Survey
* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
Spinal Anatomy 1. Taste fibers lie within which nucleus: a. Nucleus solitarius – sensory nucleus for CN VII, IX, X b. Red nucleus – in midbrain; rubrospinal tract does the proximal muscles of the upper extremity c. Lentiform nucleus – part of globus pallidus that inhibits thalamus d. Caudate nucleus -- part of globus pallidus that inhibits thalamus 2. What is the dermatome level of the xiphoid process: a. T-4 – nipple b. T-6 c. T-8 d. T-10 – umbilicus 3. Which part of a rib is most easily broken: a. Neck b. Head c. Tubercle d. Shaft – “angle” would be better answer 4. Through which opening does the vertebral artery enter the skull: a. Foramen magnum b. Jugular foramen – CN IX, X, XI, jugular vein c. Foramen lucerum – nothing goes through it; it closes in adult life d. Hypoglossal canal – CN XII 5. The neonatal spheno-occipital joint is classified as a ______________ joint. a. Syndesmosis b. Synchondrosis c. Diarthrodial d. Symphysis 6. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for taste sensation from the palate: a. V – general sensation, anterior 1/3 b. VII – taste from hard and soft palate and anterior 2/3 of tongue c. IX – posterior 1/3 taste and sensation d. X – epiglottis, and there is some taste there 7. Afferent fibers for taste from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue pass through which of the following openings: a. Jugular foramen b. Foramen ovale c. Rotate to the max; oval man; spin the middle Foramen rotundum – maxillary Foramen ovale – mandibular Foramen spinosum – middle meningeal 8. The optic canal passes through the __________ of the sphenoid bone a. greater wing b. lesser wing c. petrous portion d. sella turcica ophthalmic artery and optic nerve pass through optic canal through greater wing of sphenoid 9. In which part of the spine are the intervertebral foramen directed anterior and inferior: a. Cervical – 45 degrees anterior, 15 degrees inferior b. Thoracic – lateral c. Thoracolumbar – lateral d. Lumbar – lateral 10. The inferior border of the intervertebral foramena is formed by the a. Vertebral body b. Intervertebral disc c. Ligamentum flava d. Superior vertebral notch Superior and inferior – pedicles (vertebral notches are on pedicles) Posterior – facet Anterior – vertebral body 11. Which feature of a typical vertebra functions as a lever arm for the attached musculature: a. Pedicle b. Lamina c. Transverse process d. Mammillary process semi-spinalis, multifidus, rotators: subluxation muscles; considered contralateral rotators; more recently, considered basically receptors 12. The groove for the vertebral artery is located on which of the following vertebrae: a. C-1 – sulcus arterio vertebralis b. C-2 c. C-6 d. C-7 C-1 nerve innervates the suboccipital muscles and the vertebral artery Suboccipital muscle that attaches to the dura: rectus capitus posterior minor C-2 – greater occipital 13. What is the orientation of the superior articular facets in the lumbar spine: a. Posteromedial b. Posterior c. Posterolateral d. Posterior to superior Cervical spine, inferior facets: AIL (anterior, inferior, lateral); Thoracics: AIM (anterior, inferior, medial) Lumbars: AIL Superior facets: BUM, BUL, BUM 14. Which of the following ribs articulates with a full costal facet on the vertebral body: a. T-3 b. T-6 c. T-9 d. T-12 Ribs 1, 10, 11, 12 articulate with a full costal facet Rib always articulates with the same level vertebral body and the one above 15. Cranial nerve VII does not innervate which of the following muscles a. Frontalis b. Masseter c. Buccinator d. Mentalis Muscles of mastication: TIME 16. Paralysis of the superior oblique muscle will result in inability to move the eye in which of the following directions: a. Inferior and lateral b. Inferior and medial c. Superior and lateral d. Superior and medial 17. The muscles of mastication are derived from which of the following: a. Mesoderm of the pharynx b. Ectoderm of the mouth c. Neural crest cells of pharyngeal arch 2 d. Mesoderm of pharyngeal arch 1 1st arch: CN V 2nd arch: CN VII 3rd arch: CN IX 4th arch: CN X 5th arch: CN X and recurrent laryngeal 18. Which of the following spinal levels innervates the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder and stimulates bladder emptying: a. L-1, L-2 b. T-10, T-11 c. L-5, S-1 d. S-2 to S-4 – parasympathetic; pelvic splanchnics; all the other splanchnics are sympathetic 19. Which branch of the pudendal nerve supplies the levator ani muscle: a. Perineal b. Inferior rectal c. Middle rectal d. Dorsal penial S2-S4 keeps it off the floor (poo and penis/clitoris) 20. Which of the following innervates the dura mater, posterior longitudinal ligament, the intervertebral disc at the level the nerve enters and the intervertebral disc above: a. Ventral root b. White rami c. Dorsal root d. Recurrent meningeal nerve Comes off the ventral root, re-enters the IVF and innervates the dura, PLL, and disc 21. Which of the following ligaments attaches to the spinous process: a. Posterior longitudinal b. Anterior longitudinal c. Flaval d. Nuchal 22. Which of the following ligaments attaches the sacrum to the ischium: a. Anterior sacroiliac b. Posterior sacroiliac c. Interosseous sacroiliac d. Sacrotuberous – makes up floor of lesser sciatic foramen; attaches sacrum to ischial tuberosity e. Sacrospinous – divides greater and lesser sciatic foramen; goes from sacrum to ischial spine lesser sciatic foramen PIANO – pudendal nerve, internal pudendal artery, nerve to obturator internus greater sciatic foramen – piriformis, sciatic nerve, gluteal nerves and arteries (inferior to glut max; superior to glut min, med) sciatic nerve passes through piriformis in 20% of people 23. Which of the following ligaments limits rotation in the upper cervical spine: a. Tectorial – is the posterior longitudinal ligament above C2 (PLL turns into tectorial above C2) b. Alar – limits rotation; goes from occipital condyles to the lateral grooves of dens/odontoid c. Apical – from anterior foramen magnum to tip of dens d. Transverse – from anterior arch of atlas around back of dens to the other arch of atlas 24. Which ligament connects adjacent laminae: a. Capsular – around joints b. Posterior longitudinal – back of bodies c. Flaval d. Nuchal – supraspinous ligament above C7 25. Which of the following ligaments attaches the basilar portion of the occiput to the posterior body of C-2: a. Anterior atlanto-occipital b. Apical c. Posterior atlanto-occipital d. Atlanto cruciform – transverse and cruciate ligaments 26. Which of the following ligaments is responsible for the prevention of hyperflexion in the cervical spine: a. Anterior longitudinal b. Alar c. Tectorial membrane (PLL in cervical spine) d. Transverse ligament of atlas PLL limits flexion Alar limits rotation ALL limits extension Transverse prevents anterior translation of atlas 27. Which sinus drains into the internal jugular vein: a. Greater petrosal b. Lesser petrosal c. Sigmoid d. Cavernous 28. Which of the following arteries supplies the pre-motor cortex: a. Anterior and middle cerebral – frontal lobe; everything in the frontal lobe is supplied by anterior cerebral artery with 1 exception: Broca’s speech area, which is in the inferior frontal lobe and supplied by middle cerebral artery b. Anterior and posterior cerebral c. Middle and posterior cerebral d. Middle and internal carotid Middle cerebral artery goes to temporal and parietal lobes Posterior cerebral artery goes to occipital lobe Internal carotid becomes the anterior and middle cerebrals 29. Cerebrospinal fluid in the lateral ventricles flows next to the ______________. a. Third ventricle b. Fourth ventricle c. Foramen Lushka d. Cerebral aqueduct 30. Leptomeninges are composed of: a. Pia and dura b. Dura and arachnoid c. Pia and arachnoid d. Periosteum and dura Pachymeninges = dura mater 31. Which of the following cells are phagocytes in the central nervous system: a. Oligodendrocytes – myelinate b. Microglia – phagocytes in CNS c. Astrocytes – blood brain barrier d. Monocytes – blood born phagocytes; turn into macrophages when they get to tissues e. Macrophages – tissue phagocytes 32. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the dorsal primary rami: a. Teres minor b. Trapezius c. Rhomboid major d. Longissimus 33. Entrapment of the superficial peronial nerve at the fibular head causes loss of which function: a. Eversion of the foot b. Inversion of the foot c. Dorsiflexion of the foot d. Flexion of the great toe 34. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve: a. Stylopharyngeus – only swallowing muscle not innervated by vagus b. Palatopharyngeus c. Salpingopharyngeus d. Genioglossus 35. Which of the following does not contribute to the pupillary reflex: a. Pretectal area b. Edinger Westphal nucleus c. Ciliary body – parasympathetic d. Lateral geniculate body – for vision, but it’s in the thalamus and not involved in reflex e. Medial geniculate body – hearing 36. (Which of the following nerves, if disrupted, would interrupt bladder function) Disruption of the bladder epithelium is transmitted by which of the following nerves: a. Greater splanchnic b. Lesser splanchnic c. Least splanchnic d. Pelvic splanchnics General to bladder is L1-L2 37. Which of the following are found in the olfactory epithelium: a. Unipolar neuron of the optic b. Unipolar neuron of the trigeminal c. Amiotic neurons of Moll glands d. Bipolar neurons 38. Damage to the vestibulococchlear nerve may result in which of the following symptoms: a. Dysarthria – difficulty speaking b. Dysphagia – difficulty swallowing c. Vertigo d. Hoarseness of speech – often recurrent laryngeal, innervated by CN X 39. Which nerve has been disrupted if sensation to the medial knee, ankle and foot have been lost: a. Sural – comes off of tibial nerve; sensory to lateral leg b. Medial sural branch of the femoral c. Femoral cutaneous d. Saphenous nerve – sensory nerve that comes off of femoral nerve and innervates medial side of leg, ankle, and foot e. Deep fibular – sensory to dorsum of foot 40. Which of the following ligaments holds the dens against the anterior arch: a. Transverse fibers of the cruciform ligament b. Superior fibers of the cruciform ligament c. Inferior fibers of the cruciform ligament d. Alar ligament 41. Which of the following is the most common cause of alteration in dermatomes: a. Cutaneous nerves b. Spinal nerves c. 3 consecutive spinal roots d. cranial nerves e. this is a stupid question A dermatome is an area of skin innervated by a single spinal nerve 42. Which of the following is a primary ossification center: a. Pedicle b. Neural arch c. Transverse process d. Mammillary process Primary ossification centers: body, and 2 neural arches Secondary: 2 endplates, 2 TVP’s, spinous 43. Which of the following is not a synovial joint: a. Sternoclavicular b. Coracoclavicular c. Temporomandibular d. Costovertebral 44. Which motor nerve is part of the accommodation reflex: a. Optic b. Abducens c. Ophthalmic d. Oculomotor Accommodation – far to near vision; pupil constricts 45. Where do the preganglionic sympathetic fibers originate? a. Anterior horn b. Posterior horn c. Intermediolateral cell column – T1-L2 d. Substantia gelatinosa Immune organs only have sympathetic innervation 46. Which of the following cells line the central canal: a. Oligodendrocytes b. Ependymal cells c. Astrocytes d. Microglia 47. Which of the following ligaments prevents hyperextension of the back? a. Anterior longitudinal – hyperextension b. Posterior longitudinal – flexion c. Ligamentum flavum – flexion d. Supraspinous ligament – flexion 48. Which of the following ligaments is a continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament: a. Anterior atlanto-occipital b. Tectorial c. Ligamentum nuchae d. Posterior atlanto-axial 49. The neurohypophysis is derived from which of the following: a. Diencephalon b. Telencephalon c. Mesencephalon d. Metencephalon Neurohypophysis is posterior pituitary; derived from neural ectoderm; continuation of hypothalamus; connected via infundibular stalk; does not make hormone, but stores ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin Anterior pituitary, aka Rathke’s pouch, = oral ectoderm 50. The fovea dentalis is located on which of the following vertebrae: a. C-1 b. C-2 c. C-3 d. C-4 Fovia dentalis is the back of anterior arch/tubercle of C1 and articulates with dens 51. Which of the following makes up the blood-brain barrier: a. Astrocytes b. Ependymal cells – produces CSF c. Oligodendrocytes d. Schwann cells – myelin in PNS 52. Which cranial nerve supplies taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue: a. V b. VII c. IX d. X 53. Which of the following muscles is involved in adduction? a. Supraspinatus – abduction b. Infraspinatus – external rotation c. Subscapularis d. Teres minor – external rotation 54. The dorsal scapular nerve does not innervate which of the following muscles: a. Rhomboid minor b. Rhomboid major c. Serratus posterior superior – not a brachial plexus muscle, so it’s dorsal rami d. Levator scapulae 55. The dorsal root ganglion is derived from which part of the neural tube: a. Ectoderm b. Endoderm c. Mesoderm d. Neural crest cells – anything outside cord itself 56. ________________ is the action of the medial pterygoid muscle: a. lifts the soft palate – palotopharyngeus (CN X) b. retraction of the jaw – lateral pterygoid c. closing of the mandible d. protrusion of the mandible Lateral pterygoid is the only muscle that opens the jaw; also protrudes and retracts it; all others close jaw Digastrics – raise hyoid bone in swallowing; assist in opening jaw Anterior belly of digastric – CN V Posterior belly – CN VII 57. Which of the following forms the anterior border of the intervertebral foramen: a. Vertebral body b. Pedicle c. Laminae d. Articular pillar 58. Which of the following muscles has its origin on the C-2 spinous process and inserts into the occiput: a. Rectus capitis posticus major b. Rectus capitis posticus minor – attaches to dura; implicated in migraines c. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique 59. Which structure is located at the junction of the metencephalon and myelencephalon: a. Pontine flexure b. Colic flexure c. Cervical flexure d. Midbrain flexure Pons is between metencephalon and myelencephalon; cervical flexure is between medulla and cervical spine; midbrain flexure is b/w mesencephalon and diencephalons 60. In which direction do the superior articulating facets face in the thoracic spine: a. Posterolateral b. Posteromedial c. Anterolateral d. Anteromedial 61. A lesion of the dorsal scapular nerve prevents which of the following actions: a. Arm abduction b. Arm extension c. Retraction of the scapula d. Protraction of the scapula – serratus anterior 62. Which of the following is responsible for the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid: a. Oligodendrocytes b. Ependymal cells – cells in choroids plexus; produce CSF c. Choroid plexus – produces CSF d. Arachnoid villi 63. The optic bud is derived from which of the following: a. Forebrain b. Midbrain c. Hindbrain – met and myelin d. Metencephalon 64. The caudate nucleus, globus pallidus and putamen are all parts of the: a. Basal ganglia b. Pyramidal motor system c. General sensory distribution d. Special sensory distribution Basal ganglia inhibit thalamus; thalamus fires cortex; lesion to basal ganglia leads to lack of inhibition to cortex (tremors, Parkinson’s…) 65. An outgrowth from the anterior superior iliac spine will produce loss of sensation over which of the following parts of the thigh: a. Anterolateral b. Superolateral c. Anteromedial d. Posterior ASIS – sartorius (weaver’s muscle) AIIS – rectus femoris 66. Which of the following will cause contralateral rotation of deep muscles when contracted: a. Semispinalis b. Iliocostalis c. Longissimus d. Spinalis 67. In which part of the brain are the basal ganglia located: a. Telencephalon b. Diencephalons c. Mesencephalon d. Metencephalon 68. Which of the following muscles originates from the mammillary processes in the lumbar spine: a. Longissimus lumborum b. Iliocostalis c. Rotators d. Multifidus – subluxation muscle 69. Certain types of fibers that are parallel in the cerebellum synapse with which of the following cells: a. Mossy – become parallel fibers; intertwine b/w Purkinje b. Climbing – perpendicular to mossy and Purkinje; source: inferior olive c. Golgi d. Purkinje – in cerebellar cortex; synapse with deep cerebellar nuclei 70. Which of the following originates in the inferior olivary nucleus and projects to the cerebellum: a. Climbing fibers b. Corticospinal fibers c. Spinothalamic fibers d. Rubrospinal fibers 71. Where do the climbing fibers originate? a. Inferior olivary nucleus b. Superior olivary nucleus c. Vestibular nucleus d. Purkinje cells 72. What is the location of the lesion that produces bilateral hemianopsia: a. Optic radiation b. Optic tract c. Optic chiasm d. Optic nerve Temporal fields of vision are affected; pituitary tumor 73. With right lateral lumbar flexion, which way will the vertebral body rotate: a. Left rotation b. Right rotation c. Left lateral d. Right lateral Lateral flexion, body goes into convexity and spinous goes into concavity 74. The sensation of vibration is carried by the spinal cord to which of the following parts of the thalamus: a. Ventral posterolateral – vibration from body and limbs b. Ventral posteromedial – from face c. Ventral lateral d. Ventral medial 75. The alpha motor neurons originate from the a. Anterior horn b. Posterior horn – sensory; afferent pathway c. Lateral horn – sympathetics; IML d. Posterior fasciculus – dorsal columns; general sensory Classic disease of anterior horn: Lou Gehrig’s disease 76. The greater splanchnic nerve contains fibers which are considered to be: a. Preganglionic sympathetic b. Postganglionic sympathetic c. Preganglionic parasympathetic d. Postganglionic parasympathetic Greater splanchnics – T-5-T9 Lesser – T10-T11 Least – T11-T12 77. The deltoid ligament is located ______ relative to the ankle. a. Medial 78. Taste fibers pass through which of the following foramina in the skull: a. Hypoglossal canal b. Foramen ovale c. Internal auditory meatus d. Foramen spinosum 79. The superior articulating facets in the cervical spine face in the _______________. a. Anterior and superior b. Anterior and inferior c. Posterior and superior d. Posterior and inferior