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Technician Exam Questions and Answers SubElement SUBELEMENT T1 FCC Rules, descriptions and definitions for the amateur radio service, operator and station license responsibilities - [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups] Section ExamRef T1A - Amateur Radio services; T1A01 purpose of the amateur service, amateur-satellite service, operator/primary station license grant, where FCC rules are codified, basis and purpose of FCC rules, meanings of basic terms used in FCC rules Num Content 1 For whom is the Amateur Radio Service intended? Answer Correct D ID 2855 A. Persons who have messages to broadcast to the public 2856 B. Persons who need communications for the activities of their immediate family members, relatives and friends 2857 C. Persons who need two-way communications for personal reasons D. Persons who are interested in radio technique solely with a personal aim and without pecuniary interest 2858 Yes 2859 T1A02 T1A03 T1A04 2 What agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States? A. FEMA B. The ITU C. The FCC D. Homeland Security 3 Which part of the FCC rules contains the rules and regulations governing the Amateur Radio Service? A. Part 73 B. Part 95 C. Part 90 D. Part 97 4 Which of the following meets the FCC definition of harmful interference? A. Radio transmissions that annoy users of a repeater C 2862 2863 2864 Yes 2865 2866 D 2869 2870 2871 2872 Yes 2873 C 2876 2877 B. Unwanted radio transmissions that cause costly harm to radio station apparatus C. That which seriously degrades, obstructs, or repeatedly interrupts a radio communication service operating in accordance with the Radio Regulations T1A05 D. Static from lightning storms 5 What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a space station? 2878 Yes 2879 2880 D 2883 T1A06 T1A07 T1A08 T1A09 6 7 8 9 A. Any multi-stage satellite B. An Earth satellite that carries one of more amateur operators C. An amateur station located less than 25 km above the Earth's surface D. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telecommand? C A. An instruction bulletin issued by the FCC B. A one-way radio transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument C. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance D. An instruction from a VEC What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telemetry? C A. An information bulletin issued by the FCC B. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance C. A one-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument D. An information bulletin from a VEC Which of the following entities recommends B transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations? A. Frequency Spectrum Manager B. Frequency Coordinator C. FCC Regional Field Office D. International Telecommunications Union Who selects a Frequency Coordinator? C A. The FCC Office of Spectrum Management and Coordination Policy B. The local chapter of the Office of National Council of Independent Frequency Coordinators Pages: 1 of 39 2884 2885 2886 Yes 2887 2890 2891 2892 Yes 2893 2894 2897 2898 2899 Yes 2900 2903 2904 Yes 2905 2906 2907 2910 2911 2912 Technician Exam Questions and Answers C. Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be auxiliary or repeater stations Yes 2913 T1A10 D. FCC Regional Field Office 10 What is the FCC Part 97 definition of an amateur station? A 2914 2917 T1A11 T1B - Authorized frequencies; T1B01 frequency allocations, ITU regions, emission type, restricted sub-bands, spectrum sharing, transmissions near band edges T1B02 T1B03 T1B04 T1B05 A. A station in an Amateur Radio Service consisting of the apparatus necessary for carrying on radio communications B. A building where Amateur Radio receivers, transmitters, and RF power amplifiers are installed C. Any radio station operated by a non-professional D. Any radio station for hobby use 11 Which of the following stations transmits signals over the C air from a remote receive site to a repeater for retransmission? A. Beacon station B. Relay station C. Auxiliary station D. Message forwarding station 12 What is the ITU? B Yes 2918 2919 2920 2921 2924 2925 2926 Yes 2927 2928 2932 13 14 15 16 A. An agency of the United States Department of Telecommunications Management B. A United Nations agency for information and communication technology issues C. An independent frequency coordination agency D. A department of the FCC North American amateur stations are located in which ITU region? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 Which frequency is within the 6 meter band? A. 49.00 MHz B. 52.525 MHz C. 28.50 MHz D. 222.15 MHz Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 146.52 MHz? A. 2 meter band B. 20 meter band C. 14 meter band D. 6 meter band Which 70 cm frequency is authorized to a Technician Class license holder operating in ITU Region 2? 2933 Yes 2934 2935 2936 B 2939 2940 Yes 2941 2942 2943 B 2946 2947 Yes 2948 2949 2950 A 2953 Yes 2954 2955 2956 2957 C 2960 T1B06 T1B07 T1B08 A. 53.350 MHz B. 146.520 MHz C. 443.350 MHz D. 222.520 MHz 17 Which 23 cm frequency is authorized to a Technician B Class operator license? A. 2315 MHz B. 1296 MHz C. 3390 MHz D. 146.52 MHz 18 What amateur band are you using if you are transmitting D on 223.50 MHz? A. 15 meter band B. 10 meter band C. 2 meter band D. 1.25 meter band 19 What do the FCC rules mean when an amateur frequency C band is said to be available on a secondary basis? 2961 2962 Yes 2963 2964 2967 2968 Yes 2969 2970 2971 2974 2975 2976 2977 Yes 2978 2981 A. Secondary users of a frequency have equal rights to operate B. Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency at night Pages: 2 of 39 2982 2983 Technician Exam Questions and Answers C. Amateurs may not cause harmful interference to primary users D. Secondary users are not allowed on amateur bands Yes 2984 2985 T1B09 20 Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band? D 2988 T1B10 T1B11 T1C - Operator classes and station T1C01 call signs; operator classes, sequential, special event, and vanity call sign systems, international communications, reciprocal operation, station license and licensee, places where the amateur service is regulated by th T1C02 T1C03 A. To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display B. So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge C. To allow for transmitter frequency drift D. All of these choices are correct 21 Which of the bands available to Technician Class operators have mode-restricted sub-bands? A. The 6 meter, 2 meter, and 70 cm bands B. The 2 meter and 13 cm bands C. The 6 meter, 2 meter, and 1.25 meter bands D. The 2 meter and 70 cm bands 22 What emission modes are permitted in the moderestricted sub-bands at 50.0 to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 to 144.1 MHz? A. CW only B. CW and RTTY C. SSB only D. CW and SSB 23 Which type of call sign has a single letter in both the prefix and suffix? 2989 2990 2991 Yes 2992 C 2995 2996 2997 Yes 2998 2999 A 3002 Yes 3003 3004 3005 3006 C 3010 A. Vanity B. Sequential C. Special event D. In-memoriam 24 Which of the following is a valid US amateur radio station B call sign? A. KMA3505 B. W3ABC C. KDKA D. 11Q1176 25 What types of international communications are A permitted by an FCC-licensed amateur station? A. Communications incidental to the purposes of the amateur service and remarks of a personal character 3011 3012 Yes 3013 3014 3017 3018 Yes 3019 3020 3021 3024 Yes 3025 T1C04 T1C05 B. Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature C. Only communications incidental to contest exchanges, all other communications are prohibited D. Any communications that would be permitted on an international broadcast station 26 When are you allowed to operate your amateur station in A a foreign country? A. When the foreign country authorizes it B. When there is a mutual agreement allowing third party communications C. When authorization permits amateur communications in a foreign language D. When you are communicating with non-licensed individuals in another country 27 What must you do if you are operating on the 23 cm band A and learn that you are interfering with a radio location station outside the United States? A. Stop operating or take steps to eliminate the harmful interference B. Nothing, because this band is allocated exclusively to the amateur service C. Establish contact with the radiolocation station and ask them to change frequency D. Change to CW mode, because this would not likely cause interference Pages: 3 of 39 3026 3027 3028 3031 Yes 3032 3033 3034 3035 3038 Yes 3039 3040 3041 3042 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T1C06 28 From which of the following may an FCC-licensed D amateur station transmit, in addition to places where the FCC regulates communications? A. From within any country that belongs to the International Telecommunications Union B. From within any country that is a member of the United Nations C. From anywhere within in ITU Regions 2 and 3 D. From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States 3045 3046 3047 3048 Yes 3049 T1C07 T1C08 T1C09 T1C10 T1C11 T1D - Authorized and prohibited transmissions T1D01 29 What may result when correspondence from the FCC is returned as undeliverable because the grantee failed to provide the correct mailing address? A. Fine or imprisonment B. Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license C. Require the licensee to be re-examined D. A reduction of one rank in operator class 30 What is the normal term for an FCC-issued primary station/operator license grant? A. Five years B. Life C. Ten years D. Twenty years 31 What is the grace period following the expiration of an amateur license within which the license may be renewed? A. Two years B. Three years C. Five years D. Ten years 32 How soon may you operate a transmitter on an amateur service frequency after you pass the examination required for your first amateur radio license? B 3052 3053 Yes 3054 3055 3056 C 3059 3060 3061 Yes 3062 3063 A 3066 Yes 3067 3068 3069 3070 C 3073 A. Immediately B. 30 days after the test date C. As soon as your name and call sign appear in the FCC's ULS database D. You must wait until you receive your license in the mail from the FCC 33 If your license has expired and is still within the allowable A grace period, may you continue to operate a transmitter on amateur service frequencies? 3074 3075 Yes 3076 3077 3080 A. No, transmitting is not allowed until the ULS database shows that the license has been renewed B. Yes, but only if you identify using the suffix "GP" C. Yes, but only during authorized nets D. Yes, for up to two years 34 With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur stations A prohibited from exchanging communications? Yes A. Any country whose administration has notified the ITU that it objects to such communications B. Any country whose administration has notified the United Nations that it objects to such communications Yes 3081 3082 3083 3084 3088 3089 3090 C. Any country engaged in hostilities with another country 3091 D. Any country in violation of the War Powers Act of 1934 3092 T1D02 35 On which of the following occasions may an FCC-licensed A amateur station exchange messages with a U.S. military station? A. During an Armed Forces Day Communications Test 3095 Yes 3096 T1D03 B. During a Memorial Day Celebration C. During an Independence Day celebration D. During a propagation test 36 When is the transmission of codes or ciphers allowed to hide the meaning of a message transmitted by an amateur station? A. Only during contests B. Only when operating mobile Pages: 4 of 39 3097 3098 3099 C 3102 3103 3104 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T1D04 T1D05 C. Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or radio control craft D. Only when frequencies above 1280 MHz are used 37 What is the only time an amateur station is authorized to A transmit music? A. When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications B. When the music produces no spurious emissions C. When the purpose is to interfere with an illegal transmission D. When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz 38 When may amateur radio operators use their stations to A notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade? A. When the equipment is normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not conducted on a regular basis B. When the asking price is $100.00 or less C. When the asking price is less than its appraised value Yes 3105 3106 3109 Yes 3110 3111 3112 3113 3116 Yes 3117 3118 3119 T1D06 D. When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee or the control operator or their close relatives 39 Which of the following types of transmissions are A prohibited? A. Transmissions that contain obscene or indecent words or language B. Transmissions to establish one-way communications 3120 3123 Yes 3124 3125 T1D07 C. Transmissions to establish model aircraft control D. Transmissions for third party communications 40 When is an amateur station authorized to automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations? 3126 3127 B 3130 T1D08 A. When the signals are from an auxiliary, beacon, or Earth station B. When the signals are from an auxiliary, repeater, or space station C. When the signals are from a beacon, repeater, or space station D. When the signals are from an Earth, repeater, or space station 41 When may the control operator of an amateur station B receive compensation for operating the station? 3131 Yes 3132 3133 3134 3137 T1D09 A. When engaging in communications on behalf of their employer B. When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution C. When re-broadcasting weather alerts during a RACES net D. When notifying other amateur operators of the availability for sale or trade of apparatus 42 Under which of the following circumstances are amateur A stations authorized to transmit signals related to broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available? A. Only where such communications directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property 3138 Yes 3139 3140 3141 3144 Yes 3145 T1D10 T1D11 B. Only when broadcasting communications to or from the space shuttle. C. Only where noncommercial programming is gathered and supplied exclusively to the National Public Radio network D. Only when using amateur repeaters linked to the Internet 43 What is the meaning of the term broadcasting in the FCC D rules for the amateur services? A. Two-way transmissions by amateur stations B. Transmission of music C. Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators D. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public 44 Which of the following types of communications are A permitted in the Amateur Radio Service? A. Brief transmissions to make station adjustments Pages: 5 of 39 3146 3147 3148 3151 3152 3153 3154 Yes 3155 3158 Yes 3159 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T1E - Control operator and control types; control operator required, eligibility, designation of control operator, privileges and duties, control point, local, automatic and remote control, location of control operator T1E01 B. Retransmission of entertainment programming from a commercial radio or TV station C. Retransmission of entertainment material from a public radio or TV station D. Communications on a regular basis that could reasonably be furnished alternatively through other radio services 45 When must an amateur station have a control operator? A 3160 3161 3162 3166 A. Only when the station is transmitting B. Only when the station is being locally controlled C. Only when the station is being remotely controlled Yes 3167 3168 3169 D. Only when the station is being automatically controlled 3170 T1E02 T1E03 T1E04 T1E05 46 Who is eligible to be the control operator of an amateur D station? A. Only a person holding an amateur service license from any country that belongs to the United Nations B. Only a citizen of the United States C. Only a person over the age of 18 D. Only a person for whom an amateur operator/primary station license grant appears in the FCC database or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation 47 Who must designate the station control operator? A A. The station licensee B. The FCC C. The frequency coordinator D. The ITU 48 What determines the transmitting privileges of an D amateur station? A. The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator B. The class of operator license held by the station licensee C. The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises D. The class of operator license held by the control operator 49 What is an amateur station control point? C A. The location of the station's transmitting antenna B. The location of the station transmitting apparatus 3173 3174 3175 3176 Yes 3177 3180 Yes 3181 3182 3183 3184 3187 3188 3189 3190 Yes 3191 3194 3195 3196 T1E06 T1E07 C. The location at which the control operator function is performed D. The mailing address of the station licensee 50 Under which of the following types of control is it B permissible for the control operator to be at a location other than the control point? A. Local control B. Automatic control C. Remote control D. Indirect control 51 When the control operator is not the station licensee, D who is responsible for the proper operation of the station? A. All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation Yes 3197 3198 3201 3202 Yes 3203 3204 3205 3208 3209 T1E08 B. Only the station licensee C. Only the control operator D. The control operator and the station licensee are equally responsible 52 What type of control is being used for a repeater when the control operator is not present at a control point? 3210 3211 Yes 3212 C 3215 T1E09 A. Local control B. Remote control C. Automatic control D. Unattended 53 What type of control is being used when transmitting using a handheld radio? Pages: 6 of 39 3216 3217 Yes 3218 3219 D 3222 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T1E10 T1E11 T1F - Station identification and operation standards; special operations for repeaters and auxiliary stations, third party communications, club stations, station security, FCC inspection T1F01 A. Radio control B. Unattended control C. Automatic control D. Local control 54 What type of control is used when the control operator is B not at the station location but can indirectly manipulate the operating adjustments of a station? A. Local B. Remote C. Automatic D. Unattended 55 Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of D an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records? A. The station custodian B. The third party participant C. The person operating the station equipment D. The station licensee 56 What type of identification is being used when identifying A a station on the air as 'Race Headquarters'? 3223 3224 3225 Yes 3226 3229 3230 Yes 3231 3232 3233 3236 3237 3238 3239 Yes 3240 3244 T1F02 A. Tactical call B. Self-assigned designator C. SSID D. Broadcast station 57 When using tactical identifiers, how often must your station transmit the station's FCC-assigned call sign? Yes 3245 3246 3247 3248 C 3251 T1F03 T1F04 T1F05 T1F06 T1F07 58 59 60 61 62 A. Never, the tactical call is sufficient B. Once during every hour C. Every ten minutes D. At the end of every communication When is an amateur station required to transmit its assigned call sign? A. At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter B. At least once during each transmission C. At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a contact D. At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a contact Which of the following is an acceptable language for use for station identification when operating in a phone subband? A. Any language recognized by the United Nations B. Any language recognized by the ITU C. The English language D. English, French, or Spanish What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals? A. Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT B. Send the call sign using CW or phone emission C. Send the call sign followed by the indicator R D. Send the call sign using only phone emission Which of the following formats of a self-assigned indicator is acceptable when identifying using a phone transmission? A. KL7CC stroke W3 B. KL7CC slant W3 C. KL7CC slash W3 D. All of these choices are correct Which of the following restrictions apply when appending a self-assigned call sign indicator? A. It must be more than three letters and less than five letters B. It must be less than five letters C. It must start with the letters AA through AL, K, N, or W and be not less than two characters or more than five characters in length Pages: 7 of 39 3252 3253 Yes 3254 3255 D 3258 3259 3260 3261 Yes 3262 C 3265 3266 3267 Yes 3268 3269 B 3272 3273 Yes 3274 3275 3276 D 3279 3280 3281 3282 Yes 3283 D 3286 3287 3288 3289 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T1F08 T1F09 T1F10 D. It must not conflict with any other indicator specified by the FCC rules or with any call sign prefix assigned to another country 63 When may a Technician Class licensee be the control A operator of a station operating in an exclusive Extra Class operator segment of the amateur bands? Yes A. Never B. On Armed Forces Day C. As part of a multi-operator contest team D. When using a club station whose trustee is an Extra Class operator licensee 64 What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits C the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels? A. Beacon station B. Earth station C. Repeater station D. Message forwarding station 65 Who is accountable should a repeater inadvertently A retransmit communications that violate the FCC rules? Yes 3290 3293 3294 3295 3296 3297 3300 3301 3302 Yes 3303 3304 3307 A. The control operator of the originating station B. The control operator of the repeater C. The owner of the repeater D. Both the originating station and the repeater owner Yes 3308 3309 3310 3311 T1F11 T1F12 66 To which foreign stations do the FCC rules authorize the A transmission of non-emergency third party communications? A. Any station whose government permits such communications B. Those in ITU Region 2 only C. Those in ITU Regions 2 and 3 only D. Those in ITU Region 3 only 67 How many persons are required to be members of a club B for a club station license to be issued by the FCC? 3314 Yes 3315 3316 3317 3318 3321 T1F13 SUBELEMENT T2 - Operating T2A - Station operation; choosing an T2A01 Procedures [3 Exam operating frequency, calling another Questions - 3 Groups] station, test transmissions, use of minimum power, frequency use, band plans T2A02 T2A03 T2A04 A. At least 5 B. At least 4 C. A trustee and 2 officers D. At least 2 68 When must the station licensee make the station and its B records available for FCC inspection? A. Any time upon request by an official observer B. Any time upon request by an FCC representative C. 30 days prior to renewal of the station license D. 10 days before the first transmission 69 What is the most common repeater frequency offset in B the 2 meter band? 3322 Yes 3323 3324 3325 3328 3329 Yes 3330 3331 3332 3337 A. plus 500 kHz B. plus or minus 600 kHz C. minus 500 kHz D. Only plus 600 kHz 70 What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex D operations in the 70 cm band? A. 146.520 MHz B. 145.000 MHz C. 432.100 MHz D. 446.000 MHz 71 What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm A band? A. Plus or minus 5 MHz B. Plus or minus 600 kHz C. Minus 600 kHz D. Plus 600 kHz 72 What is an appropriate way to call another station on a B repeater if you know the other station's call sign? 3338 Yes 3339 3340 3341 3344 3345 3346 3347 Yes 3348 3351 Yes 3352 3353 3354 3355 3358 A. Say "break, break" then say the station's call sign B. Say the station's call sign then identify with your call sign Pages: 8 of 39 3359 Yes 3360 Technician Exam Questions and Answers C. Say "CQ" three times then the other station's call sign 3361 T2A05 D. Wait for the station to call "CQ" then answer it 73 What should you transmit when responding to a call of CQ? A. CQ followed by the other station's call sign B. Your call sign followed by the other station's call sign 3362 C 3365 3366 3367 C. The other station's call sign followed by your call sign Yes 3368 T2A06 D. A signal report followed by your call sign 74 What must an amateur operator do when making on-air A transmissions to test equipment or antennas? A. Properly identify the transmitting station B. Make test transmissions only after 10:00 p.m. local time C. Notify the FCC of the test transmission D. State the purpose of the test during the test procedure 3369 3372 Yes 3373 3374 3375 3376 T2A07 T2A08 T2A09 75 Which of the following is true when making a test D transmission? A. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 15 seconds B. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 1 watt C. Station identification is required only if your station can be heard D. Station identification is required at least every ten minutes during the test and at the end 76 What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"? D A. Call on the quarter hour B. A new antenna is being tested (no station should answer) C. Only the called station should transmit D. Calling any station 77 What brief statement is often used in place of "CQ" to B indicate that you are listening on a repeater? A. Say "Hello test" followed by your call sign B. Say your call sign C. Say the repeater call sign followed by your call sign 3379 3380 3381 3382 Yes 3383 3386 3387 3388 3389 Yes 3390 3393 3394 Yes 3395 3396 T2A10 T2A11 D. Say the letters "QSY" followed by your call sign 78 What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by A the FCC? A. A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band B. A mandated list of operating schedules C. A list of scheduled net frequencies D. A plan devised by a club to use a frequency band during a contest 79 What are the FCC rules regarding power levels used in the D amateur bands? A. Always use the maximum power allowed to ensure that you complete the contact B. An amateur may use no more than 200 watts PEP to make an amateur contact C. An amateur may use up to 1500 watts PEP on any amateur frequency D. An amateur must use the minimum transmitter power necessary to carry out the desired communication 3397 3400 Yes 3401 3402 3403 3404 3407 3408 3409 3410 Yes 3411 T2B VHF/UHF operating practices; SSB phone, FM repeater, simplex, frequency offsets, splits and shifts, CTCSS, DTMF, tone squelch, carrier squelch, phonetics T2B01 80 What is the term used to describe an amateur station C that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency? 3415 T2B02 A. Full duplex communication B. Diplex communication C. Simplex communication D. Half duplex communication 81 What is the term used to describe the use of a subD audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver? A. Carrier squelch B. Tone burst C. DTMF D. CTCSS Pages: 9 of 39 3416 3417 Yes 3418 3419 3422 3423 3424 3425 Yes 3426 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T2B03 T2B04 82 Which of the following describes the muting of receiver B audio controlled solely by the presence or absence of an RF signal? A. Tone squelch B. Carrier squelch C. CTCSS D. Modulated carrier 83 Which of the following common problems might cause D you to be able to hear but not access a repeater even when transmitting with the proper offset? 3429 3430 Yes 3431 3432 3433 3436 A. The repeater receiver requires audio tone burst for access B. The repeater receiver requires a CTCSS tone for access 3437 3438 T2B05 T2B06 T2B07 T2B08 T2B09 84 85 86 87 88 C. The repeater receiver may require a DCS tone sequence for access D. All of these choices are correct What determines the amount of deviation of an FM C signal? A. Both the frequency and amplitude of the modulating signal B. The frequency of the modulating signal C. The amplitude of the modulating signal D. The relative phase of the modulating signal and the carrier What happens when the deviation of an FM transmitter is A increased? A. Its signal occupies more bandwidth B. Its output power increases C. Its output power and bandwidth increases D. Asymmetric modulation occurs What should you do if you receive a report that your D station's transmissions are causing splatter or interference on nearby frequencies? A. Increase transmit power B. Change mode of transmission C. Report the interference to the equipment manufacturer D. Check your transmitter for off-frequency operation or spurious emissions What is the proper course of action if your station's B transmission unintentionally interferes with another station? A. Rotate your antenna slightly B. Properly identify your transmission and move to a different frequency C. Increase power D. Change antenna polarization Which of the following methods is encouraged by the FCC A when identifying your station when using phone? 3439 Yes 3440 3443 3444 3445 Yes 3446 3447 3450 Yes 3451 3452 3453 3454 3457 3458 3459 3460 Yes 3461 3464 3465 Yes 3466 3467 3468 3471 A. Use of a phonetic alphabet B. Send your call sign in CW as well as voice C. Repeat your call sign three times D. Increase your signal to full power when identifying Yes 3472 3473 3474 3475 T2B10 T2B11 T2C Public service; emergency and T2C01 non-emergency operations, message traffic handling 89 What is the "Q" signal used to indicate that you are A receiving interference from other stations? A. QRM B. QRN C. QTH D. QSB 90 What is the "Q" signal used to indicate that you are B changing frequency? A. QRU B. QSY C. QSL D. QRZ 91 What set of rules applies to proper operation of your C station when using amateur radio at the request of public service officials? A. RACES Rules B. ARES Rules C. FCC Rules D. FEMA Rules Pages: 10 of 39 3478 Yes 3479 3480 3481 3482 3485 3486 Yes 3487 3488 3489 3493 3494 3495 Yes 3496 3497 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T2C04 T2C05 92 What do RACES and ARES have in common? D A. They represent the two largest ham clubs in the United States B. Both organizations broadcast road and weather traffic information C. Neither may handle emergency traffic supporting public service agencies D. Both organizations may provide communications during emergencies 93 What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service? B A. An emergency radio service organized by amateur operators B. A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications 3514 3515 3516 3517 Yes 3518 3521 3522 Yes 3523 T2C06 T2C07 T2C08 T2C09 T2C10 94 95 96 97 98 C. A radio service organized to provide communications at civic events D. A radio service organized by amateur operators to assist non-military persons Which of the following is common practice during net operations to get the immediate attention of the net control station when reporting an emergency? A. Repeat the words SOS three times followed by the call sign of the reporting station B. Press the push-to-talk button three times C. Begin your transmission with "Priority" or "Emergency" followed by your call sign D. Play a pre-recorded emergency alert tone followed by your call sign What should you do to minimize disruptions to an emergency traffic net once you have checked in? A. Whenever the net frequency is quiet, announce your call sign and location B. Move 5 kHz away from the net's frequency and use high power to ask other hams to keep clear of the net frequency C. Do not transmit on the net frequency until asked to do so by the net control station D. Wait until the net frequency is quiet, then ask for any emergency traffic for your area What is usually considered to be the most important job of an amateur operator when handling emergency traffic messages? A. Passing messages exactly as written, spoken or as received B. Estimating the number of people affected by the disaster C. Communicating messages to the news media for broadcast outside the disaster area D. Broadcasting emergency information to the general public When may an amateur station use any means of radio communications at its disposal for essential communications in connection with immediate safety of human life and protection of property? A. Only when FEMA authorizes it by declaring an emergency B. When normal communications systems are not available C. Only when RACES authorizes it by declaring an emergency D. Only when authorized by the local MARS program director What is the preamble in a formal traffic message? A. The first paragraph of the message text B. The message number C. The priority handling indicator for the message D. The information needed to track the message as it passes through the amateur radio traffic handling system 3524 3525 C 3528 3529 3530 Yes 3531 3532 C 3535 3536 3537 Yes 3538 3539 A 3542 Yes 3543 3544 3545 3546 B 3549 3550 Yes 3551 3552 3553 D 3556 3557 3558 3559 Yes 3560 T2C11 99 What is meant by the term "check" in reference to a formal traffic message? A. The check is a count of the number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message B. The check is the value of a money order attached to the message C. The check is a list of stations that have relayed the message D. The check is a box on the message form that tells you the message was received Pages: 11 of 39 A 3563 Yes 3564 3565 3566 3567 Technician Exam Questions and Answers SUBELEMENT T3 Radio wave characteristics, radio and electromagnetic properties, propagation modes [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups] T3A - Radio wave characteristics; how a radio signal travels; distinctions of HF, VHF and UHF; fading, multipath; wavelength vs. penetration; antenna orientation T3A01 100 What should you do if another operator reports that your D station's 2 meter signals were strong just a moment ago, but now they are weak or distorted? 3572 A. Change the batteries in your radio to a different type 3573 B. Turn on the CTCSS tone C. Ask the other operator to adjust his squelch control 3574 3575 T3A02 D. Try moving a few feet, as random reflections may be causing multi-path distortion 101 Why are UHF signals often more effective from inside buildings than VHF signals? A. VHF signals lose power faster over distance B. The shorter wavelength allows them to more easily penetrate the structure of buildings C. This is incorrect; VHF works better than UHF inside buildings D. UHF antennas are more efficient than VHF antennas Yes 3576 B 3579 3580 Yes 3581 3582 3583 T3A03 T3A04 T3A05 102 What antenna polarization is normally used for longC distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands? A. Right-hand circular B. Left-hand circular C. Horizontal D. Vertical 103 What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a B VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization? A. The modulation sidebands might become inverted B. Signals could be significantly weaker C. Signals have an echo effect on voices D. Nothing significant will happen 104 When using a directional antenna, how might your B station be able to access a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path? A. Change from vertical to horizontal polarization B. Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater 3586 3587 3588 Yes 3589 3590 3593 3594 Yes 3595 3596 3597 3600 3601 Yes 3602 T3A06 T3A07 T3A08 C. Try the long path D. Increase the antenna SWR 105 What term is commonly used to describe the rapid B fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting? A. Flip-flopping B. Picket fencing C. Frequency shifting D. Pulsing 106 What type of wave carries radio signals between A transmitting and receiving stations? A. Electromagnetic B. Electrostatic C. Surface acoustic D. Magnetostrictive 107 What is the cause of irregular fading of signals from C distant stations during times of generally good reception? 3603 3604 3607 3608 Yes 3609 3610 3611 3614 Yes 3615 3616 3617 3618 3621 A. Absorption of signals by the "D" layer of the ionosphere B. Absorption of signals by the "E" layer of the ionosphere 3622 3623 T3A09 C. Random combining of signals arriving via different path lengths D. Intermodulation distortion in the local receiver 108 Which of the following is a common effect of "skip" B reflections between the Earth and the ionosphere? A. The sidebands become reversed at each reflection B. The polarization of the original signal is randomized Yes 3624 3625 3628 3629 Yes 3630 C. The apparent frequency of the received signal is shifted by a random amount D. Signals at frequencies above 30 MHz become stronger with each reflection Pages: 12 of 39 3631 3632 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T3A10 T3A11 T3B01 T3B - Radio and electromagnetic wave properties; the electromagnetic spectrum, wavelength vs. frequency, velocity of electromagnetic waves T3B02 109 What may occur if VHF or UHF data signals propagate D over multiple paths? A. Transmission rates can be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed B. Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed C. No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitting using FM D. Error rates are likely to increase 110 Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of C radio signals around the world? A. The stratosphere B. The troposphere C. The ionosphere D. The magnetosphere 111 What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels C during one complete cycle? 3635 3636 3637 3638 Yes 3639 3642 3643 3644 Yes 3645 3646 3650 A. Wave speed B. Waveform C. Wavelength D. Wave spread 112 What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current reverses direction? 3651 3652 Yes 3653 3654 D 3657 T3B03 T3B04 A. Pulse rate B. Speed C. Wavelength D. Frequency 113 What are the two components of a radio wave? A. AC and DC B. Voltage and current C. Electric and magnetic fields D. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation 114 How fast does a radio wave travel through free space? 3658 3659 3660 Yes C 3661 3664 3665 3666 Yes 3667 3668 A 3671 A. At the speed of light B. At the speed of sound C. Its speed is inversely proportional to its wavelength Yes 3672 3673 3674 T3B05 D. Its speed increases as the frequency increases 115 How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its B frequency? A. The wavelength gets longer as the frequency increases 3675 3678 3679 T3B06 T3B07 T3B08 T3B09 116 117 118 119 B. The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases C. There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency D. The wavelength depends on the bandwidth of the signal What is the formula for converting frequency to wavelength in meters? A. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300 B. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300 C. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300 D. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands? A. The approximate wavelength B. The magnetic intensity of waves C. The time it takes for waves to travel one mile D. The voltage standing wave ratio of waves What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum? A. 30 to 300 kHz B. 30 to 300 MHz C. 300 to 3000 kHz D. 300 to 3000 MHz What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum? A. 30 to 300 kHz Pages: 13 of 39 Yes 3680 3681 3682 D 3685 3686 3687 3688 Yes 3689 A 3692 Yes 3693 3694 3695 3696 B 3699 3700 Yes 3701 3702 3703 D 3706 3707 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T3B10 T3B11 T3C - Propagation modes; line of T3C01 sight, sporadic E, meteor, aurora scatter, tropospheric ducting, F layer skip, radio horizon B. 30 to 300 MHz C. 300 to 3000 kHz D. 300 to 3000 MHz 120 What frequency range is referred to as HF? A. 300 to 3000 MHz B. 30 to 300 MHz C. 3 to 30 MHz D. 300 to 3000 kHz 121 What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space? A. 3000 kilometers per second B. 300,000,000 meters per second C. 300,000 miles per hour D. 186,000 miles per hour 122 Why are "direct" (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely heard from stations outside your local coverage area? 3708 3709 Yes C 3710 3713 3714 3715 Yes 3716 3717 B 3720 3721 Yes 3722 3723 3724 C 3728 A. They are too weak to go very far B. FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles C. UHF signals are usually not reflected by the ionosphere 3729 3730 Yes 3731 D. They collide with trees and shrubbery and fade out 3732 T3C02 123 Which of the following might be happening when VHF signals are being received from long distances? A. Signals are being reflected from outer space B. Signals are arriving by sub-surface ducting C. Signals are being reflected by lightning storms in your area D. Signals are being refracted from a sporadic E layer D 124 What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection? A. Signals from distances of 10,000 or more miles are common B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted C. These types of signals occur only during winter nighttime hours D. These types of signals are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed to the south (for stations in the Northern Hemisphere) 125 Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-thehorizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands? A. Backscatter B. Sporadic E C. D layer absorption D. Gray-line propagation 126 What is meant by the term "knife-edge" propagation? B 3735 3736 3737 3738 Yes 3739 T3C03 T3C04 T3C05 3742 3743 Yes 3744 3745 3746 B 3749 3750 Yes 3751 3752 3753 C 3756 T3C06 T3C07 T3C08 A. Signals are reflected back toward the originating station at acute angles B. Signals are sliced into several discrete beams and arrive via different paths C. Signals are partially refracted around solid objects exhibiting sharp edges D. Signals propagated close to the band edge exhibiting a sharp cutoff 127 What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon A VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis? A. Tropospheric scatter B. D layer refraction C. F2 layer refraction D. Faraday rotation 128 What band is best suited to communicating via meteor B scatter? A. 10 meters B. 6 meters C. 2 meters D. 70 cm 129 What causes "tropospheric ducting"? D A. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms Pages: 14 of 39 3757 3758 Yes 3759 3760 3763 Yes 3764 3765 3766 3767 3770 3771 Yes 3772 3773 3774 3777 3778 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T3C09 T3C10 B. Sunspots and solar flares C. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere 130 What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 A meter band propagation? A. During daylight hours B. During nighttime hours C. When there are coronal mass ejections D. Whenever the solar flux is low 131 What is the radio horizon? A A. The distance at which radio signals between two points are effectively blocked by the curvature of the Earth 3779 3780 Yes 3781 3784 Yes 3785 3786 3787 3788 3791 Yes 3792 T3C11 SUBELEMENT T4 - Amateur radio practices and station set up [2 Exam Questions - 2 Groups] T4A Station setup; microphone, speaker, headphones, filters, power source, connecting a computer, RF grounding T4A01 B. The distance from the ground to a horizontally mounted antenna C. The farthest point you can see when standing at the base of your antenna tower D. The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's surface 132 Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel C somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance between two stations? A. Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light B. Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles C. The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light D. Radio waves are blocked by dust particles 133 Which of the following is true concerning the microphone B connectors on amateur transceivers? 3793 3794 3795 3798 3799 3800 Yes 3801 3802 3807 T4A02 T4A03 T4A04 T4A05 T4A06 134 135 136 137 138 A. All transceivers use the same microphone connector type B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for powering the microphone C. All transceivers using the same connector type are wired identically D. Un-keyed connectors allow any microphone to be connected What could be used in place of a regular speaker to help you copy signals in a noisy area? A. A video display B. A low pass filter C. A set of headphones D. A boom microphone Which is a good reason to use a regulated power supply for communications equipment? A. It prevents voltage fluctuations from reaching sensitive circuits B. A regulated power supply has FCC approval C. A fuse or circuit breaker regulates the power D. Power consumption is independent of load Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions? A. Between the transmitter and the antenna B. Between the receiver and the transmitter C. At the station power supply D. At the microphone What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload from a nearby 2 meter transmitter? A. Low-pass filter B. High-pass filter C. Band-pass filter D. Band-reject filter Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio station? 3808 Yes 3809 3810 3811 C 3814 3815 3816 Yes 3817 3818 A 3821 Yes 3822 3823 3824 3825 A 3828 Yes 3829 3830 3831 3832 D 3835 3836 3837 3838 Yes 3839 C 3842 T4A07 A. Transmatch B. Mixer C. Terminal node controller D. Antenna 139 How is the computer's sound card used when conducting C digital communications using a computer? 3843 3844 Yes 3845 3846 3849 Pages: 15 of 39 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T4A08 A. The sound card communicates between the computer CPU and the video display B. The sound card records the audio frequency for video display C. The sound card provides audio to the microphone input and converts received audio to digital form D. All of these choices are correct 140 Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding? D 3850 3851 Yes 3852 3853 3856 T4A09 T4A10 T4A11 T4B - Operating controls; tuning, use T4B01 of filters, squelch, AGC, repeater offset, memory channels T4B02 T4B03 T4B04 T4B05 T4B06 141 142 143 144 A. Round stranded wire B. Round copper-clad steel wire C. Twisted-pair cable D. Flat strap Which would you use to reduce RF current flowing on the shield of an audio cable? A. Band-pass filter B. Low-pass filter C. Preamplifier D. Ferrite choke What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver's receive audio? A. The ignition system B. The alternator C. The electric fuel pump D. Anti-lock braking system controllers Where should a mobile transceiver's power negative connection be made? A. At the battery or engine block ground strap B. At the antenna mount C. To any metal part of the vehicle D. Through the transceiver's mounting bracket What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high? 3857 3858 3859 Yes 3860 D 3863 3864 3865 3866 Yes 3867 B 3870 3871 Yes 3872 3873 3874 A 3877 Yes 3878 3879 3880 3881 B 3885 145 146 147 148 149 A. The output power might be too high B. The output signal might become distorted C. The frequency might vary D. The SWR might increase Which of the following can be used to enter the operating A frequency on a modern transceiver? A. The keypad or VFO knob B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder C. The Automatic Frequency Control D. All of these choices are correct What is the purpose of the squelch control on a D transceiver? A. To set the highest level of volume desired B. To set the transmitter power level C. To adjust the automatic gain control D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite B frequency on your transceiver? A. Enable the CTCSS tones B. Store the frequency in a memory channel C. Disable the CTCSS tones D. Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency Which of the following would reduce ignition interference C to a receiver? A. Change frequency slightly B. Decrease the squelch setting C. Turn on the noise blanker D. Use the RIT control Which of the following controls could be used if the voice D pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or low? 3886 Yes 3887 3888 3889 3892 Yes 3893 3894 3895 3896 3899 3900 3901 3902 Yes 3903 3906 3907 Yes 3908 3909 3910 3913 3914 3915 Yes 3916 3917 3920 T4B07 A. The AGC or limiter B. The bandwidth selection C. The tone squelch D. The receiver RIT or clarifier 150 What does the term "RIT" mean? A. Receiver Input Tone B. Receiver Incremental Tuning Pages: 16 of 39 3921 3922 Yes 3923 3924 B 3927 Yes 3928 3929 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T4B08 T4B09 T4B10 T4B11 SUBELEMENT T5 Electrical principles, math for electronics, electronic principles, Ohm�s Law [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups] T5A - Electrical principles; current and voltage, conductors and insulators, alternating and direct current T5A01 151 152 153 154 155 C. Rectifier Inverter Test D. Remote Input Transmitter What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver? A. Permits monitoring several modes at once B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter to select in order to minimize noise and interference for SSB reception? A. 500 Hz B. 1000 Hz C. 2400 Hz D. 5000 Hz Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter to select in order to minimize noise and interference for CW reception? A. 500 Hz B. 1000 Hz C. 2400 Hz D. 5000 Hz Which of the following describes the common meaning of the term 'repeater offset'? A. The distance between the repeater's transmit and receive antennas B. The time delay before the repeater timer resets C. The difference between the repeater's transmit and receive frequencies D. The maximum frequency deviation permitted on the repeater's input signal Electrical current is measured in which of the following units? 3930 3931 B 3934 3935 Yes 3936 3937 3938 C 3941 3942 3943 Yes 3944 3945 A 3948 Yes 3949 3950 3951 3952 C 3955 3956 3957 Yes 3958 3959 D 3964 T5A02 T5A03 T5A04 T5A05 T5A06 156 157 158 159 160 A. Volts B. Watts C. Ohms D. Amperes Electrical power is measured in which of the following units? A. Volts B. Watts C. Ohms D. Amperes What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit? A. Voltage B. Resistance C. Capacitance D. Current What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction? A. Alternating current B. Direct current C. Normal current D. Smooth current What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow? A. Voltage B. Ampere-hours C. Capacitance D. Inductance How much voltage does a mobile transceiver usually require? A. About 12 volts B. About 30 volts C. About 120 volts D. About 240 volts Pages: 17 of 39 3965 3966 3967 Yes 3968 B 3971 3972 Yes 3973 3974 3975 D 3978 3979 3980 3981 Yes 3982 B 3985 3986 Yes 3987 3988 3989 A 3992 Yes 3993 3994 3995 3996 A Yes 3999 4000 4001 4002 4003 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T5A07 161 Which of the following is a good electrical conductor? T5A08 A. Glass B. Wood C. Copper D. Rubber 162 Which of the following is a good electrical insulator? C 4006 4007 4008 Yes 4009 4010 B 4013 T5A09 T5A10 T5A11 T5B - Math for electronics; decibels, T5B01 electrical units and the metric system 163 164 165 166 A. Copper B. Glass C. Aluminum D. Mercury What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis? A. Alternating current B. Direct current C. Circular current D. Vertical current Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used? A. Resistance B. Current C. Power D. Voltage What is the basic unit of electromotive force? A. The volt B. The watt C. The ampere D. The ohm How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes? 4014 Yes 4015 4016 4017 A 4020 Yes 4021 4022 4023 4024 C 4026 4027 4028 Yes 4029 4030 A 4033 Yes 4034 4035 4036 4037 C 4041 T5B02 T5B03 T5B04 T5B05 167 168 169 170 A. 15 milliamperes B. 150 milliamperes C. 1,500 milliamperes D. 15,000 milliamperes What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of A 1,500,000 hertz? A. 1500 kHz B. 1500 MHz C. 15 GHz D. 150 kHz How many volts are equal to one kilovolt? C A. One one-thousandth of a volt B. One hundred volts C. One thousand volts D. One million volts How many volts are equal to one microvolt? A A. One one-millionth of a volt B. One million volts C. One thousand kilovolts D. One one-thousandth of a volt Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts? B 4042 4043 Yes 4044 4045 4048 Yes 4049 4050 4051 4052 4055 4056 4057 Yes 4058 4059 4062 Yes 4063 4064 4065 4066 4069 T5B06 A. 0.02 watts B. 0.5 watts C. 5 watts D. 50 watts 171 If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a C 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show? 4070 Yes 4071 4072 4073 4076 T5B07 A. 0.003 amperes B. 0.3 amperes C. 3 amperes D. 3,000,000 amperes 172 If a frequency readout calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz? A. 0.003525 kHz B. 35.25 kHz C. 3525 kHz D. 3,525,000 kHz Pages: 18 of 39 4077 4078 Yes 4079 4080 C 4083 4084 4085 Yes 4086 4087 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T5B08 T5B09 T5B10 T5B11 T5C01 T5C - Electronic principles; capacitance, inductance, current flow in circuits, alternating current, definition of RF, power calculations T5C02 T5C03 T5C04 T5C05 T5C06 T5C07 T5C08 173 How many microfarads are 1,000,000 picofarads? A. 0.001 microfarads B. 1 microfarad C. 1000 microfarads D. 1,000,000,000 microfarads 174 What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts? A. 2 dB B. 3 dB C. 5 dB D. 10 dB 175 What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts? A. 1 dB B. 3 dB C. 6 dB D. 9 dB 176 What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts? A. 10 dB B. 12 dB C. 18 dB D. 28 dB 177 What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called? B 4090 4091 Yes 4092 4093 4094 B 4097 4098 Yes 4099 4100 4101 C 4104 4105 4106 Yes 4107 4108 A 4111 Yes 4112 4113 4114 4115 D 4119 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 A. Inductance B. Resistance C. Tolerance D. Capacitance What is the basic unit of capacitance? A. The farad B. The ohm C. The volt D. The henry What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called? A. Admittance B. Capacitance C. Resistance D. Inductance What is the basic unit of inductance? A. The coulomb B. The farad C. The henry D. The ohm What is the unit of frequency? A. Hertz B. Henry C. Farad D. Tesla What is the abbreviation that refers to radio frequency signals of all types? A. AF B. HF C. RF D. VHF What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that travel through space? A. Gravity waves B. Sound waves C. Radio waves D. Pressure waves What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit? A. Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I) 4120 4121 4122 Yes A 4123 4126 Yes 4127 4128 4129 4130 D 4133 4134 4135 4136 Yes C 4137 4140 4141 4142 Yes 4143 4144 A 4147 Yes 4148 4149 4150 4151 C 4154 4155 4156 Yes 4157 4158 C 4161 4162 4163 Yes 4164 4165 A 4168 Yes 4169 B. Power (P) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I) Pages: 19 of 39 4170 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T5C09 T5C10 T5C11 C. Power (P) equals voltage (E) minus current (I) D. Power (P) equals voltage (E) plus current (I) 185 How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is 10 amperes? A. 138 watts B. 0.7 watts C. 23.8 watts D. 3.8 watts 186 How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes? A. 4.8 watts B. 30 watts C. 14.5 watts D. 0.208 watts 187 How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120 watts? 4171 4172 A 4175 Yes 4176 4177 4178 4179 B 4182 4183 Yes 4184 4185 4186 B 4189 T5D Ohm's Law T5D01 A. 0.1 amperes B. 10 amperes C. 12 amperes D. 132 amperes 188 What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit? 4190 Yes 4191 4192 4193 B 4197 A. Current (I) equals voltage (E) multiplied by resistance (R) B. Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R) 4198 Yes 4199 C. Current (I) equals voltage (E) added to resistance (R) 4200 T5D02 D. Current (I) equals voltage (E) minus resistance (R) 189 What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit? 4201 A 4204 A. Voltage (E) equals current (I) multiplied by resistance (R) B. Voltage (E) equals current (I) divided by resistance (R) Yes 4205 4206 C. Voltage (E) equals current (I) added to resistance (R) 4207 T5D03 D. Voltage (E) equals current (I) minus resistance (R) 190 What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit? B 4208 4211 A. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I) B. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I) 4212 Yes 4213 C. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) added to current (I) 4214 T5D04 D. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) minus current (I) 191 What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 B amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts? 4215 4218 T5D05 A. 3 ohms B. 30 ohms C. 93 ohms D. 270 ohms 192 What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes? 4219 Yes 4220 4221 4222 C 4225 T5D06 T5D07 A. 18 ohms B. 0.125 ohms C. 8 ohms D. 13.5 ohms 193 What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source? A. 3 ohms B. 16 ohms C. 48 ohms D. 8 Ohms 194 What is the current flow in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms? A. 9600 amperes B. 200 amperes C. 0.667 amperes D. 1.5 amperes Pages: 20 of 39 4226 4227 Yes 4228 4229 A 4232 Yes 4233 4234 4235 4236 D 4239 4240 4241 4242 Yes 4243 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T5D08 T5D09 T5D10 T5D11 T5D12 SUBELEMENT T6 Electrical components, semiconductors, circuit diagrams, component functions [4 Exam Questions 4 Groups] T6A - Electrical components; fixed and variable resistors, capacitors, and inductors; fuses, switches, batteries T6A01 195 What is the current flowing through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts? A. 20,000 amperes B. 0.5 amperes C. 2 amperes D. 100 amperes 196 What is the current flowing through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts? A. 24,000 amperes B. 0.1 amperes C. 10 amperes D. 216 amperes 197 What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it? A. 1 volt B. 0.25 volts C. 2.5 volts D. 1.5 volts 198 What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it? A. 1 volt B. 10 volts C. 11 volts D. 9 volts 199 What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it? A. 8 volts B. 0.2 volts C. 12 volts D. 20 volts 200 What electrical component is used to oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit? C 4246 4247 4248 Yes 4249 4250 C 4253 4254 4255 Yes 4256 4257 A 4260 Yes 4261 4262 4263 4264 B 4267 4268 Yes 4269 4270 4271 D 4274 4275 4276 4277 Yes 4278 B 4283 T6A02 T6A03 T6A04 T6A05 201 202 203 204 A. Inductor B. Resistor C. Voltmeter D. Transformer What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control? A. Fixed resistor B. Power resistor C. Potentiometer D. Transformer What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer? A. Inductance B. Resistance C. Capacitance D. Field strength What electrical component stores energy in an electric field? A. Resistor B. Capacitor C. Inductor D. Diode What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator? 4284 Yes 4285 4286 4287 C 4290 4291 4292 Yes 4293 4294 B 4297 4298 Yes 4299 4300 4301 B 4304 4305 Yes 4306 4307 4308 D 4311 T6A06 T6A07 A. Resistor B. Potentiometer C. Oscillator D. Capacitor 205 What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field? A. Resistor B. Capacitor C. Inductor D. Diode 206 What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire? Pages: 21 of 39 4312 4313 4314 Yes 4315 C 4318 4319 4320 Yes 4321 4322 D 4325 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T6A08 T6A09 T6A10 T6A11 T6B Semiconductors; basic principles T6B01 of diodes and transistors 207 208 209 210 211 A. Switch B. Capacitor C. Diode D. Inductor What electrical component is used to connect or disconnect electrical circuits? A. Zener Diode B. Switch C. Inductor D. Variable resistor What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads? A. Fuse B. Capacitor C. Shield D. Inductor What is the nominal voltage of a fully charged nickelcadmium cell? A. 1.0 volts B. 1.2 volts C. 1.5 volts D. 2.2 volts Which battery type is not rechargeable? A. Nickel-cadmium B. Carbon-zinc C. Lead-acid D. Lithium-ion What class of electronic components is capable of using a voltage or current signal to control current flow? 4326 4327 4328 Yes 4329 B 4332 4333 Yes 4334 4335 4336 A 4339 Yes 4340 4341 4342 4343 B 4346 4347 Yes 4348 4349 4350 B 4353 4354 Yes 4355 4356 4357 D 4361 T6B02 T6B03 T6B04 T6B05 T6B06 T6B07 T6B08 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 A. Capacitors B. Inductors C. Resistors D. Transistors What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction? A. Resistor B. Fuse C. Diode D. Driven Element Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch or amplifier? A. Oscillator B. Potentiometer C. Transistor D. Voltmeter Which of these components is made of three layers of semiconductor material? A. Alternator B. Bipolar junction transistor C. Triode D. Pentagrid converter Which of the following electronic components can amplify signals? A. Transistor B. Variable resistor C. Electrolytic capacitor D. Multi-cell battery How is a semiconductor diode's cathode lead usually identified? A. With the word "cathode" B. With a stripe C. With the letter "C" D. All of these choices are correct What does the abbreviation "LED" stand for? A. Low Emission Diode B. Light Emitting Diode C. Liquid Emission Detector D. Long Echo Delay What does the abbreviation "FET" stand for? A. Field Effect Transistor B. Fast Electron Transistor Pages: 22 of 39 4362 4363 4364 Yes 4365 C 4368 4369 4370 Yes 4371 4372 C 4375 4376 4377 Yes 4378 4379 B 4382 4383 Yes 4384 4385 4386 A 4389 Yes 4390 4391 4392 4393 B 4396 4397 Yes 4398 4399 4400 B 4403 4404 Yes 4405 4406 4407 A 4410 Yes 4411 4412 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T6B09 C. Free Electron Transition D. Field Emission Thickness 219 What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode? 4413 4414 C 4417 T6B10 T6B11 A. Plus and minus B. Source and drain C. Anode and cathode D. Gate and base 220 Which semiconductor component has an emitter electrode? A. Bipolar transistor B. Field effect transistor C. Silicon diode D. Bridge rectifier 221 Which semiconductor component has a gate electrode? 4418 4419 Yes 4420 4421 A 4424 Yes 4425 4426 4427 4428 B 4431 T6B12 T6C - Circuit diagrams; schematic symbols T6C01 T6C02 T6C03 T6C04 T6C05 T6C06 T6C07 T6C08 T6C09 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 A. Bipolar transistor B. Field effect transistor C. Silicon diode D. Bridge rectifier What is the term that describes a transistor's ability to amplify a signal? A. Gain B. Forward resistance C. Forward voltage drop D. On resistance What is the name for standardized representations of components in an electrical wiring diagram? A. Electrical depictions B. Grey sketch C. Schematic symbols D. Component callouts What is component 1 in figure T1? A. Resistor B. Transistor C. Battery D. Connector What is component 2 in figure T1? A. Resistor B. Transistor C. Indicator lamp D. Connector What is component 3 in figure T1? A. Resistor B. Transistor C. Lamp D. Ground symbol What is component 4 in figure T1? A. Resistor B. Transistor C. Battery D. Ground symbol What is component 6 in figure T2? A. Resistor B. Capacitor C. Regulator IC D. Transistor What is component 8 in figure T2? A. Resistor B. Inductor C. Regulator IC D. Light emitting diode What is component 9 in figure T2? A. Variable capacitor B. Variable inductor C. Variable resistor D. Variable transformer What is component 4 in figure T2? A. Variable inductor B. Double-pole switch C. Potentiometer Pages: 23 of 39 4432 Yes 4433 4434 4435 A 4438 Yes 4439 4440 4441 4442 C 4446 4447 4448 Yes 4449 4450 A 4453 Yes 4454 4455 4456 4457 B 4460 4461 Yes 4462 4463 4464 C 4467 4468 4469 Yes 4470 4471 C 4474 4475 4476 Yes 4477 4478 B 4481 4482 Yes 4483 4484 4485 D 4488 4489 4490 4491 Yes C 4492 4495 4496 4497 Yes 4498 4499 D 4502 4503 4504 4505 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T6C10 T6C11 T6C12 T6C13 T6D - Component functions T6D01 D. Transformer 232 What is component 3 in figure T3? A. Connector B. Meter C. Variable capacitor D. Variable inductor 233 What is component 4 in figure T3? A. Antenna B. Transmitter C. Dummy load D. Ground 234 What do the symbols on an electrical circuit schematic diagram represent? A. Electrical components B. Logic states C. Digital codes D. Traffic nodes 235 Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical circuit schematic diagrams? A. Wire lengths B. Physical appearance of components C. The way components are interconnected D. All of these choices are correct 236 Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal? Yes D 4506 4509 4510 4511 4512 Yes A 4513 4516 Yes 4517 4518 4519 4520 A 4523 Yes 4524 4525 4526 4527 C 4530 4531 4532 Yes 4533 4534 B 4538 T6D02 T6D03 A. Transformer B. Rectifier C. Amplifier D. Reflector 237 What best describes a relay? A A. A switch controlled by an electromagnet B. A current controlled amplifier C. An optical sensor D. A pass transistor 238 What type of switch is represented by item 3 in figure T2? A 4539 Yes 4540 4541 4542 4545 Yes 4546 4547 4548 4549 4552 T6D04 T6D05 T6D06 A. Single-pole single-throw B. Single-pole double-throw C. Double-pole single-throw D. Double-pole double-throw 239 Which of the following can be used to display signal C strength on a numeric scale? A. Potentiometer B. Transistor C. Meter D. Relay 240 What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from A a power supply? A. Regulator B. Oscillator C. Filter D. Phase inverter 241 What component is commonly used to change 120V AC B house current to a lower AC voltage for other uses? Yes 4553 4554 4555 4556 4559 4560 4561 Yes 4562 4563 4566 Yes 4567 4568 4569 4570 4573 T6D07 T6D08 A. Variable capacitor B. Transformer C. Transistor D. Diode 242 Which of the following is commonly used as a visual A indicator? A. LED B. FET C. Zener diode D. Bipolar transistor 243 Which of the following is used together with an inductor D to make a tuned circuit? A. Resistor B. Zener diode C. Potentiometer D. Capacitor Pages: 24 of 39 4574 Yes 4575 4576 4577 4580 Yes 4581 4582 4583 4584 4587 4588 4589 4590 Yes 4591 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T6D09 T6D11 244 What is the name of a device that combines several C semiconductors and other components into one package? A. Transducer B. Multi-pole relay C. Integrated circuit D. Transformer 245 What is the function of component 2 in Figure T1? C A. Give off light when current flows through it B. Supply electrical energy C. Control the flow of current D. Convert electrical energy into radio waves 246 Which of the following is a common use of coaxial cable? B T7A01 A. Carry dc power from a vehicle battery to a mobile radio B. Carry RF signals between a radio and antenna C. Secure masts, tubing, and other cylindrical objects on towers D. Connect data signals from a TNC to a computer 247 What is the function of a product detector? T6D10 4594 4595 4596 Yes 4597 4598 4601 4602 4603 Yes 4604 4605 4608 SUBELEMENT T7 Station T7A - Station radios; receivers, equipment; common transmitters, transceivers transmitter and receiver problems, antenna measurements and troubleshooting, basic repair and testing [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups] 4609 Yes 4610 4611 4612 C 4617 T7A02 T7A03 T7A04 T7A05 T7A06 248 249 250 251 252 A. Detect phase modulated signals B. Demodulate FM signals C. Detect CW and SSB signals D. Combine speech and RF signals What type of receiver is shown in Figure T6? A. Direct conversion B. Super-regenerative C. Single-conversion superheterodyne D. Dual-conversion superheterodyne What is the function of a mixer in a superheterodyne receiver? A. To reject signals outside of the desired passband B. To combine signals from several stations together C. To shift the incoming signal to an intermediate frequency D. To connect the receiver with an auxiliary device, such as a TNC What circuit is pictured in Figure T7, if block 1 is a frequency discriminator? A. A double-conversion receiver B. A regenerative receiver C. A superheterodyne receiver D. An FM receiver What is the function of block 1 if figure T4 is a simple CW transmitter? A. Reactance modulator B. Product detector C. Low-pass filter D. Oscillator What device takes the output of a low-powered 28 MHz SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output signal? 4618 4619 Yes 4620 4621 C 4624 4625 4626 Yes 4627 4628 C 4631 4632 4633 Yes 4634 4635 D 4638 4639 4640 4641 Yes 4642 D 4645 4646 4647 4648 Yes 4649 C 4652 T7A07 T7A08 A. High-pass filter B. Low-pass filter C. Transverter D. Phase converter 253 If figure T5 represents a transceiver in which block 1 is B the transmitter portion and block 3 is the receiver portion, what is the function of block 2? A. A balanced modulator B. A transmit-receive switch C. A power amplifier D. A high-pass filter 254 Which of the following circuits combines a speech signal C and an RF carrier? A. Beat frequency oscillator Pages: 25 of 39 4653 4654 Yes 4655 4656 4659 4660 Yes 4661 4662 4663 4666 4667 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T7A09 T7A10 T7A11 B. Discriminator C. Modulator D. Noise blanker 255 Which of the following devices is most useful for VHF B weak-signal communication? A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna B. A multi-mode VHF transceiver C. An omni-directional antenna D. A mobile VHF FM transceiver 256 What device increases the low-power output from a B handheld transceiver? A. A voltage divider B. An RF power amplifier C. An impedance network D. A voltage regulator 257 Which of the following circuits demodulates FM signals? B 4668 Yes 4669 4670 4673 4674 Yes 4675 4676 4677 4680 4681 Yes 4682 4683 4684 4687 T7A12 T7A13 T7B Common transmitter and receiver problems; symptoms of overload and overdrive, distortion, interference, over and under modulation, RF feedback, off frequency signals; fading and noise; problems with digital communications interfaces T7B01 A. Limiter B. Discriminator C. Product detector D. Phase inverter 258 Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals? A. Tuning rate B. Sensitivity C. Selectivity D. Noise floor 259 Where is an RF preamplifier installed? A. Between the antenna and receiver B. At the output of the transmitter's power amplifier C. Between a transmitter and antenna tuner D. At the receiver's audio output 260 What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over deviating? 4688 Yes 4689 4690 4691 C 4694 4695 4696 Yes 4697 4698 A 4701 Yes 4702 4703 4704 4705 D 4709 T7B02 A. Talk louder into the microphone B. Let the transceiver cool off C. Change to a higher power level D. Talk farther away from the microphone 261 What is meant by fundamental overload in reference to a C receiver? A. Too much voltage from the power supply B. Too much current from the power supply C. Interference caused by very strong signals D. Interference caused by turning the volume up too high 4710 4711 4712 Yes 4713 4716 4717 4718 Yes 4719 4720 T7B03 T7B04 T7B05 T7B06 262 Which of the following may be a cause of radio frequency interference? A. Fundamental overload B. Harmonics C. Spurious emissions D. All of these choices are correct 263 What is the most likely cause of interference to a noncordless telephone from a nearby transmitter? A. Harmonics from the transmitter B. The telephone is inadvertently acting as a radio receiver C. Poor station grounding D. Improper transmitter adjustment 264 What is a logical first step when attempting to cure a radio frequency interference problem in a nearby telephone? A. Install a low-pass filter at the transmitter B. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter C. Install an RF filter at the telephone D. Improve station grounding 265 What should you do first if someone tells you that your station's transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception? Pages: 26 of 39 D 4723 4724 4725 4726 Yes 4727 B 4730 4731 Yes 4732 4733 4734 C 4737 4738 4739 Yes 4740 4741 A 4744 Technician Exam Questions and Answers A. Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own television Yes 4745 T7B07 T7B08 T7B09 T7B10 T7B11 266 267 268 269 270 B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance C. Tell them that your license gives you the right to transmit and nothing can be done to reduce the interference D. Continue operating normally because your equipment cannot possibly cause any interference Which of the following may be useful in correcting a radio frequency interference problem? A. Snap-on ferrite chokes B. Low-pass and high-pass filters C. Band-reject and band-pass filters D. All of these choices are correct What should you do if a "Part 15" device in your neighbor's home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station? A. Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device B. Politely inform your neighbor about the rules that require him to stop using the device if it causes interference C. Check your station and make sure it meets the standards of good amateur practice D. All of these choices are correct What could be happening if another operator reports a variable high-pitched whine on the audio from your mobile transmitter? A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an open window B. You have the volume on your receiver set too high C. You need to adjust your squelch control D. Noise on the vehicle's electrical system is being transmitted along with your speech audio What might be the problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or unintelligible? A. Your transmitter may be slightly off frequency B. Your batteries may be running low C. You could be in a bad location D. All of these choices are correct What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver? A. Excessive SWR at the antenna connection B. The transmitter will not stay on the desired frequency 4746 4747 4748 D 4751 4752 4753 4754 Yes 4755 D 4758 4759 4760 4761 Yes 4762 D 4765 4766 4767 4768 Yes 4769 D 4772 4773 4774 4775 Yes 4776 C 4779 4780 4781 T7B12 T7C Antenna measurements and T7C01 troubleshooting; measuring SWR, dummy loads, feedline failure modes C. Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible transmissions D. Frequent blowing of power supply fuses 271 What does the acronym "BER" mean when applied to digital communications systems? A. Baud Enhancement Recovery B. Baud Error Removal C. Bit Error Rate D. Bit Exponent Resource 272 What is the primary purpose of a dummy load? Yes 4782 4783 C 4786 4787 4788 Yes 4789 4790 A 4794 A. To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests Yes 4795 B. To prevent over-modulation of your transmitter C. To improve the radiation from your antenna D. To improve the signal to noise ratio of your receiver 4796 4797 4798 T7C02 T7C03 273 Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency? A. A VTVM B. An antenna analyzer C. A "Q" meter D. A frequency counter 274 What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)? B 4801 4802 Yes 4803 4804 4805 A 4808 Pages: 27 of 39 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T7C04 T7C05 T7C06 T7C07 T7C08 T7C09 T7C10 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 A. A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line B. The ratio of high to low impedance in a feedline C. The transmitter efficiency ratio D. An indication of the quality of your station's ground connection What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect C impedance match between the antenna and the feedline? A. 2 to 1 B. 1 to 3 C. 1 to 1 D. 10 to 1 What is the approximate SWR value above which the A protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power? A. 2 to 1 B. 1 to 2 C. 6 to 1 D. 10 to 1 What does an SWR reading of 4:1 mean? D A. An antenna loss of 4 dB B. A good impedance match C. An antenna gain of 4 D. An impedance mismatch What happens to power lost in a feedline? C A. It increases the SWR B. It comes back into your transmitter and could cause damage C. It is converted into heat D. It can cause distortion of your signal What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use D to determine if a feedline and antenna are properly matched? A. Voltmeter B. Ohmmeter C. Iambic pentameter D. Directional wattmeter Which of the following is the most common cause for A failure of coaxial cables? A. Moisture contamination B. Gamma rays C. The velocity factor exceeds 1.0 D. Overloading Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant D to ultraviolet light? A. Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation Yes 4809 4810 4811 4812 4815 4816 4817 Yes 4818 4819 Yes 4822 4823 4824 4825 4826 4829 4830 4831 4832 Yes 4833 4836 4837 4838 Yes 4839 4840 4843 4844 4845 4846 Yes 4847 4850 Yes 4851 4852 4853 4854 4857 4858 B. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable's jacket 4859 T7C11 T7D Basic repair and testing; soldering, use of a voltmeter, ammeter, and ohmmeter T7D01 C. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix together, causing interference D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable 282 What is a disadvantage of "air core" coaxial cable when C compared to foam or solid dielectric types? A. It has more loss per foot B. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas C. It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption D. It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures 283 Which instrument would you use to measure electric B potential or electromotive force? 4860 Yes 4861 4864 4865 4866 Yes 4867 4868 4872 T7D02 A. An ammeter B. A voltmeter C. A wavemeter D. An ohmmeter 284 What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit Pages: 28 of 39 4873 Yes 4874 4875 4876 B 4879 4880 Yes 4881 4882 4883 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T7D03 T7D04 285 How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit 286 Which instrument is used to measure electric current? A 4886 Yes 4887 4888 4889 4890 D 4893 T7D05 T7D06 A. An ohmmeter B. A wavemeter C. A voltmeter D. An ammeter 287 What instrument is used to measure resistance? A. An oscilloscope B. A spectrum analyzer C. A noise bridge D. An ohmmeter 288 Which of the following might damage a multimeter? A. Measuring a voltage too small for the chosen scale 4894 4895 4896 Yes D 4897 4900 4901 4902 4903 Yes C 4904 4907 4908 B. Leaving the meter in the milliamps position overnight 4909 T7D07 T7D08 T7D09 T7D10 T7D11 289 290 291 292 293 C. Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting D. Not allowing it to warm up properly Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter? A. SWR and RF power B. Signal strength and noise C. Impedance and reactance D. Voltage and resistance Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use? A. Acid-core solder B. Silver solder C. Rosin-core solder D. Aluminum solder What is the characteristic appearance of a "cold" solder joint? A. Dark black spots B. A bright or shiny surface C. A grainy or dull surface D. A greenish tint What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across a circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time? A. The ohmmeter is defective B. The circuit contains a large capacitor C. The circuit contains a large inductor D. The circuit is a relaxation oscillator Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter? Yes 4910 4911 D 4914 4915 4916 4917 Yes 4918 C 4921 4922 4923 Yes 4924 4925 C 4928 4929 4930 Yes 4931 4932 B 4935 4936 Yes 4937 4938 4939 B 4942 SUBELEMENT T8 Modulation T8A Modulation modes; bandwidth modes; amateur satellite of various signals operation, operating activities, non-voice communications [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups] T8A01 A. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct B. Ensure that the circuit is not powered C. Ensure that the circuit is grounded D. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency 294 Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation? 4943 Yes 4944 4945 4946 C 4951 T8A02 A. Spread-spectrum B. Packet radio C. Single sideband D. Phase shift keying 295 What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF A packet radio transmissions? A. FM B. SSB C. AM Pages: 29 of 39 4952 4953 Yes 4954 4955 4958 Yes 4959 4960 4961 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T8A03 T8A04 T8A05 T8A06 T8A07 T8A08 T8A09 T8A10 T8A11 T8B - Amateur satellite operation; T8B01 Doppler shift, basic orbits, operating protocols T8B02 D. Spread Spectrum 296 Which type of voice modulation is most often used for long-distance or weak signal contacts on the VHF and UHF bands? A. FM B. AM C. SSB D. PM 297 Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters? A. AM B. SSB C. PSK D. FM 298 Which of the following types of emission has the narrowest bandwidth? A. FM voice B. SSB voice C. CW D. Slow-scan TV 299 Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF and UHF single-sideband communications? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Suppressed sideband D. Inverted sideband 300 What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions? A. SSB signals are easier to tune B. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference C. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth D. All of these choices are correct 301 What is the approximate bandwidth of a single sideband voice signal? A. 1 kHz B. 3 kHz C. 6 kHz D. 15 kHz 302 What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM phone signal? A. Less than 500 Hz B. About 150 kHz C. Between 5 and 15 kHz D. Between 50 and 125 kHz 303 What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 cm band? A. More than 10 MHz B. About 6 MHz C. About 3 MHz D. About 1 MHz 304 What is the approximate maximum bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal? A. 2.4 kHz B. 150 Hz C. 1000 Hz D. 15 kHz 305 Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station? A. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator B. A General Class licensee or higher licensee who has a satellite operator certification C. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member D. Any amateur whose license privileges allow them to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency 306 How much transmitter power should be used on the uplink frequency of an amateur satellite or space station? 4962 C 4965 4966 4967 Yes 4968 4969 D 4972 4973 4974 4975 Yes 4976 C 4979 4980 4981 Yes 4982 4983 A 4986 Yes 4987 4988 4989 4990 C 4993 4994 4995 Yes 4996 4997 B 5000 5001 Yes 5002 5003 5004 C 5007 5008 5009 Yes 5010 5011 B 5014 5015 Yes 5016 5017 5018 B 5021 5022 Yes 5023 5024 5025 D 5029 5030 5031 5032 Yes 5033 B 5036 A. The maximum power of your transmitter B. The minimum amount of power needed to complete the contact C. No more than half the rating of your linear amplifier 5037 Yes 5038 5039 Pages: 30 of 39 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T8B03 D. Never more than 1 watt 307 Which of the following can be done using an amateur radio satellite? A. Talk to amateur radio operators in other countries 5040 A 5043 Yes 5044 T8B04 B. Get global positioning information C. Make telephone calls D. All of these choices are correct 308 Which amateur stations may make contact with an B amateur station on the International Space Station using 2 meter and 70 cm band amateur radio frequencies? 5045 5046 5047 5050 A. Only members of amateur radio clubs at NASA facilities 5051 B. Any amateur holding a Technician or higher class license C. Only the astronaut's family members who are hams Yes 5052 5053 T8B05 T8B06 T8B07 T8B08 309 310 311 312 D. You cannot talk to the ISS on amateur radio frequencies What is a satellite beacon? A. The primary transmit antenna on the satellite B. An indicator light that that shows where to point your antenna C. A reflective surface on the satellite D. A transmission from a space station that contains information about a satellite What can be used to determine the time period during which an amateur satellite or space station can be accessed? A. A GPS receiver B. A field strength meter C. A telescope D. A satellite tracking program With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift? A. A change in the satellite orbit B. A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another C. An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station D. A special digital communications mode for some satellites What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in "mode U/V"? A. The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band and the downlink is in the 10 meter band B. The satellite uplink is in the 70 cm band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band C. The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies 5054 D 5057 5058 5059 5060 Yes 5061 D 5064 5065 5066 5067 Yes 5068 C 5071 5072 5073 Yes 5074 5075 B 5078 5079 Yes 5080 5081 T8B09 D. The satellite frequencies are usually variable 313 What causes "spin fading" when referring to satellite B signals? A. Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the sun B. Rotation of the satellite and its antennas C. Doppler shift of the received signal D. Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band 5082 5085 5086 Yes 5087 5088 5089 T8B10 314 What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur C satellite? A. The satellite battery is in Low Energy Operation mode 5092 5093 T8B11 T8C01 B. The satellite is performing a Lunar Ejection Orbit maneuver C. The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit D. The satellite uses Light Emitting Optics 315 What is a commonly used method of sending signals to C and from a digital satellite? A. USB AFSK B. PSK31 C. FM Packet D. WSJT 316 Which of the following methods is used to locate sources C of noise interference or jamming? A. Echolocation Pages: 31 of 39 5094 Yes 5095 5096 5099 5100 5101 Yes 5102 5103 5107 5108 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T8C Operating activities; radio T8C02 direction finding, radio control, contests, special event stations, basic linking over Internet T8C03 T8C04 T8C05 T8C06 B. Doppler radar C. Radio direction finding D. Phase locking 317 Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt? 5109 Yes 5110 5111 B 5114 318 319 320 321 A. Calibrated SWR meter B. A directional antenna C. A calibrated noise bridge D. All of these choices are correct What popular operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period of time? A. Contesting B. Net operations C. Public service events D. Simulated emergency exercises Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a radio contest? A. Be sure to sign only the last two letters of your call if there is a pileup calling the station B. Work the station twice to be sure that you are in his log C. Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange D. All of these choices are correct What is a grid locator? A. A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location B. A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation C. An instrument for neutralizing a final amplifier D. An instrument for radio direction finding For what purpose is a temporary "1 by 1" format (letternumber-letter) call sign assigned? A. To designate an experimental station B. To honor a deceased relative who was a radio amateur 5115 Yes 5116 5117 5118 A 5121 Yes 5122 5123 5124 5125 C 5128 5129 5130 Yes 5131 5132 A 5135 Yes 5136 5137 5138 5139 C 5142 5143 5144 T8C07 C. For operations in conjunction with an activity of special significance to the amateur community D. All of these choices are correct 322 What is the maximum power allowed when transmitting B telecommand signals to radio controlled models? Yes 5145 5146 5149 T8C08 A. 500 milliwatts B. 1 watt C. 25 watts D. 1500 watts 323 What is required in place of on-air station identification C when sending signals to a radio control model using amateur frequencies? A. Voice identification must be transmitted every 10 minutes B. Morse code ID must be sent once per hour C. A label indicating the licensee's name, call sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter D. A flag must be affixed to the transmitter antenna with the station call sign in 1 inch high letters or larger 5150 Yes 5151 5152 5153 5156 5157 5158 Yes 5159 5160 T8C09 T8C10 T8C11 324 How might you obtain a list of active nodes that use VoIP? A. From the FCC Rulebook B. From your local emergency coordinator C. From a repeater directory D. From the local repeater frequency coordinator 325 How do you select a specific IRLP node when using a portable transceiver? A. Choose a specific CTCSS tone B. Choose the correct DSC tone C. Access the repeater autopatch D. Use the keypad to transmit the IRLP node ID 326 What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the Internet? C 5163 5164 5165 Yes 5166 5167 D 5170 5171 5172 5173 Yes 5174 A 5177 A. A gateway Pages: 32 of 39 Yes 5178 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T8D Non-voice communications; image data, digital modes, CW, packet, PSK31 T8D01 B. A repeater C. A digipeater D. A beacon 327 Which of the following is an example of a digital communications method? 5179 5180 5181 D 5185 T8D02 T8D03 A. Packet B. PSK31 C. MFSK D. All of these choices are correct 328 What does the term APRS mean? A. Automatic Position Reporting System B. Associated Public Radio Station C. Auto Planning Radio Set-up D. Advanced Polar Radio System 329 Which of the following is normally used when sending automatic location reports via amateur radio? 5186 5187 5188 Yes A 5189 5192 Yes 5193 5194 5195 5196 D 5199 A. A connection to the vehicle speedometer B. A WWV receiver C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver 5200 5201 5202 T8D04 D. A Global Positioning System receiver 330 What type of transmission is indicated by the term NTSC? C Yes 5203 5206 T8D05 A. A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit B. A special mode for earth satellite uplink C. An analog fast scan color TV signal D. A frame compression scheme for TV signals 331 Which of the following emission modes may be used by a B Technician Class operator between 219 and 220 MHz? 5207 5208 Yes 5209 5210 5213 T8D06 T8D07 A. Spread spectrum B. Data C. SSB voice D. Fast-scan television 332 What does the abbreviation PSK mean? B A. Pulse Shift Keying B. Phase Shift Keying C. Packet Short Keying D. Phased Slide Keying 333 What is PSK31? D A. A high-rate data transmission mode B. A method of reducing noise interference to FM signals 5214 Yes 5215 5216 5217 5220 5221 Yes 5222 5223 5224 5227 5228 5229 T8D08 T8D09 T8D10 T8D11 334 335 336 337 C. A method of compressing digital television signal D. A low-rate data transmission mode Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions? A. A check sum which permits error detection B. A header which contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent C. Automatic repeat request in case of error D. All of these choices are correct What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands? A. Baudot B. Hamming C. International Morse D. Gray Which of the following can be used to transmit CW in the amateur bands? A. Straight Key B. Electronic Keyer C. Computer Keyboard D. All of these choices are correct What is a "parity" bit? A. A control code required for automatic position reporting B. A timing bit used to ensure equal sharing of a frequency C. An extra code element used to detect errors in received data Pages: 33 of 39 5230 Yes 5231 D 5234 5235 5236 5237 Yes 5238 C 5241 5242 5243 Yes 5244 5245 D 5248 5249 5250 5251 Yes C 5252 5255 5256 5257 Yes 5258 Technician Exam Questions and Answers SUBELEMENT T9 Antennas, T9A Antennas; vertical and T9A01 feedlines - [2 Exam Questions horizontal, concept of gain, common - 2 Groups] portable and mobile antennas, relationships between antenna length and frequency D. A "triple width" bit used to signal the end of a character 338 What is a beam antenna? 5259 C 5264 A. An antenna built from aluminum I-beams B. An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction 5265 5266 Yes 5267 D. An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals 5268 T9A02 T9A03 T9A04 339 Which of the following is true regarding vertical antennas? A. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the Earth B. The electric field is perpendicular to the Earth C. The phase is inverted D. The phase is reversed 340 Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's surface? A. A ground wave antenna B. A horizontally polarized antenna C. A rhombic antenna D. A vertically polarized antenna 341 What is a disadvantage of the "rubber duck" antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers? B 5271 5272 Yes 5273 5274 5275 B 5278 5279 Yes 5280 5281 5282 A 5285 A. It does not transmit or receive as effectively as a fullsized antenna B. It transmits a circularly polarized signal C. If the rubber end cap is lost it will unravel very quickly Yes 5286 5287 5288 T9A05 D. All of these choices are correct 342 How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency? A. Lengthen it B. Insert coils in series with radiating wires C. Shorten it D. Add capacity hats to the ends of the radiating wires 5289 C 5292 5293 5294 Yes 5295 5296 T9A06 T9A07 T9A08 T9A09 T9A10 T9A11 343 What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish? A. Non-resonant antennas B. Loop antennas C. Directional antennas D. Isotropic antennas 344 What is a good reason not to use a "rubber duck" antenna inside your car? A. Signals can be significantly weaker than when it is outside of the vehicle B. It might cause your radio to overheat C. The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength D. All of these choices are correct 345 What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarterwavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz? A. 112 B. 50 C. 19 D. 12 346 What is the approximate length, in inches, of a 6 meter 1/2-wavelength wire dipole antenna? A. 6 B. 50 C. 112 D. 236 347 In which direction is the radiation strongest from a halfwave dipole antenna in free space? A. Equally in all directions B. Off the ends of the antenna C. Broadside to the antenna D. In the direction of the feedline 348 What is meant by the gain of an antenna? Pages: 34 of 39 C 5299 5300 5301 Yes 5302 5303 A 5306 Yes 5307 5308 5309 5310 C 5313 5314 5315 Yes 5316 5317 C 5320 5321 5322 Yes 5323 5324 C 5327 5328 5329 Yes 5330 5331 C 5334 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T9B01 T9B - Feedlines; types, losses vs. frequency, SWR concepts, matching weather protection, connectors T9B02 A. The additional power that is added to the transmitter power B. The additional power that is lost in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency C. The increase in signal strength in a specified direction when compared to a reference antenna D. The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna 349 Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feedline? A. To reduce television interference B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses C. To prolong antenna life D. All of these choices are correct 350 What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur radio installations? 5335 5336 Yes 5337 5338 B 5342 5343 Yes 5344 5345 5346 B 5349 T9B03 A. 8 ohms B. 50 ohms C. 600 ohms D. 12 ohms 351 Why is coaxial cable used more often than any other feedline for amateur radio antenna systems? A. It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations B. It has less loss than any other type of feedline C. It can handle more power than any other type of feedline D. It is less expensive than any other types of feedline 5350 Yes 5351 5352 5353 A 5356 Yes 5357 5358 5359 5360 T9B04 352 What does an antenna tuner do? A A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations 5363 Yes 5364 5365 T9B05 T9B06 T9B07 T9B08 T9B09 T9B10 353 354 355 356 357 358 C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used What generally happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased? A. The apparent SWR increases B. The reflected power increases C. The characteristic impedance increases D. The loss increases Which of the following connectors is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz? A. A UHF (PL-259/SO-239) connector B. A Type N connector C. An RS-213 connector D. A DB-23 connector Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors? A. They are good for UHF frequencies B. They are water tight C. The are commonly used at HF frequencies D. They are a bayonet type connector Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion? A. To prevent an increase in feedline loss B. To prevent interference to telephones C. To keep the jacket from becoming loose D. All of these choices are correct What might cause erratic changes in SWR readings? A. The transmitter is being modulated B. A loose connection in an antenna or a feedline C. The transmitter is being over-modulated D. Interference from other stations is distorting your signal What electrical difference exists between the smaller RG58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables? A. There is no significant difference between the two types B. RG-58 cable has less loss at a given frequency Pages: 35 of 39 5366 5367 D 5370 5371 5372 5373 Yes 5374 B 5377 5378 Yes 5379 5380 5381 C 5384 5385 5386 Yes 5387 5388 A 5391 Yes 5392 5393 5394 5395 B 5398 5399 Yes 5400 5401 5402 C 5405 5406 5407 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T9B11 SUBELEMENT T0 AC power circuits, antenna installation, RF hazards [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups] T0A AC power circuits; hazardous voltages, fuses and circuit breakers, grounding, lightning protection, battery safety, electrical code compliance T0A01 C. RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency D. RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels 359 Which of the following types of feedline has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF? A. 50-ohm flexible coax B. Multi-conductor unbalanced cable C. Air-insulated hard line D. 75-ohm flexible coax 360 Which is a commonly accepted value for the lowest voltage that can cause a dangerous electric shock? Yes 5408 5409 C 5412 5413 5414 Yes 5415 5416 B 5421 T0A02 T0A03 T0A04 A. 12 volts B. 30 volts C. 120 volts D. 300 volts 361 How does current flowing through the body cause a health hazard? A. By heating tissue B. It disrupts the electrical functions of cells C. It causes involuntary muscle contractions D. All of these choices are correct 362 What is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug? A. Neutral B. Hot C. Safety ground D. The white wire 363 What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit? 5422 Yes 5423 5424 5425 D 5428 5429 5430 5431 Yes 5432 C 5435 5436 5437 Yes 5438 5439 B 5442 T0A05 T0A06 A. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a circuit B. To interrupt power in case of overload C. To limit current to prevent shocks D. All of these choices are correct 364 Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse? A. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current B. The power supply ripple would greatly increase C. Excessive current could cause a fire D. All of these choices are correct 365 What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station? A. Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment B. Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground C. Use a circuit protected by a ground-fault interrupter 5443 Yes 5444 5445 5446 C 5449 5450 5451 Yes 5452 5453 D 5456 5457 5458 5459 T0A07 T0A08 T0A09 D. All of these choices are correct 366 Which of these precautions should be taken when D installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feedline? A. Include a parallel bypass switch for each protector so that it can be switched out of the circuit when running high power B. Include a series switch in the ground line of each protector to prevent RF overload from inadvertently damaging the protector C. Keep the ground wires from each protector separate and connected to station ground D. Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected to an external ground 367 What is one way to recharge a 12-volt lead-acid station C battery if the commercial power is out? A. Cool the battery in ice for several hours B. Add acid to the battery C. Connect the battery to a car's battery and run the engine D. All of these choices are correct 368 What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12- C volt storage battery? A. It emits ozone which can be harmful to the atmosphere Pages: 36 of 39 Yes 5460 5463 5464 5465 5466 Yes 5467 5470 5471 5472 Yes 5473 5474 5477 5478 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T0A10 T0A11 B. Shock hazard due to high voltage C. Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented D. All of these choices are correct 369 What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged A or discharged too quickly? A. The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas or explode B. The voltage can become reversed C. The 'memory effect' will reduce the capacity of the battery D. All of these choices are correct 370 Which of the following is good practice when installing C ground wires on a tower for lightning protection? 5479 Yes 5480 5481 5484 Yes 5485 5486 5487 5488 5491 T0A12 A. Put a loop in the ground connection to prevent water damage to the ground system B. Make sure that all bends in the ground wires are clean, right angle bends C. Ensure that connections are short and direct D. All of these choices are correct 371 What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it D is turned off and disconnected? A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system 5492 5493 Yes 5494 5495 5498 5499 T0A13 B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover D. You might receive an electric shock from stored charge in large capacitors 372 What safety equipment should always be included in A home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC power circuits? A. A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC "hot" conductor B. An AC voltmeter across the incoming power source 5500 5501 Yes 5502 5505 Yes 5506 5507 T0B Antenna installation; tower safety, overhead power lines T0B01 C. An inductor in series with the AC power source D. A capacitor across the AC power source 373 When should members of a tower work team wear a C hard hat and safety glasses? A. At all times except when climbing the tower B. At all times except when belted firmly to the tower C. At all times when any work is being done on the tower 5508 5509 5513 5514 5515 Yes 5516 T0B02 T0B03 T0B04 D. Only when the tower exceeds 30 feet in height 374 What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an C antenna tower? A. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist strap B. Remove all tower grounding connections C. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses D. All of the these choices are correct 375 Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower D without a helper or observer? A. When no electrical work is being performed B. When no mechanical work is being performed C. When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground D. Never 376 Which of the following is an important safety precaution C to observe when putting up an antenna tower? 5517 5520 5521 5522 Yes 5523 5524 5527 5528 5529 5530 Yes 5531 5534 A. Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all times B. Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes 5535 5536 C. Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires Yes 5537 T0B05 T0B06 D. All of these choices are correct 377 What is the purpose of a gin pole? C A. To temporarily replace guy wires B. To be used in place of a safety harness C. To lift tower sections or antennas D. To provide a temporary ground 378 What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to D allow when installing an antenna? A. Half the width of your property Pages: 37 of 39 5538 5541 5542 5543 Yes 5544 5545 5548 5549 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T0B07 T0B08 T0B09 B. The height of the power line above ground C. 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency D. So that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires 379 Which of the following is an important safety rule to C remember when using a crank-up tower? A. This type of tower must never be painted B. This type of tower must never be grounded C. This type of tower must never be climbed unless it is in the fully retracted position D. All of these choices are correct 380 What is considered to be a proper grounding method for C a tower? A. A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base B. A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground C. Separate eight-foot long ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other D. A connection between the tower base and a cold water pipe 381 Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility C pole? A. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages B. The utility company will charge you an extra monthly fee C. The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires 5550 5551 Yes 5552 5555 5556 5557 Yes 5558 5559 5562 5563 5564 Yes 5565 5566 5569 5570 5571 Yes 5572 T0B10 T0B11 D. All of these choices are correct 382 Which of the following is true concerning grounding C conductors used for lightning protection? A. Only non-insulated wire must be used B. Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends C. Sharp bends must be avoided D. Common grounds must be avoided 383 Which of the following establishes grounding B requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna? 5573 5576 5577 5578 Yes 5579 5580 5583 A. FCC Part 97 Rules B. Local electrical codes C. FAA tower lighting regulations D. Underwriters Laboratories' recommended practices 5584 Yes 5585 5586 5587 T0C - RF hazards; radiation exposure, T0C01 proximity to antennas, recognized safe power levels, exposure to others T0C02 T0C03 T0C04 T0C05 384 What type of radiation are VHF and UHF radio signals? D 5591 385 386 387 388 A. Gamma radiation B. Ionizing radiation C. Alpha radiation D. Non-ionizing radiation Which of the following frequencies has the lowest Maximum Permissible Exposure limit? A. 3.5 MHz B. 50 MHz C. 440 MHz D. 1296 MHz What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an RF exposure evaluation is required? A. 1500 watts PEP transmitter output B. 1 watt forward power C. 50 watts PEP at the antenna D. 50 watts PEP reflected power What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna? A. Frequency and power level of the RF field B. Distance from the antenna to a person C. Radiation pattern of the antenna D. All of these choices are correct Why do exposure limits vary with frequency? A. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields Pages: 38 of 39 5592 5593 5594 Yes 5595 B 5598 5599 Yes 5600 5601 5602 C 5605 5606 5607 Yes 5608 5609 D 5612 5613 5614 5615 Yes D 5616 5619 5620 Technician Exam Questions and Answers T0C06 T0C07 T0C08 T0C09 T0C10 389 390 391 392 393 B. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body C. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations? A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65 B. By calculation based on computer modeling C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment D. All of these choices are correct What could happen if a person accidentally touched your antenna while you were transmitting? A. Touching the antenna could cause television interference B. They might receive a painful RF burn C. They might develop radiation poisoning D. All of these choices are correct Which of the following actions might amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in excess of FCCsupplied limits? A. Relocate antennas B. Relocate the transmitter C. Increase the duty cycle D. All of these choices are correct How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations? A. By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station B. By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed C. By making sure your antennas have low SWR D. All of these choices are correct Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels? A. It affects the average exposure of people to radiation 5621 5622 Yes 5623 D 5626 5627 5628 5629 Yes 5630 B 5633 5634 Yes 5635 5636 5637 A 5640 Yes 5641 5642 5643 5644 B 5647 5648 Yes 5649 5650 5651 A 5654 Yes 5655 T0C11 B. It affects the peak exposure of people to radiation C. It takes into account the antenna feedline loss D. It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier 394 What is meant by "duty cycle" when referring to RF C exposure? A. The difference between lowest usable output and maximum rated output power of a transmitter B. The difference between PEP and average power of an SSB signal C. The ratio of on-air time to total operating time of a transmitted signal D. The amount of time the operator spends transmitting 5656 5657 5658 5661 5662 5663 Yes 5664 5665 Pages: 39 of 39
