Download Histopathology

Histopathology
Exam 1
1-28-08
Dental Questions
1. According to you testbook, the germ layers (i.e., ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm)
mature and differentiate into specific tissues and organ systems during the ________
period of development.
a. Implantation period
b. Proliferation period
c. Embryonic period
d. Fetal development period
2. All the following are derived from neural crest cells EXCEPT:
a. Melanocytes
b. Enamel
c. Sympathetic neurons
d. Cartilages of the face
3. In lecture, a “cyst” was defined as:
a. A cavitated area in the body (either empy or fluid-filled), lined with cells
b. A metastatic growth resistant to radiation treatment
c. A well circumscribed radioleucent lesion on a radiograph
d. A large swelling the midline of the neck
4. The palatine shelves complete fusion during the ____ and ____ week.
a. 4th – 5th
b. 6th – 7th
c. 8th – 9th
d. 10th – 12th
5. The thyroid gland invaginates at the ________.
a. Copula
b. Tuberculum impar
c. Hypobranchial eminence
d. Foramen cecum
6. Which of the following cranial nerves gives special sensory (taste) functions in the
anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
a. Trigeminal (C-V)
b. Facial (C-VII)
c. Glossopharyngeal (C-IX)
d. Vegas (C-X)
e. Hypoglossal (C-XII)
7. The parathyroid glands are derived from the ectoderm lining pharyngeal ______.
a. Pouches I and II
b. Arches II and III
c. Pouches III and IV
d. Arches IV and V
8. If cells that give rise to the thyroid gland fail to migrate from their site of origin, at which
of the following anatomical sites would you least likely find the ectopic thyroid?
a. Anterior to the hyoid bone
b. Neck, adjacent to the sternocleidomastoid muscle
c. Anterior to the cricoid cartilage
d. Posterior dorsal surface of the tongue
9. The embryonic mesoderm cell layer is derived from the ________ layer.
a. Ectoderm
b. Syntrophoblast
c. Endoderm
d. Hypoblastic
10. Implantation of the embryoblast into the uterine wall begins at day ____ following
conception, and is completed by day ____.
a. 2 / 6
b. 2 / 8
c. 4 / 10
d. 5 / 12
e. 6 / 14
11. Complete the following equation (pre-tooth bud stage of development): 1st Branchial
Arch Epithelium + 2nd Brancial Arch Mesenchyme =
a. Tooth
b. Skin
c. Melanocytes
d. Thyroid tissue
e. Oreo cookies
12. Which of the following are precursors of the vertebral column, ribs, associated back
muscles and overlying dermis:
a. Prechordal plates
b. Primitive nodes
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
d. Somites
13. The following is an accurate description of which of the listed neural tube defects?
“Extrusion (herniation) of neural tissue, plus a portion of the meninges, through the fetal
cranium.”
a. Spina Bifida
b. Meningocele
c. Meningomyelocele
d. Meningoencephalocele
14. Cleft lip results when there is a lack of fusion between the ________ and ________
processes.
a. Medial nasal, mandibular
b. Lateral nasal, mandibular
c. Medial nasal, maxiallary
d. Lateral nasal, maxiallary
15. A dilacerations is caused by a deviation in growth of which of the following:
a. Cervical loop
b. Epithelial Diaphragm
c. Hertwig’s root sheath
d. Heuser’s membrane
16. The posterior 1/3 of the tongue is derived from the ________ of the ________ pharyngeal
arch.
a. Hypobranchial eminence / 3rd
b. Hypobranchial eminence / 1st
c. Tuberculum impar / 2nd
d. Lateral lingual swellings / 1st
e. Lateral lingual swellings / 3rd
17. Which of the following statements regarding Median Rhomboid Glossitis is true:
a. It is thought to be a remnant of the 2nd pharyngeal arch
b. It is seen clinically as a “bald spot” on the lateral surface of the tongue
c. It is thought to have an association with the HPV virus
d. It is thought to be caused by the lack of overgrowth of the 4th pharyngeal arch
18. According to the textbook (Berkowitz, et al.), the hard palate ossifies intramembranously
from ____ centers of ossification.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
19. The anterior 2/3 of the tongue is derived from which pharyngeal arch/intermediate
structure combination?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3rd arch / hypobranchial eminence
1st arch / tuberculum impar
2nd arch / copula
1st arch / foramen cecum
1st arch / lateral lingual swellings
20. The tongue receives innervation from all of the following cranial nerves EXCEPT:
a. Trigeminal (C-V)
b. Facial (C-VII)
c. Glossopharyngeal (C-IX)
d. Abducens (C-VI)
e. Hypoglossal (C-XII)
For the following questions, match the developmental structures with their appropriate
pharyngeal arch. (choices can be used more than once):
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
Pharyngeal Arch #1
Pharyngeal Arch #2
Pharyngeal Arch #3
Pharyngeal Arch #4
Pharyngeal Arch #6
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
Trigeminal nerve (C-V)
Vagus nerve (C-X)
Hypoglossal nerve (C-XII
Styloid process
Incus bone
Thyroid cartilage
Sensory innervation to posterior 1/3 of the tongue
For the following questions, match the developmental structures with their appropriate
pharyngeal cleft of pouch of origin (choices can be used more than once):
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
Pharyngeal cleft #1
Pharyngeal pouch #1
Pharyngeal pouch #2
Pharyngeal pouch #3
Pharyngeal pouch #4
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
palatine tonsil
ultimobranchial body
external auditory meatus
inferior parathyroids
thymus
Eustachian tube
34. At 3 months of fetal development, the head lenth relative to total trunk (i.e. thorax and
abdomen) length is approximately ____ %
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
35. According to your text, which of the following statements concering spina bifida is
correct?
a. Spina bifida results from the defective closure of the dorsal aspect of the caudal
half of the neural tube
b. Development of spina bifida occurs between the 4th to 5th month
c. Spina bifida can be prodcuced by a lack of vitamin A in laboratory animals
d. Spina bifida is thought to be a result of folic acid excess in the mother
For the following questions, match the stages of tooth development with their appropriate
cellular activity (choices can be used more than once).
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Cellular induction
Cellular proliferation
Proliferation, Differentiation, and Mophogenesis
Induction and Proliferation
Maturation
36. _____ Initiation
37. _____ Apposition
38. _____ Bell Stage
39. _____ Maturation
40. _____ Bud Stage
41. _____ Cap Stage
42. Post tooth-bud stage, which of the following equations would be correct:
a. Tooth epithelium + Skin mesenchyme = Tooth
b. Tooth epithelium + Skin mesenchyme = Skin
c. Skin epithelium + Tooth mesenchyme = Skin
43. The “enamel organ” consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Stellate Reticulum
b. Stratum Intermedium
c. Outer Dental Epithelium
d. Dental Follicle
e. Inner Dental Epithelium
44. The dental follicle differentiates into all the following adult tissues EXCEPT
a. Periodontal ligament (PDL)
b. Cementum
c. Alveolar Bone
d. Pulp
45. Embryologically, the “enamel organ” is derived from the ________.
a. Hypoblast
b. Ectoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Neural crest
For the following questions, match the list of tissues with their cell layer of origin (choices can
be used more than once).
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Enamel
Alveolar bone
Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)
Dentin
Dental Pulp
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
Odontoblasts
Dental Papilla
Ameloblasts
Dental Sac
Basement Membrane
51. With respect to the tooth root, the epithelial diaphragm determines their _-______.
a. Shape
b. Number
c. Diameter
d. Curvature
52. The stratum intermedium secretes ________, an enzyme required for enamel matrix
mineralization.
a. Acid phophatase
b. Pyrophophatase
c. Alkaline phosphatase
d. What-the-freak phosphatase
53. A patient presents with a “doubled” central incisor, however, when counting the teeth, the
tooth count is less by one tooth when the “double tooth” is counted as one. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Fusion
b. Gemination
c. Taurodontism
d. Concrescence
e. Hypodontia
54. Nasmyth’s membrane consists of all the following cell layers EXCEPT
a. Reduced ameloblasts
b. Outer enamel epithelium
c. Stellate reticulum
d. Stratum intermedium
e. Reduced odontoblasts
55. A ________ is the most common manifestation of a supernumerary tooth
a. Peg lateral incisor
b. Mesodens
c. 3rd bicuspid
d. fused tooth
e. 4th molar
56. A ________ is comprised of enamel and dentin arranged in a way that bears an
autonomic resemblance to teeth
a. Complex odontoma
b. Ameloblastoma
c. Compound odontoma
d. Odontogenic keratocyst
57. A patient presents with a radiograph that that shows the roots of multiple mandibular
teeth joined together by cementum. What would your diagnosis be?
a. Taurodontism
b. Fusion
c. Gemination
d. Concrescence
58. The dentigerous cysts comprises ____% of all jaw cysts and is always associated with
a/an ________.
a. 20 / fully erupted tooth
b. 20 / attachment to the CEJ
c. 10 / carious tooth
d. 10 / detachment of the dental follicle
59. A developmental cyst occurring along the lateral aspect of the neck is mostly likely a
a. Thyroglossal duct cyst
b. Lateral periodontal cyst
c. Lateral cervical cyst
d. Posterior mandible
e.
60. Most odontogenic keratocysts (OKC’s) occur in the ________.
a. Anterios maxilla
b. Posterior maxilla
c. Anterior mandible
d. Posterior mandible
61. Upon biopsy, the lumen of the odontogeic keratocyst is characterized by the presenece of:
a. Keratin
b. Empty space
c. Fluid
d. Tissues of the tooth (enamel, dentin, et.)
62. The most commone neoplastic lesion of the jaws, arising from the odontogenic
epithelium is the ________.
a. Odontoma
b. Osteogenic sarcoma
c. Fibrosarcoma
d. Ameloblastoma
63. Cranial Nerve IX is responsible for which of the following:|
a. Sensory to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
b. Sensory to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
c. Sensory to the extreme posterior via the superior laryngeal branch
d. Motor innervation to the tongue muscles
ANSWERS:
1. c
2. b
3. a
4. d
5. d
6. b
7. c
8. b
9. a
10. c
11. a
12. d
13. c
14. c
15. c
16. a
17. a
18. c
19. e
20. d
21. a
22. d
23. e
24. b
25. a
26. d
27. c
28. c
29. e
30. a
31. d
32. d
33. b
34. d
35. a
36. a
37. d
38. e
39. e
40. b
41. c
42. b
43. d
44. d
45. b
46. d
47. e
48. a
49. b
50. c
51. b
52. c
53. a
54. e
55. b
56. c
57. d
58. b
59. c
60. d
61. a
62. d
63. b