MAR) 55. Prior to induction of anesthesia, the patient's record indicates time and dosage of administration of preanesthesia medication. This is documented in doctor's orders and on the: Progress Notes 56. In addition, the appraisal of any changes in the patient's condition would be documented in: Unusual events, anesthesia techniques used, anesthetic agents administration, other drugs administered, IV fluids, blood/blood components administered 57. List 3 items documented on the anesthesia record. Surgeon 58. Which physician documents the order releasing a patient from the recovery room? Complications (if any), abnormalities (if any), date, time, swallowing reflex, cyanosis (if any), patient's condition 59. List 3 items documented in the postanesthesia note. Transfusion Record, Rehabilitation Reports, and Respiratory Therapy Notes TRUE 60. The JCAHO requires that records be maintained that detail the receipt and disposition of all blood products. TRUE or FALSE Administration 61. The transfusion record contains patient ID, blood group/Rh of patient/donor, crossmatching, donor's ID #, and the record of of the transfusion. Physical therapy, occupational therapy, vocational/rehabilitative services, psychiatric services, prosthetic/orthotic services, audiology, speech pathology, etc. 62. List three examples of rehabilitation services. TRUE 63. Special rehabilitation services are provided only upon physician order. TRUE or FALSE Monthly (timely) 64. The "assessment of physical rehabilitation achievements and estimates of further rehabilitation potential" is to be documented at least ____. Inhalation Therapy 65. Respiratory therapy is also known as _____. IPPB, etc. 66. List one example of a respiratory therapy that would be administered to the patient. TRUE 67. The JCAHO requires a "written prescription" for respiratory therapy. This means that the therapy is administered only upon physician's order. TRUE or FALSE Discharge Summary, Autopsy Report, Emergency Department Record Clinical Resume 68. The discharge summary is known as the discharge abstract or: Requests for information (e.g., from other hospitals or an insurance company 69. The discharge summary contains information for continuity of care, to facilitate medical staff committee review, and to respond to: 48 70. The JCAHO requires documentation of a discharge summary on all cases except problems of a minor nature and those that require less than hours of hospitalization. Reason for hospitalization 71. The discharge summary includes a brief clinical statement of the chief complaint and history of present illness. This is called the: Instructions 72. The physician documents the medications that the patient is to take after discharge in the section of the discharge summary. Attending physician 73. Who signs the discharge summary? Events 74. If the patient dies, a summation statement is added that indicates reason for admission, findings during hospitalization, hospital course, and ____ leading to death. Necropsy 75. The autopsy report is a.k.a. postmortem examination or: 3 76. The JCAHO states that the autopsy provisional anatomic diagnoses are to be recorded in the medical record within how many days, and the complete protocol is to be made part of the record within how many days? Urgent 77. The ED record describes the evaluation and management of patients who come to the hospital emergency department for immediate attention of medical conditions/traumatic injuries. TRUE 78. If a patient is admitted through the ED, the original ED record is placed on the inpatient record. TRUE/FALSE ER Physician 79. Who is responsible for authenticating the emergency record? COBRA of 1986 80. Which law prevents hospitals from "dumping their indigent patients on other institutions"? Risk/benefits of transfer, phone conversations re: patient's condition, patient request for transfer, patient's condition upon transfer, 81. State one criterion that the physician documents in the emergency record about the transfer or the screening exam. 60 physician recommendation for transfer © Thomson Delmar Learning All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise, without prior written permission of the copyright owner.