Download Milk Quality

2016 North Dakota FFA Convention
Milk Quality and Products
Individual Exam
Milk Production: Mark answers on the back of the scan card in the written exam section.
1. Removing offending feeds from cows four hours before milking, can reduce the risk of getting this off-flavor
milk.
a. Bitter
b. Acid
c. Feed
d. Malty
e. Unclean
2. A CMT test appearance with a strong gel formation that tends to adhere to paddle and forms a distinct central
peak would have a Leukocyte count/ml of ______________.
a. Below 200,000
c. 800,000 – 5,000,000
b. 150,000 – 500,000
d. Over 5,000,000
3. Off-flavor of milk that may be described as tasteless and the flavor of normal milk is lacking.
a. High acid
b. Rancid
c. Oxidized
d. Flat/watery
e. Salt
4. During hot weather, milk filters should be changed every _____ hours to prevent bacteria from growing in the
filters.
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight
5. Which of the following is not a cause of coliform mastitis?
a. Cracked or split inflations
b. Milking to soon after calving
c. Using excessive water in washing udders
d. Slightly damp, warm bedding
6. What is the bacterial infection that occurs in the eyes of dairy cattle that can cause blindness and is thought to be
spread by flies
a. Johne’s
b. Pinkeye
c. Vitamin A deficiency
d. Brucellosis
b.
7. Washing the udder prior to milking stimulates the release of ____ which induces milk letdown.
a. Estrogen
b. Testosterone
c. Adrenaline
0d. Oxytocin
8. Under which of the following weather conditions would you expect to observe the greatest decreases in milk yield
per cow and in percentage of fat and protein in that milk?
a. Cold and dry
b. Hot and humid
c. Cool and rainy
d. Warm and dry
9. Exposure of milk to fluorescent lighting can cause _________ off flavor
a. Flat
b. Cooked
c. Rancid
d. Oxidized
10. A somatic cell count above ___________ in milk may indicate that a bacterial infection is present in one or more
cows in the herd
a. 500,000
b. 275,000
c. 300,000
d. 250,000
11. Which compartment of the ruminant stomach is commonly referred to as the “fermentation vat”?
a. Rumen
b. Reticulum
c. Omasum
d. Abomasum
12. A gallon of milk weighs ______ pounds
a. 5.6
b. 7.2
c. 8.6
d. 9.4
13. A freemartin heifer is:
a. Free of defects
b. Highly efficient
c. Sterile 90% of the time
d. A twin heifer born to a heifer
14. Off-flavor of milk caused by fly-spray, paint, kerosene, or creosote. Substances enter milk as direct contaminants
or in vapor form.
a. Rancid
b. Foreign
c. Feed
d. Malty
e. Salty
15. Dairy rations for lactating cows should be calculated based on:
a. Body size
b. Milk production
c. Stage of lactation
d. All of the above
16. Milk contains 87% water and the rest is solids and fats. Which of the following is not included as a milk solid?
a. Protein
b. Water
c. Carbohydrate
d. Milk fat
e. Minerals
17. On average how long does it take a dairy female to go from birth to the production of milk in a milking operation?
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
18. The ______________ test measures the fat content of milk.
a. Kjeldahl
b. Mohr titration
c. Dumas
d. Babcock
19. The Dairy Herd Improvement Association (DHIA) provides:
a. Payment for lost production
b. Premiums for high quality milk
c. Milk testing and record keeping
d. None of the above
20. The principal protein in milk is ______.
a. Whey protein
b. Casein
c. Crude protein
d. Lactogloblin
21. Sanitizing solutions
a. Are made more active by protein of milk
b. Kill bacteria
c. Are used to remove soil from surfaces of dairy equipment
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
22. The high acid flavor in milk is caused by
a. Growth of somatic cells
b. High storage temperature
c. Exposure to light
d. Contamination with copper
e.
23. The CMT test detects which of the following in raw milk?
a. Bacteria
b. Red blood cells
c. Somatic cells
d. Antibiotics
24. The temperature of cooled milk on the producing farm must be kept below which of the following degrees?
a. 45 degrees F b. 40 degrees F
c. 35 degrees F
d. 32 degrees F
25. Which portion of the milking procedure is recommended because it flushes potential mastitis-causing bacteria
from the teat canal, allows you to observe early signs of clinical mastitis and helps promote milk letdown?
a. Predipping
b. Drying
c. Postdipping
d. Forestripping
Milk Marketing:
26. A food that contains less than __________ grams of fat per serving is considered a low fat food.
a. 10
b. 40
c. 1
d. 3
27. Grade A milk can be used for:
a. Ice cream
b. Skim milk
c. Non-fat dry milk powder
d. All of the above
28. The detection of added water in milk is easily determined by conducting the _________ test.
a. Acidity
b. Phosphatase
c. Freezing point
d. ADV
29. Legal action may be instituted through the ______ Department in the Federal courts to enforce a Federal order.
a. Agriculture
b. Commerce
c. Justice
d. Education e. Labor
30. The year that Federal milk marketing order were reformed and component pricing was introduced?
a. 1937
b. 1964
c. 1993
d. 1995
e. 2000
Mark 31-50 in the Milk Marketing section on the scan card.
31. According to the most recent National Agricultural Census, how many milk cows are in the U.S.?
a. 20,548,000
b. 8,158,000 c. 3,567,000
d. 9,300,000
32. Class 1 milk is used in:
a. Fluid milk order
b. Butter
c. Ice cream
d. Cheddar cheese
33. Dairy herds with somatic cell counts are more likely to produce a _______ favor of milk.
a. Cooked
b. Rancid
c. Feed
d. Garlic/onion
34. The most important variety of cheese produced from skim milk is:
a. Cottage cheese
b. Colby cheese
c. Swiss cheese
d. American cheddar
35. This product is made from addition of lactic acid producing bacteria to pasteurized cream containing less than
18% milkfat.
a. Cottage cheese
b. Sour cream
c. Yogurt
d. Gelato
36. A load of hay consisting of large square bales averaging 750 pounds/bale costs $85.00/bale. What is the cost of
one ton of hay?
a. $226.67
b. $221.50
c. $200.00
d. $236.85
37. What is the most popular size container used for fluid milk?
a. Gallon
b. Half gallon
c. Quart
d. Five quart bulk
38. Federal Milk Marketing Orders affect prices consumer pay for fresh milk in grocery stores by:
a. Adjusting them according to demand
b. Adjusting them according to supply
c. Leaving them to be determined by marketplace
d. Letting marketplace change them once yearly
39. Milk prices are often discussed in this term of measurement.
a. Cwt
b. Oz
c. Bu
d. Ton
40. Yield of cheese is primarily determined by:
a. Fat content
b. Protein content
c. Water content
41. The fat content of reduced fat milk is _________.
a. 0.5%
b. 1.0%
c. 2.0%
d. 3.25%
d. Lactose content
42. New food plate guidelines recommend how many servings of dairy products per day?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3
43. Milk prices on average are the lowest in
a. Spring
b. Summer
c. Fall
d. Winter
44. In a milk market with four classes of milk, Class III is used to make
a. Fluid products
b. Cottage cheese and cream products
c. Cheese
d. Butter and dry products
45. Of the 14 cheese varieties, which has a tangy peppery flavor, is crumbly and pasty, has a white interior with veins
of mold that are marbled or streaked?
a. Muenster
b. Edam/gouda
c. Swiss
d. Blue
e. Brie
46. The _____ concentration in the bulk milk tank helps the producers monitor the efficacy of their feeding programs.
a. Antibiotic
b. Bacteria
c. Milk urea nitrogen (MUN)
d. Somatic cell
47. Mastitis has severe economic consequences. The high somatic cell count causes a decrease in cheese yield and the
bacteria causes a (an) ________ in the lactose (milk sugar).
a. Denaturation
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Gram-negative infection
48. The actual cost of producing dairy products that is used in the Class III and IV pricing formula is called
_____________.
a. Milk-feed ratio price
b. Cooperative bonus premium
c. Federal Order price
d. Make allowance
49. A milk producer would receive maximal price for milk delivered within a milk marketing order if all of it was
used to make
a. Dry whole milk
b. Ice cream
c. Mozzarella cheese
d. Butter
e. Pasteurized milk
50. To make one pound of butter requires approximately _____ pounds of whole milk.
a. 8
b. 12
c. 22
d. 44
2016 Milk Quality Test Answer Key:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
C
D
D
A
B
B
D
B
D
D
A
C
C
B
D
B
C
D
C
B
B
B
C
A
D
D
D
C
C
E
D
B
B
C
B
A
A
C
A
B
C
D
A
A
D
C
B
D
E
C