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ASSIGNMENT BOOKLET
Bachelor Degree Programme in Science
(B.Sc.)
Elective Course
in
Developmental Biology
(LSE-06)
ASSIGNMENTS 2004
ASSIGNMENT-1 TMA
ASSIGNMENT-2 CMA
SCHOOL OF SCIENCES
Indira Gandhi National Open University
Maidan Garhi
New Delhi – 110 068
LSE-06
LSE-06
Assignments 1& 2, Year-2004
Dear Student,
As explained in the Programme Guide for B.Sc., you are required to do 2 assignments for the elective
course in Developmental Biology (Course Code: LSE-06). One of the assignments is Tutor-marked
(TMA), and the other is Computer-marked (CMA). The block-wise distribution of assignments is as
follows:
Assignment – 1 (TMA) is based on Block 1 to 4
Assignment – 2 (CMA) is based on Block 1 to 4
The instructions for doing the assignments are given in the Programme Guide under the Section 7.1
- Assignment. Read the instructions carefully before you start to work on the assignments.
The details regarding assignment submission are given below.
Assignment No.
Assignment – 1 (TMA)
Code: LSE-06/AST-1/TMA-1/2002
Assignment – 2 (CMA)
Code: LSE-06/AST-2/CMA-1/2002
Date of Submission
Where to Send
12 weeks after receiving the printed
material with assignments.
The Coordinator of your Study Centre.
12 weeks after receiving the printed
material with assignments.
The Director (SR&E),
Indira Gandhi National Open University,
Maidan Garhi,
New Delhi – 110068.
Some Suggestions:


Submit your assignment-response well in time. Your response received after the due
date shall not be accepted.
Retain a zeroxed copy of your assignment-response for your record.
Best of luck to you
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ASSIGNMENT – 1
(Tutor Marked Assignment)
Course Code : LSE-06
Assignment Code: LSE-06/AST-1/TMA-1/2004
Max. Marks : 100
1.
Differentiate between the following pairs of terms :
a) Syngamy and triple fusion
b) Teninucellate and crassinucellate ovule
c) Nastic and epinastic responses
d) Sporophytic and gametophytic incompatibility
e) Vegatative and generative cell
(25=10)
2.
Write brief answers of the following questions.
a) What is the function of embryo suspensor?
b) List the various types of endosperms? Write 3 salient features of any one of them.
c) Discuss the significance of polyembryony.
d) Mention any two seed appendages and discuss their role.
e) Describe the salient morphological changes that take place during floral induction.
(25=10)
3.
List the types of cambial variants in stems. Illustrate the anomalous development of vascular
bundles in Bignonia.
(4+6)
4.
Describe with the help of diagrams the procedure for obtaining disease-free plantlets from a
plant which is infected by a virus.
(10)
5.
a)
6.
Define apical dominance. Discuss the role of auxins in apical dominance. Give two
examples of the application of this knowledge in agriculture and horticulture. (1+2+2)
b) Describe with the help of labelled diagrams the components of a typical embryo sac.
(5)
Write short notes on the following :
a) Basic structure of sperm
b) Egg envelopes
c) Totipotency
d) Cell determination
(2.5  4)
7.
a)
What do you understand by epiboly and emboly? Describe briefly, the various type of
movements in emboly.
(5)
b) Explain in not more than 200 words, the experiments that show the interaction of
mesoderm and ectoderm in limb morphogenesis.
8.
a)
b)
9.
Compare avian gastrulation with mammalian gastrulation. Give your answer
in a tabular form.
Outline the stages of the development of blood cells.
(5)
(5)
(5)
Discuss the contributions of thyroid gland in the process of amphibian metamorphosis. (10)
10. Explain the following concepts.
a) Regeneration b) Aging c) Implantation of blastocyst
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d) Cancer
(2.5  4)
ASSIGNMENT – 2
(Computer Marked Assignment)
Course Code : LSE-06
Assignment Code : LSE-06/AST-2/CMA-1/2004
Max. Marks : 100
1.
Which of the following condition affects apical dominance?
1) Long day exposure
2) Short day exposure
3) Day neutral conditions
4) Dark periods
2.
Auxin transport is :
1) basipetal
2) acropetal
3) lateral
4) both 2 & 3
3.
Tunica layer cells mostly show :
1) anticlinal divisions
2) periclinal divisions
3) unequal divisions
4) diagonal divisions
4.
The tissues used to initiate cultures are know as:
1) roots
2) shoots
3) explants
4) embryos
5.
The main physiological effect of gibberellins is:
1) cell wall relaxation
2) cell elongation
3) ethylene production
4) none of the above
6.
Hypophysis of the embryo gives rise to:
1) leaves
2) stem apex
3) root cortex
4) root cortex and cap
7.
Plerome is responsible for the development of:
1) epidermal covering
2) cortex of stem and its apex
3) vascular tissue and pith
4) vascular tissue and root
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8.
Dormancy is induced by:
1) ABA
2) cytokinins
3) gibberellins
4) auxins
9.
The pollen grains become male gametophytes when:
1) the microspore tetrads are enclosed in callose wall.
2) the microspore mother cells become completely surrounded by the callose wall.
3) they divide to form generative and vegetative cell.
4) the exine is fully formed.
10. When two hormones are supplied together the effect is termed as:
1) sequential effect
2) synergistic effect
3) seed coat effect
4) all of the above
11. Fusion of dissimilar protoplasts result in the formation of:
1) heterokaryons
2) homokaryons
3) androgenic haploids
4) polyploids
12. Gibberellins promote:
1) flowering in long-day plants
2) organ formation
3) ethylene production
4) abscission
13. Tyloses are formed by the activity of:
1) vascular cambium during summer season.
2) cork cambium during winter season.
3) wood parenchyma cells.
4) sieve elements.
14. In periderm, the cork cells are also known as:
1) phellogen
2) phellem
3) phelloderm
4) suberin lamella
15. In strawberry the edible part of fruit is:
1) endosperm
2) perianth
3) floral receptacle
4) whole flower
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16. The irregular and bright orange, thin structure which covers the seeds of Myristica fragrans
is:
1) caruncle
2) aril
3) wings
4) operculum
17. The amount of heartwood and sapwood is influenced by:
1) genetic conditions
2) both genetic and environmental conditions
3) nutrients
4) temperature
18. Strike out the incorrect pair from the following:
1) indehiscent fruit
achene
2) dehiscent fruit
legume
3) fleshy fruit
siliqua
4) fleshy fruit
pepo
19. The extra patches of secondary phloem inside the secondary xylem are known as:
1)
2)
3)
4)
interxylary phloem.
ridged and furrowed xylem cylinder.
successive cambia.
intraxylary phloem.
20. The unique endosperm seen in the family Loranthaceae is of which kind?
1) Ruminate
2) Mosaic
3) Composite
4) With vermiform appendages
21. Seedless grapes are the result of :
1) cybridization
2) hybridization
3) parthenocarpy
4) none of the above
22. Which one of the following structures is incorrectly paired with the proper life-cycle
generation?
1) anther
sporophyte
2) ovary
gametophyte
3) pollen grains gametophyte
4) proembryo
sporophyte
23. Intraspecific incompatibility in heteromorphic types is because:
1) of morphologically indistinguishable mating types.
2) stamens and carpels are placed at different levels in the flowers.
3) of inability of the gametes to fuse.
4) of chemical inhibition.
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24. In double fertilization, both the sperm nuclei:
1) enter the embryo sac.
2) fertilize the egg cell.
3) fuse with the polar cell to produce the triploid endosperm.
4) are produced by the tube nucleus and enter the ovule through the micropyle.
25. Which one of the following is 4-nucleate, monosporic and monopolar type of embryo sac?
1) Polygonum type
2) Adoxa type
3) Oenothera type
4) Allium type
26. In spermatogenesis, maturation phase is marked by:
1) division of stem cell to form spermatogonial cells.
2) increase in the size of spermatogonial cells.
3) formation of cap and rotation of the sperm nucleus.
4) meiotic division to transform the spermatocytes into spermatids.
27. One of the following is not the function of accessory cells of the ovary.
1) Production of steroids.
2) Transportation of cytoplasmic component into oocyte.
3) Initiation of meiotic division in the oocyte.
4) Formation of layers to surround the egg.
28. During fertilization the acrosome reaction commences when sperm :
1) becomes active and motile.
2) reaches zona pellucida.
3) is attracted to the egg chemotactically.
4) undergoes the capacitation process.
29. Which one of the following is not true?
1) In micro- and mesolecithal eggs the first and second divisions result in four
blastomeres.
2) The turn of spiral in clockwise direction is sinistral and in anticlockwise direction is
dextral.
3) Cleavage is restricted to only a part of the egg when amount of yolk is heavy.
4) Vertical plane of the cleavage is when cleavage furrow forms parallel to animal-vegetal
axis.
30. Which of the following is not an embolic movement?
1) Involution
2) Convergence
3) Absorption
4) Divergence
31. In Xenopus internalisation of mesoderm by involution over blastoporal lips first begins in the
region of dorsal marginal zone because of :
1) reduction of blastopore to a slit archenteron.
2) interdigitation of the marginal deep layers.
3) convergence of superficial ectodermal layer.
4) prior formation of dorsal lip.
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32. Gastrulation in chick is marked by
1) beginning on future dorsal surface of the embryo.
2) completion of archenteron due to involution.
3) absence of archenteron formation.
4) beginning at vegetal pole.
33. Neurulation in amphibians differs from that in chick because of the
1) change in shape and size of ectodermal cells.
2) apical end of neural epithelial cells.
3) simultaneous formation of neural tube along the entire length of embryo.
4) formation of various tissues from neural crest cells.
34. The development of four chambered heart from tubular structure in the chick embryo depends on
1) the detachment of splanchnic mesoderm from epithelium.
2) dorsal positioning of atrium and formation of septa.
3) the development of heart in anterior-posterior direction.
4) enlargement of coelom to form pericardial cavity.
35. Primordial germ cells can be differentiated from other embryonic cells in mammals
1) because of their shape and size.
2) development into gonads.
3) staining for enzyme alkaline phosphatase.
4) their lateral movement and alignment with dorsal mesentery.
36. The totipotency of blastomere nuclei upto blastula stage in enucleated eggs
1) shows progressive reduction in the potency of the nuclei.
2) suggests that cell determination is regulated by extrinsic factors.
3) indicates that restriction is imposed on the blastomeres.
4) was established by McKinnel as a result of transplantation experiment of blastula
nuclei.
37. Chromatin dimunition is a process in which
1) mitotic apparatus of one cell is positioned perpendicular to the other.
2) blastomeres destined to develop into somatic cells lose specific parts of chromosome.
3) various blastomeres become determined to follow a set pattern of differentiation.
4) at 4-cell stage only two vegetal blastomeres get all the vegetal cytoplasm.
38. Which one of the following is not true?
1) Interaction between neural ectoderm and underlying chordamesoderm determines the
fate of neural ectoderm tissue.
2) The induction of the presumptive neural ectoderm leading to the formation of neural
tube is primary induction.
3) The equatorial cells develop into ectoderm cells because adjacent vegetal cells secrete
inducing substances.
4) Secondary inductions produce diverse cell types from relatively less distinct precursor
cell.
39. Arrange the following events in the formation of vertebrate eye in correct sequence. Choose
the answer from the given key.
i) Formation of lens placode.
ii) Growth of cornea.
iii) Formation of retina.
iv) Formation of optic cup.
v) Formation of optic vesicle.
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KEY
1)
2)
3)
4)
ii), v), iii), iv), i)
v), iv), iii), i), ii)
v), iii), ii), i), iv)
v), i), iv), iii), ii)
40. The circular disc-like area behind the gill area in the tail bud stage embryo of salamander is
1) prospective forelimb area consisting of ectoderm underlain by the lateral plane of
mesoderm.
2) the central part of the main disc area to be developed into the hind limb.
3) made up of mesodermal cells to be developed into the eye of the adult.
4) prospective peribranchial tissue and girdle consisting of mesodermal tissue.
41. Which of the following statements is false?
1) Massive cell death occurs in the development of both eyes and limbs.
2) The decisive role in the proper development of both eye and limb is played by tissue
interactions.
3) Both eyes and limbs are developed from the same type of cells – the ectodermal cells.
4) Inductive messages from one tissue to another during the organogenesis of eye and limb
are non-specific.
42. Neoteny
1) is the molecular response to thyroid hormone during metamorphosis.
2) can be defined as the tendency of the animal to retain few or more larval characters in
adults.
3) is defined as the initial period of extensive growth but very little developmental
changes.
4) is the reactivity of the tissue of target organ to thyroid hormone.
43. The hormone that determines the character of each larval instar by limiting the degree of
differentiation towards the development of adult is
1) a unique water soluble steroid hormone
2) ecdysone
3) PTTH
4) JH
44. Morphallaxis
1) compensates the loss of internal organs by increase in size.
2) ensures regeneration by growth and redifferentiation.
3) is regeneration by replacement by reorganising of the existing parts.
4) is the regenerative ability of all the animals belonging to every phylum.
45. Which one of the following is not the histological change that occurs during lens
regeneration in Triturus?
1) Depigmentation
2) Increase in cytoplasmic basophilia
3) Increased RNA and protein synthesis
4) Interaction of tissues
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46. The distal-proximal polarization in hydra during regeneration process is due to
1) interstitial cells.
2) proginator cells.
3) activator and inhibitor substances.
4) epimorphosis and morphallaxis.
47. Interferon
1) induces cell division by stimulating the G-phase of cell cycle.
2) belongs to the family of growth hormones.
3) is responsible for the dwarfism in humans.
4) makes the cells unable to respond to mitotic stimuli.
48. Free radicals contribute to aging by
1) making the endocrine system inefficient.
2) altering the enzyme conformation.
3) causing the steady decline of thymus gland.
4) causing mutations in the cell.
49. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancerous cells?
1) Abnormal mitosis.
2) Mitotic inhibition.
3) Large nucleus.
4) Dedifferentiation.
50. Eustasian tubes in the human embryo are formed
1) from the first pair of pharyngeal pouches formed in the fourth week.
2) from the second pair of pharyngeal pouches formed in fifth week.
3) as a result of curling of embryo in the fifth week.
5) after sixth week when nervous system is developed.
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INDIRA GANDHI NATIONAL OPEN UNIVERSITY
RESPONSE SHEET FOR COMPUTER MARKED ASSIGNMENT
Enrolment No.
Programme : MSB.Sc.
Course Code : LSE-06
Assignment Code : LSE-06/AST-2/CMA-1/2004
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Address
(Block
Letters)
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Date :
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