Download Chapter 13: Binocular Vision 1. Which is not a skill of visual

Chapter 13: Binocular Vision
1. Which is not a skill of visual processing? (p251)
a. visual analysis
b. visual spatial skills
c. visual motor integration
d. ocular motor skills
2. The ability to maintain both eyes pointed at precisely the same object is: (p251)
a. visual processing
b. eye teaming
c. visual efficiency
d. visual abilities
3. The simultaneous turning in of both eyes that occurs when viewing an approaching object is called
(p251)
a. convergence
b. stereopsis
c. cross eyes
d. divergence
4. A high AC/A ratio may be found in a patient with: (p252)
a. exophoria
b. esophoria
c. binocular vision
d. both a & b
5. The ability simultaneous turning in of both eyes that occurs when the object moves away from the
observer, the eyes turn outward, an action known as (p252)
a. divergence
b. convergence
c. VAs
d. diplopia
6. The ratio of accommodative convergence to accommodation is called the: (p252)
a. AC ratio
b. CA ratio
c. AC/A ratio
d. A ratio
7. The ability to change the focusing system of the eye and sustain the focus for long periods of time is
know as: (p255)
a. accommodative excess
b. amplitude of accommodation
c. near point of convergence
d. accommodative facility
8. Which of the following is a visual therapy objective for accommodative excess? (p258)
a. develop voluntary convergence
b. develop feeling of divergence
c. incorporate speed of response
d. develop ability to change from convergence to divergence demand
9. What test is used to measure the direction of a phoria? (p252)
a. smooth vergence test
b. near point of convergence test
c. cover test
d. ortho test
10. Watching a seagull fly over the ocean is an example of which type of eye movement? (p259)
a. saccades
b. pursuits
c. accommodative facility
d. smooth vergence
11.
How is the AC/A ratio expressed? (p252)
a. units of prism diopters of convergence over diopters of accommodation
b. diopters of accommodation over units of prism diopters of convergence
c. units of prism diopters of convergence
d. diopters of accommodation
12. Name the types of cover testing. (p252)
a. alternating
b. monocular
c. unilateral
d. a & c
13. Binocular vision disorders can also be called: (p251)
a. eye-motility disorders
b. visual ability disorders
c. eye-teaming disorders
d. visual efficiency disorders
14. During the Civil War, a man named __________ invented a chart for testing vision. (p251)
a. Galilean
b. Keplerian
c. Eschenbach
d. Snellen
15. When we measure visual acuity, we are measuring the ability of the eye to: (p251)
a. accurately focus on the target
b. superimpose
c. resolve details
d. resolve issues
16. Eye teaming is also known as: (p251)
a. binocularity
b. monocularity
c. vergence
d. fusion
17. The Snellen chart consists of letters of different sizes to be used to test vision at: (p251)
a. 80 feet
b. 25 feet
c. 20 meters
d. 20 feet
18. A low AC/A ratio may be found in a patient with: (p252)
a. exophoria
b. esophoria
c. binocular vision
d. both a & b
19. The skills know as visual abilities include keeping: (p251)
a. objects focused at different distances
b. objects as single images
c. judging depth, locating words when reading, guiding a pencil, etc
d. all of the above
20. What are the components to vision? (p251)
a. visual efficiency
b. visual processing
c. both a & b
d. light and stereopsis
21. What is the stimulus for fusional convergence? (p252)
a. phoric posture
b. disparate retinal images
c. overlapping retinal images
d. none of the above
22. Vision, as are other abilities, are: (p251)
a. learned
b. congenital
c. second nature
d. natural
23. All of the following are tests routinely done in an evaluation to assess binocularity: (p252)
a. cover test
b. smooth vergence ranges
c. smooth convergence ranges
d. AC/A ratio
24. What are the degree(s) of motor fusion? (p251)
a. superimposition
b. flat fusion
c. stereopsis
d. all of the above
25. Which test assesses the convergence of amplitude? (p252)
a. cover test
b. near point of convergence
c. AC/A ratio
d. smooth vergence test
26. A remote near point of convergence with a break of more than _____ is considered the most
consistent finding in convergence insufficiency. (p252)
a. 2 inches
b. 3 inches
c. 4 inches
d. 6 inches
27. The purpose of measuring the AC/A ratio is to: (p252)
a. determine the change in accommodative divergence
b. determine the change in accommodative convergence
c. determine the subjective distance refraction
d. none of the above
28. Smooth vergence testing assesses the (p252)
a. divergence amplitude
b. fusional vergence amplitude
c. convergence amplitude
d. all of the above
29. The blur finding is a measure of: (p252)
a. visual acuity deficiency
b. fusional vergence free of accommodation
c. diffusional convergence free of accommodation
d. diplopic fusion
30. What are the expected values when performing the alternate cover test for exophoria for distance?
(p252)
a. 0.5 Δ
b. 1.0 Δ
c. 1.5 Δ
d. 2.0 Δ
31. When the eyes have no stimulus to fuse, they go: (p253)
a. fusional posture
b. exophoric posture
c. esophoric posture
d. phoric posture
32. The two most common binocular disorders are convergence insufficiency and (p253)
a. convergence excess
b. divergence excess
c. convergence sufficiency
d. divergence insufficiency
33. What are the expected values when performing the alternate cover test for exophoria for near?
(p252)
a. 1.0 Δ
b. 2.0 Δ
c. 3.0 Δ
d. 4.0 Δ
34. Most symptoms reported by the patient are associated with: (p253)
a. reading
b. other work that requires the patient to focus on something close
c. a & b
d. a only
35. A vision therapy program for convergence insufficiency generally requires: (p253)
a. 3-5 office visits
b. 5-10 office visits
c. 12-20 office visits
d. 12-24 office visits
36. The expected AC/A ratio is _____ with a standard deviation of ± 2Δ: (p252)
a. 2:1
b. 3:1
c. 4:1
d. 5:1
37. The ability of the eye to locate, identify, and remember what we see is referred to as: (p251)
a. visual acuity
b. binocularity
c. accommodation
d. visual abilities
38. The treatment to enhance visual efficiency is: (p251)
a. called visual perception
b. known as visual therapy
c. increased binocularity
d. vergence movements
39. The highest degree of fusion is: (p251)
a. flat
b. superimposition
c. convergence
d. stereopsis
40. Accommodation in the eye is linked with which one of the following? (p252)
a. divergence
b. convergence
c. versions
d. phorias
??41. The tendency of the eyes to turn in is referred to as: (p252)
a. esophoria
b. exophoria
c. exotropia
d. esotropia
42. The break finding indicates which one of the following? (p252)
a. ability of the eye to regain single vision
b. ability of the eye to break free of accommodation
c. amount of fusional vergence
d. smooth vergence testing
43. Eye movement control develops early in a child’s life. By what age can a child follow a moving
target in the midplane of his or her body? (p258)
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 4 months
44. When a patient has difficulty bringing his or her eyes in and experiences blurred vision, diplopia,
and eyestrain at near work, it is a condition known as: (p253)
a. amblyopia
b. diplopia
c. convergence insufficiency
d. convergence excess
45. The average amplitude of accommodation at any age may be calculated using which one of the
following equations? (p256)
a. 15 - age in years / 3
b. 18.5 - age in years / 3
c. 15 - age in years / 4
d. 18.5 - age in years / 4
46. The adaptive mechanism seen most often as an attempt by the visual system to eliminate diplopia
and confusion is known as: (p261)
a. strabismus
b. accommodative insufficiency
c. convergence excess
d. suppression
47. Most patients with saccadic dysfunction will complain of problems with: (p259)
a. blurred vision at far
b. difficulty keeping their eyes on the ball
c. slow reading speed and frequent loss of place
d. night blindness
48. A condition that exists when there is reduced visual acuity not correctable by refractive mean and
not attributable to obvious structural or pathologic anomalies of the eye is known as: (p261)
a. strabismus
b. suppression
c. amblyopia
d. accommodative excess
49. Amblyopia caused by an uncorrected refractive error is known as: (p261)
a. toxic amblyopia
b. strabismic amblyopia
c. refractive amblyopia
d. hysterical amblyopia
50. A condition present when an eye fixates on a retinal area other than the fovea and present under
monocular conditions is known as: (p262)
a. amblyopia
b. strabismus
c. anomalous retinal correspondence
d. eccentric fixation
51. When patients have functional visual problems, the first treatment of choice will be: (p262)
a. surgery
b. treatment with prisms
c. visions therapy
d. optical correction
52. One way to test the AC/A ratio is to: (p266)
a. measure the subjective distance refraction
b. measure with -1.00D over the subjective
c. difference between a & b
d. b only
53. In smooth vergence testing, if the line of sight cross in front of the fixation point, they are? (p253)
a. phoric
b. esophoric
c. exophoric
d. ortho
54. In smooth vergence testing, if the line of sight cross in behind of the fixation point, they are? (p253)
a. phoric
b. esophoric
c. exophoric
d. ortho
55. Expected findings of convergence insufficiency are all of the following except: (p253)
a. exophoria at distance
b. orthophoria at distance
c. low AC/A ratio
d. reduced base-out vergence
56. __________ is the result of a person’s ability to interpret the environment on the basis of
information received through the eyes. (p251)
a. eye teaming
b. binocularity
c. vision
d. fusion
57. Visual efficiency includes accommodation, binocular vision, and __________. (p251)
a. ocular motor skills
b. fusion
c. eye motility
d. vergence
58. __________ is the merging of the images from each eye into a single visual image. (p251)
a. vergence
b. eye teaming
c. binocularity
d. fusion
59. Which type of fusion is the process by which a single image is perceived from two separate ocular
images? (p251)
a. motor
b. sensory
c. flat
d. stereopsis
60. Which type of fusion is the actual eye movement that occurs to keep the eyes aligned on the target
of regard? (p251)
a. motor
b. sensory
c. flat
d. stereopsis
61. Which degree of motor fusion is the overlapping of two dissimilar objects? (p251)
a. superimposition
b. sensory
c. flat
d. stereopsis
62. Which degree of motor fusion occurs when two similar images are seen as a single object? (p251)
a. superimposition
b. sensory
c. flat
d. stereopsis
63. Which is the first-degree of motor fusion? (p251)
a. superimposition
b. sensory
c. flat
d. stereopsis
64. Which is the second-degree of motor fusion? (p251)
a. superimposition
b. sensory
c. flat
d. stereopsis
65. __________ help align the eyes to ensure and maintain binocular vision? (p251)
a. convergence movements
b. vergence movements
c. eye teaming
d. eye motility
66. Common complaints of patients with convergence insufficiency include the following except:
(p253)
a. headaches
b. blurred vision
c. diplopia
d. myopia
67. Some patients with convergence insufficiency are asymptomatic. This absence of symptoms may
be due to the following except: (p253)
a. suppression
b. high pain threshold
c. accommodative excess
d. avoidance of near visual tasks
68. The total number of therapy sessions for convergence insufficiency depends on the age of the
patient, compliance, and __________. (p253)
a. severity
b. motivation
c. costs
d. time
69. A condition in which there is an esophoria at near, orthophoria or low to moderate esophoria at
distance, reduced base in vergence, and a high AC/A ratio.
a. convergence insufficiency
b. convergence excess
c. accommodative insufficiency
d. accommodative excess
70. A vision therapy program for convergence excess generally requires ____ office visits. (p255)
a. 5-10
b. 10-12
c. 12-17
d. 12-24
71. Vision therapy objectives for convergence insufficiency – match the phase to the objectives (p254)
____Normalize accommodative amplitude and ability to
a. Phase 1
stimulate and relax accommodation
b. Phase 2
____Develop a working relationship with patient
c. Phase 3
____Integrate vergence procedures with versions and saccades
____Normalize negative fusional vergence facility
____Normalize positive fusional vergence amplitudes
____Normalize negative fusional vergence amplitudes
____Develop an awareness of the various feedback mechanisms
____Develop ability to change from a convergence to a divergence
demand
____Normalize positive fusional vergence facility
____Integrate vergence procedures with changes in accommodative
____Develop voluntary convergence
72. Vision therapy objectives for convergence excess – match the phase to the objectives (p255)
____ Develop ability to change from a convergence to a divergence a. Phase 1
demand
b. Phase 2
____Develop a working relationship with patient
c. Phase 3
____Integrate vergence procedures with versions
____Normalize base in vergence amplitudes
____Normalize base in vergence facility
____Develop an awareness of the various feedback mechanisms
____Integrate vergence procedures with changes in accommodative demand
____Develop voluntary convergence and divergence
____Normalize base out vergence amplitudes
____Normalize accommodative amplitude and ability to stimulate and relax accommodation
____Normalize base out vergence facility
73. It has been determined that between birth and 1 month of age, the accommodative system of a
human baby is locked into the ______ level. (p255)
a. 2.00D
b. 3.00D
c. 4.00D
d. 5.00D
74. What is considered the trigger for the accommodative system? (p255)
a. fovea
b. crystalline lens
c. ciliary body
d. iris
75. What does amplitude refer to when speaking of accommodation? (p255)
a. amount
b. size
c. allowance
d. volume
76. Which test(s) provide information concerning the total limit of function of the system from
relaxation of accommodation to maximal effort? (p255)
a. accommodative amplitude
b. near point of accommodation
c. a & b
d. a only
77. What conditions is accommodative amplitude measured at? (p255)
a. binocular
b. monocular
c. distant
d. all of the above
78. The minimum amplitude of accommodation at any age may be calculated using which one of the
following equations? (p256)
a. 15 - age in years / 3
b. 18.5 - age in years / 3
c. 15 - age in years / 4
d. 18.5 - age in years / 4
79. Which type of testing evaluates how efficiently and quickly a person changes accommodative
levels? (p256)
a. facility
b. sustainability
c. amplitude
d. vergence
80. Which type of testing evaluates how long a person can use the accommodative system before it
fatigues? (p256)
a. facility
b. sustainability
c. amplitude
d. vergence
81. The primary types of accommodative disorders are accommodative insufficiency, accommodative
excess, and: (p256-257)
a. accommodative facility
b. accommodative sufficiency
c. accommodative phoria
d. accommodative infacility
82. Vision therapy objectives for accommodative insufficiency – match the phase to the objectives
(p257)
____ Develop a working relationship with patient
a. Phase 1
____Integrate vergence procedures with versions and saccades
b. Phase 2
____Normalize base in fusional vergence amplitudes
c. Phase 3
____Normalize base out fusional amplitudes
____Normalize base in fusional vergence facility
____Develop an awareness of the various feedback mechanisms
____Normalize ability to stimulate and relax accommodation
____Integrate accommodative facility therapy with binocular vision techniques
____Normalize accommodative amplitude and ability to stimulate accommodation
____Normalize base out fusional vergence facility
____Develop voluntary convergence
____Incorporate speed of response into accommodative techniques
____ Develop ability to change from a convergence to a divergence demand
83. Which accommodative disorder is normal under typical test conditions, but deteriorates over time?
(p257)
a. accommodative excess
b. III-sustained accommodation
c. accommodative infacility
d. a & b
84. Which accommodative disorder is a condition in which the patient has difficulty with all tasks
requiring relaxation of accommodation? (p257)
a. accommodative excess
b. III-sustained accommodation
c. accommodative infacility
d. accommodative insufficiency
85. Vision therapy objectives for accommodative excess – match the phase to the objectives (p258)
____ Normalize accommodative amplitude and ability to stimulate
a. Phase 1
and relax accommodation
b. Phase 2
____Develop a feeling of diverging
c. Phase 3
____ Normalize base in vergence amplitudes at intermediate distances
____Normalize base in vergence facility at near
____Develop a working relationship with the patient
____ Normalize base out vergence facility
____Normalize base in vergence facility at far
____Develop an awareness of the various feedback mechanisms
____Normalize base out vergence amplitudes
____Normalize base in vergence amplitudes at near
86. Which accommodative disorder is a condition in which the patient experiences difficulty changing
the accommodative response level? (p258)
a. accommodative excess
b. III-sustained accommodation
c. accommodative infacility
d. accommodative insufficiency
87. What are important characteristics of accommodative infacility that show up abnormal during
testing? (p258)
a. suppression
b. speed
c. latency
d. b & c
88. Eye movement control develops early in a child’s life. By what age can a child follow a moving
target in all directions? (p258)
a. 3 weeks
b. 1 month
c. 2 months
d. 3 months
89. Which eye movements primarily interfere with performance in school children with oculomotor
dysfunctions? (p258)
a. saccades
b. eye teaming
c. pursuits
d. a & c
90. __________ are rapid eye movements that enable us to redirect our line of sight so that point of
interest aligns with the fovea? (p258)
a. saccades
b. pursuits
c. vergences
d. eye teaming
91. What eye movement allows continuous foveal fixation of objects moving in space while keeping the
object fixed on the fovea? (p259)
a. saccades
b. pursuits
c. vergences
d. eye teaming
92. Examination of eye movements involves three distinct steps: saccadic function, pursuit function
and (p259)
a. VAs
b. near point of convergence
c. assessment of stability of fixation
d. muscle H
93. Vision therapy objectives for oculomotor dysfunctions – match the phases, one is in
two phases (p259)
____Normalize accommodative amplitude and ability
a. Phase 1
to stimulate and relax accommodation
b. Phase 2
____Normalize base out and base in vergence facility
c. Phase 3
____Develop a working relationship with the patient
____Integrate accurate saccades and pursuits with changes
in vergence and accommodation
____Normalize base out and base in vergence amplitudes
____Equalize gross saccadic and pursuit ability in the two eyes
____Develop ability to change from a convergence to a divergence
demand
____Develop an awareness of the various feedback mechanisms
____Equalize fine saccadic and pursuit ability in the two eyes
____Develop more accurate fine saccades and large excursion pursuits
____Develop more accurate gross saccades and fine pursuits
94. __________ exists when the foveal lines of sight of the two eyes do not point to the
same object in space. (p260)
a. amblyopia
b. strabismus
c. suppression
d. diplopia
95. What type of test(s) evaluate saccades? (p259)
a. direct observation
b. timed/standardized
c. indirect observation
d. a & b
96. Which test less subjective and is usually the preferred test given for saccades? (p259)
a. developmental eye movement
b. timed/standardized
c. indirect observation
d. direct observation
97. Which is a manifest deviation of the eyes for which the system cannot compensate? (p260)
a. amblyopia
b. strabismus
c. phoria
d. diplopia
98. Which is a latent deviation held in check by fusional vergence? (p260)
a. amblyopia
b. strabismus
c. phoria
d. diplopia
99. The following are different variables in prognosis of strabismus except: (p260)
a. direction of the strabismus
b. amplitude of deviation
c. eye laterality
d. difference between concomitant/nonconcomitant deviations
100. When referring to strabismus, the tendency of the eyes to turn in is referred to as: (p260)
a. esophoria
b. exophoria
c. exotropia
d. esotropia
101. When referring to strabismus, the tendency of the eyes to turn out is referred to as: (p260)
a. esophoria
b. exophoria
c. exotropia
d. esotropia
102. When referring to strabismus, the tendency of the eyes deviating up is referred to as: (p260)
a. hypertropia
b. hypotropia
c. exotropia
d. esotropia
103. When referring to strabismus, the tendency of the eyes deviating down is referred to as: (p260)
a. hypertropia
b. hypotropia
c. exotropia
d. esotropia
104. What two terms are used when denoting frequency to an eye deviation? (p260)
a. latent, manifest
b. constant, intermittent
c. alternate, unilateral
d. concomitant, nonconcomitant
105. The onset of an eye deviation will distinguish a congenital form from an acquired strabismus, what
age is the marking point? (p260)
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
106. Which test is one of the most useful tests in the investigation of strabismus? (p260)
a. near point of convergence
b. developmental eye movement test
c. cover test
d. facility test
107. When a manifest deviation is present and the foveal areas of the two eyes do not point at the same
object, the result will be confusion or: (p261)
a. amblyopia
b. strabismus
c. phoria
d. diplopia
.
108. Simultaneous perception is considered one of the levels of: (p261)
a. superimposition fusion
b. sensory fusion
c. flat fusion
d. stereopsis fusion
109. Vision worse than 20/30 or a two-line difference in acuity between the two eyes is considered
to be: (p261)
a. amblyopia
b. strabismus
c. phoria
d. diplopia
110. There are three types of functional amblyopia: strabismic, refractive, and _________. (p261)
a. amblyopic
b. phoric
c. form deprivation
d. diplopic
111. Which type of functional amblyopia arises from nonuse or prolonged suppression? (p261)
a. strabismic
b. refractive
c. form deprivation
d. suppression
112. Which type of functional amblyopia usually occurs due to a physical obstruction along the line of
sight, such as a congenital cataract? (p261)
a. strabismic
b. refractive
c. form deprivation
d. suppression
113. What is the first step in treat amblyopia? (p261)
a. occlusion
b. correction of the refractive error
c. surgery
d. vision therapy
114. Which is a difficulty in identifying targets close to each other? (p261)
a. suppression
b. crowding phenomenon
c. pursuit dysfunction
d. all of the above
115. The fixating eye is prevented from taking part in the act of vision so that the patient is forced to
use his or her amblyopic eye, is known as: (p261)
a. direct patching
b. straight patching
c. indirect patching
d. circular patching
116. Which is not a vision therapy guideline or principle? (p263)
a. Maintain an effective training level.
b. Emphasize to the patient that changes must occur within his or her own visual system.
c. Use vision therapy techniques that provide feedback to the patient.
d. Time is a very important part of any therapy program.
117. Surgery is considered when the angle of the strabismus is too large to be overcome easily by
fusion, what is considered too large? (p263)
a. 10 PD
b. 20 PD
c. 30 PD
d. none of the above
118. Strabismic surgery is normally a __________? (p263)
a. cosmetic cure
b. visual cure
c. physical cure
d. therapeutic cure
119. What variables are used when assessing the fixation of a patient? (p262)
a. central versus eccentric
b. stability of the retinal area used
c. eccentric versus central
d. a & b
120. What does the acronym ARC stand for?
a. Adaptive Retinal Cache
b. Automatic Retinal Control
c. Anomalous Retinal Correspondence
d. Applied Retinal Capability
121. Which of the following is not a variation of ARC? (p262)
a. harmonious ARC
b. unharmonious ARC
c. paradoxical II
d. paradoxical III
122. Testing for ARC is always done with: (p262)
a. left eye occluded
b. right eye occluded
c. both eyes open
d. both eyes closed
123. Which instrument is not used for ARC testing? (p262)
a. Amblyoscope
b. Strabismicscope
c. After Image Flasher
d. Bagolini lenses
124. Vision therapy has been shown to be effective for accomplishing the following in accommodative,
ocular motor, and nonstrabismic binocular vision disorders except: (p262)
a. elimination of accommodative spasm
b. elimination of suppression
c. improved stability of fixation
d. realignment of the eyes