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NCHSE Review Body Structure….2 Emerging diseases…62 Biomedical therapies…82 Medical Math…103 Charts and clocks…124 Circulatory…165 Digestive…207 Endocrine…248 Integumentary…288 Lymph…329 Endocrine…350 Muscle…392 Nervous…433 Reproductive…475 Respiratory…526 Skeletal…565 Special Senses…606 Urinary…645 Legal…676 Ethics…741 Safety…792 Teamwork…896 Health Maintenance…847 Technical Skills…998 Information Technology…1074 1 Body Organization • Which of the following is a type of muscle tissue? – – – – Smooth Squamous Osseous Carotid 2 Body Organization • Which of the following is a type of muscle tissue? – Smooth – Squamous – Osseous – Carotid 3 Body Organization • An excess of tissue fluid results in edema. Not enough tissue fluid causes: – – – – Fibrillation. Dehydration. Irritability. Swelling 4 Body Organization • An excess of tissue fluid results in edema. Not enough tissue fluid causes: – – – – Fibrillation. Dehydration. Irritability. Swelling. 5 Body Organization • Where would you find epithelial tissue? – – – – Inside long bones Inside the brain Lining the inside of the nose In the walls of the large intestine 6 Body Organization • Where would you find epithelial tissue? – – – – Inside long bones Inside the brain Lining the inside of the nose In the walls of the large intestine 7 Body Organization • What type of tissue transmits messages from the head to the toes? – – – – Connective Epithelial Nerve Muscle 8 • • • • • What type of tissue transmits messages from the head to the toes? Connective Epithelial Nerve Muscle 9 • What type of tissue is classified as hard or soft? – – – – Epithelial Muscle Nervous Connective 10 • What type of tissue is classified as hard or soft? – – – – Epithelial Muscle Nervous Connective 11 Body Organization • • • • • What is the primary function of muscle tissue? To produce movement To control and coordinate body activities Transportation To produce body secretions 12 Body Organization • • • • • What is the primary function of muscle tissue? To produce movement To control and coordinate body activities Transportation To produce body secretions 13 Body Organization • Blood is classified as what type of tissue? – – – – Epithelial Connective Nerve Muscle 14 Body Organization • Blood is classified as what type of tissue? – – – – Epithelial Connective Nerve Muscle 15 Body Organization • Of the following, which is the MOST complex? – – – – Nucleus Muscle tissue Nerve cell Kidney 16 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • Of the following, which is the MOST complex? – – – – Nucleus Muscle tissue Nerve cell Kidney 17 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • Which organ or structure does NOT belong with the other three? – – – – Stomach Heart Liver Mouth 18 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • Which organ or structure does NOT belong with the other three? – – – – Stomach Heart Liver Mouth 19 Body Organization • What is the MOST BASIC building block of the human organism? – – – – Atom Cell Protein Water 20 Body Organization • What is the MOST BASIC building block of the human organism? – – – – Atom Cell Protein Water 21 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • If the body were cut in a transverse plane, what organ would NOT be in the same half as the other three? – – – – Brain Bladder Lungs Heart 22 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • If the body were cut in a transverse plane, what organ would NOT be in the same half as the other three? – – – – Brain Bladder Lungs Heart 23 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What body part is inferior to the chest? – – – – Head Neck Heart Hips 24 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What body part is inferior to the chest? – – – – Head Neck Heart Hips 25 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • In veterinary medicine, what structure would be found in the caudal region of a dog? – – – – Ears Tail Mouth Paws 26 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • In veterinary medicine, what structure would be found in the caudal region of a dog? – – – – Ears Tail Mouth Paws 27 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • • • • • If you divided the body with a midsagittal plane and added up the number of eyes, arms and toes on one side, how many would you have? 5 7 9 12 28 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • If you divided the body with a midsagittal plane and added up the number of eyes, arms and toes on one side, how many would you have? – – – – 5 7 9 12 29 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What structures are located anterior to the cranial cavity? – – – – Eyes Ears Lungs Neck muscles 30 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What structures are located anterior to the cranial cavity? – – – – Eyes Ears Lungs Neck muscles 31 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • An autopsy photo shows the dorsal side of the victim. What could you see in the photograph? – – – – Back of the head Kidneys Knees Front of the abdomen 32 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • An autopsy photo shows the dorsal side of the victim. What could you see in the photograph? – – – – Back of the head Kidneys Knees Front of the abdomen 33 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What body cavity contains the brain and spinal cord? – – – – Cranial Spinal Dorsal Ventral 34 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What body cavity contains the brain and spinal cord? – – – – Cranial Spinal Dorsal Ventral 35 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • Of the following, what structures are the MOST medial? – – – – Ears Hips Eyes Lips 36 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • Of the following, what structures are the MOST medial? – – – – Ears Hips Eyes Lips 37 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What body parts are distal to the hand? – – – – Fingers Eyes Ribs Lungs 38 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What body parts are distal to the hand? – – – – Fingers Eyes Ribs Lungs 39 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • If a physician writes that the patient has RUQ pain, what might be causing it? – – – – Head injury Arthritis in the hip Cracked rib Dislocated shoulder 40 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • If a physician writes that the patient has RUQ pain, what might be causing it? – – – – Head injury Arthritis in the hip Cracked rib Dislocated shoulder 41 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What structure is proximal to the thigh? – – – – Ankle Calf Knee Foot 42 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What structure is proximal to the thigh? – – – – Ankle Calf Knee Foot 43 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What cavity would a surgeon enter to repair a heart defect? – – – – Dorsal Thoracic Abdominal Pelvic 44 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What cavity would a surgeon enter to repair a heart defect? – – – – Dorsal Thoracic Abdominal Pelvic 45 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • George has a cramp in the posterior part of his leg. Where is the cramp? – – – – Ankle Knee Shin Calf 46 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • George has a cramp in the posterior part of his leg. Where is the cramp? – – – – Ankle Knee Shin Calf 47 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • If you are standing straight with your hands at your sides, where are your arms located in relation to your body? – – – – Superior Caudal Lateral Ventral 48 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • If you are standing straight with your hands at your sides, where are your arms located in relation to your body? – – – – Superior Caudal Lateral Ventral 49 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • If a physician performs a pelvic exam, what organs can be evaluated? – – – – Respiratory Reproductive Esophagus and stomach Liver and gallbladder 50 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • If a physician performs a pelvic exam, what organs can be evaluated? – – – – Respiratory Reproductive Esophagus and stomach Liver and gallbladder 51 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • An x-ray is labeled as a ventral view of the chest. This means the x-ray was taken from the: – – – – Front of the patient. Back of the patient. Left side of the patient. Right side of the patient 52 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • An x-ray is labeled as a ventral view of the chest. This means the x-ray was taken from the: – – – – Front of the patient. Back of the patient. Left side of the patient. Right side of the patient 53 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • In order to see both eyes, you would need to be looking at the: – – – – Caudal side of the frontal plane. Anterior side of the frontal plane. Inferior side of the transverse plane. Inferior side of a medial plane 54 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • In order to see both eyes, you would need to be looking at the: – – – – Caudal side of the frontal plane. Anterior side of the frontal plane. Inferior side of the transverse plane. Inferior side of a medial plane 55 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What does the abbreviation RLQ represent? – – – – Right lumbar quadrant Radial lateral quadrant Right lower quadrant Radial lumbar quadrant 56 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What does the abbreviation RLQ represent? – – – – Right lumbar quadrant Radial lateral quadrant Right lower quadrant Radial lumbar quadrant 57 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • Where is the right lower quadrant? – – – – A B C D 58 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • Where is the right lower quadrant? – – – – A B C D 59 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What quadrant is represented by the letter D? – – – – RLQ RUQ LUQ LLQ 60 Planes, Directions, Quadrants, Cavities • What quadrant is represented by the letter D? – – – – RLQ RUQ LUQ LLQ 61 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • What medical professional would MOST LIKELY provide regular care for a patient with autism? – – – – Radiologic technologist Psychologist Electroencephalographer Dialysis technician 62 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • What medical professional would MOST LIKELY provide regular care for a patient with autism? – – – – Radiologic technologist Psychologist Electroencephalographer Dialysis technician 63 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • What is the earliest age at which parents could be confident that their child will not develop autism? – – – – 3 months 1 year 4 years 7 years 64 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • What is the earliest age at which parents could be confident that their child will not develop autism? – – – – 3 months 1 year 4 years 7 years 65 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • How is a diagnosis of Autism made? – – – – Observation of behavior by a professional. Blood test for specific antigen. Stool culture. Analysis of DNA of both the child and mother. 66 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • How is a diagnosis of Autism made? – Observation of behavior by a professional. – Blood test for specific antigen. – Stool culture. – Analysis of DNA of both the child and mother. 67 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • What does the abbreviation MRSA stand for? – Monosodium resistant Staphylococcus aureus – Mefoxin resistant Staphylococcus aureus – Mellaril resistant Staphylococcus aureus – Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus 68 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • What does the abbreviation MRSA stand for? – Monosodium resistant Staphylococcus aureus – Mefoxin resistant Staphylococcus aureus – Mellaril resistant Staphylococcus aureus – Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus 69 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Where do MOST people who develop MRSA become infected? – – – – At school In public restrooms On cruise ships In hospitals 70 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Where do MOST people who develop MRSA become infected? – – – – At school In public restrooms On cruise ships In hospitals 71 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Which of the following is a LIKEY cause of PTSD? – – – – Food poisoning Being bitten by a tick Lack of oxygen Living through a plane crash 72 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Which of the following is a LIKEY cause of PTSD? – – – – Food poisoning Being bitten by a tick Lack of oxygen Living through a plane crash 73 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Patsy did not refrigerate her leftover shrimp pasta until five hours after dinner. She ate her cold leftovers the next day. The following day she developed abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. What MOST LIKELY is the cause of her illness? – – – – Seasonal flu Stress Salmonella MRSA 74 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Patsy did not refrigerate her leftover shrimp pasta until five hours after dinner. She ate her cold leftovers the next day. The following day she developed abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. What MOST LIKELY is the cause of her illness? – – – – Seasonal flu Stress Salmonella MRSA 75 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Of the following, which emerging disorder is the MOST DIFFICULT to prevent? – – – – Steroid use Seasonal influenza Salmonella Autism 76 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Of the following, which emerging disorder is the MOST DIFFICULT to prevent? – – – – Steroid use Seasonal influenza Salmonella Autism 77 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • What organism causes seasonal influenza? – – – – Virus Bacteria Amoeba Fungus 78 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • What organism causes seasonal influenza? – – – – Virus Bacteria Amoeba Fungus 79 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Athletes often take illegal anabolic steroids in order to increase: – – – – Hand-eye coordination. Muscle mass. Endurance. Blood flow and energy. 80 Emerging Diseases and Disorders • Athletes often take illegal anabolic steroids in order to increase: – – – – Hand-eye coordination. Muscle mass. Endurance. Blood flow and energy. 81 Biomedical Therapies 82 • Can genetic testing tell for certain that a person will develop Alzheimer’s disease? – Yes, but not at what age – Yes, if there is a family history of Alzheimer’s disease – No, because a person with the Alzheimer’s gene may not develop the disease – No, because genetic tests still produce too many false positive results 83 • Can genetic testing tell for certain that a person will develop Alzheimer’s disease? – Yes, but not at what age – Yes, if there is a family history of Alzheimer’s disease – No, because a person with the Alzheimer’s gene may not develop the disease – No, because genetic tests still produce too many false positive results 84 • Genetic testing involves the analysis of a person’s: – – – – Behavior. Genes. Blood cells. Environment. 85 • Genetic testing involves the analysis of a person’s: – – – – Behavior. Genes. Blood cells. Environment. 86 • Gene therapy might be suggested as a last resort for treating someone with: – – – – Obesity. Autism. Cystic fibrosis. Head trauma. 87 • Gene therapy might be suggested as a last resort for treating someone with: – – – – Obesity. Autism. Cystic fibrosis. Head trauma. 88 • What words best describe the current use of gene therapy? – – – – Fast and reliable Safe and easy Risky and economical Experimental and expensive 89 • What words best describe the current use of gene therapy? – – – – Fast and reliable Safe and easy Risky and economical Experimental and expensive 90 • The results of the Human Genome Project can be described as: – – – – Gene therapy. Gene mapping. Gene splicing. Gene transplantation. 91 • The results of the Human Genome Project can be described as: – – – – Gene therapy. Gene mapping. Gene splicing. Gene transplantation. 92 • What country completed the Human Genome Project? – – – – United States of America England Russia It was an international effort 93 • What country completed the Human Genome Project? – – – – United States of America England Russia It was an international effort 94 • What is the goal of therapeutic cloning? – – – – To create a new human being To change a baby’s DNA To prevent genetic diseases To harvest stem cells 95 • What is the goal of therapeutic cloning? – – – – To create a new human being To change a baby’s DNA To prevent genetic diseases To harvest stem cells 96 • Is a test tube baby the same as a clone? – Yes, always – No, never – It could be 97 • Is a test tube baby the same as a clone? – Yes, always – No, never – It could be 98 • Where in a healthy adult could you find stem cells? – – – – Small intestine Pancreas Bone marrow Subcutaneous tissue 99 • Where in a healthy adult could you find stem cells? – – – – Small intestine Pancreas Bone marrow Subcutaneous tissue 100 • Why do stem cells have so much potential in medical research? – They can become specialized cells in the body. – They are immune to becoming cancer cells. – They produce endorphins. – They surround and destroy cancer cells 101 • Why do stem cells have so much potential in medical research? – They can become specialized cells in the body. – They are immune to becoming cancer cells. – They produce endorphins. – They surround and destroy cancer cells 102 • Medical Math 103 • George has a cut that is 0.03 meters long. How long is the cut in centimeters? – – – – 0.003 cm 0.3 cm 3.0 cm 30 cm 104 • George has a cut that is 0.03 meters long. How long is the cut in centimeters? – – – – 0.003 cm 0.3 cm 3.0 cm 30 cm 105 • What object is closest to 10 mm in diameter? – – – – Nickel Dime Quarter Silver dollar 106 • What object is closest to 10 mm in diameter? – – – – Nickel Dime Quarter Silver dollar 107 • How many kilometers are in 10,000 meters? – – – – 1 km 10 km 100 km 1000 km 108 • How many kilometers are in 10,000 meters? – – – – 1 km 10 km 100 km 1000 km 109 • How many milligrams are in 0.05 grams? – – – – 50 mg 500 mg 5000 mg 50,000 mg 110 • How many milligrams are in 0.05 grams? – – – – 50 mg 500 mg 5000 mg 50,000 mg 111 • How many grams are in 60 kilograms? – – – – 0.06 gm 60 gm 6,000 gm 60,000 gm 112 • How many grams are in 60 kilograms? – – – – 0.06 gm 60 gm 6,000 gm 60,000 gm 113 • How many liters are in 500 milliliters? – – – – 0.0005 L 0.05 L 0.5 L 5L 114 • How many liters are in 500 milliliters? – – – – 0.0005 L 0.05 L 0.5 L 5L 115 1 oz = 28 g 1 lb = 0.454 kg 1 kg = 2.2 lbs • How many kg are in 12 oz? – – – – 0.0336 kg 0.336 kg 33.6 kg 336.kg 116 1 oz = 28 g 1 lb = 0.454 kg 1 kg = 2.2 lbs • How many kg are in 12 oz? – – – – 0.0336 kg 0.336 kg 33.6 kg 336.kg 117 • A 681 g tumor was removed from a woman’s abdomen. How much did the tumor weigh in pounds? – – – – 1 ½ lbs 24 1/3 lbs 150 lbs 309 lbs 118 • A 681 g tumor was removed from a woman’s abdomen. How much did the tumor weigh in pounds? – – – – 1 ½ lbs 24 1/3 lbs 150 lbs 309 lbs 119 • Bobby is eating a well balanced diet and exercising daily. He expects to lose 8 oz a day. How long will it take him to lose 10 kg? – – – – 10 days 12 days 20 days 44 days 120 • Bobby is eating a well balanced diet and exercising daily. He expects to lose 8 oz a day. How long will it take him to lose 10 kg? – – – – 10 days 12 days 20 days 44 days 121 • If a box of cereal is 14.5 oz and there are 120 calories in 30 g of cereal, how many calories are in the entire box? – – – – 406 calories 840 calories 1624 calories 1740 calories 122 • If a box of cereal is 14.5 oz and there are 120 calories in 30 g of cereal, how many calories are in the entire box? – – – – 406 calories 840 calories 1624 calories 1740 calories 123 Charts and Clocks 124 • When and how high was the highest percentage of high school smokers? – – – – 26% in 1991 13% in 1996 39% in 1997 23% in 2005 125 • When and how high was the highest percentage of high school smokers? – – – – 26% in 1991 13% in 1996 39% in 1997 23% in 2005 126 • What group has seen the greatest percentage decline in cigarette smoking from 1991 to 2005? – – – – Ages 8-11 Junior high school High school Adult 127 • What group has seen the greatest percentage decline in cigarette smoking from 1991 to 2005? – – – – Ages 8-11 Junior high school High school Adult 128 • What percentage of people suffering from HIV/AIDS were in Africa in 1998? – – – – 42% 49% 56% 68% 129 • What percentage of people suffering from HIV/AIDS were in Africa in 1998? – – – – 42% 49% 56% 68% 130 • How many people in the United States had HIV/AIDS in 1998? – – – – Fewer than 890,000 890,000 1 million 33.4 million 131 • How many people in the United States had HIV/AIDS in 1998? – – – – Fewer than 890,000 890,000 1 million 33.4 million 132 • In was the level of weekly Influenza activity in Texas? – – – – Sporadic Local Regional Widespread 133 • In was the level of weekly Influenza activity in Texas? – – – – Sporadic Local Regional Widespread 134 • • • • • How many states show a sporadic incidence of influenza? None Two Five Seven 135 • • • • • How many states show a sporadic incidence of influenza? None Two Five Seven 136 • Donna is 65 inches tall. How much should she weigh to have a BMI of 24? – – – – 144 pounds 148 pounds 150 pounds 192 pounds 137 • Donna is 65 inches tall. How much should she weigh to have a BMI of 24? – – – – 144 pounds 148 pounds 150 pounds 192 pounds 138 • Bob is 6 feet tall and weighs 199 pounds. What is his BMI? – – – – 25 27 29 31 139 • Bob is 6 feet tall and weighs 199 pounds. What is his BMI? – – – – 25 27 29 31 140 • Obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or higher. Which of the following individuals is considered obese? – – – – 59 inches and 143 pounds 73 inches and 219 pounds 65 inches and 168 pounds 76 inches and 246 pounds 141 • Obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or higher. Which of the following individuals is considered obese? – – – – 59 inches and 143 pounds 73 inches and 219 pounds 65 inches and 168 pounds 76 inches and 246 pounds 142 • What race has the lowest cancer mortality rate in the United States? – – – – White Asian/Pacific Islander American Indian Hispanic 143 • What race has the lowest cancer mortality rate in the United States? – – – – White Asian/Pacific Islander American Indian Hispanic 144 • What group has the highest cancer mortality rate in the United States? – – – – Hispanic males White females Black females Black males 145 • What group has the highest cancer mortality rate in the United States? – – – – Hispanic males White females Black females Black males 146 • What is the likelihood of a person in the United States dying of cancer before age 44? – – – – 1% 2% 3% 4% 147 • What is the likelihood of a person in the United States dying of cancer before age 44? – – – – 1% 2% 3% 4% 148 • What is the cancer death rate for Hispanic women in the United States? – – – – 105.2 per 100,000 142 per 100,000 159 per 100,000 159.9 per 100,00 149 • What is the cancer death rate for Hispanic women in the United States? – – – – 105.2 per 100,000 142 per 100,000 159 per 100,000 159.9 per 100,00 150 • What time is 3:30 PM using the 24-hour clock? – – – – 0330 1330 1530 1730 151 • What time is 3:30 PM using the 24-hour clock? – – – – 0330 1330 1530 1730 152 • What time is 0130 using the traditional clock? – – – – 3:00 AM 1:30 AM 1:00 AM 10:30 AM 153 • What time is 0130 using the traditional clock? – – – – 3:00 AM 1:30 AM 1:00 AM 10:30 AM 154 • If a cook puts a casserole in the oven at 1200 and it needs to cook for four hours, at what time will it be ready? – – – – 1300 1400 1600 1700 155 • If a cook puts a casserole in the oven at 1200 and it needs to cook for four hours, at what time will it be ready? – – – – 1300 1400 1600 1700 156 • Yuri needs leave for work at 6:00 AM, and it takes him one hour to get ready. He should set his alarm for: – – – – 0500. 0530. 0600. 0630. 157 • Yuri needs leave for work at 6:00 AM, and it takes him one hour to get ready. He should set his alarm for: – – – – 0500. 0530. 0600. 0630. 158 • Dr. Paschal has scheduled three operations beginning at 0700. Each surgery will take two hours, and then it takes 30 minutes for Dr. Paschal to travel to his office and another 30 minutes to eat a snack. If everything runs on time, at what time can Dr. Paschal see his first office patient? – – – – 1200 1300 1400 1500 159 • Dr. Paschal has scheduled three operations beginning at 0700. Each surgery will take two hours, and then it takes 30 minutes for Dr. Paschal to travel to his office and another 30 minutes to eat a snack. If everything runs on time, at what time can Dr. Paschal see his first office patient? – – – – 1200 1300 1400 1500 160 • Margaret works the 0600 – 1800 shift at the hospital. How long is her shift? – – – – 6 hours 8 hours 10 hours 12 hours 161 • Margaret works the 0600 – 1800 shift at the hospital. How long is her shift? – – – – 6 hours 8 hours 10 hours 12 hours 162 • Of the following, what is the BEST time to give a patient in the hospital his/her bedtime snack? – – – – 1400 1800 2100 2400 163 • Of the following, what is the BEST time to give a patient in the hospital his/her bedtime snack? – – – – 1400 1800 2100 2400 164 Circulatory System 165 • The heart is best described as a: – – – – Muscular pump. Storage chamber. Message center. Filtration unit. 166 • The heart is best described as a: – – – – Muscular pump. Storage chamber. Message center. Filtration unit. 167 • The heart is about the size of a/an: – – – – Egg. Apple. Peanut. Pumpkin. 168 • The heart is about the size of a/an: – – – – Egg. Apple. Peanut. Pumpkin. 169 • What would happen if a small hole developed in the septum? – The heart would stop pumping. – Blood would move between the right and left sides of the heart. – The blood from the pulmonary artery would enter the aorta. – Blood would not flow into the coronary arteries. 170 • What would happen if a small hole developed in the septum? – The heart would stop pumping. – Blood would move between the right and left sides of the heart. – The blood from the pulmonary artery would enter the aorta. – Blood would not flow into the coronary arteries. 171 • When blood leaves the left atrium, where does it go next? – – – – Aorta Left ventricle Right atrium Pulmonary artery 172 • When blood leaves the left atrium, where does it go next? – – – – Aorta Left ventricle Right atrium Pulmonary artery 173 • After blood leaves the right atrium, what valve prevents back flow? – – – – Tricuspid Mitral Pulmonary Aortic 174 • After blood leaves the right atrium, what valve prevents back flow? – – – – Tricuspid Mitral Pulmonary Aortic 175 • What follows diastole? – – – – Phagocytosis Fibrillation Hyperbole Systole 176 • What follows diastole? – – – – Phagocytosis Fibrillation Hyperbole Systole 177 • Where does an electrical impulse go after it leaves the Bundle of His? – – – – SA node Aorta AV node Purkinje fibers 178 • Where does an electrical impulse go after it leaves the Bundle of His? – – – – SA node Aorta AV node Purkinje fibers 179 • What type of blood vessel is the MOST muscular and elastic? – – – – Artery Vein Venule Capillary 180 • What type of blood vessel is the MOST muscular and elastic? – – – – Artery Vein Venule Capillary 181 • In what type of blood vessel does oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange take place? – – – – Artery Arteriole Capillary Vein 182 • In what type of blood vessel does oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange take place? – – – – Artery Arteriole Capillary Vein 183 • If a person becomes dehydrated, what would there be less of in the blood? – – – – Erythrocytes Platelets Leukocytes Plasma 184 • If a person becomes dehydrated, what would there be less of in the blood? – – – – Erythrocytes Platelets Leukocytes Plasma 185 • If a person becomes dehydrated, what would there be less of in the blood? – Erythrocytes – Platelets – Leukocytes – Plasma 186 • If a person does not have enough erythrocytes, he/she would have difficulty: – – – – Fighting infection. Carrying oxygen. Clotting the blood. Transporting antibodies 187 • If a person does not have enough erythrocytes, he/she would have difficulty: – – – – Fighting infection. Carrying oxygen. Clotting the blood. Transporting antibodies 188 • Neutrophils and lymphocytes are examples of: – – – – Platelets. Thrombocytes. Erythrocytes. Leukocytes 189 • Neutrophils and lymphocytes are examples of: – – – – Platelets. Thrombocytes. Erythrocytes. Leukocytes 190 • Anemia could be caused by a lack of: – – – – Monocytes. Thrombocytes. Hemoglobin. Plasma. 191 • Anemia could be caused by a lack of: – – – – Monocytes. Thrombocytes. Hemoglobin. Plasma. 192 • A hematologist would MOST LIKELY treat someone with: – – – – Varicose veins. A myocardial infarction. Hemophilia. An arrhythmia. 193 • A hematologist would MOST LIKELY treat someone with: – – – – Varicose veins. A myocardial infarction. Hemophilia. An arrhythmia. 194 • Jasmine is diagnosed with an aneurysm. What is wrong with one of her arteries? – – – – It is missing It is twisted There is a weakness in the wall There is a clot that is stuck 195 • Jasmine is diagnosed with an aneurysm. What is wrong with one of her arteries? – – – – It is missing It is twisted There is a weakness in the wall There is a clot that is stuck 196 • Which of the following “cause-and-effect” statements is true? – – – – Varicose veins cause an aneurysm. Arteriosclerosis causes hypertension. Leukemia causes phlebitis. An arrhythmia causes an aneurysm 197 • Which of the following “cause-and-effect” statements is true? – – – – Varicose veins cause an aneurysm. Arteriosclerosis causes hypertension. Leukemia causes phlebitis. An arrhythmia causes an aneurysm 198 • Your friend has pain, edema and redness in the lower leg. What would cause those symptoms? – – – – Phlebitis Congestive heart failure Myocardial infarction Leukemia 199 • Your friend has pain, edema and redness in the lower leg. What would cause those symptoms? – – – – Phlebitis Congestive heart failure Myocardial infarction Leukemia 200 • What circulatory disorder could be diagnosed with an electrocardiogram? – – – – Anemia Fibrillation Hypertension Embolism 201 • What circulatory disorder could be diagnosed with an electrocardiogram? – – – – Anemia Fibrillation Hypertension Embolism 202 • Which of the following disorders could be treated with chemotherapy, radiation, and/or a bone marrow transplant? – – – – Myocardial infarction Hypertension Atherosclerosis Leukemia 203 • Which of the following disorders could be treated with chemotherapy, radiation, and/or a bone marrow transplant? – – – – Myocardial infarction Hypertension Atherosclerosis Leukemia 204 • Why is a myocardial infarction life threatening? – Because a damaged heart muscle cannot pump blood effectively. – Because swollen veins lose elasticity which decreases blood flow to vital organs. – Because a minor bump or fall could lead to internal bleeding. – Because it inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in body cells. 205 • Why is a myocardial infarction life threatening? – Because a damaged heart muscle cannot pump blood effectively. – Because swollen veins lose elasticity which decreases blood flow to vital organs. – Because a minor bump or fall could lead to internal bleeding. – Because it inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in body cells. 206 Digestive System 207 • Where does digestion begin? – – – – Stomach Small intestine Esophagus Mouth 208 • Where does digestion begin? – – – – Stomach Small intestine Esophagus Mouth 209 • What is the small muscular structure that hangs from the soft palate and can be seen when you look in someone’s mouth? – – – – Epiglottis Uvula Hard palate Tonsils 210 • What is the small muscular structure that hangs from the soft palate and can be seen when you look in someone’s mouth? – – – – Epiglottis Uvula Hard palate Tonsils 211 • A bolus is made of: – – – – Chewed food and saliva. Digested food and chyme. Salivary lipase and ptyalin. Bile and flatus. 212 • A bolus is made of: – – – – Chewed food and saliva. Digested food and chyme. Salivary lipase and ptyalin. Bile and flatus. 213 • What would happen to food you swallowed if your esophagus did not perform peristalsis? – The food would be stuck in your esophagus. – The food would enter your trachea. – You would vomit when the food hit your stomach. – You would choke. 214 • What would happen to food you swallowed if your esophagus did not perform peristalsis? – The food would be stuck in your esophagus. – The food would enter your trachea. – You would vomit when the food hit your stomach. – You would choke. 215 • Roberta suffers from car sickness and can only ride on an empty stomach. If she eats at 8:00 am, what is the soonest she can ride in a car and be sure her stomach is empty? – – – – 9:00 am 10:00 am 12:00 pm 2:00 pm 216 • Roberta suffers from car sickness and can only ride on an empty stomach. If she eats at 8:00 am, what is the soonest she can ride in a car and be sure her stomach is empty? – – – – 9:00 am 10:00 am 12:00 pm 2:00 pm 217 • When a person vomits, what is in the chyme that often causes burning? – – – – Rennin Rugae Hydrochloric acid Chymotrypsin 218 • When a person vomits, what is in the chyme that often causes burning? – – – – Rennin Rugae Hydrochloric acid Chymotrypsin 219 • During digestion, food leaves the stomach and enters the: – – – – Duodenum. Ileum. Cecum. Jejunum 220 • During digestion, food leaves the stomach and enters the: – – – – Duodenum. Ileum. Cecum. Jejunum 221 • What part of the large intestine does NOT serve as a passageway for fecal waste? – – – – Colon Rectum Anus Appendix 222 • What part of the large intestine does NOT serve as a passageway for fecal waste? – – – – Colon Rectum Anus Appendix 223 • The liver secretes bile that aids in the digestion of: – – – – Carbohydrates. Proteins. Fats. Glucose. 224 • The liver secretes bile that aids in the digestion of: – – – – Carbohydrates. Proteins. Fats. Glucose. 225 • The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that empty into the: – – – – Gallbladder. Stomach. Duodenum. Liver. 226 • The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that empty into the: – – – – Gallbladder. Stomach. Duodenum. Liver. 227 • Why does alcoholism destroy the liver? – The liver detoxifies alcohol, but is overworked by alcoholism. – The liver has an allergic-type reaction to alcohol. – Alcohol robs the liver of glycogen, which causes liver cells to starve. – Alcohol is stored in the liver, causing the liver to enlarge. 228 • Why does alcoholism destroy the liver? – The liver detoxifies alcohol, but is overworked by alcoholism. – The liver has an allergic-type reaction to alcohol. – Alcohol robs the liver of glycogen, which causes liver cells to starve. – Alcohol is stored in the liver, causing the liver to enlarge. 229 • Which of the following disorders of the digestive system is the MOST life threatening? – – – – Cirrhosis Constipation Heartburn Hemorrhoids 230 • Which of the following disorders of the digestive system is the MOST life threatening? – – – – Cirrhosis Constipation Heartburn Hemorrhoids 231 • What disorder is often treated by the surgical removal of the gallbladder? – – – – Hepatitis Cholecystitis Diverticulitis Peritonitis 232 • What disorder is often treated by the surgical removal of the gallbladder? – – – – Hepatitis Cholecystitis Diverticulitis Peritonitis 233 • Because laxative use can be habit forming, what is the BEST way to treat constipation? – Vitamin supplements, diuretics and rest – Antibiotics, stool softeners and sitz baths – High fiber diet, increased fluid intake, and exercise – High protein diet, small meals, and lithotripsy 234 • Because laxative use can be habit forming, what is the BEST way to treat constipation? – Vitamin supplements, diuretics and rest – Antibiotics, stool softeners and sitz baths – High fiber diet, increased fluid intake, and exercise – High protein diet, small meals, and lithotripsy 235 • Diverticulitis is a disorder of the: – – – – Liver. Pancreas. Small intestine. Large intestine. 236 • Diverticulitis is a disorder of the: – – – – Liver. Pancreas. Small intestine. Large intestine. 237 • The H. pylori bacterium burrows into the stomach membranes and can cause a/an: – – – – Ulcer. Appendicitis. Hernia. Hemorrhoid. 238 • The H. pylori bacterium burrows into the stomach membranes and can cause a/an: – – – – Ulcer. Appendicitis. Hernia. Hemorrhoid. 239 • It is recommended that health care workers receive a vaccine to prevent: – – – – Hepatitis A. Hepatitis B. Hepatitis C. Hepatitis D. 240 • It is recommended that health care workers receive a vaccine to prevent: – – – – Hepatitis A. Hepatitis B. Hepatitis C. Hepatitis D. 241 • Which of the following disorders can you actually see? – – – – Cirrhosis Hepatitis Inguinal hernia Ulcerative colitis 242 • Which of the following disorders can you actually see? – – – – Cirrhosis Hepatitis Inguinal hernia Ulcerative colitis 243 • What is the serious complication of a ruptured appendix? – – – – Ulcer Peritonitis Hernia Diverticulitis 244 • What is the serious complication of a ruptured appendix? – – – – Ulcer Peritonitis Hernia Diverticulitis 245 • What disorder could be found during a colonoscopy? – – – – Peritonitis Halitosis Cancer Hepatitis 246 • What disorder could be found during a colonoscopy? – – – – Peritonitis Halitosis Cancer Hepatitis 247 Endocrine System 248 • Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine gland? – – – – Pituitary Thymus Pancreas Ovary 249 • Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine gland? – – – – Pituitary Thymus Pancreas Ovary 250 • The parathyroid glands are located nearest what structure? – – – – Larynx Pinna Liver Kidneys 251 • The parathyroid glands are located nearest what structure? – – – – Larynx Pinna Liver Kidneys 252 • What best describes the composition of a hormone? – – – – A complex protein A carbohydrate A chemical substance A cell with a nucleus 253 • What best describes the composition of a hormone? – – – – A complex protein A carbohydrate A chemical substance A cell with a nucleus 254 • Why is the pituitary the “master gland”? – Its hormones affect other glands. – Its hormones can replicate the actions of other hormones. – All hormones start as immature pituitary hormones. – Its hormones control reproduction. 255 • Why is the pituitary the “master gland”? – Its hormones affect other glands. – Its hormones can replicate the actions of other hormones. – All hormones start as immature pituitary hormones. – Its hormones control reproduction. 256 • If your body produced too much thyrotropin, you would have an: – – – – Overactive thyroid gland. Overactive thymus. Underactive thyroid gland. Underactive thymus. 257 • If your body produced too much thyrotropin, you would have an: – – – – Overactive thyroid gland. Overactive thymus. Underactive thyroid gland. Underactive thymus. 258 • What diagnostic procedure might reveal a pituitary tumor? – – – – Skull x-ray Bronchoscopy Brain scan Chest x-ray 259 • What diagnostic procedure might reveal a pituitary tumor? – – – – Skull x-ray Bronchoscopy Brain scan Chest x-ray 260 • A teenage athlete who wants to grow bigger and taller might be foolish enough to take what pituitary hormone? – – – – ACTH FSH Somatotropin Prolactin 261 • A teenage athlete who wants to grow bigger and taller might be foolish enough to take what pituitary hormone? – – – – ACTH FSH Somatotropin Prolactin 262 • Lara is frightened and can feel her heart start to pound. What hormone is causing her reaction? – – – – Epinephrine Progesterone Thyrotropin Glucagon 263 • Lara is frightened and can feel her heart start to pound. What hormone is causing her reaction? – – – – Epinephrine Progesterone Thyrotropin Glucagon 264 • Which of the following is classified as an endocrine hormone? – – – – Glycogen Insulin Surfactant Melanin 265 • Which of the following is classified as an endocrine hormone? – – – – Glycogen Insulin Surfactant Melanin 266 • When doctors wish to induce labor, a pregnant woman is given pitocin, a synthetic form of what pituitary hormone? – – – – Vasopressin Estrogen Progesterone Oxytocin 267 • When doctors wish to induce labor, a pregnant woman is given pitocin, a synthetic form of what pituitary hormone? – – – – Vasopressin Estrogen Progesterone Oxytocin 268 • Which of the following glands produces estrogen? – – – – Pineal Pituitary Ovary Adrenal 269 • What hormones stimulate body hair, facial hair, large muscles and a deep voice? – – – – Androgens Estrogens ADH and TSH Aldosterone and cortisone 270 • What hormones stimulate body hair, facial hair, large muscles and a deep voice? – – – – Androgens Estrogens ADH and TSH Aldosterone and cortisone 271 • Acromegaly is caused by the oversecretion of somatotropin in adults, causing: – Enlarged bones in the hands, face and feet. – Extreme tallness and retarded mental development. – Polyuria, polydipsia, and dehydration. – A small body size and short extremities 272 • Acromegaly is caused by the oversecretion of somatotropin in adults, causing: – Enlarged bones in the hands, face and feet. – Extreme tallness and retarded mental development. – Polyuria, polydipsia, and dehydration. – A small body size and short extremities 273 • Robbie is 24 years-old, four feet tall, has short arms, and normal mental development. He has: – – – – Diabetes insipidus. Acromegaly. Dwarfism. Hypothyroidism 274 • Robbie is 24 years-old, four feet tall, has short arms, and normal mental development. He has: – – – – Diabetes insipidus. Acromegaly. Dwarfism. Hypothyroidism 275 • Karla has an enlarged thyroid gland. The enlargement is called a/an: – – – – Goiter. Adenoma. Fibroid. Lipoma. 276 • Karla has an enlarged thyroid gland. The enlargement is called a/an: – – – – Goiter. Adenoma. Fibroid. Lipoma. 277 • What symptoms would be exhibited by someone with hyperthyroidism? – – – – Weakness, constipation and dry skin Lethargy, weight loss and moon face Hyperglycemia, polyuria and polyphagia Extreme nervousness, irritability and rapid pulse 278 • What symptoms would be exhibited by someone with hyperthyroidism? – – – – Weakness, constipation and dry skin Lethargy, weight loss and moon face Hyperglycemia, polyuria and polyphagia Extreme nervousness, irritability and rapid pulse 279 • Who would have the greatest likelihood of developing Type II diabetes mellitus? – – – – Thin child Obese child Thin adult Obese adult 280 • Who would have the greatest likelihood of developing Type II diabetes mellitus? – – – – Thin child Obese child Thin adult Obese adult 281 • Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the: – – – – Adrenal gland. Thyroid gland. Pituitary gland. Pancreas. 282 • Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the: – – – – Adrenal gland. Thyroid gland. Pituitary gland. Pancreas. 283 • What endocrine disorder can occur in countries that do not have iodized salt? – – – – Addison’s disease Cushing’s syndrome Hypothyroidism Dwarfism 284 • What endocrine disorder can occur in countries that do not have iodized salt? – – – – Addison’s disease Cushing’s syndrome Hypothyroidism Dwarfism 285 • What disorder might be treated with diet, exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs? – – – – Goiter Hyperthyroidism Diabetes mellitus Acromegaly 286 • What disorder might be treated with diet, exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs? – – – – Goiter Hyperthyroidism Diabetes mellitus Acromegaly 287 Integumentary 288 • A lack of oxygen supply to the skin can cause the skin to become: – – – – Cyanotic. Jaundiced. White. Red. 289 • A lack of oxygen supply to the skin can cause the skin to become: – – – – Cyanotic. Jaundiced. White. Red. 290 • What medical treatment is effective because of the absorption function of the skin? – – – – Defibrillation Massage Heating pad Nicotine patch 291 • What medical treatment is effective because of the absorption function of the skin? – – – – Defibrillation Massage Heating pad Nicotine patch 292 • The excretory function of the skin allows the body to eliminate excess: – – – – Fat and sugar. Water and heat. Vitamin C. Minerals. 293 • The excretory function of the skin allows the body to eliminate excess: – Fat and sugar. – Water and heat. – Vitamin C. – Minerals. 294 • Spending short periods of time in the morning sun can be beneficial. How? – Toughens the skin to improve its protective function. – Improves circulation to the skin, improving skin health. – Improves the skin’s elasticity, preventing wrinkles. – Helps in the production of Vitamin D. 295 • Spending short periods of time in the morning sun can be beneficial. How? – Toughens the skin to improve its protective function. – Improves circulation to the skin, improving skin health. – Improves the skin’s elasticity, preventing wrinkles. – Helps in the production of Vitamin D. 296 • The presence of cellulite can be attributed to what layer of the skin? – – – – Epidermis Dermis Corium Subcutaneous 297 • The presence of cellulite can be attributed to what layer of the skin? – Epidermis – Dermis – Corium – Subcutaneous 298 • When compared to someone with very light skin, a person with dark skin has more: – – – – Melanin. Melanocytes. Vitamin D. Vitamin C. 299 • When compared to someone with very light skin, a person with dark skin has more: – – – – Melanin. Melanocytes. Vitamin D. Vitamin C. 300 • What causes the pinkish tint in an albino’s skin? – – – – Melanin Carotene Blood vessels Jaundice 301 • What causes the pinkish tint in an albino’s skin? – Melanin – Carotene – Blood vessels – Jaundice 302 • What layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerves and hair follicles? – – – – Dermis Epidermis Hypodermis Subcutaneous 303 • What layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerves and hair follicles? – – – – Dermis Epidermis Hypodermis Subcutaneous 304 • Margie has always had white spots on her arm. They are MOST LIKELY caused by – – – – Albino disorder. Hives. Calcium deficiency. A lack of melanin. 305 • Margie has always had white spots on her arm. They are MOST LIKELY caused by – – – – Albino disorder. Hives. Calcium deficiency. A lack of melanin. 306 • Which of the following is a permanent disorder of the integumentary system? – – – – Urticaria Alopecia Vesicle Athlete’s foot 307 • Which of the following is a permanent disorder of the integumentary system? – – – – Urticaria Alopecia Vesicle Athlete’s foot 308 • When you look at the skin, what layer can you see? – – – – Epidermis Dermis Corium Subcutaneous tissue 309 • When you look at the skin, what layer can you see? – Epidermis – Dermis – Corium – Subcutaneous tissue 310 • A new father describes his baby as looking like a “pumpkin.” The baby is MOST LIKELY: – – – – Cyanotic. Jaundiced. Flushed. An albino. 311 • A new father describes his baby as looking like a “pumpkin.” The baby is MOST LIKELY: – Cyanotic. – Jaundiced. – Flushed. – An albino 312 • You might expect a person’s skin to be jaundiced if he/she has: – – – – Melanoma. Hepatitis. Ringworm. Scabies. 313 • You might expect a person’s skin to be jaundiced if he/she has: – Melanoma. – Hepatitis. – Ringworm. – Scabies 314 • Basal cell and squamous cell are types of: – – – – Pustules. Allergic skin disorders. Skin cancer. Nodules. 315 • Basal cell and squamous cell are types of: – – – – Pustules. Allergic skin disorders. Skin cancer. Nodules. 316 • Conrad has a crust on his knee. What did Conrad do two days ago? – – – – Was hit in the knee by a snowball. Fell and skinned his knee. Stayed out in the sun too long. Wore a friend’s gym shorts. 317 • Conrad has a crust on his knee. What did Conrad do two days ago? – Was hit in the knee by a snowball. – Fell and skinned his knee. – Stayed out in the sun too long. – Wore a friend’s gym shorts 318 • Which of the following skin diseases is contagious? – – – – Eczema Dermatitis Athlete’s foot Psoriasis 319 • Which of the following skin diseases is contagious? – – – – Eczema Dermatitis Athlete’s foot Psoriasis 320 • Your friend has developed a patch of red skin that is covered by silver scales. What is it? – – – – Psoriasis Urticaria Alopecia Dermatitis 321 • Your friend has developed a patch of red skin that is covered by silver scales. What is it? – Psoriasis – Urticaria – Alopecia – Dermatitis 322 • What skin disorder is often life threatening? – – – – Athlete’s foot Eczema Verrucae Melanoma 323 • What skin disorder is often life threatening? – Athlete’s foot – Eczema – Verrucae – Melanoma 324 • What skin disorder can be treated with antibiotics? – – – – Acne vulgaris Athlete’s foot Basal cell carcinoma Scabies 325 • What skin disorder can be treated with antibiotics? – – – – Acne vulgaris Athlete’s foot Basal cell carcinoma Scabies 326 • Greta has macules on her face. The more common term is: – – – – Chickenpox. Freckles. Hives. Scabs. 327 • Greta has macules on her face. The more common term is: – Chickenpox. – Freckles. – Hives. – Scabs. 328 Lymphatic System 329 • What cells are a normal component of both lymph AND blood? – – – – Erythrocytes Lymphocytes Platelets Thrombocytes 330 • What cells are a normal component of both lymph AND blood? – Erythrocytes – Lymphocytes – Platelets – Thrombocytes 331 • Where would you find lymph vessels? – – – – In tissues that do not have blood vessels In the four chambers of the heart Throughout the body Only in organs of the digestive 332 • Where would you find lymph vessels? – – – – In tissues that do not have blood vessels In the four chambers of the heart Throughout the body Only in organs of the digestive 333 • What causes lymph to flow through lymph vessels? – Peristalsis – The heart – Contractions of skeletal muscles against lymph vessels – Wavelike contractions of the muscular lining of lymph vessels 334 • What causes lymph to flow through lymph vessels? – Peristalsis – The heart – Contractions of skeletal muscles against lymph vessels – Wavelike contractions of the muscular lining of lymph vessels 335 • Where are the lingual tonsils located? – – – – Tongue Nose Lips On the voice box 336 • Where are the lingual tonsils located? – – – – Tongue Nose Lips On the voice box 337 • A lymph node has two important functions. What are they? – Lymphocyte production and pumping lymph fluid. – Transportation of fats and lymph fluid. – Lymphocyte production and lymph filtration. – Pumping lymph fluid and transporting fats 338 • A lymph node has two important functions. What are they? – Lymphocyte production and pumping lymph fluid. – Transportation of fats and lymph fluid. – Lymphocyte production and lymph filtration. – Pumping lymph fluid and transporting fats 339 • What organ recycles red blood cells? – – – – Lymph node Spleen Thymus Lingual tonsil 340 • What organ recycles red blood cells? – – – – Lymph node Spleen Thymus Lingual tonsil 341 • If a child does not have a functioning thymus, he/she might have difficulty: – – – – Fighting infection. Breathing. Swallowing. Removing toxic waste from the body. 342 • If a child does not have a functioning thymus, he/she might have difficulty: – – – – Fighting infection. Breathing. Swallowing. Removing toxic waste from the body. 343 • What disorder of the lymph system is classified as a malignancy? – – – – Adenitis Hodgkin’s disease Splenomegaly Tonsillitis 344 • What disorder of the lymph system is classified as a malignancy? – – – – Adenitis Hodgkin’s disease Splenomegaly Tonsillitis 345 • Juan is a firefighter who is diagnosed with splenomegaly. Why would his doctor tell Juan he cannot go to work for a month? – – – – He is most likely contagious. His throat could swell shut and block his airway. If bumped in the abdomen, his spleen could rupture. He cannot be exposed to others because he cannot fight infection 346 • Juan is a firefighter who is diagnosed with splenomegaly. Why would his doctor tell Juan he cannot go to work for a month? – – – – He is most likely contagious. His throat could swell shut and block his airway. If bumped in the abdomen, his spleen could rupture. He cannot be exposed to others because he cannot fight infection 347 • What is the usual treatment for occasional bouts of tonsillitis? – – – – Tonsillectomy Splenectomy Antibiotics and warm throat irrigations Narcotic pain medication and steroids 348 • What is the usual treatment for occasional bouts of tonsillitis? – – – – Tonsillectomy Splenectomy Antibiotics and warm throat irrigations Narcotic pain medication and steroids 349 Endocrine System 350 • Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine gland? – – – – Pituitary Thymus Pancreas Ovary 351 • Which endocrine gland is also an exocrine gland? – – – – Pituitary Thymus Pancreas Ovary 352 • The parathyroid glands are located nearest what structure? – – – – Larynx Pinna Liver Kidneys 353 • The parathyroid glands are located nearest what structure? – – – – Larynx Pinna Liver Kidneys 354 • What best describes the composition of a hormone? – – – – A complex protein A carbohydrate A chemical substance A cell with a nucleus 355 • What best describes the composition of a hormone? – – – – A complex protein A carbohydrate A chemical substance A cell with a nucleus 356 • Why is the pituitary the “master gland”? – Its hormones affect other glands. – Its hormones can replicate the actions of other hormones. – All hormones start as immature pituitary hormones. – Its hormones control reproduction. 357 • Why is the pituitary the “master gland”? – Its hormones affect other glands. – Its hormones can replicate the actions of other hormones. – All hormones start as immature pituitary hormones. – Its hormones control reproduction. 358 • If your body produced too much thyrotropin, you would have an: – – – – Overactive thyroid gland. Overactive thymus. Underactive thyroid gland. Underactive thymus. 359 • If your body produced too much thyrotropin, you would have an: – – – – Overactive thyroid gland. Overactive thymus. Underactive thyroid gland. Underactive thymus. 360 • What diagnostic procedure might reveal a pituitary tumor? – – – – Skull x-ray Bronchoscopy Brain scan Chest x-ray 361 • What diagnostic procedure might reveal a pituitary tumor? – – – – Skull x-ray Bronchoscopy Brain scan Chest x-ray 362 • A teenage athlete who wants to grow bigger and taller might be foolish enough to take what pituitary hormone? – – – – ACTH FSH Somatotropin Prolactin 363 • A teenage athlete who wants to grow bigger and taller might be foolish enough to take what pituitary hormone? • • • • ACTH FSH Somatotropin Prolactin 364 • Lara is frightened and can feel her heart start to pound. What hormone is causing her reaction? – – – – Epinephrine Progesterone Thyrotropin Glucagon 365 • Lara is frightened and can feel her heart start to pound. What hormone is causing her reaction? – – – – Epinephrine Progesterone Thyrotropin Glucagon 366 • Which of the following is classified as an endocrine hormone? – – – – Glycogen Insulin Surfactant Melanin 367 • Which of the following is classified as an endocrine hormone? – – – – Glycogen Insulin Surfactant Melanin 368 • When doctors wish to induce labor, a pregnant woman is given pitocin, a synthetic form of what pituitary hormone? – – – – Vasopressin Estrogen Progesterone Oxytocin 369 • When doctors wish to induce labor, a pregnant woman is given pitocin, a synthetic form of what pituitary hormone? – – – – Vasopressin Estrogen Progesterone Oxytocin 370 • Which of the following glands produces estrogen? – – – – Pineal Pituitary Ovary Adrenal 371 • Which of the following glands produces estrogen? – – – – Pineal Pituitary Ovary Adrenal 372 • What hormones stimulate body hair, facial hair, large muscles and a deep voice? – – – – Androgens Estrogens ADH and TSH Aldosterone and cortisone 373 • What hormones stimulate body hair, facial hair, large muscles and a deep voice? – – – – Androgens Estrogens ADH and TSH Aldosterone and cortisone 374 • Acromegaly is caused by the oversecretion of somatotropin in adults, causing: – Enlarged bones in the hands, face and feet. – Extreme tallness and retarded mental development. – Polyuria, polydipsia, and dehydration. – A small body size and short extremities. 375 • Acromegaly is caused by the oversecretion of somatotropin in adults, causing: – Enlarged bones in the hands, face and feet. – Extreme tallness and retarded mental development. – Polyuria, polydipsia, and dehydration. – A small body size and short extremities. 376 • Robbie is 24 years-old, four feet tall, has short arms, and normal mental development. He has: – – – – Diabetes insipidus. Acromegaly. Dwarfism. Hypothyroidism. 377 • Robbie is 24 years-old, four feet tall, has short arms, and normal mental development. He has: – – – – Diabetes insipidus. Acromegaly. Dwarfism. Hypothyroidism. 378 • Karla has an enlarged thyroid gland. The enlargement is called a/an: – – – – Goiter. Adenoma. Fibroid. Lipoma. 379 • Karla has an enlarged thyroid gland. The enlargement is called a/an: – – – – Goiter. Adenoma. Fibroid. Lipoma. 380 • What symptoms would be exhibited by someone with hyperthyroidism? – – – – Weakness, constipation and dry skin Lethargy, weight loss and moon face Hyperglycemia, polyuria and polyphagia Extreme nervousness, irritability and rapid pulse 381 • What symptoms would be exhibited by someone with hyperthyroidism? – – – – Weakness, constipation and dry skin Lethargy, weight loss and moon face Hyperglycemia, polyuria and polyphagia Extreme nervousness, irritability and rapid pulse 382 • Who would have the greatest likelihood of developing Type II diabetes mellitus? – – – – Thin child Obese child Thin adult Obese adult 383 • Who would have the greatest likelihood of developing Type II diabetes mellitus? – – – – Thin child Obese child Thin adult Obese adult 384 • Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the: – – – – Adrenal gland. Thyroid gland. Pituitary gland. Pancreas. 385 • Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the: – – – – Adrenal gland. Thyroid gland. Pituitary gland. Pancreas. 386 • • • • • What endocrine disorder can occur in countries that do not have iodized salt? Addison’s disease Cushing’s syndrome Hypothyroidism Dwarfism 387 • What endocrine disorder can occur in countries that do not have iodized salt? • • • • Addison’s disease Cushing’s syndrome Hypothyroidism Dwarfism 388 • What disorder might be treated with diet, exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs? – – – – Goiter Hyperthyroidism Diabetes mellitus Acromegaly 389 • What disorder might be treated with diet, exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs? – – – – Goiter Hyperthyroidism Diabetes mellitus Acromegaly 390 • What disorder might be treated with diet, exercise, and oral hypoglycemic drugs? – – – – Goiter Hyperthyroidism Diabetes mellitus Acromegaly 391 Muscle System 392 • One of the characteristics of muscles is extensibility. This allows muscles to: – – – – React to an impulse. Contract. Stretch. Consume oxygen. 393 • One of the characteristics of muscles is extensibility. This allows muscles to: – – – – React to an impulse. Contract. Stretch. Consume oxygen. 394 • Which of the following is one of the properties of muscles? – – – – Excitability Portability Stability Feasibility 395 • Which of the following is one of the properties of muscles? – – – – Excitability Portability Stability Feasibility 396 • The walls of the heart are made of: – – – – Cardiac muscle. Coronary muscle. Striated muscle. Voluntary muscle 397 • The walls of the heart are made of: – – – – Cardiac muscle. Coronary muscle. Striated muscle. Voluntary muscle 398 • Where would you find a voluntary muscle? – – – – In blood vessel walls Attached to the femur Inside the heart Lining the stomach 399 • Where would you find a voluntary muscle? – – – – In blood vessel walls Attached to the femur Inside the heart Lining the stomach 400 • After you swallow food, what kind of muscle moves the food toward your stomach? – – – – Cardiac Skeletal Voluntary Smooth 401 • After you swallow food, what kind of muscle moves the food toward your stomach? – – – – Cardiac Skeletal Voluntary Smooth 402 • The tough, sheetlike membrane that covers and protects muscle is: – – – – Fascia. A ligament. A tendon. Periostum. 403 • The tough, sheetlike membrane that covers and protects muscle is: – – – – Fascia. A ligament. A tendon. Periostum. 404 • What muscle movement occurs when you move your hand from an open palm to a fist? – – – – Adduction Abduction Flexion Extension 405 • What muscle movement occurs when you move your hand from an open palm to a fist? – – – – Adduction Abduction Flexion Extension 406 • When a muscle attaches to a bone, the end that does not move is the: – – – – Tendon. Root. Origin. Insertion 407 • When a muscle attaches to a bone, the end that does not move is the: – – – – Tendon. Root. Origin. Insertion 408 • Of the following, what muscle is superior to the other three? – – – – Intercostals Gastrocnemius Sternocleidomastoid Trapezius 409 • Of the following, what muscle is superior to the other three? – – – – Intercostals Gastrocnemius Sternocleidomastoid Trapezius 410 • Of the following, what muscle would do the most work if you ran five miles? – – – – Sternocleidomastoid Quadriceps femoris Biceps Pectoralis major 411 • Of the following, what muscle would do the most work if you ran five miles? – – – – Sternocleidomastoid Quadriceps femoris Biceps Pectoralis major 412 • What muscle is located above the waist? – – – – Deltoid Tibialis anterior Gastrocnemius Gluteus maximus 413 • What muscle is located above the waist? – – – – Deltoid Tibialis anterior Gastrocnemius Gluteus maximus 414 • Karina’s leg was in a cast for ten weeks. You would expect her leg muscles to experience some degree of: – – – – Atrophy. Hypertrophy. Circumduction. Rotation. 415 • Karina’s leg was in a cast for ten weeks. You would expect her leg muscles to experience some degree of: – – – – Atrophy. Hypertrophy. Circumduction. Rotation. 416 • What would cause a muscle contracture? – – – – Twisting Pulling Lack of use Overuse 417 • What would cause a muscle contracture? – – – – Twisting Pulling Lack of use Overuse 418 • What is the correct spelling for the muscles located between the ribs? – – – – Intracostals Intracoastals Intercostals Intercoastals 419 • What is the correct spelling for the muscles located between the ribs? – – – – Intracostals Intracoastals Intercostals Intercoastals 420 • Where is the latissimus dorsi located? – – – – Shoulder Neck Back Leg 421 • Where is the latissimus dorsi located? – – – – Shoulder Neck Back Leg 422 • What disabling muscle disorder usually affects children? – – – – Fibromyalgia Muscular dystrophy Myasthenia gravis Strain 423 • What disabling muscle disorder usually affects children? – – – – Fibromyalgia Muscular dystrophy Myasthenia gravis Strain 424 • What is the recommended treatment for a muscle spasm in the calf? – – – – Alternating hot and cold applications Physical therapy Stretch the muscle Pain medication 425 • What is the recommended treatment for a muscle spasm in the calf? – – – – Alternating hot and cold applications Physical therapy Stretch the muscle Pain medication 426 • What muscle is located in the calf? – – – – Gastrocnemius Triceps Trapezius Gluteus maximus 427 • What muscle is located in the calf? – – – – Gastrocnemius Triceps Trapezius Gluteus maximus 428 • Tetanus is caused by: – – – – Muscle strain. A missing gene. An autoimmune response. A bacteria. 429 • Tetanus is caused by: – – – – Muscle strain. A missing gene. An autoimmune response. A bacteria. 430 • What muscle injury is often caused by overstretching a muscle? – – – – Fibromyalgia Strain Dislocation Atrophy 431 • What muscle injury is often caused by overstretching a muscle? – – – – Fibromyalgia Strain Dislocation Atrophy 432 Nervous System 433 • Where on the neuron would you find a myelin sheath? – – – – Dendrite Nucleus Axon Terminal branches 434 • Where on the neuron would you find a myelin sheath? – – – – Dendrite Nucleus Axon Terminal branches 435 • In what order does an impulse travel through parts of a neuron? – – – – Axon synapse  dendrite  cell body Dendrite  axon  cell body  synapse Cell body  dendrite  axon  synapse Synapse  cell body  dendrite  axon 436 • In what order does an impulse travel through parts of a neuron? – – – – Axon synapse  dendrite  cell body Dendrite  axon  cell body  synapse Cell body  dendrite  axon  synapse Synapse  cell body  dendrite  axon 437 • If a neuron were to lose its myelin sheath, what MOST LIKELY would happen? – The person would have seizures. – There would be no blood supply to the neuron. – The nerve impulse would not be able to cross the synapse. – The nerve impulse would slow down across the axon. 438 • If a neuron were to lose its myelin sheath, what MOST LIKELY would happen? – The person would have seizures. – There would be no blood supply to the neuron. – The nerve impulse would not be able to cross the synapse. – The nerve impulse would slow down across the axon. 439 • What is the MAIN function of a nerve? – – – – To produce neurons To carry messages Sensation Protection 440 • What is the MAIN function of a nerve? – – – – To produce neurons To carry messages Sensation Protection 441 • The peripheral nervous system contains: – – – – The cranial nerves. The brain. The spinal cord. Meninges. 442 • The peripheral nervous system contains: – – – – The cranial nerves. The brain. The spinal cord. Meninges. 443 • A man was hit in the head and now has difficulty walking and maintaining his balance. What part of the brain MOST LIKELY was affected? – – – – Cerebellum Cerebrum Midbrain Pons 444 • A man was hit in the head and now has difficulty walking and maintaining his balance. What part of the brain MOST LIKELY was affected? – – – – Cerebellum Cerebrum Midbrain Pons 445 • The frontal and parietal lobes can be found in the: – – – – Cerebellum. Cerebrum. Midbrain. Pons. 446 • The frontal and parietal lobes can be found in the: – – – – Cerebellum. Cerebrum. Midbrain. Pons. 447 • What part of the brain connects with the spinal cord? – – – – Cerebrum Cerebellum Pituitary gland Medulla oblongata 448 • What part of the brain connects with the spinal cord? – – – – Cerebrum Cerebellum Pituitary gland Medulla oblongata 449 • What part of the brain is MOST like a blanket? – – – – Cerebrum Ventricles Meninges Pons 450 • What part of the brain is MOST like a blanket? – – – – Cerebrum Ventricles Meninges Pons 451 • If a needle were inserted into a ventricle in the brain, what would MOST LIKELY be withdrawn? – – – – Blood Cerebrospinal fluid Air Nerve tissue 452 • If a needle were inserted into a ventricle in the brain, what would MOST LIKELY be withdrawn? – – – – Blood Cerebrospinal fluid Air Nerve tissue 453 • Where would you find the dura mater? – – – – Between the skull and arachnoid Directly above the lateral ventricle Inside the pons and midbrain Surrounding the pituitary gland 454 • Where would you find the dura mater? – – – – Between the skull and arachnoid Directly above the lateral ventricle Inside the pons and midbrain Surrounding the pituitary gland 455 • • • • • The autonomic nervous system prepares the body for the “fight or flight response” by: Heightening the senses. Increasing blood supply to the kidneys. Decreasing the pain sensation. Increasing heart rate and blood pressure. 456 • The autonomic nervous system prepares the body for the “fight or flight response” by: – – – – Heightening the senses. Increasing blood supply to the kidneys. Decreasing the pain sensation. Increasing heart rate and blood pressure. 457 • The autonomic nervous system prepares the body for the “fight or flight response” by: – – – – Heightening the senses. Increasing blood supply to the kidneys. Decreasing the pain sensation. Increasing heart rate and blood pressure. 458 • What body function is NOT affected when a person has advanced amytrophic lateral sclerosis? – – – – Speaking Walking Thinking Eating 459 • What body function is NOT affected when a person has advanced amytrophic lateral sclerosis? – – – – Speaking Walking Thinking Eating 460 • What are the classic symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome? – Paralysis of the hand – Uncontrolled twitching of the hands and feet – Redness and bulging of tissue in the wrist area – Pain and numbness of the thumbs and fingers 461 • What are the classic symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome? – Paralysis of the hand – Uncontrolled twitching of the hands and feet – Redness and bulging of tissue in the wrist area – Pain and numbness of the thumbs and fingers 462 • Of the following, which inflammatory disease affects the coverings of the brain and/or spinal cord? – – – – Meningitis Neuralgia Shingles Encephalitis 463 • Of the following, which inflammatory disease affects the coverings of the brain and/or spinal cord? – – – – Meningitis Neuralgia Shingles Encephalitis 464 • Last year Jeremy was in a wheelchair but today he can walk because he is in remission. What, MOST LIKELY, does he have? – – – – Cerebral Palsy Multiple sclerosis Paralysis Amytrophic lateral sclerosis 465 • Last year Jeremy was in a wheelchair but today he can walk because he is in remission. What, MOST LIKELY, does he have? – – – – Cerebral Palsy Multiple sclerosis Paralysis Amytrophic lateral sclerosis 466 • What diagnostic test would be used to diagnose epilepsy? – – – – Lumbar puncture Electroencephalogram Skin culture Cerebral arteriogram 467 • What diagnostic test would be used to diagnose epilepsy? – – – – Lumbar puncture Electroencephalogram Skin culture Cerebral arteriogram 468 • Which of the following disorders can be cured? – – – – Meningitis Cerebral palsy Dementia Parkinson’s disease 469 • Which of the following disorders can be cured? – – – – Meningitis Cerebral palsy Dementia Parkinson’s disease 470 • In addition to the nervous system, what other body system is clearly involved when someone has shingles? – – – – Muscular Digestive Skeletal Integumentary 471 • In addition to the nervous system, what other body system is clearly involved when someone has shingles? – – – – Muscular Digestive Skeletal Integumentary 472 • What disorders of the nervous system are usually present at birth? – – – – Multiple sclerosis and shingles Multiple sclerosis and hydrocephalus Hydrocephalus and cerebral palsy Cerebral palsy and shingles 473 • What disorders of the nervous system are usually present at birth? – – – – Multiple sclerosis and shingles Multiple sclerosis and hydrocephalus Hydrocephalus and cerebral palsy Cerebral palsy and shingles 474 Reproductive System 475 • What two structures are located inside the scrotum? – – – – Epididymis and prostate gland Prostate gland and seminal vesicles Seminal vesicles and testes Testes and epididymis 476 • What two structures are located inside the scrotum? – – – – Epididymis and prostate gland Prostate gland and seminal vesicles Seminal vesicles and testes Testes and epididymis 477 • What is surgically removed during a circumcision? – – – – Foreskin Cowper’s gland Scrotum Vas deferens 478 • What is surgically removed during a circumcision? – – – – Foreskin Cowper’s gland Scrotum Vas deferens 479 • Where does semen go immediately after passing through the ejaculatory ducts? – – – – Outside the body Epididymis Urethra Vas deferens 480 • Where does semen go immediately after passing through the ejaculatory ducts? – – – – Outside the body Epididymis Urethra Vas deferens 481 • What structure contains muscular tissue that contracts during ejaculation to aid in the expulsion of semen? – – – – Prostate gland Bartholin’s gland Epididymis Testes 482 • What structure contains muscular tissue that contracts during ejaculation to aid in the expulsion of semen? – – – – Prostate gland Bartholin’s gland Epididymis Testes 483 • Why is the scrotum located outside the body? – The lower temperature is essential for sperm production. – To protect the testes from abdominal trauma. – To keep the testes away from the infective potential of the digestive system. – The vas deferens provides a longer pathway for the maturation of sperm 484 • Why is the scrotum located outside the body? – The lower temperature is essential for sperm production. – To protect the testes from abdominal trauma. – To keep the testes away from the infective potential of the digestive system. – The vas deferens provides a longer pathway for the maturation of sperm 485 • What is the function of the epididymis? – – – – To secrete testosterone. To store sperm until they mature. To hold the testes. To act as a passageway for sperm from the urethra to the penis. 486 • What is the function of the epididymis? – – – – To secrete testosterone. To store sperm until they mature. To hold the testes. To act as a passageway for sperm from the urethra to the penis. 487 • Where in the male reproductive system is testosterone produced? – – – – Ejaculatory ducts Seminal vesicles Testes Prostate gland 488 • Where in the male reproductive system is testosterone produced? – – – – Ejaculatory ducts Seminal vesicles Testes Prostate gland 489 • A man who receives a mumps vaccination is less likely to get: – – – – Testicular cancer. Prostate cancer. Cryptorchidism. Orchitis. 490 • A man who receives a mumps vaccination is less likely to get: – – – – Testicular cancer. Prostate cancer. Cryptorchidism. Orchitis. 491 • A 65 year-old healthy male begins to have difficulty starting to urinate, urinary frequency, and nocturia. What MOST LIKELY is the cause? – – – – Prostatic hypertrophy Testicular cancer Epididymitis Orchitis 492 • A 65 year-old healthy male begins to have difficulty starting to urinate, urinary frequency, and nocturia. What MOST LIKELY is the cause? – Prostatic hypertrophy – Testicular cancer – Epididymitis • Orchitis 493 • Occasionally, one or both testes do not descend properly before birth. This condition is known as: – – – – Circumcision. Cryptorchidism. Orchitis. Epididymitis. 494 • Occasionally, one or both testes do not descend properly before birth. This condition is known as: – – – – Circumcision. Cryptorchidism. Orchitis. Epididymitis. 495 • Testicular cancer is most common in what age? – – – – Elementary boys High school boys Young adult men Men over 65 years-old 496 • Testicular cancer is most common in what age? – – – – Elementary boys High school boys Young adult men Men over 65 years-old 497 • The female gonads are the: – – – – Ovaries. Fallopian tubes. Follicles. Mammary glands. 498 • The female gonads are the: – – – – Ovaries. Fallopian tubes. Follicles. Mammary glands. 499 • What happens when a follicle ruptures? – – – – Menstruation Menopause Ovulation Lactation 500 • What happens when a follicle ruptures? – – – – Menstruation Menopause Ovulation Lactation 501 • Where does fertilization of an ovum usually take place? – – – – In the ovary In the cervix In the uterus In the fallopian tube 502 • Where does fertilization of an ovum usually take place? – – – – In the ovary In the cervix In the uterus In the fallopian tube 503 • What reproductive structure is described as a hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ? – – – – Uterus Vagina Perineum Ovary 504 • What reproductive structure is described as a hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ? – – – – Uterus Vagina Perineum Ovary 505 • Which of the following is part of the uterus? – – – – Areola Perineum Fimbriae Fundus 506 • Which of the following is part of the uterus? – – – – Areola Perineum Fimbriae Fundus 507 • During menstruation, the bleeding is the result of: – – – – Detachment of the myometrium. Deterioration of the endometrium. A ruptured follicle. A ruptured fallopian tube. 508 • During menstruation, the bleeding is the result of: – – – – Detachment of the myometrium. Deterioration of the endometrium. A ruptured follicle. A ruptured fallopian tube. 509 • What part of the external female genitalia provides padding for the public bone? – – – – Clitoris Labia minora Mons pubis Perineum 510 • What part of the external female genitalia provides padding for the public bone? – – – – Clitoris Labia minora Mons pubis Perineum 511 • When does a woman experience lactation? – – – – During fertilization After ovulation During labor and delivery After childbirth 512 • When does a woman experience lactation? – – – – During fertilization After ovulation During labor and delivery After childbirth 513 • At what age does the American Cancer Society recommend a baseline mammogram for women? – – – – 20 – 30 years old 35 – 40 years old 45 – 50 years old 55 – 60 years old 514 • At what age does the American Cancer Society recommend a baseline mammogram for women? – – – – 20 – 30 years old 35 – 40 years old 45 – 50 years old 55 – 60 years old 515 • What would cause a positive Pap smear? – – – – Herpes Endometriosis Cervical cancer Breast cancer 516 • What would cause a positive Pap smear? – – – – Herpes Endometriosis Cervical cancer Breast cancer 517 • A woman who is NOT sexually active could still develop: – – – – Endometriosis. Chlamydia. Gonorrhea. Syphilis. 518 • A woman who is NOT sexually active could still develop: – – – – Endometriosis. Chlamydia. Gonorrhea. Syphilis. 519 • Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome can be prevented by: – – – – A vaccine. Antibiotics. Diet and exercise. Avoiding risky behavior. 520 • Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome can be prevented by: – – – – A vaccine. Antibiotics. Diet and exercise. Avoiding risky behavior. 521 • This disease can be cured with antibiotics in the first two stages, but untreated, can cause damage to the heart, brain damage, mental disorders, deafness and blindness. What is the disease? – – – – Syphilis Herpes Uterine cancer Chlamydia 522 • This disease can be cured with antibiotics in the first two stages, but untreated, can cause damage to the heart, brain damage, mental disorders, deafness and blindness. What is the disease? – – – – Syphilis Herpes Uterine cancer Chlamydia 523 • What do the initials PID stand for? – – – – Pelvic Immune Disorder Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Perineal Inflammatory Disorder Perineal Immune Deficiency 524 • What do the initials PID stand for? – – – – Pelvic Immune Disorder Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Perineal Inflammatory Disorder Perineal Immune Deficiency 525 Respiratory System 526 • What is the primary function of mucus and cilia in the nostrils? – – – – Sound production Filtration Temperature control Respiration 527 • What is the primary function of mucus and cilia in the nostrils? – – – – Sound production Filtration Temperature control Respiration 528 • Where are the sinuses located? – – – – In the front lobe of the brain In the skull surrounding the nasal cavity Inside the nares Under the cheek bones in the subcutaneous tissue 529 • Where are the sinuses located? – – – – In the front lobe of the brain In the skull surrounding the nasal cavity Inside the nares Under the cheek bones in the subcutaneous tissue 530 • What structure is a passageway for both food and air? – – – – Pharynx Bronchus Trachea Larynx 531 • What structure is a passageway for both food and air? – – – – Pharynx Bronchus Trachea Larynx 532 • If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop working, what activity could be life threatening? – – – – Breathing Walking Coughing Eating 533 • If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop working, what activity could be life threatening? – – – – Breathing Walking Coughing Eating 534 • The nostrils, larynx and trachea are all made primarily of: – – – – Cartilage. Bone. Muscle. Tendons. 535 • The nostrils, larynx and trachea are all made primarily of: – – – – Cartilage. Bone. Muscle. Tendons. 536 • What structure connects the larynx to the bronchi? – – – – Pleura Oropharynx Trachea Bronchioles 537 • What structure connects the larynx to the bronchi? – – – – Pleura Oropharynx Trachea Bronchioles 538 • Where in the respiratory tract does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place? – – – – Larynx Bronchi Trachea Alveoli 539 • Where in the respiratory tract does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place? – – – – Larynx Bronchi Trachea Alveoli 540 • Your lungs are divided into lobes. How many lobes do you have? – – – – Two Three Four Five 541 • • • • • Your lungs are divided into lobes. How many lobes do you have? Two Three Four Five 542 • What does the pleura allow the lungs to do? – – – – Expand during breathing Trap dust and other particles Keep the alveoli distended Cough 543 • What does the pleura allow the lungs to do? – – – – Expand during breathing Trap dust and other particles Keep the alveoli distended Cough 544 • In the process of breathing, during what stage does the movement of the diaphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity? – – – – Internal respiration External respiration Inspiration Expiration 545 • In the process of breathing, during what stage does the movement of the diaphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity? – – – – Internal respiration External respiration Inspiration Expiration 546 • During cellular respiration, what happens to the carbon dioxide? – It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled from the lungs – It leaves the bloodstream and enters the alveoli – It leaves the cells and enters the bloodstream – It leaves the alveoli and enters the bloodstream 547 • During cellular respiration, what happens to the carbon dioxide? – It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled from the lungs – It leaves the bloodstream and enters the alveoli – It leaves the cells and enters the bloodstream – It leaves the alveoli and enters the bloodstream 548 • If a person could not produce surfactant, his/her: – – – – Alveoli would collapse. Bronchi would collapse. Vocal cords would not vibrate. Epiglottis would close. 549 • If a person could not produce surfactant, his/her: – – – – Alveoli would collapse. Bronchi would collapse. Vocal cords would not vibrate. Epiglottis would close. 550 • Barbara has asthma and uses an inhaler when she starts to wheeze. The purpose of the device is to: – – – – Dissolve mucus. Contract blood vessels. Liquefy secretions in the lungs. Enlarge the bronchioles. 551 • Barbara has asthma and uses an inhaler when she starts to wheeze. The purpose of the device is to: – – – – Dissolve mucus. Contract blood vessels. Liquefy secretions in the lungs. Enlarge the bronchioles. 552 • MOST respiratory disorders are caused by: – – – – Infection. Lack of exercise. Heredity. Poor circulation. 553 • MOST respiratory disorders are caused by: – – – – Infection. Lack of exercise. Heredity. Poor circulation. 554 • What is the best treatment for mild epistaxis caused by a bump in the nose? – Pack the nose with gauze – Compress the nostrils, elevate and tilt the head slightly forward – Cauterize the bleeder – Lay flat on the back, head back, and pack the nose with tissue 555 • What is the best treatment for mild epistaxis caused by a bump in the nose? – Pack the nose with gauze – Compress the nostrils, elevate and tilt the head slightly forward – Cauterize the bleeder – Lay flat on the back, head back, and pack the nose with tissue 556 • Mr. Arnot is a heavy smoker with a chronic cough, bluish tint to his skin, and a barrel chest. He MOST LIKLEY suffers from: – – – – Emphysema. Epistaxis. Tuberculosis. Pleurisy. 557 • Mr. Arnot is a heavy smoker with a chronic cough, bluish tint to his skin, and a barrel chest. He MOST LIKLEY suffers from: – – – – Emphysema. Epistaxis. Tuberculosis. Pleurisy. 558 • Sarah has a chest x-ray that shows she has tubercles in her lungs. What does that mean? – – – – She had tuberculosis in the past but has recovered. She has a dormant form of tuberculosis that could become active if her resistance is lowered. She has an active case of tuberculosis and is being treated with antibiotics. She has a history of an infection that is similar to tuberculosis and therefore is immune to TB 559 • Sarah has a chest x-ray that shows she has tubercles in her lungs. What does that mean? – – – – She had tuberculosis in the past but has recovered. She has a dormant form of tuberculosis that could become active if her resistance is lowered. She has an active case of tuberculosis and is being treated with antibiotics. She has a history of an infection that is similar to tuberculosis and therefore is immune to TB 560 • What statement is true about lung cancer? – The prognosis is good. – Treatment includes hormone therapy and blood transfusions. – It is the leading cause of cancer death in men and women. – Second hand smoke rarely contributes to the development of lung cancer. 561 • What statement is true about lung cancer? – The prognosis is good. – Treatment includes hormone therapy and blood transfusions. – It is the leading cause of cancer death in men and women. – Second hand smoke rarely contributes to the development of lung cancer. 562 • What diagnostic test provides physicians with a direct look at the lining of the respiratory tract? – – – – CPAP Bronchoscopy Pulmonary function tests Chest x-ray 563 • What diagnostic test provides physicians with a direct look at the lining of the respiratory tract? – – – – CPAP Bronchoscopy Pulmonary function tests Chest x-ray 564 Skeletal Syetem 565 • The bones function as levers in coordination with what other body system? – – – – Circulatory Digestive Integumentary Muscular 566 • The bones function as levers in coordination with what other body system? – – – – Circulatory Digestive Integumentary Muscular 567 • The skeletal system is responsible for the production of: – – – – Adrenalin. Red blood cells. Vitamins A and D. Calcium. 568 • The skeletal system is responsible for the production of: – – – – Adrenalin. Red blood cells. Vitamins A and D. Calcium. 569 • The tibia is an example of a/an: – – – – Long bone. Axial bone. Flat bone. Short bone 570 • The tibia is an example of a/an: – – – – Long bone. Axial bone. Flat bone. Short bone 571 • Of the following bones, which would MOST LIKELY contain red marrow? – – – – Metacarpals Sternum Patella Fibula 572 • Of the following bones, which would MOST LIKELY contain red marrow? – – – – Metacarpals Sternum Patella Fibula 573 • The vertebrae are part of the: – – – – Pelvic girdle. Shoulder girdle. Axial skeleton. Appendicular skeleton. 574 • The vertebrae are part of the: – – – – Pelvic girdle. Shoulder girdle. Axial skeleton. Appendicular skeleton. 575 • What does a newborn have that most adults do not have? – – – – Foramina Sutures Sinuses Fontanels 576 • What does a newborn have that most adults do not have? – – – – Foramina Sutures Sinuses Fontanels 577 • Where would you find the periosteum? – – – – In the medullary cavity Outside the bone Inside the epiphyses Outside a fontanel 578 • Where would you find the periosteum? – – – – In the medullary cavity Outside the bone Inside the epiphyses Outside a fontanel 579 • What two bones articulate with each other? – – – – Patella and ulna Vertebrae and sternum Metacarpals and phalanges Carpals and humerus 580 • What two bones articulate with each other? – – – – Patella and ulna Vertebrae and sternum Metacarpals and phalanges Carpals and humerous 581 • What type of joint connects the parietal bones to the temporal bone? – – – – Synovial Diarthrosis Suture Fontanel 582 • What type of joint connects the parietal bones to the temporal bone? – – – – Synovial Diarthrosis Suture Fontanel 583 • What bone do you have the greatest number of in your body? – – – – Femurs Phalanges Cranial bones Scapulas 584 • What bone do you have the greatest number of in your body? – – – – Femurs Phalanges Cranial bones Scapulas 585 • What skeletal structure is located in the skull? – – – – Sinus Epiphysis Diaphysis Carpal 586 • What skeletal structure is located in the skull? – Sinus – Epiphysis – Diaphysis – Carpal 587 • What is the function of an osteoblast? – – – – To form new bone tissue To fight infection To produce erythrocytes and leukocytes Protection 588 • What is the function of an osteoblast? – – – – To form new bone tissue To fight infection To produce erythrocytes and leukocytes Protection 589 • Where would you find metatarsals? – – – – Above the knee In the elbow In the instep of the foot At the bottom of the spinal column 590 • Where would you find metatarsals? – – – – Above the knee In the elbow In the instep of the foot At the bottom of the spinal column 591 • A woman who is 50 years old has started to have mild symptoms of arthritis in her hips. How would her condition be treated? – – – – Bedrest and steroids Arthroplasty Aspirin and exercise Immobilization with a splint 592 • A woman who is 50 years old has started to have mild symptoms of arthritis in her hips. How would her condition be treated? – – – – Bedrest and steroids Arthroplasty Aspirin and exercise Immobilization with a splint 593 • Bursitis usually affects the: – – – – Long bones. Joints. Neck. Feet. 594 • Bursitis usually affects the: – – – – Long bones. Joints. Neck. Feet. 595 • What skeletal disorder is usually treated with physical therapy, traction or surgery? – – – – Arthritis Dislocation Herniated disk Osteoporosis 596 • What skeletal disorder is usually treated with physical therapy, traction or surgery? – – – – Arthritis Dislocation Herniated disk Osteoporosis 597 • Maria has kyphosis. What part of her vertebral column is out of normal alignment? – – – – Thoracic Lumbar Coccyxgeal Cervical 598 • Maria has kyphosis. What part of her vertebral column is out of normal alignment? – – – – Thoracic Lumbar Coccyxgeal Cervical 599 • What bone disorder resulting from a loss of calcium and phosphorus is common among elderly females? – – – – Scoliosis Gout Sprain Osteoporosis 600 • What bone disorder resulting from a loss of calcium and phosphorus is common among elderly females? – – – – Scoliosis Gout Sprain Osteoporosis 601 • Leonard has a greenstick fracture. What can you assume about Leonard? – – – – He twisted his leg skiing He was hit in the head He is a child He has an increased chance of infection 602 • Leonard has a greenstick fracture. What can you assume about Leonard? – – – – He twisted his leg skiing He was hit in the head He is a child He has an increased chance of infection 603 • Approximately 75% of the time, a first attack of gout affects the – – – – Neck. Big toe. Long bones. Wrist. 604 • Approximately 75% of the time, a first attack of gout affects the – – – – Neck. Big toe. Long bones. Wrist. 605 Special Senses 606 • What function do the orbits, eye lashes, and lacrimal glands all have in common? – – – – Nutrition Lubrication Protection Excretion 607 • What function do the orbits, eye lashes, and lacrimal glands all have in common? – – – – Nutrition Lubrication Protection Excretion 608 • When you cry and your nose runs, what fluid is coming out through your nose? – – – – Tears Cerebrospinal fluid Aqueous humor Mucus 609 • When you cry and your nose runs, what fluid is coming out through your nose? – – – – Tears Cerebrospinal fluid Aqueous humor Mucus 610 • When you look in the mirror, what part of the eye can you NOT see? – – – – Iris Pupil Sclera Retina 611 • When you look in the mirror, what part of the eye can you NOT see? – – – – Iris Pupil Sclera Retina 612 • What are two functions of the lens of the eye? – Refraction and accommodation – Impulse reception and transmission – Maintains the shape of the eyeball and refracts light – Color vision and night vision 613 • What are two functions of the lens of the eye? – Refraction and accommodation – Impulse reception and transmission – Maintains the shape of the eyeball and refracts light – Color vision and night vision 614 • What part of the eye is actually a mucous membrane? – – – – Sclera Cornea Choroid coat Conjunctiva 615 • What part of the eye is actually a mucous membrane? – – – – Sclera Cornea Choroid coat Conjunctiva 616 • When a person looks at an image, light rays pass through the eye and focus on the: – – – – Pupil. Retina. Optic nerve. Lens. 617 • When a person looks at an image, light rays pass through the eye and focus on the: – – – – Pupil. Retina. Optic nerve. Lens. 618 • What eye condition can occur in someone with a normally shaped eyeball? – – – – Myopia Hyperopia Presbyopia Astigmatism 619 • What eye condition can occur in someone with a normally shaped eyeball? – – – – Myopia Hyperopia Presbyopia Astigmatism 620 • How is glaucoma usually treated? – – – – Medication Surgical removal of the lens Corrective lenses Radial keratotomy 621 • How is glaucoma usually treated? – – – – Medication Surgical removal of the lens Corrective lenses Radial keratotomy 622 • What eye condition occurs more frequently in children? – – – – Cataract Glaucoma Strabismus Presbyopia 623 • What eye condition occurs more frequently in children? – – – – Cataract Glaucoma Strabismus Presbyopia 624 • What disorder can often be corrected with radial keratotomy (RK)? – – – – Myopia Cataract Strabismus Amblyopia 625 • What disorder can often be corrected with radial keratotomy (RK)? – – – – Myopia Cataract Strabismus Amblyopia 626 • What is the largest structure of the ear? – – – – Malleus Cochlea Pinna Tympanic membrane 627 • What is the largest structure of the ear? – – – – Malleus Cochlea Pinna Tympanic membrane 628 • Where would you find cerumen? – – – – Eustachian tube External auditory canal Semicircular canals Cochlea 629 • Where would you find cerumen? – – – – Eustachian tube External auditory canal Semicircular canals Cochlea 630 • If your ossicles were removed, you would NOT be able to: – Equalize pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. – Maintain your sense of balance. – Transmit sound waves to the inner ear. – Carry nerve impulses to the cerebrum. 631 • If your ossicles were removed, you would NOT be able to: – Equalize pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. – Maintain your sense of balance. – Transmit sound waves to the inner ear. – Carry nerve impulses to the cerebrum. 632 • Of the following, when a sound is heard, what structure would be the first to transmit the sound wave? – – – – Organ of Corti Cochlea Stapes Tympanic membrane 633 • Of the following, when a sound is heard, what structure would be the first to transmit the sound wave? – – – – Organ of Corti Cochlea Stapes Tympanic membrane 634 • What organ of the inner ear is NOT involved in hearing? – Vestibule – Cochlea – Organ of Corti Semicircular canals 635 • What organ of the inner ear is NOT involved in hearing? – – – – Vestibule Cochlea Organ of Corti Semicircular canals 636 • What statement about the sense of taste is true? – Taste is influenced by the sense of smell. – Taste buds are called lacteals. – There are no taste buds in the back of the tongue. – There are two main tastes, sweet and salty 637 • What statement about the sense of taste is true? – Taste is influenced by the sense of smell. – Taste buds are called lacteals. – There are no taste buds in the back of the tongue. – There are two main tastes, sweet and salty 638 • Olfactory receptors can be found: – – – – On the tongue. In the nose. In the ear. In the skin. 639 • Olfactory receptors can be found: – – – – On the tongue. In the nose. In the ear. In the skin. 640 • Pauline has a conductive hearing loss, which can be caused by: – – – – Auditory nerve damage. An infection in the semicircular canals. A ruptured tympanic membrane. Damage to the cochlea. 641 • Pauline has a conductive hearing loss, which can be caused by: – – – – Auditory nerve damage. An infection in the semicircular canals. A ruptured tympanic membrane. Damage to the cochlea. 642 • What disorder could be treated by the surgical insertion of an artificial stapes? – – – – Otosclerosis Meniere’s disease Otitis media Sensory hearing loss 643 • What disorder could be treated by the surgical insertion of an artificial stapes? – – – – Otosclerosis Meniere’s disease Otitis media Sensory hearing loss 644 • Organisms in the throat can travel up the eustachian tube and cause: – – – – Otosclerosis. A cerumen plug. Otitis media. Meniere’s disease. 645 • Organisms in the throat can travel up the eustachian tube and cause: – – – – Otosclerosis. A cerumen plug. Otitis media. Meniere’s disease. 646 Urinary System 647 • Where are the kidney’s located? – – – – Below the waist, toward the back Below the waist, toward the front Above the waist, toward the back Above the waist, toward the front 648 • Where are the kidney’s located? – – – – Below the waist, toward the back Below the waist, toward the front Above the waist, toward the back Above the waist, toward the front 649 • Which of the following is an example of the urinary system’s ability to maintain homeostasis? – – – – A person drinks a large amount of water and urinary output increases. The kidneys are protected by a heavy cushion of fat and a fibrous capsule. As people get older, the frequency of nocturia increases. When physical activity increases, the blood flow through the kidneys decreases. 650 • Which of the following is an example of the urinary system’s ability to maintain homeostasis? – – – – A person drinks a large amount of water and urinary output increases. The kidneys are protected by a heavy cushion of fat and a fibrous capsule. As people get older, the frequency of nocturia increases. When physical activity increases, the blood flow through the kidneys decreases. 651 • In what part of the urinary system does peristalsis regularly occur? – – – – Nephron Ureters Bladder Urethra 652 • In what part of the urinary system does peristalsis regularly occur? – – – – Nephron Ureters Bladder Urethra 653 • If you could see the inside lining of any empty bladder, what would you see? – – – – Villi Lacteals Rugae Cilia 654 • If you could see the inside lining of any empty bladder, what would you see? – – – – Villi Lacteals Rugae Cilia 655 • What is another term for urinate? – – – – Eructate Sweat Defecate Void 656 • What is another term for urinate? – – – – Eructate Sweat Defecate Void 657 • The urethra in the male serves two body systems – urinary and: – – – – Reproductive. Endocrine. Lymphatic. Muscular. 658 • The urethra in the male serves two body systems – urinary and: – – – – Reproductive. Endocrine. Lymphatic. Muscular. 659 • What is the last structure urine passes before leaving the body? – – – – Bladder Ureter Urinary meatus Urethra 660 • What is the last structure urine passes before leaving the body? – – – – Bladder Ureter Urinary meatus Urethra 661 • A construction worker falls and strikes his lower abdomen on a hard object. What might he experience as a result? – – – – Anuria Nocturia Hematuria Polyuria 662 • A construction worker falls and strikes his lower abdomen on a hard object. What might he experience as a result? – Anuria – Nocturia – Hematuria – Polyuria 663 • Pyuria, dysuria and fever are all symptoms of: – – – – Renal failure. Cystitis. Uremia. Nocturia. 664 • Pyuria, dysuria and fever are all symptoms of: – – – – Renal failure. Cystitis. Uremia. Nocturia. 665 • Why do women experience cystitis more frequently than men? – Because of the length of the urethra – Because they urinate more frequently than males – Because of the location of the urethra – Because the uterus takes up space in the pelvis 666 • Why do women experience cystitis more frequently than men? – Because of the length of the urethra – Because they urinate more frequently than males – Because of the location of the urethra – Because the uterus takes up space in the pelvis 667 • Henry had a hypersensitive reaction to a medication and developed acute renal failure. He received prompt medical attention and hemodialysis. What is his prognosis? – – – – Terminal Poor Fair, after a kidney transplant Good 668 • Henry had a hypersensitive reaction to a medication and developed acute renal failure. He received prompt medical attention and hemodialysis. What is his prognosis? – – – – Terminal Poor Fair, after a kidney transplant Good 669 • The presence of what condition would indicate the urgent need for a kidney transplant? – – – – Kidney stones Kidney failure Retention Oliguria 670 • The presence of what condition would indicate the urgent need for a kidney transplant? – – – – Kidney stones Kidney failure Retention Oliguria 671 • Patrice is not ill but drank a large amount of ice tea. You would expect her to have: – – – – Hematuria. Anuria. Polyuria. Pyuria. 672 • Patrice is not ill but drank a large amount of ice tea. You would expect her to have: – – – – Hematuria. Anuria. Polyuria. Pyuria. 673 • What does hemodialysis do? – – – – Provide oxygen for the blood Remove waste products from the blood Add electrolytes to the blood Balance the amount of water in the blo 674 • What does hemodialysis do? – – – – Provide oxygen for the blood Remove waste products from the blood Add electrolytes to the blood Balance the amount of water in the blood 675 Legal Issues 676 • Taking narcotics from the pharmacy by a pharmacy technician is a violation of: – – – – Social law. Civil law. Virtual law. Criminal law. 677 • Taking narcotics from the pharmacy by a pharmacy technician is a violation of: – – – – Social law. Civil law. Virtual law. Criminal law. 678 • A medication is ordered to be mixed in 1000 cc of IV fluid for administration. If a nurse injects the medication directly into a patient’s vein in error, he/she could be guilty of: – – – – Malpractice. Assault. Negligence. Physical abuse. 679 • A medication is ordered to be mixed in 1000 cc of IV fluid for administration. If a nurse injects the medication directly into a patient’s vein in error, he/she could be guilty of: – – – – Malpractice. Assault. Negligence. Physical abuse. 680 • Mr. Jones goes to a medical office with chest pain. The physician orders an antacid and does not do an EKG. That night, Mr. Jones dies from a heart attack. The doctor could be charged with: – – – – Slander. Defamation. Negligence. Battery. 681 • Mr. Jones goes to a medical office with chest pain. The physician orders an antacid and does not do an EKG. That night, Mr. Jones dies from a heart attack. The doctor could be charged with: – – – – Slander. Defamation. Negligence. Battery. 682 • An EMT is charged with battery. What did the EMT do? – Informed the news media of a victim’s condition. – Treated a victim, even though the victim refused treatment. – Failed to splint a broken leg and then moved the victim. – Used inappropriate words to describe a victim’s nationality 683 • An EMT is charged with battery. What did the EMT do? – Informed the news media of a victim’s condition. – Treated a victim, even though the victim refused treatment. – Failed to splint a broken leg and then moved the victim. – Used inappropriate words to describe a victim’s nationality 684 • Dr. Smith asks Bobbie, a medical assistant, to help a patient, Mr. Jones, to his car in a wheelchair. On the way to the car, Bobbie accidently runs into Mrs. Jones, knocking her down. Mrs. Jones suffers a broken hip and files a lawsuit. Who is identified in the lawsuit at the agent? – – – – Dr. Smith Bobbie Mr. Jones Mrs. Jones 685 • Dr. Smith asks Bobbie, a medical assistant, to help a patient, Mr. Jones, to his car in a wheelchair. On the way to the car, Bobbie accidently runs into Mrs. Jones, knocking her down. Mrs. Jones suffers a broken hip and files a lawsuit. Who is identified in the lawsuit at the agent? – – – – Dr. Smith Bobbie Mr. Jones Mrs. Jones 686 • A dental assistant tells her friends that a hygienist she works with has a drinking problem. If this is not true, the assistant could be guilty of: – – – – Slander. Malpractice. Battery. Libel. 687 • A dental assistant tells her friends that a hygienist she works with has a drinking problem. If this is not true, the assistant could be guilty of: – – – – Slander. Malpractice. Battery. Libel. 688 • Jan Shevlin goes to the laboratory for bloodwork. She cooperates with the phlebotomist by extending her arm to have blood drawn. What kind of agreement did the phlebotomist have with this patient? – – – – Informed consent Formal consent Implied contract Expressed contract 689 • Jan Shevlin goes to the laboratory for bloodwork. She cooperates with the phlebotomist by extending her arm to have blood drawn. What kind of agreement did the phlebotomist have with this patient? – – – – Informed consent Formal consent Implied contract Expressed contract 690 • An angry patient writes a letter to the newspaper editor about a local psychologist. The allegations in the letter are clearly untrue and damaging to the psychologist’s practice. The letter writer could be guilty of: • A. Assault. • B. Battery. • C. Slander. • D. Libel. 691 • An angry patient writes a letter to the newspaper editor about a local psychologist. The allegations in the letter are clearly untrue and damaging to the psychologist’s practice. The letter writer could be guilty of: • A. Assault. • B. Battery. • C. Slander. • D. Libel. 692 • A patient with a legal disability cannot: • A. Form a contract. • B. Be charged under criminal law. • C. Work in a healthcare setting. • D. Be seen in an emergency room. 693 • A patient with a legal disability cannot: • A. Form a contract. • B. Be charged under criminal law. • C. Work in a healthcare setting. • D. Be seen in an emergency room. 694 • • • • • Don is caring for his elderly mother. He could be charged with psychological abuse if he: A. Threatens to lock her in her room. B. Uses profanity when he talks to her. C. Does not give her enough to eat and drink. D. Hits her. 695 • Don is caring for his elderly mother. He could be charged with psychological abuse if he: • A. Threatens to lock her in her room. • B. Uses profanity when he talks to her. • C. Does not give her enough to eat and drink. • D. Hits her. 696 • Mark’s elderly father has been losing weight, but tells Mark that his physician says he is fine. Mark is not so sure and wants to read a copy of his father’s chart. Is that possible? • A. No. Medical charts can only be viewed by healthcare professionals. • B. No. Only a lawyer can request a copy of a patient’s medical record. • C. Yes. Immediate family members can see a patient’s chart. • D. Yes, but only if Mark’s father signs a release form. 697 • Mark’s elderly father has been losing weight, but tells Mark that his physician says he is fine. Mark is not so sure and wants to read a copy of his father’s chart. Is that possible? • A. No. Medical charts can only be viewed by healthcare professionals. • B. No. Only a lawyer can request a copy of a patient’s medical record. • C. Yes. Immediate family members can see a patient’s chart. • D. Yes, but only if Mark’s father signs a release form. 698 • Mark’s elderly father has been losing weight, but tells Mark that his physician says he is fine. Mark is not so sure and wants to read a copy of his father’s chart. Is that possible? • A. No. Medical charts can only be viewed by healthcare professionals. • B. No. Only a lawyer can request a copy of a patient’s medical record. • C. Yes. Immediate family members can see a patient’s chart. • D. Yes, but only if Mark’s father signs a release form. 699 • Mark’s elderly father has been losing weight, but tells Mark that his physician says he is fine. Mark is not so sure and wants to read a copy of his father’s chart. Is that possible? • A. No. Medical charts can only be viewed by healthcare professionals. • B. No. Only a lawyer can request a copy of a patient’s medical record. • C. Yes. Immediate family members can see a patient’s chart. • D. Yes, but only if Mark’s father signs a release form. 700 • What safeguard should be used to protect the confidentiality of computerized medical records? • A. Daily virus scan • B. Weekly emptying of recycle bin • C. Use of passwords • D. Use of a firewall 701 • What safeguard should be used to protect the confidentiality of computerized medical records? • A. Daily virus scan • B. Weekly emptying of recycle bin • C. Use of passwords • D. Use of a firewall 702 • Daria has a legal disability. What can she legally do? – – – – Sign a consent form. Sign a HIPAA authorization. Answer a doctor’s questions. Enter into a contract. 703 • Daria has a legal disability. What can she legally do? – – – – Sign a consent form. Sign a HIPAA authorization. Answer a doctor’s questions. Enter into a contract. 704 • Daria has a legal disability. What can she legally do? – – – – Sign a consent form. Sign a HIPAA authorization. Answer a doctor’s questions. Enter into a contract. 705 • Daria has a legal disability. What can she legally do? – – – – Sign a consent form. Sign a HIPAA authorization. Answer a doctor’s questions. Enter into a contract. 706 • A client decides to take his dog to a different veterinarian and requests the dog’s chart record. What is the client entitled to? • A. The dog’s chart. • B. A copy of the chart. • C. Only selected information in the chart as determined by the veterinarian. • D. The client is not permitted to receive any chart materials. 707 • A client decides to take his dog to a different veterinarian and requests the dog’s chart record. What is the client entitled to? • A. The dog’s chart. • B. A copy of the chart. • C. Only selected information in the chart as determined by the veterinarian. • D. The client is not permitted to receive any chart materials. 708 • When it comes to working with written patient records, what can a healthcare worker do? • A. Talk about chart information to friends. • B. Erase any errors when writing in the record. • C. Allow another healthcare worker who is caring for the patient to see the record. • D. Change an entry in the record a couple days after it was written. 709 • When it comes to working with written patient records, what can a healthcare worker do? • A. Talk about chart information to friends. • B. Erase any errors when writing in the record. • C. Allow another healthcare worker who is caring for the patient to see the record. • D. Change an entry in the record a couple days after it was written. 710 • An 18 year-old female comes to the emergency room. The doctor is absolutely sure she was beaten, but she says she fell. What should the doctor do? • A. Notify the police. • B. Notify the girl’s parents. • C. Treat her injuries and respect her privacy. • D. Believe what the patient says. 711 • An 18 year-old female comes to the emergency room. The doctor is absolutely sure she was beaten, but she says she fell. What should the doctor do? • A. Notify the police. • B. Notify the girl’s parents. • C. Treat her injuries and respect her privacy. • D. Believe what the patient says. 712 • HIPAA is MOSTLY about: • A. Federal protection of healthcare workers. • B. Safe medical practices. • C. Accountability of health care providers. • D. Privacy of health information. 713 • HIPAA is MOSTLY about: • A. Federal protection of healthcare workers. • B. Safe medical practices. • C. Accountability of health care providers. • D. Privacy of health information. 714 • Mr. Bon signs a HIPAA authorization form at a dental practice. An additional authorization form would need to be signed: • A. To give Mr. Bon’s complete dental treatment information to his son. • B. For Mr. Bon to have his teeth cleaned. • C. Before the office can file a claim with Mr. Bon’s medical insurance company. • D. Before any dental office employee, other than the dentist, can look at 715 • Mr. Bon signs a HIPAA authorization form at a dental practice. An additional authorization form would need to be signed: • A. To give Mr. Bon’s complete dental treatment information to his son. • B. For Mr. Bon to have his teeth cleaned. • C. Before the office can file a claim with Mr. Bon’s medical insurance company. • D. Before any dental office employee, other than the dentist, can look at 716 • HIPAA rules require that certain diseases must be reported by law to protect the public. Which of the following diseases would fall into the category of reportable diseases? • A. Diabetes • B. Syphilis • C. Gastroenteritis • D. Multiple sclerosis 717 • HIPAA rules require that certain diseases must be reported by law to protect the public. Which of the following diseases would fall into the category of reportable diseases? • A. Diabetes • B. Syphilis • C. Gastroenteritis • D. Multiple sclerosis 718 • What does the P in HIPAA stand for? • A. Patient • B. Protection • C. Privacy • D. Portability 719 • What does the P in HIPAA stand for? • A. Patient • B. Protection • C. Privacy • D. Portability 720 • A physician’s office asks a new patient to sign a HIPAA “Notice of Privacy Practices” form. What is the purpose of this form? • A. To inform patients of their privacy rights under HIPAA. • B. To grant permission for the office to release information to insurance companies. • C. To allow office associates to access the patient’s records. • D. To protect the office from being charged with invasion of privacy. 721 • A physician’s office asks a new patient to sign a HIPAA “Notice of Privacy Practices” form. What is the purpose of this form? • A. To inform patients of their privacy rights under HIPAA. • B. To grant permission for the office to release information to insurance companies. • C. To allow office associates to access the patient’s records. • D. To protect the office from being charged with invasion of privacy. 722 • Which of the following as an example of a legal directive? • A. An operative consent form • B. A HIPAA authorization form • C. Living Will • D. Malpractice law suit 723 • Which of the following as an example of a legal directive? • A. An operative consent form • B. A HIPAA authorization form • C. Living Will • D. Malpractice law suit 724 • Fred is 89 years old and his health is failing. He is still of sound mind, but knows that he may not be able to make decisions for himself in the future. What would allow him to designate his adult son to make decisions on his behalf? • A. Living Will • B. DNR request • C. HIPAA Authorization Form • D. Durable Power of Attorney 725 • Fred is 89 years old and his health is failing. He is still of sound mind, but knows that he may not be able to make decisions for himself in the future. What would allow him to designate his adult son to make decisions on his behalf? • A. Living Will • B. DNR request • C. HIPAA Authorization Form • D. Durable Power of Attorney 726 • What does the Patient Self Determination Act require health facilities to do? • A. Safeguard confidential patient information. • B. Inform patients of their right to make decisions regarding their right-to-die. • C. Give patient the option of negotiating healthcare costs. • D. Provide patients with written information about costs before they consent to procedures. 727 • What does the Patient Self Determination Act require health facilities to do? • A. Safeguard confidential patient information. • B. Inform patients of their right to make decisions regarding their right-to-die. • C. Give patient the option of negotiating healthcare costs. • D. Provide patients with written information about costs before they consent to procedures. 728 • When should a hospital employee file a grievance? • A. When he/she believes another healthcare worker is making sexual advances. • B. When the problem involves his/her immediate supervisor. • C. When multiple attempts to resolve the issue have been ignored. • D. When he/she is scheduled to work on a day that he/she had previously requested to be off. 729 • When should a hospital employee file a grievance? • A. When he/she believes another healthcare worker is making sexual advances. • B. When the problem involves his/her immediate supervisor. • C. When multiple attempts to resolve the issue have been ignored. • D. When he/she is scheduled to work on a day that he/she had previously requested to be off. 730 Mr. and Mrs. Allen share a room at a nursing home. Mrs. Allen’s daughter, Mary, has durable power of attorney for Mr. Allen. If Mr. Allen’s doctor recommends surgery for Mr. Allen, who must sign the permission form? • A. Mr. Allen • B. Mrs. Allen • C. The doctor • D. Mary 731 • Mr. and Mrs. Allen share a room at a nursing home. Mrs. Allen’s daughter, Mary, has durable power of attorney for Mr. Allen. If Mr. Allen’s doctor recommends surgery for Mr. Allen, who must sign the permission form? • A. Mr. Allen • B. Mrs. Allen • C. The doctor • D. Mary 732 A woman has a legally written and witnessed Living Will that states she does not want her life prolonged when her condition is terminal. She is in a car accident and suffers irreversible brain damage. Her daughter wants her kept alive on a respirator. What or who will legally determine the patient’s future? • A. The daughter • B. The doctor • C. The Living Will • D. The court system 733 • 29. A woman has a legally written and witnessed Living Will that states she does not want her life prolonged when her condition is terminal. She is in a car accident and suffers irreversible brain damage. Her daughter wants her kept alive on a respirator. What or who will legally determine the patient’s future? • A. The daughter • B. The doctor • C. The Living Will • D. The court system 734 • 30.A physician writes a DNR order on a patient’s chart. DNR is the medical abbreviation for: • A. Do not resuscitate. • B. Designated nurse responder. • C. Durable negotiated rights. • D. Doctor’s normal request. 735 • 30.A physician writes a DNR order on a patient’s chart. DNR is the medical abbreviation for: • A. Do not resuscitate. • B. Designated nurse responder. • C. Durable negotiated rights. • D. Doctor’s normal request. 736 • 31.Does a hospitalized patient have the right to refuse to have blood drawn? • A. Yes, but only if the doctor agrees. • B. Yes. • C. No. A hospitalized patient must comply with the physician’s orders. • D. No, because the refusal of treatment is a HIPAA violation. 737 • 31.Does a hospitalized patient have the right to refuse to have blood drawn? • A. Yes, but only if the doctor agrees. • B. Yes. • C. No. A hospitalized patient must comply with the physician’s orders. • D. No, because the refusal of treatment is a HIPAA violation. 738 • 32. A client is told she needs an MRI, so she has one done. A month later she receives a bill for $500, the MRI charges not covered by her insurance company. What is she within her rights to do? • A. Refuse to pay the bill. • B. Ask for an explanation of the charges. • C. Pay only what she thinks is reasonable. • D. Sue her doctor for ordering the MRI. 739 • 32. A client is told she needs an MRI, so she has one done. A month later she receives a bill for $500, the MRI charges not covered by her insurance company. What is she within her rights to do? • A. Refuse to pay the bill. • B. Ask for an explanation of the charges. • C. Pay only what she thinks is reasonable. • D. Sue her doctor for ordering the MRI. 740 •ETHICS 741 • Hippocrates wrote standards for the ethical behavior of physicians 2500 years ago in: • A. Rome. • B. Florence. • C. Venice. • D. Greece. 742 • Hippocrates wrote standards for the ethical behavior of physicians 2500 years ago in: • A. Rome. • B. Florence. • C. Venice. • D. Greece. 743 • Most codes of ethics that govern the behavior of healthcare professions are written by: • A. Licensing agencies. • B. State boards of health. • C. Professional organizations. • D. Health science textbook companies. 744 • Most codes of ethics that govern the behavior of healthcare professions are written by: • A. Licensing agencies. • B. State boards of health. • C. Professional organizations. • D. Health science textbook companies. 745 • What statement about euthanasia and healthcare professionals is true? • A. The decision to employ methods of euthanasia is exclusively the physician’s. • B. Many healthcare professionals feel euthanasia is contrary to their professional ethics. • C. Healthcare workers should always follow their ethical beliefs, regardless of what the physician orders or the patient requests. • D. Euthanasia is always illegal and 746 unethical. • What statement about euthanasia and healthcare professionals is true? • A. The decision to employ methods of euthanasia is exclusively the physician’s. • B. Many healthcare professionals feel euthanasia is contrary to their professional ethics. • C. Healthcare workers should always follow their ethical beliefs, regardless of what the physician orders or the patient requests. • D. Euthanasia is always illegal and 747 unethical. • A grief-stricken family in the emergency room has just been notified of the death of their child who was hit by a car. What should the physician ask regarding organ transplantation? • A. Do not ask since the family is in shock and cannot make an informed decision. • B. Wait for five or six hours until the family has had time to accept their loss and then ask about organ donation. • C. Immediately ask the family for permission to donate the child’s organs for transplantation. • D. Start the process of removing the organs, and hope the family will give permission when asked. 748 • A grief-stricken family in the emergency room has just been notified of the death of their child who was hit by a car. What should the physician ask regarding organ transplantation? • A. Do not ask since the family is in shock and cannot make an informed decision. • B. Wait for five or six hours until the family has had time to accept their loss and then ask about organ donation. • C. Immediately ask the family for permission to donate the child’s organs for transplantation. • D. Start the process of removing the organs, and hope the family will give permission when asked.749 • A couple wishes to have their own biological child, but the wife had a hysterectomy for medical reasons when she was 25 years old. What option would give them the best hope for having a child? • A. Genetic counseling and fertility drugs • B. Artificial insemination with sperm from a sperm bank • C. Implantation of five to ten frozen embryos • D. IVF of their own egg and sperm with implantation in a surrogate 750 • A couple wishes to have their own biological child, but the wife had a hysterectomy for medical reasons when she was 25 years old. What option would give them the best hope for having a child? • A. Genetic counseling and fertility drugs • B. Artificial insemination with sperm from a sperm bank • C. Implantation of five to ten frozen embryos • D. IVF of their own egg and sperm with implantation in a surrogate 751 • A nursing assistant refuses a request by the charge nurse to take a pain pill to a patient. The assistant believes that giving the pain medication would be a violation of his/her: • A. Scope of practice. • B. Religious beliefs. • C. Reasonable accommodation. • D. Rights under OSHA rules. 752 • A nursing assistant refuses a request by the charge nurse to take a pain pill to a patient. The assistant believes that giving the pain medication would be a violation of his/her: • A. Scope of practice. • B. Religious beliefs. • C. Reasonable accommodation. • D. Rights under OSHA rules. 753 • What MOST LIKELY would be a task of a hospital ethics committee? • A. Approve discontinuation of life support on a terminally ill patient. • B. Allow the hiring of a physical therapist whose license has been revoked. • C. Termination of an employee who has frequent absences. • D. Censure a physician who is dating a medical laboratory technician. 754 • What MOST LIKELY would be a task of a hospital ethics committee? • A. Approve discontinuation of life support on a terminally ill patient. • B. Allow the hiring of a physical therapist whose license has been revoked. • C. Termination of an employee who has frequent absences. • D. Censure a physician who is dating a medical laboratory technician. 755 • A psychiatrist recommends a 17 year-old be admitted to a psychiatric facility to treat his depression. The parents refuse. Two weeks later, the teen commits suicide. The psychiatrist has MOST LIKELY violated: • A. Ethical standards. • B. Legal standards. • C. Both ethical and legal standards. • D. Neither ethical nor legal standards. 756 • A psychiatrist recommends a 17 year-old be admitted to a psychiatric facility to treat his depression. The parents refuse. Two weeks later, the teen commits suicide. The psychiatrist has MOST LIKELY violated: • A. Ethical standards. • B. Legal standards. • C. Both ethical and legal standards. • D. Neither ethical nor legal standards. 757 • Janie is frequently late for work. Even when she arrives on time, she takes ten minutes to finish applying her make-up and putting her hair up before beginning work. Her behavior MOST LIKELY violates: • A. Ethical standards. • B. Legal standards. • C. Both ethical and legal standards. • D. Neither ethical or legal standards. 758 • Janie is frequently late for work. Even when she arrives on time, she takes ten minutes to finish applying her make-up and putting her hair up before beginning work. Her behavior MOST LIKELY violates: • A. Ethical standards. • B. Legal standards. • C. Both ethical and legal standards. • D. Neither ethical or legal standards. 759 • Avi is born in Nigeria to African parents and is adopted at age 6 months by Spanish parents. He grows up in Spain as a Roman Catholic. If Avi identifies himself as a Spaniard, he is describing his: • A. Race. • B. Ethnicity. • C. Culture. • D. Religion. 760 • Avi is born in Nigeria to African parents and is adopted at age 6 months by Spanish parents. He grows up in Spain as a Roman Catholic. If Avi identifies himself as a Spaniard, he is describing his: • A. Race. • B. Ethnicity. • C. Culture. • D. Religion. 761 • Cammie was born and raised in South Africa. Her skin, hair, and bone structure are Caucasian. What is her race? • A. African • B. African-American • C. South African • D. White 762 • Cammie was born and raised in South Africa. Her skin, hair, and bone structure are Caucasian. What is her race? • A. African • B. African-American • C. South African • D. White 763 • What is the BEST approach for healthcare workers to take when caring for patients from different cultures? • A. Assimilation • B. Sensitivity • C. Acculturation • D. Ethnocentrism • 764 • What is the BEST approach for healthcare workers to take when caring for patients from different cultures? • A. Assimilation • B. Sensitivity • C. Acculturation • D. Ethnocentrism • 765 • Helen looks at her patient assignments and sees that one of her patients is named Adolf. She feels a surge of anger toward this patient because her greatgrandparents were killed by the Nazis in World War II. Her feelings about this patient are classified as: • A. Ethnocentrism. • B. Bias. • C. Sensitivity. • D. Prejudice. 766 • Helen looks at her patient assignments and sees that one of her patients is named Adolf. She feels a surge of anger toward this patient because her greatgrandparents were killed by the Nazis in World War II. Her feelings about this patient are classified as: • A. Ethnocentrism. • B. Bias. • C. Sensitivity. • D. Prejudice. 767 • Darla was caring for a Native American patient whose very long hair became tangled in a knot around the oxygen tubing. In order to discontinue the oxygen as ordered, Darla had to cut a small piece of the patient’s hair. The patient became very upset. Another nurse explained to Darla that cutting hair is forbidden in the patient’s culture. What would be most culturally considerate response by Darla? • A. Sincerely and deeply apologize to the patient and • her family. • B. Apologize and explain that cutting the hair was the • only option for removing the oxygen. • C. Tell the patient she is sorry she did not understand • the needs of the Native American culture. • D. Have the nursing supervisor apologize to the patient. 768 • Darla was caring for a Native American patient whose very long hair became tangled in a knot around the oxygen tubing. In order to discontinue the oxygen as ordered, Darla had to cut a small piece of the patient’s hair. The patient became very upset. Another nurse explained to Darla that cutting hair is forbidden in the patient’s culture. What would be most culturally considerate response by Darla? • A. Sincerely and deeply apologize to the patient and • her family. • B. Apologize and explain that cutting the hair was the • only option for removing the oxygen. • C. Tell the patient she is sorry she did not understand • the needs of the Native American culture. • D. Have the nursing supervisor apologize to the patient. 769 • A dietician would put what important alert on the meal plan for a patient of the Hindu faith? • A. Absolutely NO beef or beef • products! • B. Kosher food only! • C. Do NOT serve breakfast or lunch • on Saturday! • D. Allow wine with every meal! 770 • A dietician would put what important alert on the meal plan for a patient of the Hindu faith? • A. Absolutely NO beef or beef • products! • B. Kosher food only! • C. Do NOT serve breakfast or lunch • on Saturday! • D. Allow wine with every meal! 771 • Healthcare workers should know that patients of what faith will likely refuse a blood transfusion? • A. Roman Catholic • B. Islam • C. Judaism • D. Jehovah’s Witness 772 • Healthcare workers should know that patients of what faith will likely refuse a blood transfusion? • A. Roman Catholic • B. Islam • C. Judaism • D. Jehovah’s Witness 773 • What must a healthcare worker do to achieve patient satisfaction? • A. Smile and be friendly to the patient. • B. Meet the patient’s expectations. • C. Follow his/her scope of practice. • D. Give the patient as much • information as possible about • his/her condition and treatment. 774 • What must a healthcare worker do to achieve patient satisfaction? • A. Smile and be friendly to the patient. • B. Meet the patient’s expectations. • C. Follow his/her scope of practice. • D. Give the patient as much • information as possible about • his/her condition and treatment. 775 • Guidelines for customer service suggest that a healthcare worker should: • A. Never share his/her personal • problems with patients. • B. Always greet patients with a smile. • C. Speak using technical professional • language. • D. Never, ever disagree with a patient. 776 • Guidelines for customer service suggest that a healthcare worker should: • A. Never share his/her personal • problems with patients. • B. Always greet patients with a smile. • C. Speak using technical professional • language. • D. Never, ever disagree with a patient. 777 • What physician is MOST LIKELY to be involved in a lawsuit? • A. A minority physician. • B. A physician who finished in the • lowest 10% of their medical school • graduating class. • C. A physician who cares for well • educated patients. • D. A physician who is abrupt and a • poor listener. 778 • What physician is MOST LIKELY to be involved in a lawsuit? • A. A minority physician. • B. A physician who finished in the • lowest 10% of their medical school • graduating class. • C. A physician who cares for well • educated patients. • D. A physician who is abrupt and a • poor listener. 779 • You are an ophthalmic technician in a small optometry office. When checking out, a patient informs you that she is not coming back to this office. What should you do? • A. Wish her good luck. • B. Ask her to wait while you get the • Optometrist to talk with her. • C. Ask if something is wrong and if there is, • ask if she will sit down and explain the • problem to you. • D. Do nothing because she did not offer to • tell you if something was wrong with her 780 • care. • You are an ophthalmic technician in a small optometry office. When checking out, a patient informs you that she is not coming back to this office. What should you do? • A. Wish her good luck. • B. Ask her to wait while you get the • Optometrist to talk with her. • C. Ask if something is wrong and if there is, • ask if she will sit down and explain the • problem to you. • D. Do nothing because she did not offer to • tell you if something was wrong with her 781 • Nurse O’Conner forgot to properly secure a bed rail causing her patient, Roger, to fall out of bed and bruise his hip. Nurse O’Conner completed an incident report form required by the hospital and filed it 3 months later. What general requirement of incident reporting did Nurse O’Conner MOST LIKELY violate? • A. Failure to focus on the facts in her report. • B. Failure to ensure prompt reporting. • C. Failure to follow hospital policies • regarding incident reports. • D. Failure to document property damage. 782 • Nurse O’Conner forgot to properly secure a bed rail causing her patient, Roger, to fall out of bed and bruise his hip. Nurse O’Conner completed an incident report form required by the hospital and filed it 3 months later. What general requirement of incident reporting did Nurse O’Conner MOST LIKELY violate? • A. Failure to focus on the facts in her report. • B. Failure to ensure prompt reporting. • C. Failure to follow hospital policies • regarding incident reports. • D. Failure to document property damage. 783 • Legal violations and ethical violations • A. are both subject to criminal penalties. • B. differ because legal violations always • result in loss of license, whereas ethical • violations always result in suspension • from duty. • C. differ because legal violations are dealt • with in a court of law, whereas as ethical • violations are dealt with by licensing • agencies or professional organizations. • D. differ because only ethical violations must • be reported to licensing agencies. 784 • Legal violations and ethical violations • A. are both subject to criminal penalties. • B. differ because legal violations always • result in loss of license, whereas ethical • violations always result in suspension • from duty. • C. differ because legal violations are dealt • with in a court of law, whereas as ethical • violations are dealt with by licensing • agencies or professional organizations. • D. differ because only ethical violations must 785 • be reported to licensing agencies. • Which of the following is an ethical dilemma that an ethics committee would be asked to consider? • A. Removing a terminally patient off a • respirator. • B. Following through on a Do Not • Resuscitate request. • C. Transplanting an organ to a patient • would is first on the transplant list. • D. Patient who is opting for a less • invasive treatment when an invasive • procedure is also available. 786 • Which of the following is an ethical dilemma that an ethics committee would be asked to consider? • A. Removing a terminally patient off a • respirator. • B. Following through on a Do Not • Resuscitate request. • C. Transplanting an organ to a patient • would is first on the transplant list. • D. Patient who is opting for a less • invasive treatment when an invasive • procedure is also available. 787 • Dr. North went a networking event with other physicians and conversed about a patient he had, Ms. Kennedy. He was telling jokes about some odd complaints she had made and one of the physicians was a personal friend of Ms. Kennedy’s, who was later informed about what Dr. North had said. Which ethical principle has Dr. North violated? • A. Be honest. • B. Preserve life. • C. Be discreet. • D. Uphold justice. 788 • Dr. North went a networking event with other physicians and conversed about a patient he had, Ms. Kennedy. He was telling jokes about some odd complaints she had made and one of the physicians was a personal friend of Ms. Kennedy’s, who was later informed about what Dr. North had said. Which ethical principle has Dr. North violated? • A. Be honest. • B. Preserve life. • C. Be discreet. • D. Uphold justice. 789 • Dr. Ward treats the nurses that work with him very poorly and he constantly disrespects them because he believes they are inferior. This is an example of occupational • A. sensitivity. • B. prejudice. • C. bias. • D. stereotyping. 790 • Dr. Ward treats the nurses that work with him very poorly and he constantly disrespects them because he believes they are inferior. This is an example of occupational • A. sensitivity. • B. prejudice. • C. bias. • D. stereotyping. 791 •Safety •7.1 Infection Control 792 • Where would you find an anaerobic microorganism? • A. On a toilet seat • B. In the soil • C. In the air • D. In sterile water 793 • Where would you find an anaerobic microorganism? • A. On a toilet seat • B. In the soil • C. In the air • D. In sterile water 794 • • • • • • What statement about bacteria is true? A. All bacteria are harmful B. All bacteria are round C. All bacteria reproduce inside other living cells D. All bacteria are single-celled organisms 795 • • • • • • What statement about bacteria is true? A. All bacteria are harmful B. All bacteria are round C. All bacteria reproduce inside other living cells D. All bacteria are single-celled organisms 796 A patient’s sore throat is caused by a streptococcus. How would it be treated? • A. Antibiotic medication • B. Antifungal gargle • C. Antiviral throat wash • D. There is no treatment for streptococcus 797 A patient’s sore throat is caused by a streptococcus. How would it be treated? • A. Antibiotic medication • B. Antifungal gargle • C. Antiviral throat wash • D. There is no treatment for streptococcus 798 A man died from an infection caused by a rickettsia. The infection was MOST LIKELY transmitted by: • A. Walking barefoot in a locker room. • B. A blood transfusion. • C. The bite of a tick. • D. Breathing in contaminated air. 799 A man died from an infection caused by a rickettsia. The infection was MOST LIKELY transmitted by: • A. Walking barefoot in a locker room. • B. A blood transfusion. • C. The bite of a tick. • D. Breathing in contaminated air. 800 • What organism can only be seen with an electron microscope? • A. Virus • B. Protozoa • C. Bacteria • D. Fungus 801 • What organism can only be seen with an electron microscope? • A. Virus • B. Protozoa • C. Bacteria • D. Fungus 802 • Beth has a nosocomial infection. How did she get it? • A. Hiking in the woods. • B. Having a massage at a hotel spa. • C. Eating contaminated food. • D. Spending three days in the hospital. 803 • Beth has a nosocomial infection. How did she get it? • A. Hiking in the woods. • B. Having a massage at a hotel spa. • C. Eating contaminated food. • D. Spending three days in the hospital. 804 • All pathogens are: • A. Animal-like. • B. Disease-producing. • C. Destroyed by antibiotics. • D. Transmitted by insects. 805 • All pathogens are: • A. Animal-like. • B. Disease-producing. • C. Destroyed by antibiotics. • D. Transmitted by insects. 806 • Tuberculosis is caused by a tubercle bacillus, which is a/an: • A. Virus. • B. Protozoa. • C. Bacteria. • D. Fungus. 807 • Tuberculosis is caused by a tubercle bacillus, which is a/an: • A. Virus. • B. Protozoa. • C. Bacteria. • D. Fungus. 808 • Albert has a yeast infection under his arm. It should be treated with a/an: • A. Antifungal cream. • B. Antibiotic ointment. • C. Vaccination. • D. Hot compress 809 • Albert has a yeast infection under his arm. It should be treated with a/an: • A. Antifungal cream. • B. Antibiotic ointment. • C. Vaccination. • D. Hot compress 810 • An infection that develops when the body’s normal defenses are not working properly is a/an: • A. Mutant infection. • B. Nonpathogenic infection. • C. Opportunistic infection. • D. Recessive infection. 811 • An infection that develops when the body’s normal defenses are not working properly is a/an: • A. Mutant infection. • B. Nonpathogenic infection. • C. Opportunistic infection. • D. Recessive infection. 812 • A sterile towel falls on the floor. The towel would then be considered: • A. Infectious. • B. Contaminated. • C. Antiseptic. • D. Disinfected. 813 • A sterile towel falls on the floor. The towel would then be considered: • A. Infectious. • B. Contaminated. • C. Antiseptic. • D. Disinfected. 814 • What could be found on the surface of a sterile instrument? • A. Viruses • B. Spores • C. Microbes • D. Nothing 815 • What could be found on the surface of a sterile instrument? • A. Viruses • B. Spores • C. Microbes • D. Nothing 816 • OSHA regulations require hospitals to give their employees with occupational exposure what vaccine free of charge? • A. Influenza • B. Mumps • C. Meningitis • D. Hepatitis B 817 • OSHA regulations require hospitals to give their employees with occupational exposure what vaccine free of charge? • A. Influenza • B. Mumps • C. Meningitis • D. Hepatitis B 818 • OSHA regulations require hospitals to give their employees with occupational exposure what vaccine free of charge? • A. Influenza • B. Mumps • C. Meningitis • D. Hepatitis B 819 • A patient has an infection and is on airborne precautions. If the patient must be transported to physical therapy, what should the patient wear? • A. A mask • B. Goggles • C. Gloves • D. A gown 820 • A patient has an infection and is on airborne precautions. If the patient must be transported to physical therapy, what should the patient wear? • A. A mask • B. Goggles • C. Gloves • D. A gown 821 • What would a health care worker report in a sharps injury log? • A. Patient pain medication injections • B. Emergency room patients with cuts • that require suturing • C. When he/she breaks any equipment • D. Sticking himself/herself with a • needle 822 • What would a health care worker report in a sharps injury log? • A. Patient pain medication injections • B. Emergency room patients with cuts • that require suturing • C. When he/she breaks any equipment • D. Sticking himself/herself with a • needle 823 • What healthcare professional should wear eye protection? • A. A nursing assistant taking a blood • pressure. • B. A pharmacist filling a prescription for • an antibiotic. • C. A dentist extracting a tooth. • D. An EMT responding to a possible • cardiac arrest. 824 • What healthcare professional should wear eye protection? • A. A nursing assistant taking a blood • pressure. • B. A pharmacist filling a prescription for • an antibiotic. • C. A dentist extracting a tooth. • D. An EMT responding to a possible • cardiac arrest. 825 • When should health care workers wear gowns and gloves? • A. When there is a chance of contact • with blood and body fluids. • B. When entering the room of a patient • who is HIV positive. • C. When she/he has a cold. • D. When caring for any patient with an • upper respiratory tract infection. 826 • When should health care workers wear gowns and gloves? • A. When there is a chance of contact • with blood and body fluids. • B. When entering the room of a patient • who is HIV positive. • C. When she/he has a cold. • D. When caring for any patient with an • upper respiratory tract infection. 827 • What does OSHA require health facilities to provide for all employees who come in contact with patients? • A. Health insurance • B. PPE • C. Annual chest x-rays • D. A watch with a second hand 828 • What does OSHA require health facilities to provide for all employees who come in contact with patients? • A. Health insurance • B. PPE • C. Annual chest x-rays • D. A watch with a second hand 829 • A healthcare worker who observes standard precautions would dispose of infectious waste in a/an: • A. Recycle container. • B. Biohazard container. • C. Autoclave. • D. Incinerator. 830 • A healthcare worker who observes standard precautions would dispose of infectious waste in a/an: • A. Recycle container. • B. Biohazard container. • C. Autoclave. • D. Incinerator. 831 • When healthcare workers follow standard precautions, they are practicing medical: • A. Asepsis. • B. Transmission. • C. Contamination. • D. Isolation. 832 • When healthcare workers follow standard precautions, they are practicing medical: • A. Asepsis. • B. Transmission. • C. Contamination. • D. Isolation. 833 Safety • 7.2 • 7.3 • 7.4 Personal Safety Environmental Safety Common Safety Hazards 834 • Handwashing is described as the single most important practice for: • A. Preventing the spread of HIV. • B. Preventing the opportunistic infections. • C. Sterile technique. • D. Aseptic technique. 835 • Handwashing is described as the single most important practice for: • A. Preventing the spread of HIV. • B. Preventing the opportunistic infections. • C. Sterile technique. • D. Aseptic technique. 836 • Karla delivers a meal try to Mrs. Garcia. She moves Mrs. Garcia’s tissue box and magazine to the bedside table. As Karla leaves the room, what is the minimal hand hygiene required? • A. None since Karla did not touch the • patient • B. Wash for two minutes with soap and • water • C. Wash hands using an antimicrobial • soap • D. Use alcohol-based handrub 837 • Karla delivers a meal try to Mrs. Garcia. She moves Mrs. Garcia’s tissue box and magazine to the bedside table. As Karla leaves the room, what is the minimal hand hygiene required? • A. None since Karla did not touch the • patient • B. Wash for two minutes with soap and • water • C. Wash hands using an antimicrobial • soap • D. Use alcohol-based handrub 838 • 3. What is an example of a bloodborne pathogen? • A. Hepatitis C • B. Sleeping sickness • C. Yeast • D. Vitamin A 839 • 3. What is an example of a bloodborne pathogen? • A. Hepatitis C • B. Sleeping sickness • C. Yeast • D. Vitamin A 840 • A dental assistant tears a glove when assisting a dentist with a patient who is HIV positive. What should the assistant do FIRST? • A. Notify OSHA • B. Report the incident to the CDC • C. Remove the gloves and wash hands • D. Put on a new pair of gloves 841 • A dental assistant tears a glove when assisting a dentist with a patient who is HIV positive. What should the assistant do FIRST? • A. Notify OSHA • B. Report the incident to the CDC • C. Remove the gloves and wash hands • D. Put on a new pair of gloves 842 • Daniella arrives to work at the nursing home at 7:00 AM. After using the rest room, she takes the blood pressure and temperature of eight patients, and then goes on break at 7:45 AM to eat her yogurt. How many times should Daniella have practiced hand hygiene so far? • A. Seven (7) • B. Nine (9) • C. Eleven (11) • D. Nineteen (19) 843 • Daniella arrives to work at the nursing home at 7:00 AM. After using the rest room, she takes the blood pressure and temperature of eight patients, and then goes on break at 7:45 AM to eat her yogurt. How many times should Daniella have practiced hand hygiene so far? • A. Seven (7) • B. Nine (9) • C. Eleven (11) • D. Nineteen (19) 844 • While observing good body mechanics, how should a radiologic technologist move a portable x-ray machine to a patient’s room? • A. Stand 2 feet away from the machine and • push using the arm and back muscles. • B. Stand close to the machine and pull while • walking backwards. • C. Stand 2 feet away from the machine and • pull using the arm and leg muscles. • D. Stand close to the machine and push • using the weight of the body. 845 • While observing good body mechanics, how should a radiologic technologist move a portable x-ray machine to a patient’s room? • A. Stand 2 feet away from the machine and • push using the arm and back muscles. • B. Stand close to the machine and pull while • walking backwards. • C. Stand 2 feet away from the machine and • pull using the arm and leg muscles. • D. Stand close to the machine and push • using the weight of the body. 846 • Darla is a medical office assistant and must take a heavy box from the floor to the storage room. How should she lift it? • A. Bend at the hips and knees with the back straight, • get close to the box, and lift using the leg • muscles. • B. Keep one leg straight and bend the other to get • close to the box, then lift while straightening the • bent leg and bending the straight leg. • C. Put a chair next to the box, kneel down, pick up • the box and place it on the chair. Then stand and • lift the box, holding it close to the chest. • D. Bend at the waist to pick up the box, and then • use the arm muscles to lift and bring the box 847 • close in to the body. • Darla is a medical office assistant and must take a heavy box from the floor to the storage room. How should she lift it? • A. Bend at the hips and knees with the back • straight, get close to the box, and lift using • the leg muscles. • B. Keep one leg straight and bend the other to get • close to the box, then lift while straightening the • bent leg and bending the straight leg. • C. Put a chair next to the box, kneel down, pick up • the box and place it on the chair. Then stand and • lift the box, holding it close to the chest. • D. Bend at the waist to pick up the box, and then • use the arm muscles to lift and bring the box 848 • close in to the body. • Diane and Elena work at a nursing home and have similar patient care assignments. At the end of every shift, Diane is tired and her back and shoulders ache, while Elena feels pretty good. What MOST LIKEY causes the difference? • A. Elena must be much younger. • B. Elena must be much thinner. • C. Elena must use good body • mechanics. • D. Diane must work much harder. 849 • Diane and Elena work at a nursing home and have similar patient care assignments. At the end of every shift, Diane is tired and her back and shoulders ache, while Elena feels pretty good. What MOST LIKEY causes the difference? • A. Elena must be much younger. • B. Elena must be much thinner. • C. Elena must use good body • mechanics. • D. Diane must work much harder. 850 • You are getting ready to move a patient up in bed, and your supervisor tells you to broaden your base of support. You should: • A. Bend at the knees. • B. Place your feet further apart. • C. Raise your arms up at your sides. • D. Lean up against the bed. 851 • You are getting ready to move a patient up in bed, and your supervisor tells you to broaden your base of support. You should: • A. Bend at the knees. • B. Place your feet further apart. • C. Raise your arms up at your sides. • D. Lean up against the bed. 852 • You are cleaning a patient’s dentures when some of the soaking solution splashes into your eye. What should you do FIRST? • A. Flush your eyes with water. • B. Call 911. • C. Notify your supervisor. • D. Complete an incident report 853 • You are cleaning a patient’s dentures when some of the soaking solution splashes into your eye. What should you do FIRST? • A. Flush your eyes with water. • B. Call 911. • C. Notify your supervisor. • D. Complete an incident report 854 • What should you place in a red bag with the words “Biohazardous Waste” on the front of the bag? • A. Soiled bed linens • B. Patient’s clothes that are • stained with blood • C. A soiled dressing from a wound • D. A wet disposable baby diaper 855 • What should you place in a red bag with the words “Biohazardous Waste” on the front of the bag? • A. Soiled bed linens • B. Patient’s clothes that are • stained with blood • C. A soiled dressing from a wound • D. A wet disposable baby diaper 856 • You should consult a Material Safety Data Sheet to get information about cleaning up what type of spill? • A. Blood • B. Chemical • C. Food • D. Bottle of pills 857 • You should consult a Material Safety Data Sheet to get information about cleaning up what type of spill? • A. Blood • B. Chemical • C. Food • D. Bottle of pills 858 • A computer in the medical records section of the hospital has a frayed cord. What should the office manager do? • A. Replace the cord with a new one. • B. Wrap the cord with electrical tape. • C. Report the damage to the • manufacturer. • D. Report the damage to the hospital • administrator 859 • A computer in the medical records section of the hospital has a frayed cord. What should the office manager do? • A. Replace the cord with a new one. • B. Wrap the cord with electrical tape. • C. Report the damage to the • manufacturer. • D. Report the damage to the hospital • administrator 860 • You are washing your hands and splash an ounce of water on the floor. What should you do? • A. Call housekeeping to clean up the • spill. • B. Allow the water to evaporate. • C. Wipe up the spill and clean the area • with an approved floor cleaner. • D. Dry the spill with a paper towel and • re-wash your hands. 861 • • You are washing your hands and splash an ounce of water on the floor. What should you do? • A. Call housekeeping to clean up the • spill. • B. Allow the water to evaporate. • C. Wipe up the spill and clean the area • with an approved floor cleaner. • D. Dry the spill with a paper towel • and re-wash your hands. 862 • • You are a medical assistant in an office practice and have been asked to get Mrs. James in room 6 to sign a consent form. What should you do FIRST? • A. Ask Mrs. James to spell her full • name for you. • B. Explain the procedure needing • consent before you ask her to sign • the form. • C. Knock on the door before entering • the room. • D. Read the history and physical on 863 • Mrs. James’ chart. • You are a medical assistant in an office practice and have been asked to get Mrs. James in room 6 to sign a consent form. What should you do FIRST? • A. Ask Mrs. James to spell her full • name for you. • B. Explain the procedure needing • consent before you ask her to sign • the form. • C. Knock on the door before entering • the room. • D. Read the history and physical on 864 • Mrs. James’ chart. • After caring for a resident in a nursing home, before leaving the room the healthcare worker should: • A. Check to be sure the bed is in its • highest position. • B. Be sure the wheels on the bed are • not locked. • C. Pull the privacy curtains and place • the call bell on the bedside table. • D. Put the client’s phone, tissues and • glasses within easy reach. 865 • After caring for a resident in a nursing home, before leaving the room the healthcare worker should: • A. Check to be sure the bed is in its • highest position. • B. Be sure the wheels on the bed are • not locked. • C. Pull the privacy curtains and place • the call bell on the bedside table. • D. Put the client’s phone, tissues • and glasses within easy reach. 866 • After ergonomics training, a healthcare worker should know how to: • A. Prevent injuries in the work • environment. • B. Practice aseptic technique in a • specific work setting. • C. Read and understand Material • Safety Data Sheets. • D. Wear PPE. 867 • After ergonomics training, a healthcare worker should know how to: • A. Prevent injuries in the work • environment. • B. Practice aseptic technique in a • specific work setting. • C. Read and understand Material • Safety Data Sheets. • D. Wear PPE. 868 • What does this symbol tell a healthcare worker? • A. This is a • poison • B. Practice standard • precautions • C. This item is sterile • D. Bloodborne • pathogen alert 869 • What does this symbol tell a healthcare worker? • A. This is a • poison • B. Practice standard • precautions • C. This item is sterile • D. Bloodborne • pathogen alert 870 • You are working in a hospital when you hear a patient in a room at the end of the hall call for help. What should you do FIRST? • A. Run to the room and offer • assistance. • B. Find your supervisor and tell him/her • what you heard. • C. Walk quickly to the room and assess • the situation. • D. Go to the nurse’s station, call the • room, and offer assistance. 871 • You are working in a hospital when you hear a patient in a room at the end of the hall call for help. What should you do FIRST? • A. Run to the room and offer • assistance. • B. Find your supervisor and tell him/her • what you heard. • C. Walk quickly to the room and assess • the situation. • D. Go to the nurse’s station, call the • room, and offer assistance. 872 • You are working in a nursing home and have been asked to take Mr. Arnold to recreational therapy in a wheelchair. When you arrive in the room, Mr. Arnold refuses to go. What should you do? • A. Gently guide Mr. Arnold to sit in the • wheelchair. • B. Explain to Mr. Arnold that if he does not • do as you ask, he will never get better. • C. Ask why and then report Mr. Arnold’s • refusal to your supervisor. • D. Have Mr. Arnold sign an “Against Medical • Advice” refusal form. 873 • You are working in a nursing home and have been asked to take Mr. Arnold to recreational therapy in a wheelchair. When you arrive in the room, Mr. Arnold refuses to go. What should you do? • A. Gently guide Mr. Arnold to sit in the • wheelchair. • B. Explain to Mr. Arnold that if he does not • do as you ask, he will never get better. • C. Ask why and then report Mr. Arnold’s • refusal to your supervisor. • D. Have Mr. Arnold sign an “Against Medical • Advice” refusal form. 874 • Safety Practices • 7.5 Emergency Procedures and Protocols 875 • 1. When preparing to use a fire extinguisher, what must you do FIRST? • A. Use a side-to-side sweeping motion. • B. Pull the pin. • C. Aim at the bottom and edge of the fire. • D. Squeeze the handle. 876 • 1. When preparing to use a fire extinguisher, what must you do FIRST? • A. Use a side-to-side sweeping motion. • B. Pull the pin. • C. Aim at the bottom and edge of the fire. • D. Squeeze the handle. 877 • You are working alone in a medical laboratory when a large machine sparks and then starts to flame up and spreads to the cabinet and papers above. What should you do? • A. Use a Class A extinguisher • B. Use a Class C extinguisher • C. Activate the fire alarm • D. Evacuate the building 878 • You are working alone in a medical laboratory when a large machine sparks and then starts to flame up and spreads to the cabinet and papers above. What should you do? • A. Use a Class A extinguisher • B. Use a Class C extinguisher • C. Activate the fire alarm • D. Evacuate the building 879 • • • • • 3. A. B. C. D. What is inside a Class A extinguisher? Halon Carbon dioxide Hydrogen Water 880 • • • • • 3. A. B. C. D. What is inside a Class A extinguisher? Halon Carbon dioxide Hydrogen Water 881 • You are working in a dental laboratory on the 4th floor of an office building when you hear the fire alarm. What should you do? • A. Wait until you receive some indication • that this is a real fire and not a false • alarm. • B. Call the fire department. • C. Evacuate the building using the stairs. • D. Go to the office and gather up as many • records as possible and put them on a • cart to remove from the building in the • event there really is a fire. 882 • You are working in a dental laboratory on the 4th floor of an office building when you hear the fire alarm. What should you do? • A. Wait until you receive some indication • that this is a real fire and not a false • alarm. • B. Call the fire department. • C. Evacuate the building using the stairs. • D. Go to the office and gather up as many • records as possible and put them on a • cart to remove from the building in the • event there really is a fire. 883 • Which of the following is considered a fire hazard? • A. “No Smoking” sign on a room with • oxygen in use. • B. The use of an electrical blow dryer • in a hospital room. • C. Wheelchairs and stretchers • blocking a stairwell. • D. Waste materials disposed of in • metal containers. 884 • Which of the following is considered a fire hazard? • A. “No Smoking” sign on a room with • oxygen in use. • B. The use of an electrical blow dryer • in a hospital room. • C. Wheelchairs and stretchers • blocking a stairwell. • D. Waste materials disposed of in • metal containers. 885 • When using RACE acronym, what follows “Activate alarm.” • A. Contain the fire. • B. Cut off oxygen supply. • C. Check for people in danger. • D. Call 911. 886 • When using RACE acronym, what follows “Activate alarm.” • A. Contain the fire. • B. Cut off oxygen supply. • C. Check for people in danger. • D. Call 911. 887 • You are the first to arrive at the scene of a home where a tornado touched down. You find one unconscious victim inside, and notice that the roof in the room with the victim looks unstable. What would you do? • A. Leave the house immediately and wait for • trained personnel to arrive. • B. Find something flat to place under the • victim, then stabilize the victim’s head, • neck and spine before attempting to • move the victim. • C. As quickly as possible, drag the victim to • a safer location. • D. Immobilize the victim’s head, neck and • back and stay with the victim until trained • personnel arrive. 888 • You are the first to arrive at the scene of a home where a tornado touched down. You find one unconscious victim inside, and notice that the roof in the room with the victim looks unstable. What would you do? • A. Leave the house immediately and wait for • trained personnel to arrive. • B. Find something flat to place under the • victim, then stabilize the victim’s head, • neck and spine before attempting to • move the victim. • C. As quickly as possible, drag the victim to • a safer location. • D. Immobilize the victim’s head, neck and • back and stay with the victim until trained • personnel arrive. 889 • You are driving down the road and come upon an overturned bus. When you call 911 on your cell phone, what should you be prepared to tell the 911 operator? • A. The name of the bus company. • B. Your name, age and credentials. • C. The number of victims and a • description of their injuries. • D. Your location and the approximate • number of victims. 890 • You are driving down the road and come upon an overturned bus. When you call 911 on your cell phone, what should you be prepared to tell the 911 operator? • A. The name of the bus company. • B. Your name, age and credentials. • C. The number of victims and a • description of their injuries. • D. Your location and the approximate • number of victims. 891 • A hospice nurse brings an oxygen tank to a patient. What would the nurse tell the patient not to use when the oxygen is in use? • A. Hand lotion or sunscreen • B. A battery operated radio • C. Alcohol or nail polish • D. The TV remote 892 • A hospice nurse brings an oxygen tank to a patient. What would the nurse tell the patient not to use when the oxygen is in use? • A. Hand lotion or sunscreen • B. A battery operated radio • C. Alcohol or nail polish • D. The TV remote 893 • What is bioterrorism? • A. The threat of leaks or destruction to • a nuclear plant. • B. The use of microbes for industrial • waste disposal. • C. The threat of using harmful gasses • during a war to paralyze the • opposition. • D. The use of microorganisms as • weapons to infect humans. 894 • What is bioterrorism? • A. The threat of leaks or destruction to • a nuclear plant. • B. The use of microbes for industrial • waste disposal. • C. The threat of using harmful gasses • during a war to paralyze the • opposition. • D. The use of microorganisms as • weapons to infect humans. 895 •Teamwork 896 • Which of the following is the BEST example of a hospital interdisciplinary team? • A. Housekeeping staff • B. Pharmacy staff • C. Emergency department staff • D. Morgue staff 897 • Which of the following is the BEST example of a hospital interdisciplinary team? • A. Housekeeping staff • B. Pharmacy staff • C. Emergency department staff • D. Morgue staff 898 • What group of healthcare workers would MOST LIKELY be part of a rehabilitation team? • A. Social worker, physical therapist, • occupational therapist, physician • B. Nurse, physical therapist, paramedic, • perfusionist • C. Biomedical equipment technician, • occupational therapist, physician, • paramedic • D. Social worker, nurse, perfusionist, • biomedical equipment technician 899 • What group of healthcare workers would MOST LIKELY be part of a rehabilitation team? • A. Social worker, physical therapist, • occupational therapist, physician • B. Nurse, physical therapist, paramedic, • perfusionist • C. Biomedical equipment technician, • occupational therapist, physician, • paramedic • D. Social worker, nurse, perfusionist, • biomedical equipment technician 900 • A hospitalized patient is introduced to Dr. Leila Azzi as “an intern on my team” by the attending physician. As an intern, Dr. Azzi: • A. Is still in medical school and cannot • participate in patient care. • B. Performs the skill of a doctor under the • supervision of the attending physician. • C. Has all the rights and privileges of any • physician on the hospital medical staff. • D. Functions as an independent healthcare • provider who is employed by the attending • physician. 901 • A hospitalized patient is introduced to Dr. Leila Azzi as “an intern on my team” by the attending physician. As an intern, Dr. Azzi: • A. Is still in medical school and cannot • participate in patient care. • B. Performs the skill of a doctor under the • supervision of the attending physician. • C. Has all the rights and privileges of any • physician on the hospital medical staff. • D. Functions as an independent healthcare • provider who is employed by the attending • physician. 902 In following the chain of command, the dental assistant works under the direction of the: • A. Patient. • B. Billing clerk. • C. Dental hygienist. • D. Dentist. 903 In following the chain of command, the dental assistant works under the direction of the: • A. Patient. • B. Billing clerk. • C. Dental hygienist. • D. Dentist. 904 • The team member who contributes the MOST to team effectiveness is one who: • A. Does exactly what is expected of • him/her. • B. Treats others with cool courtesy. • C. Is open-minded and willing to • compromise. • D. Stays focused on his/her • assignments and not what others • are doing. 905 • The team member who contributes the MOST to team effectiveness is one who: • A. Does exactly what is expected of • him/her. • B. Treats others with cool courtesy. • C. Is open-minded and willing to • compromise. • D. Stays focused on his/her • assignments and not what others • are doing. 906 • Steve is a good role model for Leslie because he: • A. Earns over $50,000 a year. • B. Only complains about his boss to • his family. • C. Likes to rush to get the job done as • quickly as possible. • D. Is respectful of his co-workers and • patients 907 • Steve is a good role model for Leslie because he: • A. Earns over $50,000 a year. • B. Only complains about his boss to • his family. • C. Likes to rush to get the job done as • quickly as possible. • D. Is respectful of his co-workers • and patients 908 • A charge nurse is described by a nursing assistant as being an effective leader. What example by the charge nurse would support this description? • A. He pitches in and helps the nursing • assistants when things are really busy. • B. He has a good sense of humor and • makes light of stressful situations. • C. He makes sure that the assistants who • have worked for him the longest get the • easier assignments. • D. He compliments the younger nurses on 909 • their appearance. • A charge nurse is described by a nursing assistant as being an effective leader. What example by the charge nurse would support this description? • A. He pitches in and helps the nursing • assistants when things are really busy. • B. He has a good sense of humor and • makes light of stressful situations. • C. He makes sure that the assistants who • have worked for him the longest get the • easier assignments. • D. He compliments the younger nurses on 910 • their appearance. • Carlos likes to make all the decisions for his team and do most of the work himself. His leadership style is described as: • A. Democratic. • B. Passive. • C. Laissez-faire. • D. Autocratic. 911 • Carlos likes to make all the decisions for his team and do most of the work himself. His leadership style is described as: • A. Democratic. • B. Passive. • C. Laissez-faire. • D. Autocratic. 912 • An effective group facilitator should: • A. Try to persuade the group to • make the decision that he/she wants. • B. Involve all members of the group in • the decision-making process. • C. Use an autocratic leadership style. • D. Do most of the work for the group to • achieve their goals. 913 • An effective group facilitator should: • A. Try to persuade the group to • make the decision that he/she wants. • B. Involve all members of the group • in the decision-making process. • C. Use an autocratic leadership style. • D. Do most of the work for the group to • achieve their goals. 914 • Miranda prefers to work using a Laissezfaire leadership style. What career might be best suited for Miranda? • A. Paramedic • B. Neurosurgeon • C. Massage therapist • D. Operating room technician 915 • Miranda prefers to work using a Laissezfaire leadership style. What career might be best suited for Miranda? • A. Paramedic • B. Neurosurgeon • C. Massage therapist • D. Operating room technician 916 • The other EMTs describe Ben as a good team member because he is highly skilled and: • A. Does his fair share of the work. • B. Takes credit for the work of the • team. • C. Likes to do things the way he has • always done them. • D. Participates in activities with co• workers after work. 917 • The other EMTs describe Ben as a good team member because he is highly skilled and: • A. Does his fair share of the work. • B. Takes credit for the work of the • team. • C. Likes to do things the way he has • always done them. • D. Participates in activities with co• workers after work. 918 • An athletic trainer is frustrated with the constant criticism she receives from the head trainer. What should she do? • A. Stand up to the trainer the next • time she is criticized. • B. Ask for a private meeting to discuss • her concerns. • C. Keep her feelings to herself and • accept the head trainer’s authority. • D. Report the trainer’s behavior to • his/her supervisor. 919 • An athletic trainer is frustrated with the constant criticism she receives from the head trainer. What should she do? • A. Stand up to the trainer the next • time she is criticized. • B. Ask for a private meeting to • discuss her concerns. • C. Keep her feelings to herself and • accept the head trainer’s authority. • D. Report the trainer’s behavior to • his/her supervisor. 920 • A medical office is aware that their average patient wait time is 20 minutes. What might be their BEST strategy for beginning to address the problem? • A. Let the physician who owns the medical • office offer a solution. • B. Have a team meeting to gather different • ideas for solving the problem. • C. Survey the patients to determine if they • mind waiting for 20 minutes. • D. Pay for a professional consulting company • to analyze the office efficiency procedures. 921 • A medical office is aware that their average patient wait time is 20 minutes. What might be their BEST strategy for beginning to address the problem? • A. Let the physician who owns the medical • office offer a solution. • B. Have a team meeting to gather different • ideas for solving the problem. • C. Survey the patients to determine if they • mind waiting for 20 minutes. • D. Pay for a professional consulting company • to analyze the office efficiency procedures. 922 • Belle is a pharmacy assistant. What does Belle have the “right” to do? • A. Take her scheduled break for • personal reasons. • B. Refuse to perform tasks she does • not like to perform. • C. Take a coffee break whenever she • is not checking out a customer. • D. Have social conversations with her • friends while she is working. 923 • Belle is a pharmacy assistant. What does Belle have the “right” to do? • A. Take her scheduled break for • personal reasons. • B. Refuse to perform tasks she does • not like to perform. • C. Take a coffee break whenever she • is not checking out a customer. • D. Have social conversations with her • friends while she is working. 924 • What example would BEST lead to finding a win-win solution? • A. Flipping a coin • B. Voting • C. Letting the person with the most • power in the relationship make the • decision • D. Discussion that leads to a mutual • decision 925 • What example would BEST lead to finding a win-win solution? • A. Flipping a coin • B. Voting • C. Letting the person with the most • power in the relationship make the • decision • D. Discussion that leads to a mutual • decision 926 • Beth is a basketball player who is constantly criticizing and insulting other team members. When her teammates bring this to her attention, Beth responds “I have the right to say how I feel.” Does she? • A. Yes. Beth is being open and honest with • her teammates. • B. Yes. Freedom of speech means that Beth • can say whatever she wants. • C. No. Beth’s behavior violates the rights of • her teammates to a positive athletic • environment. • D. No. Nobody has the right to complain all • the time 927 • Beth is a basketball player who is constantly criticizing and insulting other team members. When her teammates bring this to her attention, Beth responds “I have the right to say how I feel.” Does she? • A. Yes. Beth is being open and honest with • her teammates. • B. Yes. Freedom of speech means that Beth • can say whatever she wants. • C. No. Beth’s behavior violates the rights of • her teammates to a positive athletic • environment. • D. No. Nobody has the right to complain all • the time 928 • Peggy is a dental hygienist. Does she have a right to wear a generous amount of perfume at work? • A. No. The strong odor could violate • her patient’s rights. • B. No. Healthcare workers should • never wear perfume, after shave, or • anything similar. • C. Yes. Perfume creates a pleasant • smell for patients. • D. Yes. She has the right to wear • whatever she wants. 929 • Peggy is a dental hygienist. Does she have a right to wear a generous amount of perfume at work? • A. No. The strong odor could violate • her patient’s rights. • B. No. Healthcare workers should • never wear perfume, after shave, or • anything similar. • C. Yes. Perfume creates a pleasant • smell for patients. • D. Yes. She has the right to wear • whatever she wants. 930 • Mallory and Ashli are best friends and both want to run for president of their HOSA chapter. After sharing their feelings with each other, Mallory decides that Ashli would make a better president and she would be just as happy working with a committee, so they decide that Ashli will run for president and Mallory will be her campaign manager. This is an example of a: • A. Sacrifice. • B. Compromise. • C. Win-lose. • D. Win-win. 931 • Mallory and Ashli are best friends and both want to run for president of their HOSA chapter. After sharing their feelings with each other, Mallory decides that Ashli would make a better president and she would be just as happy working with a committee, so they decide that Ashli will run for president and Mallory will be her campaign manager. This is an example of a: • A. Sacrifice. • B. Compromise. • C. Win-lose. • D. Win-win. 932 • Marie likes to choose her conflicts wisely. Which conflict below should Maria choose to do something about? • A. She sees another student take • something out of a friend’s purse. • B. She hears other students complaining about • her favorite teacher. • C. The person in front of her in the lunch line • takes the last slice of chocolate cake. • D. Her teacher says “Maria, stop • daydreaming” and she was not • daydreaming. 933 • Marie likes to choose her conflicts wisely. Which conflict below should Maria choose to do something about? • A. She sees another student take • something out of a friend’s purse. • B. She hears other students complaining about • her favorite teacher. • C. The person in front of her in the lunch line • takes the last slice of chocolate cake. • D. Her teacher says “Maria, stop • daydreaming” and she was not • daydreaming. 934 • What is the MOST important key to resolving a conflict? • A. Ask others for information about • the people involved in the conflict • B. Give the other person the benefit • of the doubt • C. Communication • D. Forgiveness 935 • What is the MOST important key to resolving a conflict? • A. Ask others for information about • the people involved in the conflict • B. Give the other person the benefit • of the doubt • C. Communication • D. Forgiveness 936 • Assertive communication requires respecting the rights of others, but also • A. speaking in a loud voice. • B. standing up for your beliefs. • C. keeping arms crossed. • D. avoiding eye contact. 937 • Assertive communication requires respecting the rights of others, but also • A. speaking in a loud voice. • B. standing up for your beliefs. • C. keeping arms crossed. • D. avoiding eye contact. 938 • In order to communicate effectively about differences of opinions with a co-worker, the health care professional should • A. consult his/her superior on the right • course of action. • B. consult a co-worker not involved in the • situation. • C. arrange a suitable time and place to • discuss the issue with co-worker. • D. attack the person so that they will • agree with you. 939 • In order to communicate effectively about differences of opinions with a co-worker, the health care professional should • A. consult his/her superior on the right • course of action. • B. consult a co-worker not involved in the • situation. • C. arrange a suitable time and place to • discuss the issue with co-worker. • D. attack the person so that they will • agree with you. 940 • • • • • • • • Staff meetings provide an opportunity to A. share ideas and contribute to the process. B. air out differences while all co-workers are present to observe. C. discuss personal problems. D. stay silent and listen attentively to your manager. 941 • • • • • • • • Staff meetings provide an opportunity to A. share ideas and contribute to the process. B. air out differences while all co-workers are present to observe. C. discuss personal problems. D. stay silent and listen attentively to your manager. 942 • Which of the following is a real benefit of working in a team? • A. An individual can do less work because • they can rely on other team members • B. Multiple views can make problems • easier to solve. • C. If something goes wrong, multiple • people share responsibility. • D. Differences of opinion can lead to • intense arguments. 943 • Which of the following is a real benefit of working in a team? • A. An individual can do less work because • they can rely on other team members • B. Multiple views can make problems • easier to solve. • C. If something goes wrong, multiple • people share responsibility. • D. Differences of opinion can lead to • intense arguments. 944 • Nurse Elexa has concerns about the new electronic charting system and has an idea about how to make it more easy to use. During the discussion the manager is reading a magazine and never looks at Nurse Elexa. Which communication failure is the manager most likely having? • A. Failure to cooperate. • B. Failure to have a positive attitude. • C. Failure to exercise an open-mind. • D. Failure to listen carefully. 945 • Nurse Elexa has concerns about the new electronic charting system and has an idea about how to make it more easy to use. During the discussion the manager is reading a magazine and never looks at Nurse Elexa. Which communication failure is the manager most likely having? • A. Failure to cooperate. • B. Failure to have a positive attitude. • C. Failure to exercise an open-mind. • D. Failure to listen carefully. 946 •Health Maintenance 947 • A man who controls his stress, exercises regularly, and decreases the amount of fat and salt in his diet will likely decrease his: • A. Energy levels. • B. Sleep needs. • C. Blood pressure. • D. Risk of skin cancer. 948 • A man who controls his stress, exercises regularly, and decreases the amount of fat and salt in his diet will likely decrease his: • A. Energy levels. • B. Sleep needs. • C. Blood pressure. • D. Risk of skin cancer. 949 • Thiamine, niacin and folic acid are examples of: • A. Organic minerals. • B. Inorganic minerals. • C. Fat-soluble vitamins. • D. Water-soluble vitamins. 950 • Thiamine, niacin and folic acid are examples of: • A. Organic minerals. • B. Inorganic minerals. • C. Fat-soluble vitamins. • D. Water-soluble vitamins. 951 • What body process is improved by the intake of cellulose in the diet? • A. Digestion • B. Respiration • C. Urination • D. Circulation 952 • What body process is improved by the intake of cellulose in the diet? • A. Digestion • B. Respiration • C. Urination • D. Circulation 953 • • • • • Chicken is an example of: A. An amino acid. B. Folic acid. C. An incomplete protein. D. A complete protein 954 • • • • • Chicken is an example of: A. An amino acid. B. Folic acid. C. An incomplete protein. D. A complete protein 955 • Kim purchases a bag of mini Toblerone bars and in the course of a day, eats 10 bars. How many calories did she consume? • A. 600 • B. 667 • C. 1038 • D. 1200 956 • Kim purchases a bag of mini Toblerone bars and in the course of a day, eats 10 bars. How many calories did she consume? • A. 600 • B. 667 • C. 1038 • D. 1200 957 • Choose MyPlate recommends that you make half your plate: • A. Meat and beans. • B. Milk and dairy products. • C. Fruits and vegetables. • D. Whole grains. 958 • Choose MyPlate recommends that you make half your plate: • A. Meat and beans. • B. Milk and dairy products. • C. Fruits and vegetables. • D. Whole grains. 959 • Barry suffers from sleep apnea, which is MOST LIKELY caused by: • A. Obesity. • B. Dehydration. • C. Stress. • D. Caffeine. 960 • Barry suffers from sleep apnea, which is MOST LIKELY caused by: • A. Obesity. • B. Dehydration. • C. Stress. • D. Caffeine. 961 • Carla has a BMI of 31. She would be classified as: • A. Underweight. • B. Healthy weight. • C. Overweight. • D. Obese. 962 • Carla has a BMI of 31. She would be classified as: • A. Underweight. • B. Healthy weight. • C. Overweight. • D. Obese. 963 • What is the MAIN cause of obesity? • A. Excess calorie food consumption. • B. Increase in the use of technology. • C. Fast food restaurants. • D. Lack of sidewalks and parks in • most neighborhoods. 964 • What is the MAIN cause of obesity? • A. Excess calorie food consumption. • B. Increase in the use of technology. • C. Fast food restaurants. • D. Lack of sidewalks and parks in • most neighborhoods. 965 • Angie is 35 years old. She runs two miles a day and eats a healthy diet. What should she add to her routine to increase her strength and build stronger bones? • A. A weekly massage • B. Aerobics three times a week • C. Weight lifting two days a week • D. Vitamin C and iodine supplements 966 • Angie is 35 years old. She runs two miles a day and eats a healthy diet. What should she add to her routine to increase her strength and build stronger bones? • A. A weekly massage • B. Aerobics three times a week • C. Weight lifting two days a week • D. Vitamin C and iodine supplements 967 • Robert goes to the gym every day after work from 4-5 pm, drinks coffee with breakfast and lunch, goes to bed at 9 pm every evening, and plays video games for one hour before turning out the light for sleep. What is causing him to have trouble falling asleep? • A. His exercise routine • B. Coffee • C. His bedtime • D. Video games 968 • Robert goes to the gym every day after work from 4-5 pm, drinks coffee with breakfast and lunch, goes to bed at 9 pm every evening, and plays video games for one hour before turning out the light for sleep. What is causing him to have trouble falling asleep? • A. His exercise routine • B. Coffee • C. His bedtime • D. Video games 969 • Adults need 6-9 hours of sleep each night, but how much sleep per night is recommended for high school students? • A. Under 6 hours • B. 7 hours • C. 9 hours • D. 11 hours 970 • Adults need 6-9 hours of sleep each night, but how much sleep per night is recommended for high school students? • A. Under 6 hours • B. 7 hours • C. 9 hours • D. 11 hours 971 • The American Cancer Society recommends that at age 50, all Americans should have what type of screening exam? • A. Brain scan • B. Colonoscopy • C. Mammogram • D. Chest x-ray 972 • The American Cancer Society recommends that at age 50, all Americans should have what type of screening exam? • A. Brain scan • B. Colonoscopy • C. Mammogram • D. Chest x-ray 973 • What is the most effective strategy for the prevention of gum disease? • A. Annual dental x-rays • B. Using Crest toothpaste • C. Changing your toothbrush every • three months • D. Nightly dental flossing 974 • What is the most effective strategy for the prevention of gum disease? • A. Annual dental x-rays • B. Using Crest toothpaste • C. Changing your toothbrush every • three months • D. Nightly dental flossing 975 • Beth is a 47 year-old first grade teacher and wants to stay healthy. What diseaseprevention strategy would be the MOST helpful? • A. Screening for genetic diseases • B. Decreasing her stress • C. Repeating childhood • immunizations • D. Changing from regular cigarettes • to light cigarettes 976 • Beth is a 47 year-old first grade teacher and wants to stay healthy. What diseaseprevention strategy would be the MOST helpful? • A. Screening for genetic diseases • B. Decreasing her stress • C. Repeating childhood • immunizations • D. Changing from regular cigarettes • to light cigarettes 977 • Alternative medical therapies are: • A. New methods of medical care using • technology. • B. Always safe but not always effective. • C. Not traditionally performed in • conventional medical practices. • D. Less expensive and more effective • than conventional medical practices. 978 • Alternative medical therapies are: • A. New methods of medical care using • technology. • B. Always safe but not always effective. • C. Not traditionally performed in • conventional medical practices. • D. Less expensive and more effective • than conventional medical practices. 979 • Margie suffers from tension headaches and prefers not to take drugs or similar products. What complementary therapy MOST LIKELY would her doctor recommend to treat her headaches? • A. Aromatherapy • B. Homeopathy • C. Botanical medicine • D. Reflexology 980 • Margie suffers from tension headaches and prefers not to take drugs or similar products. What complementary therapy MOST LIKELY would her doctor recommend to treat her headaches? • A. Aromatherapy • B. Homeopathy • C. Botanical medicine • D. Reflexology 981 • The focus of treatment using reflexology focuses on what body part? • A. Head • B. Hands • C. Back • D. Feet 982 • The focus of treatment using reflexology focuses on what body part? • A. Head • B. Hands • C. Back • D. Feet 983 • What complementary professional is MOST similar to a conventional medical doctor? • A. Massage therapist • B. Chiropractor • C. Acupuncturist • D. Osteopath 984 • What complementary professional is MOST similar to a conventional medical doctor? • A. Massage therapist • B. Chiropractor • C. Acupuncturist • D. Osteopath 985 • Darla’s doctor explains to Darla that she must take responsibility for her own health, reduce her stress, and improve her attitude about life. What approach to medicine is Darla’s doctor taking? • A. Holistic • B. Biomedical • C. Chiropractic • D. Botanical 986 • Darla’s doctor explains to Darla that she must take responsibility for her own health, reduce her stress, and improve her attitude about life. What approach to medicine is Darla’s doctor taking? • A. Holistic • B. Biomedical • C. Chiropractic • D. Botanical 987 • According to the World Health Organization (WHO), being overweight or obese is a major risk factor for which type of diseases? • A. Chronic diseases like diabetes. • B. Sexually Transmitted diseases • like Gonorrhea. • C. Oral diseases like gum disease. • D. Auditory diseases like hearing • loss. 988 • According to the World Health Organization (WHO), being overweight or obese is a major risk factor for which type of diseases? • A. Chronic diseases like diabetes. • B. Sexually Transmitted diseases • like Gonorrhea. • C. Oral diseases like gum disease. • D. Auditory diseases like hearing • loss. 989 • Healthyamericans.org and their F as in Fat report indicates that the as of 2011, twelve states have the highest percentages of obesity at • A. greater than 50% of the state • population. • B. between 30 and 40% of the state • population. • C. between 20 and 30% of the state • population. • D. between 10 and 20% of the state • population. 990 • Healthyamericans.org and their F as in Fat report indicates that the as of 2011, twelve states have the highest percentages of obesity at • A. greater than 50% of the state • population. • B. between 30 and 40% of the state • population. • C. between 20 and 30% of the state • population. • D. between 10 and 20% of the state • population. 991 • Bob is physically active and burns 3000 calories a day, but he only takes in 2100 calories a day. Generally speaking, how long will it take Bob to lose one pound of body weight? • A. 1 day • B. 2 days • C. 4 days • D. 8 days 992 • Bob is physically active and burns 3000 calories a day, but he only takes in 2100 calories a day. Generally speaking, how long will it take Bob to lose one pound of body weight? • A. 1 day • B. 2 days • C. 4 days • D. 8 days 993 • Someone who has a psychosomatic illness is described as someone who • A. acquired their illness in a hospital • or health care facility. • B. has physical symptoms that are • caused by what it happening in the • mind. • C. develops a disease that results from • their compromised immune system. • D. pretends to be sick in order to get • drugs or attention. 994 • Someone who has a psychosomatic illness is described as someone who • A. acquired their illness in a hospital • or health care facility. • B. has physical symptoms that are • caused by what it happening in the • mind. • C. develops a disease that results from • their compromised immune system. • D. pretends to be sick in order to get 995 • Nutrition Facts on food labels list total fat, cholesterol and sodium, which should be consumed less often than vitamins and daily values are always based on a • A. 1000 calorie diet. • B. 1500 calorie diet. • C. 2000 calorie diet. • D. 2500 calorie diet. 996 • Nutrition Facts on food labels list total fat, cholesterol and sodium, which should be consumed less often than vitamins and daily values are always based on a • A. 1000 calorie diet. • B. 1500 calorie diet. • C. 2000 calorie diet. • D. 2500 calorie diet. 997 • Technical Skills –Vital signs 998 • A nursing assistant notes a patient’s blood pressure to be 148/96. Which is the BEST action the assistant can take? • A. Tell the patient the blood pressure • reading. • B. Report the reading to the patient’s • nurse. • C. Wait 15 minutes and repeat the • procedure. • D. Immediately repeat the procedure in • the other arm. 999 • A nursing assistant notes a patient’s blood pressure to be 148/96. Which is the BEST action the assistant can take? • A. Tell the patient the blood pressure • reading. • B. Report the reading to the patient’s • nurse. • C. Wait 15 minutes and repeat the • procedure. • D. Immediately repeat the procedure in • the other arm. 1000 • You were assigned to take vital signs on an 80-year-old male nursing home resident who was recently admitted after having a stroke. Vital signs were B/P 130/90, T 99 .40 F, P 92, R 32. Which vital sign reflects a measurement within normal limits? • A. Blood pressure • B. Pulse • C. Respirations • D. Temperature 1001 • You were assigned to take vital signs on an 80-year-old male nursing home resident who was recently admitted after having a stroke. Vital signs were B/P 130/90, T 99 .40 F, P 92, R 32. Which vital sign reflects a measurement within normal limits? • A. Blood pressure • B. Pulse • C. Respirations • D. Temperature 1002 • Of the following, which person is MOST likely to develop hypertension based on risk factors? • A. Underweight 12-year-old Indian • female student • B. Obese 40-year-old African American • male smoker • C. 30-year-old Asian male distance runner • who works as an air traffic controller • D. 45-year-old Caucasian mother of • triplets who is on a low carbohydrate • diet 1003 • Of the following, which person is MOST likely to develop hypertension based on risk factors? • A. Underweight 12-year-old Indian • female student • B. Obese 40-year-old African American • male smoker • C. 30-year-old Asian male distance runner • who works as an air traffic controller • D. 45-year-old Caucasian mother of • triplets who is on a low carbohydrate • diet 1004 • Which patient is the BEST candidate for an oral temperature? • A. 1-year-old healthy infant • B. 16-year-old receiving his annual • physical exam • C. 21-year-old patient on seizure • precautions • D. 62-year-old comatose patient 1005 • Which patient is the BEST candidate for an oral temperature? • A. 1-year-old healthy infant • B. 16-year-old receiving his annual • physical exam • C. 21-year-old patient on seizure • precautions • D. 62-year-old comatose patient 1006 • A patient with tachycardia MOST likely has a/an: • A. Elevated temperature. • B. Elevated blood pressure. • C. Fast pulse. • D. Increased respiratory rate. 1007 • A patient with tachycardia MOST likely has a/an: • A. Elevated temperature. • B. Elevated blood pressure. • C. Fast pulse. • D. Increased respiratory rate. 1008 • The LEAST accurate route for measuring temperature is: • A. Aural.. • B. Axillary. • C. Oral. • D. Rectal. 1009 • The LEAST accurate route for measuring temperature is: • A. Aural.. • B. Axillary. • C. Oral. • D. Rectal. 1010 • Which is considered to be an elevated temperature? • A. Aural 37.2 C • B. Axillary 38.4 C • C. Oral 37 C • D. Rectal 37.8 C 1011 • Which is considered to be an elevated temperature? • A. Aural 37.2 C • B. Axillary 38.4 C • C. Oral 37 C • D. Rectal 37.8 C 1012 • What is the respiratory rate of a patient who is observed to have 16 inspirations and 16 expirations? • A. 8 • B. 16 • C. 32 • D. 64 1013 • What is the respiratory rate of a patient who is observed to have 16 inspirations and 16 expirations? • A. 8 • B. 16 • C. 32 • D. 64 1014 • In a blood pressure measurement of 132/86, the number 86 is the: • A. Bradycardia. • B. Tachycardia. • C. Diastolic. • D. Systolic. 1015 • In a blood pressure measurement of 132/86, the number 86 is the: • A. Bradycardia. • B. Tachycardia. • C. Diastolic. • D. Systolic. 1016 • Before taking vital signs on a patient, what should you do FIRST? • A. Close the privacy curtain. • B. Explain the procedure. • C. Introduce yourself. • D. Place the call bell within reach. 1017 • Before taking vital signs on a patient, what should you do FIRST? • A. Close the privacy curtain. • B. Explain the procedure. • C. Introduce yourself. • D. Place the call bell within reach. 1018 • In order to avoid errors, whose approved list of abbreviations should you use when documenting vital signs? • A. American Medical Association • B. Health Science textbook • C. Board of Nursing • D. Your employer 1019 • In order to avoid errors, whose approved list of abbreviations should you use when documenting vital signs? • A. American Medical Association • B. Health Science textbook • C. Board of Nursing • D. Your employer 1020 • How does the pulse rate and respiratory rate of a healthy toddler compare to that of a healthy 21-year-old? • A. Higher pulse, equal respirations • B. Lower pulse, lower respirations • C. Lower pulse, lower respirations • D. Higher pulse, higher respirations 1021 • How does the pulse rate and respiratory rate of a healthy toddler compare to that of a healthy 21-year-old? • A. Higher pulse, equal respirations • B. Lower pulse, lower respirations • C. Lower pulse, lower respirations • D. Higher pulse, higher • respirations 1022 • The terms, weak and thready, are MOST usually associated with which vital sign measurement? • A. Blood pressure • B. Pulse • C. Respirations • D. Temperature 1023 • The terms, weak and thready, are MOST usually associated with which vital sign measurement? • A. Blood pressure • B. Pulse • C. Respirations • D. Temperature 1024 • The terms, deep or shallow, are MOST usually associated with which vital sign measurement? • A. Blood pressure • B. Pulse • C. Respirations • D. Temperature 1025 • The terms, deep or shallow, are MOST usually associated with which vital sign measurement? • A. Blood pressure • B. Pulse • C. Respirations • D. Temperature 1026 • Which thermometer requires it be “shaken down”? • A. Digital • B. Electronic • C. Glass • D. Tympanic 1027 • Which thermometer requires it be “shaken down”? • A. Digital • B. Electronic • C. Glass • D. Tympanic 1028 • In which procedure is lubricant required? • A. Aural temperature • B. Rectal temperature • C. Blood pressure • D. Pulse/respirations 1029 • In which procedure is lubricant required? • A. Aural temperature • B. Rectal temperature • C. Blood pressure • D. Pulse/respirations 1030 • A febrile patient will exhibit a/an: • A. Elevated pulse. • B. Elevated temperature. • C. Normal pulse. • D. Normal temperature. 1031 • A febrile patient will exhibit a/an: • A. Elevated pulse. • B. Elevated temperature. • C. Normal pulse. • D. Normal temperature. 1032 • When taking a pulse, why should the thumb NOT be used? • A. The width of the thumb impedes an • accurate feel for the pulse. • B. The thumb has a pulse and can be • confused with the patient’s pulse. • C. The sensation of the thumb is not as • good as it is in the middle two • fingers. • D. There is more dexterity in the fingers • than there is in the thumb. 1033 • When taking a pulse, why should the thumb NOT be used? • A. The width of the thumb impedes an • accurate feel for the pulse. • B. The thumb has a pulse and can be • confused with the patient’s pulse. • C. The sensation of the thumb is not as • good as it is in the middle two • fingers. • D. There is more dexterity in the fingers • than there is in the thumb. 1034 • Which statement about the size of a blood pressure cuff is TRUE? • A. The bladder of the cuff needs to • cover about 80% of the • circumference of the arm. • B. Cuffs should cover about 80% of • the length of the upper arm. • C. Blood pressure cuffs are indicated • by the age of the patient. • D. Except for infant cuffs, all adults use • the same size cuff. 1035 • Which statement about the size of a blood pressure cuff is TRUE? • A. The bladder of the cuff needs to • cover about 80% of the • circumference of the arm. • B. Cuffs should cover about 80% of • the length of the upper arm. • C. Blood pressure cuffs are indicated • by the age of the patient. • D. Except for infant cuffs, all adults use • the same size cuff. 1036 •First Aid 1037 • Which statement about responding to an emergency is TRUE? • A. Once the scene is considered safe, it is okay to • move a patient before administering first aid. • B. When approaching a conscious victim, identify • yourself and express your intent to provide • assistance. • C. Good Samaritan Laws are the same in each state • and can be used in all emergencies. • D. Medic Alert bracelets and necklaces are not • considered important in most emergencies. 1038 • Which statement about responding to an emergency is TRUE? • A. Once the scene is considered safe, it is okay to • move a patient before administering first aid. • B. When approaching a conscious victim, identify • yourself and express your intent to provide • assistance. • C. Good Samaritan Laws are the same in each state • and can be used in all emergencies. • D. Medic Alert bracelets and necklaces are not • considered important in most emergencies. 1039 • Which of the following indicates a lifethreatening emergency? • A. A red, swollen and painful ankle, victim • can wiggle toes • B. Alert victim complaining of pain in the • jaw and a nosebleed. • C. Bright red bleeding from the neck which • is spurting • D. A burn on the forearm which is • moderately red, but not blistered 1040 • Which of the following indicates a lifethreatening emergency? • A. A red, swollen and painful ankle, victim • can wiggle toes • B. Alert victim complaining of pain in the • jaw and a nosebleed. • C. Bright red bleeding from the neck which • is spurting • D. A burn on the forearm which is 1041 • moderately red, but not blistered The BEST reason for immobilizing a • broken bone is to: • A. Assist with walking. • B. Decrease swelling. • C. Prevent further injury. • D. Reduce pain 1042 The BEST reason for immobilizing a • broken bone is to: • A. Assist with walking. • B. Decrease swelling. • C. Prevent further injury. • D. Reduce pain 1043 • After making sure the scene is safe, what should be the NEXT action when approaching a victim found to be lying on the floor? • A. Check to see if the victim is responsive. • B. Begin giving ventilations to the victim. • C. Call 9-1-1. • D. Call your doctor 1044 • After making sure the scene is safe, what should be the NEXT action when approaching a victim found to be lying on the floor? • A. Check to see if the victim is responsive. • B. Begin giving ventilations to the victim. • C. Call 9-1-1. • D. Call your doctor 1045 • Which of the following are MOST likely signs of inadequate circulation? • A. Coughing and talking • B. Bruising of the extremities • C. Reddish tint near the affected injury • D. Bluish color around the nose and • mouth • 1046 • Which of the following are MOST likely signs of inadequate circulation? • A. Coughing and talking • B. Bruising of the extremities • C. Reddish tint near the affected injury • D. Bluish color around the nose and • mouth • 1047 • A person eating dinner begins to cough loudly. What should be done NEXT? • A. Give an abdominal thrust. • B. Leave the victim to call 9-1-1. • C. Encourage the victim to continue • to cough forcefully. • D. Give solid slaps between the • victim’s shoulder blades. 1048 • A person eating dinner begins to cough loudly. What should be done NEXT? • A. Give an abdominal thrust. • B. Leave the victim to call 9-1-1. • C. Encourage the victim to • continue to cough forcefully. • D. Give solid slaps between the • victim’s shoulder blades. 1049 • Which describes the correct hand position when giving abdominal thrusts? • A. Put your arms around the victim and • clasp hands. • B. Make fists with both hands, wrap • arms around victim. • C. With arms around victim, make a fist • with one hand, cover with other • hand. • D. Keep both hands flat against the • abdomen, just above the naval. 1050 • Which describes the correct hand position when giving abdominal thrusts? • A. Put your arms around the victim and • clasp hands. • B. Make fists with both hands, wrap • arms around victim. • C. With arms around victim, make a fist • with one hand, cover with other • hand. • D. Keep both hands flat against the • abdomen, just above the naval. 1051 • • • • • • • • • • Which statement is TRUE about shock? A. All victims, regardless of injuries, should be treated for shock. B. Increased pulse and respirations, and low blood pressure, are symptoms of shock. C. Keeping a shock victim calm and comfortable is a myth. D. As long as a victim is conscious, he/she is not in shock. 1052 • Which statement is TRUE about shock? • A. All victims, regardless of injuries, • should be treated for shock. • B. Increased pulse and respirations, • and low blood pressure, are symptoms • of shock. • C. Keeping a shock victim calm and • comfortable is a myth. • D. As long as a victim is conscious, • he/she is not in shock. 1053 • A man with pain in the jaw, dizziness, shortness of breath and heartburn MOST likely is experiencing a: • A. Seizure • B. Stroke • C. Heart attack • D. Kidney stone 1054 • A man with pain in the jaw, dizziness, shortness of breath and heartburn MOST likely is experiencing a: • A. Seizure • B. Stroke • C. Heart attack • D. Kidney stone 1055 • Which action is correct for controlling a nosebleed? • A. Have the victim lie flat and pinch • nostrils closed. • B. Have the victim lie flat and apply • pressure over bridge of the nose. • C. Have the victim sit up and pinch • nostrils closed. • D. Have the victim sit up and apply • pressure over the bridge of the nose. 1056 • Which action is correct for controlling a nosebleed? • A. Have the victim lie flat and pinch • nostrils closed. • B. Have the victim lie flat and apply • pressure over bridge of the nose. • C. Have the victim sit up and pinch • nostrils closed. • D. Have the victim sit up and apply • pressure over the bridge of the nose. 1057 • Placing a person in the supine position and elevating the legs are correct actions to prevent: • A. Fainting. • B. Seizures. • C. Headaches. • D. Vomiting. 1058 • Placing a person in the supine position and elevating the legs are correct actions to prevent: • A. Fainting. • B. Seizures. • C. Headaches. • D. Vomiting. 1059 • The main goal when attending a person who is having a seizure is: • A. Enlisting the help from others. • B. Monitoring the vital signs. • C. Keeping the person safe. • D. Preventing additional seizures. 1060 • The main goal when attending a person who is having a seizure is: • A. Enlisting the help from others. • B. Monitoring the vital signs. • C. Keeping the person safe. • D. Preventing additional seizures. 1061 • If a rescuer observes a foreign object protruding from a victim’s body, which action is BEST? • A. Remove the object, hold pressure for • 15 minutes, then apply a pressure • bandage. • B. Immobilize the object by taping • dressings in place around the object. • C. Leave the object in place and wash • with disinfectant soap. • D. Pull the object slightly until it is • stabilized. 1062 • If a rescuer observes a foreign object protruding from a victim’s body, which action is BEST? • A. Remove the object, hold pressure for • 15 minutes, then apply a pressure • bandage. • B. Immobilize the object by taping • dressings in place around the object. • C. Leave the object in place and wash • with disinfectant soap. • D. Pull the object slightly until it is • stabilized. 1063 • The initial treatment for most major burns consists of applying: • A. An adhesive dressing. • B. Cool water. • C. Ice. • D. An antibiotic ointment. 1064 • The initial treatment for most major burns consists of applying: • A. An adhesive dressing. • B. Cool water. • C. Ice. • D. An antibiotic ointment. 1065 • You have just witnessed a victim having a seizure with severe shaking of arms and legs. Immediately following the seizure what action should be taken NEXT? • A. Offer fluid • B. Call 9-1-1 • C. Check for breathing • D. Check victim’s medications 1066 • You have just witnessed a victim having a seizure with severe shaking of arms and legs. Immediately following the seizure what action should be taken NEXT? • A. Offer fluid • B. Call 9-1-1 • C. Check for breathing • D. Check victim’s medications 1067 • A colleague complains of blurred vision, headache, and facial numbness. You notice slurred speech and use of inappropriate words. You think your colleague MIGHT be having a(an): • A. Heart attack. • B. Migraine headache. • C. Seizure. • D. Stroke. 1068 • A colleague complains of blurred vision, headache, and facial numbness. You notice slurred speech and use of inappropriate words. You think your colleague MIGHT be having a(an): • A. Heart attack. • B. Migraine headache. • C. Seizure. • D. Stroke. 1069 • What is the correct action for a body part which has been accidently amputated? • A. Rinse with water, wrap it in moistened • cloth and place in container with ice • and water. • B. Place the part directly on ice and place • it in plastic bag. • C. Tape the part onto the victim’s body, • near the affected area. • D. Rinse the part with water, wrap in a • clean, dry bandage, transport it to the • pathology lab. 1070 • What is the correct action for a body part which has been accidently amputated? • A. Rinse with water, wrap it in moistened • cloth and place in container with ice • and water. • B. Place the part directly on ice and place • it in plastic bag. • C. Tape the part onto the victim’s body, • near the affected area. • D. Rinse the part with water, wrap in a • clean, dry bandage, transport it to the • pathology lab. 1071 • CPR is indicated during an emergency when the rescuer notes the victim: • A. To be nonresponsive, but breathing. • B. To be responsive, but respirations less • than 10. • C. Is not breathing and has no pulse. • D. Is breathing and has a slow, weak • pulse. 1072 • CPR is indicated during an emergency when the rescuer notes the victim: • A. To be nonresponsive, but breathing. • B. To be responsive, but respirations less • than 10. • C. Is not breathing and has no pulse. • D. Is breathing and has a slow, weak • pulse. 1073 •Information Technology 1074 • 1. What term describes the process of recording observations and information about patients in a health care setting? • A. Transcription • B. Coding • C. Charting • D. Admitting 1075 • 1. What term describes the process of recording observations and information about patients in a health care setting? • A. Transcription • B. Coding • C. Charting • D. Admitting 1076 • A physician visits a patient in the hospital. Where would the physician document what she/he noted about the patient during the visit? • A. Statistical data sheet • B. Progress notes • C. Graphic sheet • D. Physician’s orders 1077 • A physician visits a patient in the hospital. Where would the physician document what she/he noted about the patient during the visit? • A. Statistical data sheet • B. Progress notes • C. Graphic sheet • D. Physician’s orders 1078 • What is often included on a medical history form? • A. Consent for surgical procedures • B. Treatments provided for the patient and • the patient’s response • C. Insurance identification • D. Allergies 1079 • What is often included on a medical history form? • A. Consent for surgical procedures • B. Treatments provided for the patient and • the patient’s response • C. Insurance identification • D. Allergies 1080 • When can medical records be released to a patient’s husband? • A. When the patient has given written • permission. • B. Any time the husband makes a written • request. • C. When the insurance coverage is in his • name. • D. When the wife is under the age of 18. 1081 • When can medical records be released to a patient’s husband? • A. When the patient has given written • permission. • B. Any time the husband makes a written • request. • C. When the insurance coverage is in his • name. • D. When the wife is under the age of 18. 1082 • A nurse notes that Mrs. Jones tolerates her bath better after receiving pain medication thirty minutes before the bath. When using the SOAP method, where would the nurse document the recommendation to give pain medication 30 minutes before the bath? • A. S • B. O • C. A • D. P 1083 • A nurse notes that Mrs. Jones tolerates her bath better after receiving pain medication thirty minutes before the bath. When using the SOAP method, where would the nurse document the recommendation to give pain medication 30 minutes before the bath? • A. S • B. O • C. A • D. P 1084 • Which of the following is a disadvantage of using computerized medical records? • A. Cost of converting to the system. • B. Legibility of charting. • C. Information can be recorded • more quickly. • D. Records are in digital format. 1085 • Which of the following is a disadvantage of using computerized medical records? • A. Cost of converting to the system. • B. Legibility of charting. • C. Information can be recorded • more quickly. • D. Records are in digital format. 1086 • What would a medical assistant do with a CMS 1500 form? • A. Record the patient’s past medical • history. • B. File for reimbursement from a patient’s • health insurance provider. • C. Request an opinion about the patient’s • medical care from another physician. • D. Obtain informed consent for a surgical • procedure. 1087 • What would a medical assistant do with a CMS 1500 form? • A. Record the patient’s past medical • history. • B. File for reimbursement from a • patient’s health insurance provider. • C. Request an opinion about the patient’s • medical care from another physician. • D. Obtain informed consent for a surgical • procedure. 1088 • What does a CPT code tell an insurance company? • A. The patient’s group identification • number. • B. The name and medical license number • of a patient’s physician. • C. The patient’s prognosis. • D. The specific procedure performed on • the patient. 1089 • What does a CPT code tell an insurance company? • A. The patient’s group identification • number. • B. The name and medical license number • of a patient’s physician. • C. The patient’s prognosis. • D. The specific procedure performed • on the patient. 1090 • What communication method is usually used by health care agencies for daily communication with insurance companies? • A. Pagers • B. Cell phones • C. U.S. mail • D. E-mail 1091 • What communication method is usually used by health care agencies for daily communication with insurance companies? • A. Pagers • B. Cell phones • C. U.S. mail • D. E-mail 1092 • An imaging center wishes to send a CT scan report to a physician’s office. What should accompany the report? • A. A copy of the patient’s insurance • information • B. A cover sheet • C. A CMS-1500 form • D. A statistical data form 1093 • An imaging center wishes to send a CT scan report to a physician’s office. What should accompany the report? • A. A copy of the patient’s insurance • information • B. A cover sheet • C. A CMS-1500 form • D. A statistical data form 1094 • What type of software program is usually used for financial record management in a healthcare setting? • A. Database • B. Spreadsheet • C. Word processor • D. Operating system 1095 • What type of software program is usually used for financial record management in a healthcare setting? • A. Database • B. Spreadsheet • C. Word processor • D. Operating system 1096 • What is an example of the use of technology for patient monitoring at a local pharmacy? • A. Blood pressure machine • B. Pharmacy database • C. Electronic cash register • D. Pulse oximetry 1097 • What is an example of the use of technology for patient monitoring at a local pharmacy? • A. Blood pressure machine • B. Pharmacy database • C. Electronic cash register • D. Pulse oximetry 1098 • What diagnostic imaging technique uses sound waves that are interpreted by a computer? • A. EKG • B. MRI • C. CT Scan • D. Ultrasonography 1099 • What diagnostic imaging technique uses sound waves that are interpreted by a computer? • A. EKG • B. MRI • C. CT Scan • D. Ultrasonography 1100 • What technology would be the MOST helpful to residents in a remote village in Alaska? • A. Database • B. Telemedicine • C. Medical Robotics • D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging 1101 • What technology would be the MOST helpful to residents in a remote village in Alaska? • A. Database • B. Telemedicine • C. Medical Robotics • D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging 1102 • What do MRIs, CT scans, and medical sonography have in common? • A. They are non-invasive • B. They all use x-rays • C. They are examples of medical robotics • D. They were discovered in the 1990s 1103 • What do MRIs, CT scans, and medical sonography have in common? • A. They are non-invasive • B. They all use x-rays • C. They are examples of medical robotics • D. They were discovered in the 1990s 1104 • Using a computer arm to perform microscopic surgery is an example of: • A. Medical robotics. • B. Cardiac monitoring. • C. Stress testing. • D. Bioinformatics. 1105 • Using a computer arm to perform microscopic surgery is an example of: • A. Medical robotics. • B. Cardiac monitoring. • C. Stress testing. • D. Bioinformatics. 1106 • What health professional would MOST LIKELY use bioinformatics? • A. An EMT • B. A neurosurgeon • C. A biomedical equipment technician • D. A genetic counselor 1107 • What health professional would MOST LIKELY use bioinformatics? • A. An EMT • B. A neurosurgeon • C. A biomedical equipment technician • D. A genetic counselor 1108 • Computers are regularly used for diagnostic purposes in the hospital: • A. Pharmacy. • B. Operating room. • C. Laboratory. • D. Physical therapy department. 1109 • Computers are regularly used for diagnostic purposes in the hospital: • A. Pharmacy. • B. Operating room. • C. Laboratory. • D. Physical therapy department. 1110 • Most medical practices use a specialized software program for: • A. Communicating with patients via • cell phones. • B. Taking to patients online. • C. Scheduling appointments. • D. Ordering medical supplies. 1111 • Most medical practices use a specialized software program for: • A. Communicating with patients via • cell phones. • B. Taking to patients online. • C. Scheduling appointments. • D. Ordering medical supplies. 1112 • What agency uses bioinformatics to maintain records of pharmaceutical research? • A. CDC • B. FDA • C. OSHA • D. EPA 1113 • What agency uses bioinformatics to maintain records of pharmaceutical research? • A. CDC • B. FDA • C. OSHA • D. EPA 1114 • What type of computer does not require a mouse or keyboard for input? • A. Laptop • B. Touchscreen • C. PC • D. Greenscreen 1115 • What type of computer does not require a mouse or keyboard for input? • A. Laptop • B. Touchscreen • C. PC • D. Greenscreen 1116 • What is the recommended process for medical offices when submitting a CMS1500 claim form? • A. Mailed paper form • B. Fax • C. Email attachment • D. Electronic submission 1117 • What is the recommended process for medical offices when submitting a CMS1500 claim form? • A. Mailed paper form • B. Fax • C. Email attachment • D. Electronic submission 1118 • Which of the following is an example of a secondary storage system for computers? • A. Mouse • B. Hard drive • C. Flash drive • D. Keyboard 1119 • Which of the following is an example of a secondary storage system for computers? • A. Mouse • B. Hard drive • C. Flash drive • D. Keyboard 1120 • When you respond to an email from your direct supervisor, you should always: • A. Use proper grammar and punctuation. • B. Use the same acronyms you use when emailing friends. • C. Select “reply all” when responding. • D. Use all caps. 1121 • When you respond to an email from your direct supervisor, you should always: • A. Use proper grammar and punctuation. • B. Use the same acronyms you use when emailing friends. • C. Select “reply all” when responding. • D. Use all caps. 1122 • Social networking regularly creates what negative opportunity for youth? • A. Sexting • B. Texting and driving • C. Cyberbullying • D. Online gaming 1123 • Social networking regularly creates what negative opportunity for youth? • A. Sexting • B. Texting and driving • C. Cyberbullying • D. Online gaming 1124

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