Download WEATHER EXAM #5

WEATHER EXAM #5
1) At the top of the troposphere, there is a transition layer called the:
a) Tropopause*
b) Ozone layer
c) Atmospheric layer
d) Stratosphere
2) Which of the following is comprised of only flight hazards?
a) Clouds, humidity, precipitation
b) Clouds, hail, icing
c) Low ceilings, precipitation, humidity
d) Low ceilings, hail, icing*
3) The specific heat of water:
a) Is greater during the day
b) Is greater during the night
c) Remains constant day or night*
d) Is lower during the day
4) What are the four methods of heat transfer?
a) Advection, radiation, insolation, fusion
b) Insolation, conduction, fission, convection
c) Transmission, convection, fission, insolation
d) Convection, advection, radiation, conduction*
5) The process by which the Earth is warmed during the day and cooled at night is known as:
a) Conduction
b) Radiation*
c) Convection
d) Advection
6) The barometric pressure is the same at every point on which of the following?
a) An isotach
b) A cold front
c) An isobar*
d) An isotherm
7) A high density altitude will:
a) Shorten your takeoff and increase your rate of climb
b) Lengthen your takeoff and increase your rate of climb
c) Shorten your takeoff and reduce your rate of climb
d) Lengthen your takeoff and reduce your rate of climb*
8) A station is located at 2500 feet above mean sea level and is reporting a sea level pressure of 1045.0
millibars. What is the station pressure?
a) Unable to determine
b) 1130.0 mbs*
c) 1047.5
d) 960.0
9) If a pilot flies form NAS Pensacola to NAS Memphis in the example below, and air traffic control
assigns him an altitude of 1000 ft, what is his actual msl altitude over NAS Memphis if the pilot fails to
reset the altimeter enroute?
NAS Pensacola
ELEV 30 ft msl
Altimeter setting 30.00”Hg
NAS Memphis
ELEV 300 ft msl
Altimeter setting 30.20”Hg
a) 1200 ft msl*
b) 800 ft msl
c) 200 ft msl
d) 0 ft msl
10) Which of the following names the type of pressure pattern and correctly states the airflow at the equator
as a result of the tri-cellular theory?
a) Low pressure, convergence, convection*
b) Low pressure, subsidence, divergence
c) High pressure, subsidence, divergence
d) High pressure, convergence, convection
11) A gradient wind moves parallel to the isobars because it is affected by which of the following forces?
a) Gravity
b) Friction
c) Coriolis force*
d) Centrifugal
12) If the wind at 3000 ft is from the North and is the result of a high pressure system, what direction would
the surface wind be from?
a) Northwest*
b) Southwest
c) Southeast
d) Northeast
13) What overall direction do local winds blow during the day and night in areas where large bodies of
water and land meet?
a) From water to land both day and night
b) From land to water both day and night
c) From land to water during the day, and from water to land during the night
d) From water to land during the day, and from land to water during the night*
14) In the Northern Hemisphere, if a pilot has a tailwind:
a) Low pressure will be to his left*
b) High pressure will be to his left
c) Low pressure will be at a 30 degree angle to his right
d) High pressure will be at a 30 degree angle to his right
15) What is the meteorological term for the process by which a substance changes from a solid to a vapor?
a) Fusion
b) Sublimation*
c) Condensation
d) Crystallization
16) The procss by which a body of gas changes temperature without the addition or subtraction of heat is
called a(n):
a) Isobaric process
b) Isothermal process
c) Adiabatic process*
d) Constant density process
17) Which of the following parameters of an air mass are generally uniform in a horizontal plane?
a) Pressure and stability
b) Pressure and moisture
c) Temperature and pressure
d) Temperature and moisture*
18) Which one of the following would cause an air mass to be reclassified from maritime to continental?
a) Precipitation over land
b) Evaporation over water
c) Migration from a land surface to a water surface
d) All of the above*
19) Which one of the following air masses would most likely produce a thunderstorm?
a) mTw*
b) cPw
c) cTw
d) mTk
20) Which of the following indicate two of the five factors which influence frontal weather?
a) Slope and stability*
b) Slope and pressure
c) Stability and winds
d) Stability and density
21) A front extending to the Southeast from an area of low pressure would most likely be which type of
front?
a) Warm*
b) Cold
c) Stationary
d) Southeastern
22) If you are flying from east to west and encounter cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, and then nimbostratus,
you are most likely approaching which type of front?
a) Stationary
b) Cold front occlusion
c) Warm
d) All of the above
23) Which one of the following does not directly supply the lifting action for the formation of a squall line?
a) Orographic lifting
b) Frontal lifting*
c) Thermal lifting
d) Convergent lifting
24) A cold front occlusion will generally move to the:
a) Southeast
b) Northeast*
c) Southwest
d) Northwest
25) When a front becomes extensively modified by the area it moves into and gradually fades away, it is
termed:
a) Discontinuity
b) Frontogenesis
c) Sublimation
d) Frontolysis*
26) At what stage during the life cycle of a thunderstorm does precipitation begin?
a) Anvil
b) Mature*
c) Cumulus
d) Dissipating
27) Why do altimeter settings need to be monitored closely in the vicinity of a thunderstorm?
a) Indicated altitude might be in error due to pressure changes
b) Pressure will be lower in the vicinity of a thunderstorm
c) Pressure can rise abruptly with the first gust and the onset of precipitation
d) All of the above*
28) Which of the following represents the greatest thunderstorm hazards?
a) Icing and hail
b) Low visibility and low ceilings
c) Icing and turbulence
d) Hail and turbulence*
29) The atmospheric conditions necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm include a combination of
which of the following?
a) Stable air of relatively low moisture content and some type of lifting
b) Stable air of relatively high moisture content and some type of lifting
c) Unstable air of relatively low moisture content and subsidence
d) Unstable air of relatively high moisture content and some type of lifting*
30) Warm front thunderstorms present a significant hazard because warm front cumulonimbus clouds:
a) May be hidden by altocumulus an altostratus clouds*
b) Generally contain the largest amount of cloud to ground lightning
c) Have lower bases and lie closer to the Earth’s surface
d) Have much more turbulence that other types of thunderstorms
31) Which one of the following is correct concerning thunderstorm flight techniques?
a) Penetration of a thunderstorm should be at an altitude of 4000 to 6000 feet AGL*
b) When flying under a thunderstorm, select an altitude 2/3 the distance from the ground to the
cloud base
c) If penetration of a thunderstorm is necessary, it should be done in the upper 2/3 of the storm
d) All turbulence will be avoided by flying over the top of the thunderstorm
32) Which of the following will cause wind shear?
a) Land or sea breezes
b) Jet streams
c) Inversions
d) All of the above*
33) Which of the following would be correct if an aircraft encountered increasing performance wind shear?
a) Indicated airspeed increases*
b) Lift decrease
c) Aircraft performance decreases
d) None of the above
34) An example of decreasing performance wind shear would be flying from a calm wind to a:
a) 20 knot headwind
b) 10 knot headwind
c) Tailwind*
d) Headwind of greater than 20 knots
35) Mechanical turbulence can be caused by the flow of air over which of the following?
a) Irregular terrain
b) Buildings
c) Mountains
d) All of the above*
36) Which of the following will contribute to the severity of frontal turbulence?
a) Mixing and/or shearing between warm and cold air masses
b) Lifting of warm air by a cold frontal surface
c) Warm air being moist and unsafe
d) All of the above*
37) What conditions are necessary for the formation of ice on an aircraft?
a) Freezing temperatures and invisible moisture
b) Freezing temperatures and visible moisture*
c) Freezing temperatures and strong headwinds
d) Freezing temperatures and humidity above 75%
38) The most severe icing will occur between which of the following temperature ranges?
a) 0o and +10oC
b) 0o and –10oC*
c) 0o and –20oC
d) 0o and =20oC
39) Icing on an aircraft can affect which of the following aircraft instruments?
a) Vertical speed indicator
b) Altimeter
c) Airspeed indicator
d) All of the above*
40) Which of the following would be most correct if an aircraft tried to takeoff without removing frost?
a) The stall speed would increase*
b) There would be a significant weight increase
c) Aircraft drag would be unaffected
d) All of the above
41) Clear ice will generally be encountered when flying in _____ types of clouds.
a) Cumulus*
b) Fractostratus
c) Nimbostratus
d) Both b and c
42) Which one of the following is the best corrective action to take if freezing rain is encountered in the
vicinity of a warm front?
a) Continue on current flight path until out of icing conditions
b) Climb to warmer temperatures out of the freezing conditions*
c) Always descend, regardless of the minimum enroute altitude
d) All of the above
43) Engine failure due to icing conditions encountered in a jet-powered aircraft is generally a result of:
a) Carburetor icing
b) A rapid drop in exhaust gas temperature
c) A decrease in the fuel to air ratio
d) Induction icing*
44) Which of the following processes will result in the air becoming saturated?
a) Rising dew-point temperature*
b) Lowering humidity
c) Lowering dew-point temperature
d) Rising temperature
45) Radiation fog is common in areas characterized by:
a) Low wind speed, clear skies*
b) Low wind speed, cloudy skies
c) High wind speed, cloudy skies
d) High wind speed, clear skies
46) What type of fog results in the movement of warm moist air over a colder surface?
a) Radiation fog
b) Advection fog*
c) Upslope fog
d) Steam fog
47) Fog is a layer of condensed moisture which has a base at or below 50 feet above the surface.
a) True*
b) False
48) Which of the following conditions must be met in order for the formation of fog to occur?
a) Condensation nuclei present in the air
b) A high moisture content in the air
c) A small temperature dew-point spread
d) All of the above*