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Biomaterials
BIOL112
2012
Final Exam
Cochlear Implants
1. A patients who is indicated for a cochlear implant typically presents with loss of hearing
associated with damage to the
a. Tympanic membrane
b. Scala vestibuli
c. Ossicles of the middle ear
d. Hair cells of inner ear
2. The cochlear implant, Baha 3, relies on ________________and translates this energy through a
transducer in order to provide sound to the patient.
a. Vibrations conducted by bone
b. Vibrations of the tympanic membrane
c. Sound waves traveling through the ear canal
d. Electrical potentials of remaining stimulatory cells in the ear
Transdermal Drug Delivery-TDD (insulin)
3. Which of the following characteristics of skin present an obstacle when designing a
transdermal delivery device
a. Hydrophilic nature of the epithelial layer
b. Permissive properties of the stratum corneum
c. Small diffusion distance (epithelial cell layer thickness) between the device/drug
combination and blood stream
d. Lipophilic nature of skin epithelium
4. The TDD microneedle system
a. Provides an open-loop insulin delivery system only
b. Provides an open-loop glucose monitoring system only
c. Is only suitable for Type I diabetics
d. Is comprised of microneedles that penetrate into the vascular dermal region
of the skin
Smart Lens
5. Rabbit studies conducted with the Smart Lens have shown that
a. Levels of glucose in tears do not correlate with levels of glucose in blood
b. Levels of glucose in tears correlate with levels of glucose in blood
c. Basal levels of insulin in tears do not correlate with basal levels of insulin in blood
d. Basal levels of insulin in tears do not correlate with basal levels of insulin in blood
6. The material that comprises the lens portion of this device is fabricated from
a. Polyethylene terephthalate
b. Silicone-like hydrophilic hydrogel
c. Polymethyl methacrylate
d. Polyvinyl acetate hydrogel
Endobarrier
7. Absorption of molecules in the GI tract takes place
a. In the first third of the small intestine only
b. In all segments of the small intestine
c. In the first third of the large intestine only
d. Throughout the entire large intestine
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8. The impermeable liner in the Endobarrier device
a. Is designed to prevent the absorption of lipid molecules only
b. Is comprised of a strut-less collapsible tube composed of Dacron
c. Is comprised of a strutted collapsible tube composed of Teflon
d. Is only indicated for patients with a BMI of less than 30
Cell Sheet Engineering
9. Cell sheets for regenerative medicine-based therapies
a. Require trypsin for cell harvesting purposes
b. Require selective enzymatic processing for cell harvesting
c. Is a scaffold-free approach
d. Is a scaffold based approach
10. The cell culture surface is comprised of a polymer that
a. Becomes hydrophobic and cell adhesive at 37 degrees C
b. Becomes hydrophilic and cell adhesive at 37 degrees C
c. Becomes hydrophobic and cell adhesive below 32 degrees C
d. Becomes hydrophilic and cell adhesive below 32 degrees C
HepaMate Artificial Liver Device
11. The HepaMate system
a. Is an alternative to liver transplantation
b. Can be used as destination therapy
c. Is a bridge to transplant therapy
d. Is a preferred therapy for patients with chronic liver failure
12. The HepaMate system
a. Is a filtration system that is similar to dialysis and provides toxin filtration only
b. Is a system that is similar to ECMO and provides oxygenation for chronically failing
liver tissue only
c. Incorporates synthetic and biological systems for filtration and secretory
purposes
d. Provides a biological system that functions to filter large proteins from the plasma
Implantable Contraception
13. Norplant
a. Is comprised of 6 small drug-eluting capsules made of silastic
b. Is comprised of 6 small drug-eluting capsules made of ethylene vinyl acetate
c. Is comprised of 1 large drug-eluting capsule made of silastic
d. Is comprised of 1 large drug-eluting capsule made of ethylene vinyl acetate
14. Imlanon contains Levonorgestrel (LNG) and Etonogestrel that
a. Act as competitive binders to progesterone receptors thus effecting function
of endometrial cells in the uterus
b. Interfere with the ovaries abilities to make estrogen thus preventing egg formation
c. Lower FSH and LH levels thus preventing the LH surge mid-cycle and accompanying
ovulation
d. Lower progesterone levels in the plasma thus preventing egg formation in the
follicle
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Nano-Hemostat
15. Nano-hemostat
a. Is composed of intertwined proteins that form a fibrous network much like fibrin
b. Form 500-600nm pores when fully assembled
c. Is composed of repetitive sequences of specific amino acids that form a beta
sheet when assembled
d. Allow for clotting within the nanofibrous membrane thus preventing extensive
blood loss
16. The hemostatic abilities of Nano-hemostat relies on
a. Heat
b. Self-assembly properties of amino acids
c. Platelet activation
d. Pressure changes within the assembled mesh
Vertelift System
17. Vertelift is designed to
a. Treat vertebral compression fractures in the cervical vertebrae
b. Treat vertebral compression fractures in the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
c. Treat osteoporosis in the spinal vertebrae
d. Treat osteopenia in the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
18. The Vertelift device
a. Uses a thermo-responsive cement that is sequestered in a collagen matrix
b. Uses a stainless steel alloy cage to sequester photo-responsive glue
c. Uses a nitinol capture system to sequester thermo-responsive cement
d. Uses a nitinol capture system to sequester photo-responsive glue
SMSI Glucose Monitor
19. The SMSI system
a. Directly senses gluconic acid levels in the blood
b. Enzymatically cleaves glucose and measures gluconic acid levels
c. Enzymatically cleaves gluconic acid and senses electrical potentials generated by
H2O2
d. Enzymatically cleaves glucose and senses electrical potentials generated by
H2O2
20. A potential flaw of most implantable systems is
a. Thrombosis around the implant
b. Fouling of proteins on the implant surface
c. Reaction of C’ proteins on the implant surface
d. Cell necrosis around the implant surface
Islet sheet project
21. The pathophysiological response associated with Type I Diabetes is
a. Bacterial infection and death of islet cells
b. Tolerance of islet cell proteins and eventual cell death
c. Autoimmune responses directed against islets cells and eventual islet cell
death
d. Fibrosis of islet clusters and eventual islet cell death
22. The polymer used to encapsulate the islets in the islet sheet is
a. Zirconium
b. Chitosan
c. Alginate
d. Fibrin
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Novocure
23. The Novocure system
a. Uses induced electrical fields to kill non-dividing, chemoresistant tumor cells
b. Uses induced electrical fields to kill rapidly dividing chemoresistant tumor
cells
c. Uses induced electrical fields to stimulate immune cells from the bone marrow thus
activating an anti-tumor immune response
d. Uses induced electrical fields to stimulate resident macrophages in brain tissue thus
stimulating an anti-tumor immune response
24. The most common and most aggressive form of malignant primary brain tumors in humans
is
a. Neuroblastoma
b. Meningioma
c. Astrocytoma
d. Glioblastoma multiforme
Injectable Matrix
25. Soft tissue commercial fillers include all of the following except
a. Collagen
b. Polymethyl methacrylate
c. Cross-linked fibrin
d. Dextran
26. Tissuemend
a. Is an extracellular matrix (ECM) gel derived from adipose tissue
b. Is an ECM gel derived from human collagen
c. Is an ECM powder derived from adipose tissue
d. Is an ECM powder derived from human collagen
BrainGate
27. Patients who suffer from paralysis
a. Do not retain function of their central motor neurons
b. Can not benefit from BrainGate due to lack of motor neuron function
c. Usually retain function of motor neurons located within the brain
d. Usually retain function of motor neurons located within the PNS
28. BrainGate
a. Is an external device used to stimulate motor neurons in the brain and translate
these signals into external functions
b. Is an external device used to sense motor neuron activity in the brain and translate
these signals into external functions
c. Is an implantable device used to stimulate motor neurons in the brain and translate
these signals into external functions
d. Is an implantable device used to sense motor neuron activity in the brain and
translate these signals into external functions
CentraSight
29. Wet AMD
a. Comprises 95% of patients diagnosed with macula degeneration
b. Involves protein build up on the retina
c. Involves the abnormal growth of blood vessels on the retina
d. Is the slowly progressing form of macula degeneration
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30. CentraSight
a. Is an implant designed to slow the progression of macula degeneration
b. Is an implant designed to inhibit the growth of blood vessels on the retina
c. Is an implant designed to enhance sight generated from the remaining
healthy portion of the retina
d. Is an implant designed to enhance sight by electrically stimulating cells in
the macula
Zinc Oxide Nanoparticles
31. Hospital-acquired infections
a. Are caused primarily by pathogens brought into the hospital by visitors
b. Are significantly device-related
c. Are caused primarily by existing patient-related bacteria that colonize once the
patient is in the hospital environment
d. Are easily controlled by existing antibiotic regimens
32. Biofilms produced by pathogenic bacteria
a. Are susceptible to all antibiotic regimens
b. May be prevented from forming when in contact with zinc oxide
c. Only colonize on percutaneous devices
d. Are associated with less than 10% of hospital-acquired infections
Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)
33. DBS
a. May be used on patients that have not been responsive to standard therapies such
as L-Dopa
b. Permanently alters the brain chemistry in Parkinson’s patients resulting in a
decrease in tremors and improvement in gait
c. Stimulates localized neuronal clusters and results in a decrease in tremors
and an improvement in overall movement
d. Is a permanent implant that must remain in stimulatory mode throughout the life of
the patient.
34. Implantation of DBS may be associated with
a. An increase in tremors in Parkinson’s patients
b. Infection at the percutaneous hub
c. Fracture of the skull plate
d.
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